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AP PGECET 2025 Food Technology Question Paper with Solution PDF

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Dipanwita Pramanik

Content Writer | Updated On - Nov 19, 2025

AP PGECET 2025 Food Technology Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download. AP PGECET 2025 Food Technology Question Paper consists of 120 questions carrying 1 mark each.

AP PGECET 2025 Food Technology Question Paper with Solution PDF 

AP PGECET 2025 Food Technology Question Paper with Solution PDF  Download PDF Check Solutions
AP PGECET 2025 Food Technology Question Paper with Solution PDF



Question 1:

Which of the following is an essential fatty acid that must be obtained from the diet?

  • (A) Stearic acid
  • (B) Oleic acid
  • (C) Linoleic acid
  • (D) Palmitic acid
Correct Answer: (C) Linoleic acid
View Solution




An essential fatty acid is one that the body cannot synthesize on its own and must be acquired through diet.


Stearic acid and palmitic acid are saturated fatty acids, which are non-essential as the body can produce them.


Oleic acid is a monounsaturated fatty acid that is also non-essential.


Linoleic acid is a polyunsaturated omega-6 fatty acid that the human body cannot create from other substances.


Therefore, linoleic acid is an essential fatty acid.
Quick Tip: Remember the two key essential fatty acids: Linoleic Acid (LA), an omega-6, and Alpha-Linolenic Acid (ALA), an omega-3. All other fatty acids can be synthesized by the body if these two are present in the diet.


Question 2:

Which mineral is essential for hemoglobin formation and the prevention of anemia?

  • (A) Calcium
  • (B) Iron
  • (C) Iodine
  • (D) Sodium
Correct Answer: (B) Iron
View Solution




Hemoglobin is the iron-containing protein in red blood cells that is responsible for transporting oxygen.


The core of the hemoglobin molecule's heme group is a single atom of iron (Fe).


This iron atom is what reversibly binds to oxygen, making it indispensable for oxygen transport.


A deficiency in dietary iron impairs hemoglobin synthesis, leading to iron-deficiency anemia.


Calcium is for bones, iodine for thyroid function, and sodium for fluid balance.
Quick Tip: Associate key minerals with their primary function: Iron with blood and oxygen (hemoglobin), Calcium with bones and teeth, Iodine with the thyroid gland, and Sodium with nerve function and fluid balance.


Question 3:

Which mineral is required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones and prevents goiter?

  • (A) Zinc
  • (B) Iron
  • (C) Iodine
  • (D) Selenium
Correct Answer: (C) Iodine
View Solution




The thyroid gland produces hormones like thyroxine (T4) that regulate metabolism.


Iodine is an essential and integral component of these thyroid hormones.


If iodine intake is insufficient, the thyroid cannot produce enough hormones.


In response, the thyroid gland enlarges in an attempt to capture more iodine, causing a swelling known as a goiter.


Therefore, adequate iodine intake is necessary for thyroid hormone synthesis and goiter prevention.
Quick Tip: In nutritional science, the term "goiter" is almost exclusively linked to iodine deficiency. The fortification of table salt with iodine is a common public health measure to prevent this condition.


Question 4:

The green color of leafy vegetables is due to the pigment:

  • (A) Chlorophyll
  • (B) Carotene
  • (C) Lycopene
  • (D) Anthocyanin
Correct Answer: (A) Chlorophyll
View Solution




Pigments are substances that absorb specific wavelengths of light.


Chlorophyll, the pigment essential for photosynthesis, absorbs red and blue light strongly but reflects green light.


This reflection of green light is what gives plants and leafy vegetables their characteristic green appearance.


Carotene imparts an orange color, lycopene a red color, and anthocyanin a red, purple, or blue color.


Hence, the green color is specifically attributed to chlorophyll.
Quick Tip: Associate colors with common food pigments: Green \(\rightarrow\) Chlorophyll. Orange/Yellow \(\rightarrow\) Carotenoids (like carotene). Red \(\rightarrow\) Lycopene/Anthocyanins. Blue/Purple \(\rightarrow\) Anthocyanins.


Question 5:

Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is used in foods to enhance which taste sensation?

  • (A) Bitter
  • (B) Sour
  • (C) Umami
  • (D) Astringency
Correct Answer: (C) Umami
View Solution




Umami is recognized as the fifth basic taste, alongside sweet, sour, salty, and bitter.


It is described as a savory, meaty, or brothy flavor.


Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is a food additive that is the sodium salt of glutamic acid.


MSG functions as a flavor enhancer by directly stimulating the umami receptors on the tongue.


This enhances the overall savory profile of the food.
Quick Tip: Umami is the "fifth taste." When you see a question about MSG or savory flavor enhancement, the answer is almost always umami. Natural sources of umami include Parmesan cheese, mushrooms, and soy sauce.


Question 6:

Enzymatic browning in cut apples is primarily caused by which enzyme?

  • (A) Amylase
  • (B) Polyphenol oxidase
  • (C) Protease
  • (D) Lipase
Correct Answer: (B) Polyphenol oxidase
View Solution




When an apple is cut, its cells are damaged, exposing their internal contents to oxygen in the air.


The apple tissue contains an enzyme called polyphenol oxidase (PPO).


In the presence of oxygen, PPO catalyzes the oxidation of phenolic compounds present in the apple.


This reaction produces quinones, which then polymerize to form dark-colored pigments (melanins), causing the cut surface to turn brown.


Amylase, protease, and lipase are digestive enzymes that break down starches, proteins, and fats, respectively.
Quick Tip: Remember the three components needed for enzymatic browning: an enzyme (Polyphenol Oxidase), a substrate (phenolic compounds), and oxygen. Removing or inactivating any of these (e.g., by adding lemon juice or blanching) can prevent browning.


Question 7:

Which of the following nutrients should contribute the most calories in a balanced diet?

  • (A) Proteins
  • (B) Fats
  • (C) Carbohydrates
  • (D) Vitamins
Correct Answer: (C) Carbohydrates
View Solution




A balanced diet requires energy from macronutrients: carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.


General dietary guidelines, such as the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDRs), provide recommendations for caloric intake.


The AMDR for carbohydrates is 45-65% of total daily calories.


The AMDR for fats is 20-35%, and for proteins is 10-35%.


Vitamins are micronutrients and do not provide calories.


Based on these ranges, carbohydrates should be the largest source of calories in a healthy, balanced diet.
Quick Tip: Recall the caloric values per gram: Carbohydrates = 4 kcal/g, Proteins = 4 kcal/g, Fats = 9 kcal/g. While fats are the most calorie-dense, dietary guidelines recommend carbohydrates as the largest percentage of total daily caloric intake.


Question 8:

During the bacterial growth curve, the phase in which bacteria multiply at the fastest rate is the:

  • (A) Lag phase
  • (B) Exponential (log) phase
  • (C) Stationary phase
  • (D) Death phase
Correct Answer: (B) Exponential (log) phase
View Solution




The bacterial growth curve describes the four phases of growth in a closed system.


The Lag phase is a period of adaptation with no significant increase in cell number.


The Exponential (or log) phase is characterized by rapid, exponential cell division as conditions are optimal. This is when the growth rate is maximal.


The Stationary phase occurs when nutrient depletion or waste accumulation slows growth; the rate of cell division equals the rate of cell death.


The Death phase is when the death rate exceeds the division rate, leading to a population decline.


Thus, the fastest multiplication occurs in the exponential (log) phase.
Quick Tip: Visualize the bacterial growth curve. The "log phase" is the steep, upward-sloping part of the curve, representing exponential growth. This is the period of most rapid multiplication.


Question 9:

Botulism, a severe form of food poisoning, is caused by a toxin produced by:

  • (A) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (B) Clostridium botulinum
  • (C) Salmonella botulinum
  • (D) Escherichia coli
Correct Answer: (B) Clostridium botulinum
View Solution




Botulism is a serious illness caused by the botulinum neurotoxin.


This toxin is produced by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum.


C. botulinum is an anaerobic (thrives in low-oxygen conditions) and spore-forming bacterium.


It poses a significant risk in improperly canned or preserved foods, where the anaerobic environment allows its spores to germinate and produce the deadly toxin.


The other bacteria listed cause different foodborne illnesses, but not botulism. "Salmonella botulinum" is not a valid bacterial name.
Quick Tip: Associate Clostridium botulinum with two key features: it produces a deadly neurotoxin (botulism) and it thrives in anaerobic (oxygen-free) environments, making it a major concern for improperly canned foods.


Question 10:

Yogurt is produced by the fermentation of milk using:

  • (A) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • (B) Acetobacter aceti
  • (C) Lactobacillus bulgaricus (with Streptococcus thermophilus)
  • (D) Penicillium roqueforti
Correct Answer: (C) Lactobacillus bulgaricus (with Streptococcus thermophilus)
View Solution




Yogurt is a fermented milk product.


The fermentation process is carried out by a specific bacterial starter culture.


This culture typically consists of a symbiotic blend of Lactobacillus delbrueckii subsp. bulgaricus and Streptococcus thermophilus.


These bacteria ferment the lactose in milk into lactic acid, which lowers the pH, causing the milk proteins to coagulate and form yogurt's texture.


Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a yeast for bread, Acetobacter aceti is a bacterium for vinegar, and Penicillium roqueforti is a mold for blue cheese.
Quick Tip: For yogurt, always look for the combination of Lactobacillus and Streptococcus. These two bacteria work as a team to create the typical taste and texture of yogurt.


Question 11:

Aflatoxin, a dangerous natural toxin found in moldy peanuts, is produced by:

  • (A) Aspergillus flavus
  • (B) Clostridium perfringens
  • (C) Lactococcus lactis
  • (D) Rhizopus stolonifer
Correct Answer: (A) Aspergillus flavus
View Solution




Aflatoxins are a type of mycotoxin (toxins produced by fungi).


They are known to be potent carcinogens and can cause acute liver damage.


These toxins are primarily produced by two species of mold: Aspergillus flavus and Aspergillus parasiticus.


These molds commonly grow on crops such as peanuts, corn, and cottonseed, especially under warm and humid conditions.


Therefore, Aspergillus flavus is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Associate "Aflatoxin" with "Aspergillus flavus" and common substrates like peanuts and corn. It's one of the most well-known and dangerous mycotoxins in food safety.


Question 12:

Soy sauce is traditionally produced using a fermentation starter culture of:

  • (A) Aspergillus oryzae
  • (B) Lactobacillus acidophilus
  • (C) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • (D) Propionibacterium shermanii
Correct Answer: (A) Aspergillus oryzae
View Solution




The traditional production of soy sauce involves a crucial first stage of fermentation using a mold culture.


This mold starter is known as "koji".


The specific mold used to make koji for soy sauce is Aspergillus oryzae.


Aspergillus oryzae is grown on a mixture of steamed soybeans and roasted wheat, where it produces enzymes that break down proteins and starches, which is essential for the later stages of fermentation.


The other organisms listed are used for different fermentations: Lactobacillus for dairy, Saccharomyces for bread/beer, and Propionibacterium for Swiss cheese.
Quick Tip: Remember the term "koji" for Japanese fermentation. The mold Aspergillus oryzae is the key ingredient for making koji, which is the foundation for soy sauce, miso, and sake.


Question 13:

Which of the following is used as a starter culture for cheese production (to ferment lactose into lactic acid)?

  • (A) Lactococcus lactis
  • (B) Penicillium roqueforti
  • (C) Acetobacter aceti
  • (D) Rhizopus oligosporus
Correct Answer: (A) Lactococcus lactis
View Solution




The primary step in most cheese production is the acidification of milk.


This is achieved by adding starter cultures of lactic acid bacteria (LAB).


These bacteria consume lactose (milk sugar) and convert it into lactic acid through fermentation.


Lactococcus lactis is one of the most important and widely used species of LAB in the dairy industry for making cheeses like cheddar and cottage cheese.


Penicillium roqueforti is a mold for ripening blue cheese, Acetobacter aceti produces vinegar, and Rhizopus oligosporus is used for making tempeh.
Quick Tip: For cheese starter cultures, think "Lactic Acid Bacteria." Look for names starting with Lacto-, such as Lactococcus or Lactobacillus. They are responsible for the initial fermentation of lactose.


Question 14:

Using a high concentration of salt or sugar helps preserve foods mainly by:

  • (A) Lowering the pH significantly
  • (B) Adding a sterilizing effect
  • (C) Reducing the water activity
  • (D) Providing a surface sanitizer
Correct Answer: (C) Reducing the water activity
View Solution




Microorganisms require available water to grow and carry out metabolic functions.


Water activity (a_w) is a measure of this available water in a food product.


Adding high concentrations of solutes like salt or sugar binds water molecules.


This binding process reduces the amount of free water available for microbes, thus lowering the water activity of the food.


When the water activity is lowered below the minimum required for microbial growth, the microorganisms cannot multiply, and the food is preserved. This process is based on osmosis.
Quick Tip: Food preservation by salt (curing) or sugar (jams) works on the same principle: lowering water activity (a\_w). High solute concentration draws water out of microbial cells, inhibiting their growth.


Question 15:

Which of these bacteria forms heat-resistant spores and can survive inadequate cooking, potentially causing food poisoning?

  • (A) Bacillus cereus
  • (B) Lactobacillus casei
  • (C) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (D) Vibrio cholerae
Correct Answer: (A) Bacillus cereus
View Solution




Some bacteria, including species of Bacillus and Clostridium, can form endospores.


Spores are dormant, tough structures that are highly resistant to heat, chemicals, and radiation.


Bacillus cereus is a soil bacterium that can contaminate a wide range of foods, especially starchy foods like rice.


Its spores can survive normal cooking temperatures. If the cooked food is then held at an improper temperature (the "danger zone"), the spores can germinate into vegetative cells, which multiply and produce toxins that cause food poisoning.


The other bacteria listed (Lactobacillus, Staphylococcus, Vibrio) do not form spores.
Quick Tip: When a question mentions "heat-resistant spores" and food poisoning, the most likely culprits are Bacillus cereus (associated with rice) or Clostridium perfringens (associated with meats and gravies).


Question 16:

"Golden rice," a genetically modified variety of rice, has been engineered to be rich in:

  • (A) Vitamin A
  • (B) Vitamin B12
  • (C) Iron
  • (D) Protein
Correct Answer: (A) Vitamin A
View Solution




Golden Rice is a variety of rice (Oryza sativa) produced through genetic engineering.


It was developed as a public health intervention to combat Vitamin A deficiency, which is prevalent in regions where rice is a staple food.


The rice is engineered to biosynthesize beta-carotene, a precursor of Vitamin A, in the edible parts of the grain.


The beta-carotene gives the grains a characteristic yellow-orange or "golden" color.


The human body converts beta-carotene into Vitamin A.
Quick Tip: Associate "Golden Rice" directly with Vitamin A. The "golden" color comes from beta-carotene, which is the pro-vitamin A pigment that also makes carrots orange.


Question 17:

Parboiling is a processing technique commonly associated with which cereal grain?

  • (A) Wheat
  • (B) Maize
  • (C) Rice
  • (D) Oats
Correct Answer: (C) Rice
View Solution




Parboiling is a hydrothermal treatment applied to paddy (unhusked rice) before milling.


The process involves three main steps: soaking the paddy in water, steaming it, and then drying it.


This process gelatinizes the starch in the grain and forces water-soluble nutrients, particularly B vitamins and minerals from the bran layer, into the starchy endosperm.


As a result, parboiled rice retains more nutrients after milling compared to regular white rice and has a firmer, less sticky texture when cooked.
Quick Tip: Parboiling is a specific process for rice (paddy). Its main benefit is nutritional: it drives vitamins from the bran into the grain before the bran is removed during milling.


Question 18:

High-Temperature-Short-Time (HTST) pasteurization of milk is typically conducted at:

  • (A) 63°C for 30 minutes
  • (B) 72°C for 15 seconds
  • (C) 100°C for 5 minutes
  • (D) 135°C for 1 second
Correct Answer: (B) 72°C for 15 seconds
View Solution




Pasteurization is a heat treatment process designed to kill pathogenic microorganisms in foods like milk.


High-Temperature-Short-Time (HTST) is the most common method of pasteurization used in the dairy industry.


The legally defined standard for HTST pasteurization of milk in many countries, including under FDA guidelines, is to heat the milk to a minimum of 72°C (161°F) and hold it continuously at that temperature for at least 15 seconds.


The option 63°C for 30 minutes describes the older Low-Temperature-Long-Time (LTLT) or batch pasteurization method. The higher temperatures describe ultra-pasteurization or UHT processing.
Quick Tip: Memorize the key pasteurization parameters for milk: LTLT (batch) is 63°C for 30 min, while HTST (continuous) is 72°C for 15 sec. These are very common numbers in food processing questions.


Question 19:

If cereal grains are stored with too high moisture content, which is a likely outcome?

  • (A) Increased germination during storage
  • (B) Mold growth and spoilage
  • (C) Improved shelf-life
  • (D) Higher protein content
Correct Answer: (B) Mold growth and spoilage
View Solution




Safe storage of cereal grains depends on keeping the moisture content below a critical level.


High moisture content creates a high water activity (a_w) environment.


This high water activity is ideal for the growth of microorganisms, especially molds (fungi).


The growth of molds leads to spoilage, loss of nutrients, off-flavors, and potentially the production of harmful mycotoxins (like aflatoxin).


Therefore, mold growth and spoilage is the most direct and serious consequence of storing grains with high moisture.
Quick Tip: For safe grain storage, the key is to keep it dry. Moisture is the enemy because it enables the growth of spoilage microorganisms, particularly molds.


Question 20:

The process of "malting" barley (for brewing or malted foods) involves:

  • (A) Sprouting the barley grains to activate enzymes
  • (B) Roasting the grains at high temperature
  • (C) Fermenting the grains with yeast
  • (D) Grinding the grains into flour
Correct Answer: (A) Sprouting the barley grains to activate enzymes
View Solution




Malting is a controlled process that prepares cereal grains, primarily barley, for use in brewing and distilling.


The process has three main stages: steeping, germination, and kilning.


During steeping, the barley is soaked in water to raise its moisture content.


During germination, the moist barley is allowed to sprout under controlled conditions. This step is crucial as it activates and synthesizes enzymes, such as \(\alpha\)-amylase and \(\beta\)-amylase.


These enzymes are necessary to break down the starches and proteins in the grain into simpler, fermentable sugars and amino acids during the brewing process (mashing).


Kilning (drying) halts germination and develops flavor and color.
Quick Tip: The core purpose of malting is to "wake up" the grain's natural enzymes. Think of it as controlled sprouting (germination) to create the enzymes needed to convert starch to sugar later on.


Question 21:

Freezing foods very quickly (such as in blast freezers) is beneficial because it:

  • (A) Freezes only the water, leaving food components unfrozen
  • (B) Creates smaller ice crystals, preserving texture
  • (C) Can sterilize the food completely
  • (D) Adds a protective ice glaze to the food
Correct Answer: (B) Creates smaller ice crystals, preserving texture
View Solution




The quality of frozen food is heavily influenced by the size of the ice crystals that form.


When food is frozen slowly, water molecules have time to migrate and form large, sharp, irregular ice crystals. These large crystals can puncture and damage the cell walls of the food.


Upon thawing, this cellular damage leads to significant moisture loss (drip loss) and a mushy, poor texture.


Quick freezing, in contrast, causes numerous small ice crystals to form simultaneously and uniformly throughout the food tissue. These small crystals cause much less damage to the cell structure.


As a result, the food retains its texture, flavor, and moisture much better after thawing. Freezing does not sterilize food; it only slows microbial growth.
Quick Tip: For freezing, remember: Quick freeze = Small crystals = Less cell damage = Better quality. Slow freeze = Large crystals = More cell damage = Poor quality.


Question 22:

Using a multiple-effect evaporator in food concentrate production is mainly to:

  • (A) Improve the color of the product
  • (B) Increase the boiling point in each stage
  • (C) Save energy by reusing heat in successive stages
  • (D) Add flavors during evaporation
Correct Answer: (C) Save energy by reusing heat in successive stages
View Solution




An evaporator is used to concentrate liquid foods by boiling off water. This is an energy-intensive process.


A multiple-effect evaporator consists of a series of evaporators, or "effects".


The liquid is fed into the first effect, which is heated by steam. The water vapor generated from the boiling liquid in the first effect is then used as the heating source for the second effect.


The second effect is operated at a lower pressure, which allows the liquid to boil at a lower temperature.


This process continues through the series. By reusing the latent heat of vaporization from one effect to the next, a multiple-effect evaporator drastically reduces the total steam required compared to a single-effect evaporator, thereby saving a significant amount of energy.
Quick Tip: The key principle of a multiple-effect evaporator is energy efficiency. It reuses the vapor (steam) from one stage to heat the next stage. More "effects" means more energy savings.


Question 23:

°Brix is a measurement of a solution's:

  • (A) Sugar concentration
  • (B) Acidity level
  • (C) Protein content
  • (D) Salt content
Correct Answer: (A) Sugar concentration
View Solution




Degrees Brix (°Bx) is a unit of measurement for the total soluble solids (TSS) content of an aqueous solution.


One degree Brix is defined as 1 gram of sucrose in 100 grams of solution.


In the food industry, especially for fruit juices, wine, carbonated beverages, and jams, the soluble solids are predominantly sugars.


Therefore, °Brix is widely used as a direct and convenient approximation of the sugar concentration.


It is typically measured with a refractometer or a hydrometer.
Quick Tip: When you see °Brix (or Brix), immediately think "sugar content." It's the standard industry measure for sugar in liquid products like juice and soft drinks.


Question 24:

A common refrigerant used in large-scale food refrigeration systems (such as cold storage facilities) is:

  • (A) Chlorine gas
  • (B) Ammonia (NH3)
  • (C) Oxygen
  • (D) Carbon dioxide snow
Correct Answer: (B) Ammonia (NH3)
View Solution




Refrigerants are substances used in a refrigeration cycle to absorb heat from a low-temperature space and release it to a higher-temperature environment.


While Freons (CFCs, HCFCs) were common, they are being phased out due to environmental concerns.


Ammonia (designated as R-717) is a natural refrigerant that has been widely used in large-scale industrial and commercial refrigeration for over a century.


It is highly efficient thermodynamically, has a zero ozone depletion potential (ODP) and zero global warming potential (GWP), and is relatively inexpensive.


Due to these advantages, it is the refrigerant of choice for large systems like cold storage warehouses, food processing plants, and ice rinks, despite its toxicity which requires careful handling.
Quick Tip: For large, industrial refrigeration systems, ammonia (NH3) is the classic and still most common answer due to its high efficiency and low environmental impact, even though it is toxic.


Question 25:

Which factor generally increases the efficiency of drying a food product?

  • (A) Greater surface area exposed to air
  • (B) Larger piece size of the food
  • (C) Lower air velocity over the food
  • (D) Higher humidity in the drying air
Correct Answer: (A) Greater surface area exposed to air
View Solution




The drying of food is a mass transfer process where water moves from the interior of the food to its surface and then evaporates into the surrounding air.


The rate of this process is influenced by several factors.


Increasing the surface area of the food (e.g., by slicing, dicing, or shredding) exposes more of the product to the drying air. This creates a larger interface for heat and mass transfer, significantly accelerating the rate of water removal and thus increasing drying efficiency.


Conversely, larger piece size, lower air velocity, and higher humidity would all decrease the drying rate and efficiency.
Quick Tip: To dry something faster, you need to maximize the rate of evaporation. The easiest way to do this is to increase the surface area. Think of how a spread-out wet towel dries faster than a folded one.


Question 26:

Adulteration of turmeric with metanil yellow is:

  • (A) Beneficial for nutrition
  • (B) Permitted under food law
  • (C) Illegal and a health hazard
  • (D) Used to enhance natural flavor
Correct Answer: (C) Illegal and a health hazard
View Solution




Adulteration is the act of intentionally debasing the quality of food by adding or substituting inferior substances or removing valuable ingredients.


Metanil yellow is a synthetic, non-permitted coal tar dye. It is sometimes illegally added to turmeric powder to enhance its yellow color and make it look more appealing, especially if the turmeric quality is poor.


Metanil yellow is not a food-grade colorant. It has been shown to be neurotoxic and carcinogenic in studies.


Therefore, its use in food is strictly prohibited by food safety regulations (like FSSAI in India) and is considered a serious health hazard.
Quick Tip: Remember that Metanil Yellow is a non-permitted, industrial dye. Its addition to food, particularly turmeric, is a classic example of illegal adulteration that poses significant health risks.


Question 27:

FSSAI, the national food authority in India, stands for:

  • (A) Food Science Society and Institute
  • (B) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
  • (C) Federation of Safe Food Associations, India
  • (D) Food Sterility and Sanitation Agency of India
Correct Answer: (B) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
View Solution




FSSAI is an autonomous statutory body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.


It is the primary regulatory body responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety in India.


The full form of the acronym FSSAI is the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India.


It consolidates various acts and orders that had previously handled food-related issues in different ministries and departments.
Quick Tip: FSSAI is the main food regulatory body in India. Knowing its full name, Food Safety and Standards Authority of India, is fundamental for any questions related to Indian food laws.


Question 28:

FSMS in food industry discussions stands for:

  • (A) Food Safety Management System
  • (B) Food Storage Monitoring Schedule
  • (C) Federal Standard for Microbiological Safety
  • (D) Food Supply Management Scheme
Correct Answer: (A) Food Safety Management System
View Solution




FSMS is a widely used acronym in the food industry.


It stands for Food Safety Management System.


An FSMS is a systematic and preventive approach to food safety that addresses biological, chemical, and physical hazards.


It encompasses the necessary programs, plans, policies, procedures, practices, and records to control these hazards and ensure that food is safe for consumption.


Well-known frameworks for FSMS include HACCP and ISO 22000.
Quick Tip: Think of FSMS (Food Safety Management System) as the overall umbrella program for ensuring food safety in a company. HACCP is a key tool within an FSMS.


Question 29:

HACCP is a system designed for:

  • (A) Improving the taste of food products
  • (B) Analyzing food cost and pricing
    % C) Identifying and controlling potential hazards in food production
  • (D) Managing inventory in food warehouses
Correct Answer: (C) Identifying and controlling potential hazards in food production
View Solution




HACCP is an acronym that stands for Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points.


It is a systematic, preventive approach to food safety, moving away from traditional end-product testing.


The core principle of HACCP is to identify potential biological, chemical, and physical hazards at specific points within the food production process.


Once these hazards are identified, critical control points (CCPs) are established where actions can be taken to prevent, eliminate, or reduce the hazards to a safe level.


Thus, its primary design is for identifying and controlling potential food safety hazards.
Quick Tip: Break down the HACCP acronym: Hazard Analysis (find what could go wrong) and Critical Control Points (figure out the essential steps to control it). It's a proactive, not reactive, system for food safety.


Question 30:

AGMARK is a certification in India that assures the quality of:

  • (A) Organic milk
  • (B) Gold jewelry
  • (C) Medical devices
  • (D) Agricultural products
Correct Answer: (D) Agricultural products
View Solution




AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India.


The name AGMARK is a portmanteau of "AGricultural" and "MARKeting".


It is issued by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI) of the Government of India.


The AGMARK seal ensures that the product conforms to a set of grade standards and quality specifications prescribed by the DMI.


It covers a wide range of products including cereals, pulses, vegetable oils, spices, and semi-processed foods.


Gold jewelry is certified by BIS (Hallmark), and medical devices have their own regulatory standards.
Quick Tip: Remember the origin of the name: AG-MARK stands for Agricultural Marketing. This directly tells you that the certification applies to agricultural products in India.


Question 31:

Monosaccharides present in stachyose:

  • (A) galc-galc-glc-fruc.
  • (B) glc-fruc-glc-glc
  • (C) galc-glc-fruc-glc
  • (D) glc-galc-glc-fruc
Correct Answer: (A) galc-galc-glc-fruc.
View Solution




Stachyose is a tetrasaccharide, which means it is composed of four simple sugar (monosaccharide) units linked together.


It is part of the raffinose family of oligosaccharides found in beans and other vegetables.


The structure of stachyose consists of two galactose units, one glucose unit, and one fructose unit.


The specific linkage order is galactose-galactose-glucose-fructose.


Using the abbreviations galc (galactose), glc (glucose), and fruc (fructose), this corresponds to the formula galc-galc-glc-fruc.
Quick Tip: Remember the raffinose family of oligosaccharides by their composition: [noitemsep, topsep=0pt] Sucrose = Glucose + Fructose Raffinose = Galactose + Glucose + Fructose Stachyose = Galactose + Galactose + Glucose + Fructose Each step up adds another galactose unit.


Question 32:

The basic difference between myoglobin and haemoglobin is:

  • (A) Phytol group
  • (B) Molecular weight of globin protein
  • (C) Porphyrin ring
  • (D) Central iron atom
Correct Answer: (B) Molecular weight of globin protein
View Solution




Both myoglobin and hemoglobin are oxygen-binding proteins containing a heme group (a porphyrin ring with a central iron atom).


The fundamental structural difference lies in their quaternary structure.


Myoglobin is a monomer, consisting of a single polypeptide (globin) chain.


Hemoglobin is a tetramer, made up of four polypeptide (globin) chains.


Because hemoglobin has four globin chains to myoglobin's one, the total molecular weight of its protein component is significantly larger (approximately four times greater).


The phytol group is part of chlorophyll, not these proteins.
Quick Tip: Think "Myo" = Muscle (stores O\(_2\)), "Hemo" = Blood (transports O\(_2\)). Key difference: Myoglobin is a monomer (1 chain), Hemoglobin is a tetramer (4 chains). Four chains are heavier than one.


Question 33:

Examples of pigments benzopyran derivatives:

  • (A) Chlorophyll and hemes
  • (B) Carotenoids and anthocyanins
  • (C) Anthocyanins and flavonoids
  • (D) Anthocyanins and hemes
Correct Answer: (C) Anthocyanins and flavonoids
View Solution




Benzopyran is a chemical structure consisting of a benzene ring fused to a pyran ring.


Flavonoids are a large class of plant pigments whose basic structure is a C6-C3-C6 skeleton, which includes the benzopyran system.


Anthocyanins, which are responsible for most of the red, purple, and blue colors in plants, are a prominent subclass of flavonoids.


Therefore, both flavonoids and anthocyanins are derivatives of benzopyran.


Chlorophyll and hemes are porphyrin derivatives, and carotenoids are tetraterpenoid derivatives, which have different core structures.
Quick Tip: Associate "flavonoids" and their colorful subgroup "anthocyanins" with the benzopyran chemical structure. These are responsible for most non-green colors in fruits and vegetables.


Question 34:

Examples of prolamins in corn and wheat:

  • (A) Hordein and zein
  • (B) Gliadin and hordein
  • (C) Oryzenin and zein
  • (D) Zein and gliadin
Correct Answer: (D) Zein and gliadin
View Solution




Prolamins are a group of plant storage proteins found in cereal grains, named for their high proline and glutamine content.


The prolamin found in corn (Zea mays) is called zein.


The prolamin found in wheat (Triticum aestivum) is called gliadin.


Hordein is the prolamin in barley (Hordeum vulgare).


Oryzenin is a glutelin (not a prolamin) from rice (Oryza sativa).


Therefore, the correct pair for corn and wheat is zein and gliadin, respectively.
Quick Tip: Match the prolamin name to the plant's scientific name: Zea mays (corn) \(\rightarrow\) Zein. Wheat contains gluten, which is made of gliadin and glutenin. Hordeum vulgare (barley) \(\rightarrow\) Hordein.


Question 35:

Cobalt is a constituent of which vitamin:

  • (A) Vitamin D
  • (B) Vitamin C
  • (C) Vitamin B12
  • (D) Folic acid
Correct Answer: (C) Vitamin B12
View Solution




Vitamin B12 has the chemical name cobalamin.


This name reflects its unique chemical structure among all vitamins.


At the center of the complex corrin ring structure of the Vitamin B12 molecule is a single atom of the mineral cobalt.


It is the only vitamin known to contain a metal element.


Thus, cobalt is an essential constituent of Vitamin B12.
Quick Tip: The name of Vitamin B12, "cobalamin," is a direct giveaway. The "cobal-" prefix refers to the central cobalt atom in its structure.


Question 36:

Deficiency symptoms of minerals iodine and iron:

  • (A) Goitre and anaemia
  • (B) Osteoporosis and osteomalacia
  • (C) Anaemia and osteopenia
  • (D) Goitre and night blindness.
Correct Answer: (A) Goitre and anaemia
View Solution




Iodine is a crucial component of thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism.


A dietary deficiency of iodine leads to insufficient hormone production, causing the thyroid gland to swell, a condition known as goitre.


Iron is an essential component of hemoglobin, the protein in red blood cells that transports oxygen.


A dietary deficiency of iron results in insufficient hemoglobin, leading to a condition called iron-deficiency anaemia.


Osteoporosis is related to calcium deficiency, and night blindness is related to Vitamin A deficiency.
Quick Tip: Create simple, strong associations for mineral deficiencies: Iodine \(\leftrightarrow\) Thyroid/Goitre. Iron \(\leftrightarrow\) Hemoglobin/Anaemia. Calcium \(\leftrightarrow\) Bones/Osteoporosis. Vitamin A \(\leftrightarrow\) Vision/Night Blindness.


Question 37:

Protein efficiency ratio is not based on:

  • (A) Intake of plant protein
  • (B) Intake and output of food protein residues
  • (C) Output of protein
  • (D) Intake of animal protein
Correct Answer: (B) Intake and output of food protein residues
View Solution




Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) is a measure of protein quality.


It is calculated as the weight gain of a test subject divided by their intake of a particular food protein (PER = Weight gain / Protein intake).


The method directly uses the amount of protein consumed (whether plant or animal) and the resulting growth.


It does not measure the amount of protein or nitrogen excreted (the output of protein residues).


Methods that measure both intake and output of protein/nitrogen residues are called nitrogen balance studies, used to calculate Biological Value (BV) and Net Protein Utilization (NPU).


Therefore, PER is not based on the intake and output of food protein residues.
Quick Tip: Remember the formula: PER = Weight Gain / Protein Intake. It's a simple measure of growth. It does not account for what comes out of the body, unlike more complex measures like Biological Value (BV).


Question 38:

Amino acid which can be converted to niacin in the body:

  • (A) Phenylalanine
  • (B) Tyrosine
  • (C) Tryptophan
  • (D) Histidine
Correct Answer: (C) Tryptophan
View Solution




Niacin, also known as Vitamin B3, is an essential nutrient.


While it can be obtained directly from food, the human body also has a metabolic pathway to synthesize it.


This synthesis pathway uses the essential amino acid tryptophan as a precursor.


The body can convert dietary tryptophan into niacin, although the conversion is not highly efficient (about 60 mg of tryptophan yields 1 mg of niacin).


No other amino acid in the given options can be converted to niacin.
Quick Tip: The essential amino acid Tryptophan is a precursor for two important molecules: the neurotransmitter serotonin and the vitamin niacin (B3).


Question 39:

Red or bloody bread results from growth of :

  • (A) Serratia marcescens
  • (B) Bacillus licheniformis
  • (C) Pseudomonas species
  • (D) Endomycopsis
Correct Answer: (A) Serratia marcescens
View Solution




The spoilage defect known as "red bread" or "bloody bread" is characterized by the appearance of bright red spots on starchy foods.


This distinctive coloration is caused by the bacterium Serratia marcescens.


This organism produces a vibrant red pigment called prodigiosin.


When Serratia marcescens contaminates and grows on bread, the colonies produce this pigment, giving the appearance of blood spots.


Other microbes cause different types of spoilage (e.g., ropiness by Bacillus, green rot by Pseudomonas).
Quick Tip: Associate the bacterium Serratia marcescens with its signature red pigment, prodigiosin. This is the classic cause of the "red bread" spoilage phenomenon.


Question 40:

Black rots in eggs are caused by:

  • (A) Serratia species
  • (B) Proteus melanovogenes
  • (C) Alcaligenes
  • (D) Flavobacterium
Correct Answer: (B) Proteus melanovogenes
View Solution




Bacterial spoilage in eggs can result in various types of "rots," identified by their color and odor.


Black rot is characterized by the yolk turning black and a strong putrid smell.


This type of spoilage is caused by hydrogen sulfide (H\(_2\)S) producing bacteria.


Bacteria of the Proteus genus, such as Proteus melanovogenes, are known producers of H\(_2\)S.


The H\(_2\)S gas reacts with the iron in the egg yolk to form ferrous sulfide (FeS), which is a black precipitate, causing the characteristic discoloration.
Quick Tip: For egg spoilage, connect the color to the microbe type: Black Rot \(\leftrightarrow\) Proteus (produces H\(_2\)S). Green Rot \(\leftrightarrow\) Pseudomonas (produces fluorescent pigments). Red Rot \(\leftrightarrow\) Serratia.


Question 41:

Barny flavour in butter is produced by:

  • (A) Yeasts
  • (B) Actinomycetes
  • (C) Enterobacter species
  • (D) Pseudomonas
Correct Answer: (C) Enterobacter species
View Solution




Off-flavors in dairy products like butter are often indicative of microbial contamination.


A "barny" or "cowy" flavor defect is an unclean taste that suggests poor hygiene and contamination from the farm environment.


This specific off-flavor is associated with the growth of coliform bacteria.


Enterobacter species are a type of coliform bacteria. Their metabolic byproducts can impart this undesirable barny flavor to butter.


Other microbes cause different defects: yeasts can cause fruity flavors, and Pseudomonas can cause rancidity.
Quick Tip: "Barny" flavor in dairy products points to contamination with coliform bacteria, which are indicators of poor sanitation. Enterobacter and E. coli are key examples of coliforms.


Question 42:

TA spoilage is caused by:

  • (A) Clostridium perfringens
  • (B) Clostridium botulinum
  • (C) Clostridium nigrificans
  • (D) Clostridium thermosaccharolyticum
Correct Answer: (D) Clostridium thermosaccharolyticum
View Solution




In the context of canned foods, "TA spoilage" is a specific type of spoilage.


The acronym "TA" stands for Thermophilic Anaerobe.


This spoilage is caused by thermophilic (heat-loving) bacteria that grow in anaerobic (oxygen-free) conditions inside a can that has been under-processed or improperly cooled.


Clostridium thermosaccharolyticum is a classic example of such an organism.


It ferments sugars to produce large amounts of hydrogen and carbon dioxide gas, leading to swelling ("hard swell") or bursting of the can.
Quick Tip: Decode the canning spoilage terms: TA = Thermophilic Anaerobe (gas, no acid, e.g., C. thermosaccharolyticum). Flat Sour = Thermophilic (acid, no gas, e.g., Bacillus stearothermophilus). Sulfur Stinker = Thermophilic (H\(_2\)S, e.g., C. nigrificans).


Question 43:

Enterohaemorrhagic E coli (EHEC) sometimes is also known as:

  • (A) Enteropathogenic E coli (EPEC)
  • (B) Verotoxin producing E coli (VTEC)
  • (C) Entero invasive E coli (EIEC)
  • (D) Entero toxigenic E coli (ETEC)
Correct Answer: (B) Verotoxin producing E coli (VTEC)
View Solution




Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) is a pathotype of E. coli that causes severe illness.


The primary virulence factor of EHEC is the production of one or more potent toxins.


These toxins were initially named "Verotoxins" because they are cytotoxic to a cell line used in laboratories called Vero cells.


Therefore, EHEC strains are also known as Verotoxin-producing E. coli (VTEC).


The toxins are also called Shiga-like toxins, so the bacteria are also called STEC (Shiga toxin-producing E. coli). VTEC and STEC are largely synonymous terms.
Quick Tip: The key pathogenic feature of EHEC is its toxin. This toxin is called Verotoxin or Shiga toxin. This leads to the alternative names for the bacterium: VTEC (Verotoxin-producing E. coli) or STEC (Shiga toxin-producing E. coli).


Question 44:

An example of hard cheese:

  • (A) Cottage cheese
  • (B) Roquefort cheese
  • (C) Parmesan cheese
  • (D) Cheddar cheese
Correct Answer: (D) Cheddar cheese
View Solution




Cheeses are classified by firmness, which is related to moisture content.


Cottage cheese is a very soft, fresh, unripened cheese with high moisture.


Roquefort is a semi-hard cheese, made firm by aging but still retaining significant moisture.


Parmesan is classified as an extra-hard or hard-grating cheese, with very low moisture content due to long aging.


Cheddar is a quintessential example of a hard cheese. It is firm, dense, and has a relatively low moisture content compared to soft or semi-hard varieties.


While Parmesan is also hard, Cheddar is the most common example of a standard "hard cheese" among the options.
Quick Tip: Think of cheese firmness on a spectrum: Soft (Cottage Cheese) \(\rightarrow\) Semi-Hard (Roquefort) \(\rightarrow\) Hard (Cheddar) \(\rightarrow\) Extra-Hard (Parmesan). Cheddar is the classic example of a hard cheese.


Question 45:

The bacteria which initiate fermentation of sauerkraut is:

  • (A) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
  • (B) E coli
  • (C) Bacillus species
  • (D) Lactobacillus plantarum
Correct Answer: (A) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
View Solution




Sauerkraut production relies on a natural succession of lactic acid bacteria fermenting cabbage.


The fermentation process is initiated by the species that is most tolerant of the initial conditions (high salt, cool temperature).


Leuconostoc mesenteroides is this key initiating bacterium.


It produces lactic acid, acetic acid, and carbon dioxide. The CO\(_2\) creates an anaerobic environment, and the acids lower the pH.


This modified environment inhibits undesirable microbes and creates ideal conditions for more acid-tolerant species, like Lactobacillus plantarum, to take over in the later stages of fermentation.
Quick Tip: Sauerkraut fermentation is a team effort. Leuconostoc mesenteroides is the "starter" that gets the process going. Later, more acid-tolerant Lactobacillus species "finish" the job.


Question 46:

The ratio of small fish to salt in fish sauce and paste is:

  • (A) 4 parts of fish and 1 part salt
  • (B) 3 parts of fish and 2 parts salt
  • (C) 3 parts of fish and 1 part salt
  • (D) 2 parts of fish and 2 part salt
Correct Answer: (C) 3 parts of fish and 1 part salt
View Solution




The production of traditional fermented fish products like fish sauce and fish paste depends on a high concentration of salt for preservation.


The salt inhibits spoilage microorganisms while allowing the fish's own enzymes (proteases) to break down the fish tissue, a process called autolysis.


This enzymatic action releases amino acids, which create the characteristic savory (umami) flavor.


A typical and traditional ratio used in Southeast Asia for this process is 3 parts fish to 1 part salt by weight.


This results in a final salt concentration high enough (around 25%) to ensure safety and proper fermentation.
Quick Tip: For traditional high-salt fish fermentations, a substantial amount of salt is required to control microbial growth. A 3:1 ratio of fish to salt is a common and effective formulation.


Question 47:

Dehulling is done for which oilseeds:

  • (A) Sunflower
  • (B) Sunflower and soybean
  • (C) Soybean and groundnut
  • (D) Soybean
Correct Answer: (B) Sunflower and soybean
View Solution




Dehulling is the process of removing the outer coat or hull from a seed.


In oilseed processing, this is done to increase the oil yield per unit of material processed and to improve the quality of the resulting protein meal by lowering its fiber content.


Sunflower seeds have a distinct, fibrous hull that is low in oil and is therefore removed before extraction.


Soybeans are also typically dehulled to produce high-protein soybean meal for animal feed, as the hull is high in fiber.


While groundnuts (peanuts) are also de-shelled, the combination of sunflower and soybean represents two major oilseeds where dehulling is a standard and critical industrial practice.
Quick Tip: Dehulling is generally performed on seeds where the outer hull is fibrous, low in oil, and reduces the quality of the final meal. Both sunflower seeds and soybeans fit this description perfectly.


Question 48:

Conventional pulses milling methods followed in India:

  • (A) Wet milling
  • (B) Steam milling
  • (C) Wet and dry milling
  • (D) Wet and steam milling
Correct Answer: (C) Wet and dry milling
View Solution




Milling of pulses (like lentils, chickpeas) in India aims to remove the outer husk and split the grain to produce dal.


Conventional methods are not a single-step process. They involve a combination of techniques.


"Wet" methods involve soaking the pulses in water for a period to soften the husk and loosen its attachment to the cotyledons.


"Dry" methods involve techniques like applying oil, sun drying, and using abrasive rollers to remove the loosened husk.


In practice, many traditional and commercial methods use a sequence that includes both a wetting or conditioning step and a subsequent dry milling step. Therefore, "wet and dry milling" is the most accurate description of the overall conventional process.
Quick Tip: Pulse milling (dal making) is about loosening and removing the husk. This is often achieved by a sequence of wetting (to soften) and drying (to shrink and crack the husk), followed by mechanical abrasion. Thus, it's a "wet and dry" process.


Question 49:

In dal milling industry which of the following is used for conditioning:

  • (A) Oil
  • (B) Water
  • (C) Red earth
  • (D) Oil, water and red earth
Correct Answer: (D) Oil, water and red earth
View Solution




Conditioning in dal milling refers to the pre-treatment of pulses to make husk removal easier.


This is often a multi-stage process involving several agents.


Water is used to moisten the pulses, which helps to soften and loosen the husk.


Oil is frequently applied after a drying step; it penetrates under the husk and helps in its easy separation during the milling operation.


Red earth (a type of clay powder) is used in some traditional methods as a mild abrasive to help scour off the husk during milling and can also help in uniform drying.


Therefore, the comprehensive answer that includes all these common traditional conditioning agents is "Oil, water and red earth".
Quick Tip: Conditioning for dal milling involves a combination of treatments. Water softens the husk, oil helps it slip off, and in traditional methods, red earth acts as an abrasive to help scrub it clean.


Question 50:

Blanching of fruits and vegetables is done:

  • (A) To inactivate enzymes
  • (B) To reduce moisture content
  • (C) To reduce volume to surface area
  • (D) To prevent nutrient loss
Correct Answer: (A) To inactivate enzymes
View Solution




Blanching is a brief heat treatment, usually using hot water or steam, applied to vegetables and some fruits.


It is a critical pre-treatment step before processes like freezing, drying, or canning.


The primary purpose of blanching is to inactivate or denature naturally occurring enzymes within the plant tissues.


Enzymes such as polyphenol oxidase, peroxidase, and lipoxygenase can cause undesirable changes in color, flavor, texture, and vitamin content during storage if not inactivated.


By destroying these enzymes, blanching helps to preserve the overall quality of the processed food.
Quick Tip: The number one reason for blanching is enzyme inactivation. Think of it as "locking in" the quality (color, flavor, nutrients) of vegetables before freezing or canning by stopping the enzymes that would otherwise degrade them.


Question 51:

Which of the following step is not a part of tea processing?

  • (A) Withering
  • (B) Fermentation
  • (C) Rolling
  • (D) Winnowing
Correct Answer: (D) Winnowing
View Solution




The standard manufacturing process for black tea consists of four main steps in sequence.


1. Withering: Freshly plucked leaves are spread out to wilt and reduce moisture content.


2. Rolling: The withered leaves are twisted and broken to rupture cell walls, releasing enzymes.


3. Fermentation (Oxidation): The rolled leaves are exposed to air, allowing enzymes to oxidize catechins, which develops color and flavor.


4. Drying: The leaves are heated to stop oxidation and reduce the final moisture content.


Winnowing is a process used to separate grain from its chaff, and while sorting and grading of tea leaves occur, winnowing is not considered a primary stage of tea processing itself.
Quick Tip: Remember the acronym WRFD for the main steps of black tea processing: Withering \(\rightarrow\) Rolling \(\rightarrow\) Fermentation (Oxidation) \(\rightarrow\) Drying.


Question 52:

Wet processing of coffee bean yields:

  • (A) Parchment coffee
  • (B) Cherry coffee
  • (C) Kerala coffee
  • (D) Ivory coffee
Correct Answer: (A) Parchment coffee
View Solution




Coffee beans are the seeds inside a fruit called a coffee cherry.


Wet processing (also known as the washed method) is a technique to remove the outer layers from the bean.


In this process, the outer skin and pulp are mechanically removed, and the sticky mucilage layer is fermented off.


After washing and drying, what remains is the coffee bean enclosed in a thin, paper-like protective layer called the parchment (endocarp).


This product, the dried bean still in its parchment layer, is known as "parchment coffee".
Quick Tip: Remember the coffee processing terms: "Cherry coffee" is the whole fruit. The "wet process" removes the fruit layers but leaves the "parchment" layer on the bean. The "dry process" dries the entire cherry.


Question 53:

Clove contains:

  • (A) Carveol
  • (B) Indole
  • (C) Clovonol
  • (D) Eugenol
Correct Answer: (D) Eugenol
View Solution




Cloves are the aromatic flower buds of a tree in the family Myrtaceae.


Their characteristic strong, pungent aroma and flavor are due to the presence of an essential oil.


The main chemical component of this essential oil, comprising 70-90% of the total, is eugenol.


Eugenol is an aromatic oily liquid that is responsible for both the scent and the medicinal properties (like being a mild anesthetic) of cloves.
Quick Tip: The distinctive aroma of cloves is almost entirely due to one compound: Eugenol. This compound is so characteristic that it's also used in perfumes and as a flavoring agent in many products.


Question 54:

For smoking of meat which wood is used:

  • (A) Hard wood like hickory, oak, pecan, maple.
  • (B) Soft woods like pine, cedar
  • (C) Sandal wood
  • (D) Semi hard wood like beech
Correct Answer: (A) Hard wood like hickory, oak, pecan, maple.
View Solution




The type of wood used for smoking meat is critical for the final flavor of the product.


Hardwoods from deciduous trees are preferred because they are low in resin and burn slowly and cleanly.


This slow combustion produces a pleasant, aromatic smoke containing compounds that add desirable flavor and color to the meat. Hickory, oak, pecan, maple, and fruitwoods like apple and cherry are classic examples.


Softwoods, such as pine and cedar, contain high levels of flammable resins. When burned, these resins produce a thick, sooty smoke that imparts a bitter, acrid flavor to the food, making it inedible.
Quick Tip: A simple rule for smoking meat: Hardwood is good, softwood is bad. Softwoods contain resins that create a harsh, unpleasant smoke and ruin the food.


Question 55:

Enzyme present in papaya, pineapple and figs:

  • (A) Papain, bromelin
  • (B) Papain bromelin and ficin
  • (C) Ficin
  • (D) Papain
Correct Answer: (B) Papain bromelin and ficin
View Solution




These three fruits are well-known sources of potent proteolytic enzymes, which are enzymes that break down proteins.


The enzyme found in papaya is called papain.


The enzyme found in pineapple is called bromelain.


The enzyme found in figs is called ficin.


The question asks for the enzymes present in all three fruits.


Therefore, the correct answer lists all three: papain, bromelain, and ficin.
Quick Tip: Memorize the fruit-enzyme pairs used as meat tenderizers: Papaya \(\rightarrow\) Papain, Pineapple \(\rightarrow\) Bromelain, Fig \(\rightarrow\) Ficin.


Question 56:

Egg shell is composed of :

  • (A) Calcium carbonate
  • (B) Magnesium carbonate
  • (C) Calcium sulphate
  • (D) Manganese carbonate
Correct Answer: (A) Calcium carbonate
View Solution




The eggshell provides a protective barrier for the egg's contents.


It is a semi-permeable membrane, allowing air and moisture to pass through its pores.


The primary chemical component of the eggshell, making up about 94% of its dry weight, is calcium carbonate (CaCO\(_3\)).


The remaining portion consists of an organic protein matrix and small amounts of other minerals like magnesium carbonate and calcium phosphate.
Quick Tip: Just like limestone and seashells, the hard material of an eggshell is predominantly made of a simple chemical compound: calcium carbonate (CaCO\(_3\)).


Question 57:

As per FSSAI regulation what is the fat content (percent)in whole milk powder:

  • (A) Not less than 26%
  • (B) Not less than 2%
  • (C) Not more than 1.5%
  • (D) Not more than 28%
Correct Answer: (A) Not less than 26%
View Solution




The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) sets the legal standards for food products sold in the country.


According to the Food Safety and Standards (Food Products Standards and Food Additives) Regulations, whole milk powder is defined based on its milk fat and milk solids content.


The standard specifies that the milk fat content in whole milk powder must be "Not less than 26.0 percent" by weight.


The option "Not more than 1.5%" refers to the standard for skimmed milk powder.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference in FSSAI standards: Whole Milk Powder must be high in fat (\(\geq\) 26%), while Skimmed Milk Powder must be very low in fat (\(\leq\) 1.5%).


Question 58:

Milk product obtained by acid coagulation of hot milk and subsequent drainage of whey:

  • (A) Curds
  • (B) Rasogolla
  • (C) Paneer
  • (D) Sandesh
Correct Answer: (C) Paneer
View Solution




This question describes the fundamental manufacturing process for paneer, a type of fresh, unaged, non-melting cheese common in India.


The process involves heating milk to a high temperature (near boiling).


An acidulant (like lemon juice, vinegar, or citric acid) is then added, which causes the major milk protein, casein, to coagulate and separate from the liquid whey.


This solid coagulum is then strained, typically in a cheesecloth, to drain the whey and pressed to form a block of paneer.


Curds (dahi) are made by bacterial fermentation, not direct acid coagulation.
Quick Tip: The key to identifying paneer production is the combination of "heat" and "acid" to coagulate milk. This is different from making dahi/curd, which uses bacterial fermentation at a lower temperature.


Question 59:

Whey proteins are:

  • (A) Gamma globulins, alpha lactglobulins
  • (B) Beta lactglobulins, alpha lactglobulins
  • (C) Casein, lactalbumin
  • (D) Casein, beta lactglobulins
Correct Answer: (A) Gamma globulins, alpha lactglobulins
View Solution




Milk contains two major classes of proteins: caseins and whey proteins.


When milk is coagulated (by acid or rennet), the caseins form the solid curd, and the whey proteins remain dissolved in the liquid whey.


Whey protein is a collective term for several globular proteins. The major ones are beta-lactoglobulin and alpha-lactalbumin.


Minor proteins include immunoglobulins (also known as gamma globulins) and serum albumin.


The keyed answer lists "Gamma globulins" and "alpha lactglobulins" (likely a typo for alpha-lactalbumin). Both are indeed components of the whey protein fraction, making this the correct option as per the provided key.
Quick Tip: Remember the two main protein groups in milk: Caseins (80%, form the curd) and Whey Proteins (20%, remain in the liquid). Major whey proteins are beta-lactoglobulin and alpha-lactalbumin.


Question 60:

Eyes are characteristic feature of:

  • (A) Ice cream
  • (B) Khoa
  • (C) Swiss cheese
  • (D) Cottage cheese
Correct Answer: (C) Swiss cheese
View Solution




In the context of cheese, the term "eyes" refers to the round holes or openings within the cheese body.


These eyes are a hallmark feature of Swiss-type cheeses, such as Emmental.


They are formed during the ripening process by bubbles of carbon dioxide (CO\(_2\)) gas.


The gas is produced by the metabolism of specific starter culture bacteria, most notably Propionibacterium freudenreichii subsp. shermanii.


This bacterium ferments lactic acid into propionic acid, acetic acid, and CO\(_2\). The trapped CO\(_2\) gas forms the characteristic "eyes".
Quick Tip: The "eyes" in Swiss cheese are not made by mice! They are gas bubbles of CO\(_2\) produced by Propionibacterium bacteria during ripening.


Question 61:

Heat transfer by convection occurs in:

  • (A) Solids
  • (B) Solids and liquids
  • (C) Solid surface to liquids and gases
  • (D) Gases
Correct Answer: (C) Solid surface to liquids and gases
View Solution




Heat transfer has three modes: conduction, convection, and radiation.


Convection is the transfer of heat through the bulk movement of fluids (liquids and gases). The fluid molecules move from a hotter region to a colder region, carrying heat with them.


Conduction is the primary mode of heat transfer in solids.


In engineering and food processing, convection typically describes the transfer of heat between a solid boundary and a moving fluid. Examples include boiling water in a pot or baking with a convection oven.


Therefore, the option "Solid surface to liquids and gases" best describes the practical context where heat transfer by convection takes place.
Quick Tip: While convection is the movement of heat within fluids (liquids/gases), in practical applications, it almost always refers to the heat exchange that happens between a solid surface and a moving fluid.


Question 62:

Super-heated steam is produced at:

  • (A) Boiling point
  • (B) Above boiling point
  • (C) Below boiling point
  • (D) At boiling point
Correct Answer: (B) Above boiling point
View Solution




When water is heated at a constant pressure, its temperature rises until it reaches the boiling point (e.g., 100°C at 1 atm).


At the boiling point, further addition of heat converts the liquid water into steam (water vapor) at that same temperature. This is known as saturated steam.


If this saturated steam is separated from the liquid water and heated further, its temperature will increase above the boiling point for that pressure.


This steam, which is at a temperature higher than its saturation temperature, is called superheated steam.
Quick Tip: Think of steam in two stages: 1. Saturated steam is steam at the boiling point. 2. Superheated steam is steam that has been heated even more, to a temperature above the boiling point.


Question 63:

The filter press commonly used in oil mill is:

  • (A) Continuous type pressure filter
  • (B) Continuous type vacuum filter
  • (C) Discontinuous type pressure filter
  • (D) Discontinuous type vacuum filter
Correct Answer: (C) Discontinuous type pressure filter
View Solution




A plate-and-frame filter press is a standard piece of equipment for separating solids from crude vegetable oil in an oil mill.


It operates by pumping the oil slurry under high pressure into a series of chambers lined with filter cloth.


The oil passes through the cloth, while the solid impurities (known as filter cake) are retained.


The process is inherently a batch or discontinuous operation. Once the chambers are filled with cake and the flow of oil slows, the press must be stopped, opened, the cake removed, and then reassembled for the next batch.


Therefore, it is a discontinuous type pressure filter.
Quick Tip: A filter "press" works by squeezing liquid out, leaving a solid cake behind. Because you have to stop the machine to remove this cake, it is a batch or "discontinuous" operation that uses "pressure".


Question 64:

Separation of solids from solid is called as:

  • (A) Filtration
  • (B) Sedimentation
  • (C) Centrifugation
  • (D) Sieving
Correct Answer: (D) Sieving
View Solution




The question asks for a method to separate a mixture consisting only of solids.


Filtration, sedimentation, and centrifugation are all methods used to separate solids from a fluid (a liquid or a gas).


Sieving, also known as sifting, is a mechanical process for separating a mixture of solid particles into different fractions based on their size.


This is done by passing the mixture over a screen or mesh with specific size openings. Particles smaller than the openings pass through, while larger particles are retained.
Quick Tip: Remember the phases involved in separation: separating a solid from a fluid is filtration. Separating solids from other solids based on particle size is sieving.


Question 65:

The milk is \hspace{1cm} to increase the keeping quality so that it does not spoil during distribution.

  • (A) Homogenised
  • (B) Defatted
  • (C) Pasteurized
  • (D) Fortified
Correct Answer: (C) Pasteurized
View Solution




The primary goal of increasing the "keeping quality" or shelf life of milk is to prevent spoilage.


Milk spoilage is mainly caused by the growth of microorganisms.


Pasteurization is a mild heat treatment process specifically designed to kill harmful pathogenic bacteria and significantly reduce the number of spoilage organisms.


By reducing the microbial load, pasteurization makes the milk safe to drink and extends its shelf life under refrigeration.


Homogenization prevents fat separation, defatting removes fat, and fortification adds nutrients; none of these processes are aimed at preventing microbial spoilage.
Quick Tip: The main purpose of pasteurization is to ensure safety and extend shelf life by killing microbes with heat. All other processes like homogenization or fortification serve different purposes.


Question 66:

Instrument used to test specific gravity of milk and adulteration of milk by water:

  • (A) Hydrometer
  • (B) Penetrometer
  • (C) Lactometer
  • (D) Colorimeter
Correct Answer: (C) Lactometer
View Solution




A lactometer is a specialized type of hydrometer.


A hydrometer is an instrument used for measuring the specific gravity (or relative density) of liquids.


The lactometer is specifically calibrated for the range of specific gravities found in milk.


Since water is less dense than milk, adding water will lower the milk's specific gravity.


By measuring the specific gravity with a lactometer and comparing it to the standard value for pure milk, one can quickly and easily detect adulteration by water.
Quick Tip: The prefix "Lacto-" refers to milk. Therefore, a "lactometer" is a meter used to measure a property of milk, specifically its density (specific gravity) to check for added water.


Question 67:

Guidelines for nutritional labelling has been published by:

  • (A) ISO 14000
  • (B) ISO 9000
  • (C) Codex Alimentarius Commission
  • (D) ISO 22000
Correct Answer: (C) Codex Alimentarius Commission
View Solution




The Codex Alimentarius Commission was established by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO).


Its primary mandate is to develop international food standards, guidelines, and codes of practice to protect consumer health and ensure fair practices in the food trade.


Codex has published extensive "Guidelines on Nutrition Labelling" which serve as the global reference point for countries creating their own national labelling laws.


The ISO standards listed relate to environmental management (14000), quality management (9000), and food safety management (22000), not nutrition labelling guidelines.
Quick Tip: For any question about international food standards, guidelines, or codes of practice, the Codex Alimentarius Commission (run by FAO/WHO) is the most likely correct answer.


Question 68:

Turmeric is adulterated with:

  • (A) Auramine
  • (B) Metanil yellow
  • (C) Rhodamine B
  • (D) Orange-II
Correct Answer: (B) Metanil yellow
View Solution




Adulteration of spices with non-permitted colors is a common fraudulent practice.


Turmeric powder is valued for its bright yellow-orange color, which comes from the compound curcumin.


Metanil yellow is a cheap, synthetic, non-permitted coal tar dye with a vibrant yellow color.


It is illegally used as an adulterant to enhance the color of poor-quality or exhausted turmeric powder to make it more appealing to consumers.


Metanil yellow is a known health hazard and its use in food is banned.
Quick Tip: The most infamous and commonly cited adulterant for turmeric powder is Metanil yellow. This is a classic example of economic adulteration using a harmful substance.


Question 69:

ISO9001:2008 Quality Management System deals with:

  • (A) Fundamentals and vocabulary
  • (B) Management
  • (C) Requirements
  • (D) Performance improvement
Correct Answer: (C) Requirements
View Solution




The ISO 9000 family of standards addresses various aspects of quality management.


ISO 9000 lays out the "Fundamentals and vocabulary" for quality management systems.


ISO 9001 specifies the "Requirements" an organization must meet to demonstrate its ability to consistently provide products and services that meet customer and regulatory needs. This is the standard against which organizations are certified.


ISO 9004 provides guidance on achieving sustained success and "Performance improvement".


The question specifically asks about ISO 9001, which is the standard outlining the requirements.
Quick Tip: Remember the roles of the main ISO 9000 standards: ISO 9000 is the "dictionary," ISO 9001 is the "rulebook" for certification (requirements), and ISO 9004 is the "guidebook" for improvement.


Question 70:

Adulterant found in watermelon fruits:

  • (A) Carmo sine
  • (B) Erythrosine
  • (C) Rhodamine B
  • (D) Auramine
Correct Answer: (B) Erythrosine
View Solution




A common form of adulteration involves injecting fruits like watermelon with artificial dyes to make their flesh appear a more intense and uniform red color, thus seeming fresher and more appealing.


Erythrosine, also known as FD\&C Red No. 3, is a synthetic, cherry-pink food dye.


While it is permitted for specific food uses (like coloring maraschino cherries), its injection into fresh fruit is an illegal and fraudulent practice.


It has been identified in many cases as the dye used for adulterating watermelons.
Quick Tip: The injection of artificial colors into fresh produce is a form of adulteration. Erythrosine is a red dye commonly associated with this illegal practice in watermelons to enhance the color of the flesh.


Question 71:

Which of the following statement is true for enantiomers?

  • (A) Optical isomers that are superimposable mirror images
  • (B) Isomers which differ in their configuration around a single carbon atom
  • (C) Stereoisomers that are non-superimposable and non-mirror images
  • (D) Stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images
Correct Answer: (D) Stereoisomers that are non-superimposable mirror images
View Solution




Stereoisomers are molecules that have the same molecular formula and sequence of bonded atoms, but differ in the three-dimensional orientations of their atoms in space.


Enantiomers are a specific type of stereoisomer.


They are defined as pairs of molecules that are mirror images of each other but cannot be superimposed on one another.


A classic analogy is a person's left and right hands – they are mirror images but cannot be perfectly overlapped.


Diastereomers are stereoisomers that are not mirror images of each other (Option C).


Epimers are diastereomers that differ at only one chiral center (Option B).
Quick Tip: The key definition for enantiomers is "non-superimposable mirror images". Think of your hands: they are mirror images, but you can't stack one perfectly on top of the other.


Question 72:

Trehalose is a combination of:

  • (A) Two glucose molecules
  • (B) Two maltose molecules
  • (C) Two lactose molecules
  • (D) Two sucrose molecules
Correct Answer: (A) Two glucose molecules
View Solution




Trehalose is a disaccharide, meaning it is formed from two monosaccharide units.


Specifically, trehalose is formed by the linkage of two \(\alpha\)-glucose molecules.


The bond connects the anomeric carbon of one glucose molecule to the anomeric carbon of the other glucose molecule (\(\alpha\),\(\alpha\)-1,1-glycosidic bond).


This unique linkage makes trehalose a non-reducing sugar.


Maltose is also made of two glucose molecules, but they are linked differently (an \(\alpha\)-1,4 bond), making it a reducing sugar.
Quick Tip: Remember the three common glucose-glucose disaccharides and their linkages: [noitemsep, topsep=0pt] Maltose = glucose + glucose (\(\alpha\)-1,4) Cellobiose = glucose + glucose (\(\beta\)-1,4) Trehalose = glucose + glucose (\(\alpha\),\(\alpha\)-1,1)


Question 73:

The chemical formula of palmitic acid is:

  • (A) CH\(_4\)(CH\(_2\))\(_{14}\)COOH
  • (B) CH\(_3\)(CH\(_2\))\(_{15}\)COOH
  • (C) CH\(_3\)(CH\(_2\))\(_{14}\)COOH
  • (D) CH\(_3\)(CH\(_3\))\(_{14}\)COOH
Correct Answer: (C) CH\(_3\)(CH\(_2\))\(_{14}\)COOH
View Solution




Palmitic acid is a common saturated fatty acid.


Its name indicates that it has 16 carbon atoms in total.


A saturated fatty acid has the general formula CH\(_3\)(CH\(_2\))\(_n\)COOH.


The total number of carbons is n + 2 (one in the CH\(_3\) group, n in the CH\(_2\) groups, and one in the COOH group).


For a 16-carbon fatty acid, we have 16 = n + 2, so n = 14.


Therefore, the formula is CH\(_3\)(CH\(_2\))\(_{14}\)COOH.


Option (B) represents stearic acid (18 carbons), and options (A) and (D) are chemically incorrect.
Quick Tip: To quickly find the formula for a saturated fatty acid, subtract 2 from the total number of carbons to get the number of (CH\(_2\)) units. For palmitic acid (16 carbons), 16 - 2 = 14, so the formula is CH\(_3\)(CH\(_2\))\(_{14}\)COOH.


Question 74:

Tartrazine is an:

  • (A) Food colouring agent
  • (B) Food sweetner
  • (C) Food fortifier
  • (D) Food Preservative
Correct Answer: (A) Food colouring agent
View Solution




Tartrazine is a synthetic lemon yellow azo dye.


It is widely used as a food additive to impart a yellow color to various food products.


It is designated as E number E102 in Europe and FD\&C Yellow No. 5 in the USA.


It is not a sweetener, a fortifier (a substance that adds nutritional value), or a preservative.


Its sole purpose as a food additive is to provide color.
Quick Tip: Tartrazine is one of the most well-known artificial food colors. Associate it with the color yellow and potential allergic reactions in sensitive individuals.


Question 75:

In animals, pantothenic acid is associated with which of the following?

  • (A) Synthesis of cholesterol
  • (B) Synthesis of Coenzyme A
  • (C) Synthesis of thyroid hormones
  • (D) Synthesis of hemoglobin
Correct Answer: (B) Synthesis of Coenzyme A
View Solution




Pantothenic acid is also known as Vitamin B5.


Its primary and most critical role in metabolism is as a component of Coenzyme A (CoA).


Coenzyme A is a fundamental molecule in biochemistry, playing a vital role in the synthesis and oxidation of fatty acids, and the oxidation of pyruvate in the citric acid cycle (Krebs cycle).


Because Coenzyme A is involved in the synthesis of fats, cholesterol is synthesized via pathways involving CoA, but the most direct and fundamental role of pantothenic acid is the synthesis of CoA itself.
Quick Tip: The "A" in Coenzyme A comes from "acetylation." The core function of Vitamin B5 (Pantothenic acid) is to be a part of this vital coenzyme. If you see Vitamin B5, think Coenzyme A.


Question 76:

Limonene is a:

  • (A) Ketone
  • (B) Quinone
  • (C) Terpene
  • (D) Ester
Correct Answer: (C) Terpene
View Solution




Limonene is a naturally occurring chemical compound found in the peels of citrus fruits like oranges and lemons.


It is responsible for their characteristic smell.


Chemically, limonene's structure is built from two isoprene units (C\(_5\)H\(_8\)).


Compounds built from isoprene units are classified as terpenes. Since limonene has two isoprene units (C\(_{10}\)H\(_{16}\)), it is specifically a monoterpene.


It does not contain the functional groups of a ketone, quinone, or ester.
Quick Tip: Terpenes are a large class of natural products responsible for the aroma of many plants. Limonene is the classic example, giving citrus its smell. Remember terpenes are built from isoprene units.


Question 77:

The basic difference between chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b is:

  • (A) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains methyl group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains aldehyde group
  • (B) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains aldehyde group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains methyl group
  • (C) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains carboxylic group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains aldehyde group
  • (D) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains methyl group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains carboxylic group
Correct Answer: (A) In chlorophyll a, pyrrole ring contains methyl group while in chlorophyll b pyrrole ring contains aldehyde group
View Solution




Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b are the two most common types of chlorophyll found in plants.


Their basic structures are very similar, both consisting of a porphyrin ring with a central magnesium atom and a long phytol tail.


The only structural difference between them is a single side group on one of the pyrrole rings (specifically, at the C7 position of the porphyrin ring).


In chlorophyll a, this side group is a methyl group (-CH\(_3\)).


In chlorophyll b, this side group is an aldehyde group (-CHO).


This small change affects the light absorption spectrum of the molecule.
Quick Tip: Remember the difference between chlorophyll a and b with the simple association: a comes before b alphabetically, just as a Methyl group is simpler than an Aldehyde group. So, Chl a has Methyl, Chl b has Aldehyde.


Question 78:

Shigella flexneri is a:

  • (A) gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus
  • (B) gram-negative, motile, facultatively anaerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus
  • (C) gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively aerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus
  • (D) gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic, spore-forming bacillus
Correct Answer: (A) gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus
View Solution




Shigella is a genus of bacteria belonging to the family Enterobacteriaceae.


Like other members of this family, they are Gram-negative.


Their shape is rod-like, so they are classified as bacillus.


A key characteristic of the Shigella genus is that they are nonmotile; they lack flagella.


They are facultative anaerobes, meaning they can grow in the presence or absence of oxygen.


They do not form spores.


Combining all these characteristics, Shigella flexneri is a gram-negative, nonmotile, facultatively anaerobic, non-spore-forming bacillus.
Quick Tip: When classifying pathogenic bacteria, remember the key tests: Gram stain (positive or negative), shape (coccus or bacillus), motility, oxygen requirement, and spore formation. For Shigella, the key differentiators are being Gram-negative and nonmotile.


Question 79:

Mevalonate pathway is associated with the biosynthesis of:

  • (A) Cholesterol
  • (B) Testosterone
  • (C) Thyroid hormones
  • (D) Corticosteroids
Correct Answer: (A) Cholesterol
View Solution




The mevalonate pathway is a crucial metabolic pathway present in all higher eukaryotes.


Its primary function is to produce isopentenyl pyrophosphate (IPP) and dimethylallyl pyrophosphate (DMAPP).


These two molecules serve as the fundamental building blocks for a vast array of compounds called isoprenoids or terpenes.


In animals, the most significant end product of this pathway is cholesterol.


Testosterone and corticosteroids are steroid hormones that are themselves synthesized from cholesterol, but the primary synthesis of the core sterol structure occurs via the mevalonate pathway to make cholesterol first.
Quick Tip: The Mevalonate pathway is the "isoprenoid factory". In animals, its main job is to produce cholesterol. All other steroid hormones are then derived from this cholesterol.


Question 80:

What represents dx/dt in a microbial growth equation: dx/dt = μx?

  • (A) Rate of change of time
  • (B) No change of time
  • (C) No change of biomass
  • (D) Rate of change of biomass
Correct Answer: (D) Rate of change of biomass
View Solution




In microbial kinetics, standard notation is used for variables.


'x' is typically used to represent the concentration of microbial biomass (e.g., in grams per liter).


't' represents time.


The notation dx/dt is a differential from calculus, which represents the instantaneous rate of change of the variable 'x' with respect to the variable 't'.


Therefore, dx/dt represents the rate of change of biomass concentration over time, which is also known as the growth rate of the microbial population.


The equation dx/dt = μx states that this growth rate is proportional to the current biomass concentration, where μ is the specific growth rate.
Quick Tip: In calculus notation, d(variable1)/d(variable2) always means "the rate of change of variable1 with respect to variable2". Here, dx/dt means the rate of change of biomass (x) with respect to time (t).


Question 81:

The oxygen dissociation curve of myoglobin is:

  • (A) Sigmoid
  • (B) Rectangular hyperbola
  • (C) Flat
  • (D) Hampered
Correct Answer: (B) Rectangular hyperbola
View Solution




An oxygen dissociation curve plots the degree of oxygen saturation of a protein against the partial pressure of oxygen.


Myoglobin is a monomer (it has only one heme group to bind oxygen).


Its binding of oxygen is a simple equilibrium reaction. It binds oxygen very tightly at low oxygen pressures and only releases it when the oxygen pressure becomes extremely low (e.g., in intensely exercising muscle).


This simple, high-affinity binding behavior results in a curve that is a rectangular hyperbola.


Hemoglobin, being a tetramer, exhibits cooperative binding, which means the binding of one oxygen molecule increases the affinity for the next. This cooperative behavior results in a sigmoidal (S-shaped) curve, which is more efficient for oxygen transport.
Quick Tip: Remember the shapes of the oxygen dissociation curves: Myoglobin (storage) = Hyperbolic. Hemoglobin (transport) = Sigmoidal (S-shaped). The S-shape of hemoglobin is due to cooperative binding between its four subunits.


Question 82:

Feni is a:

  • (A) Wine prepared from cashew nuts
  • (B) Wine prepared from grapes
  • (C) Wine prepared from mangoes
  • (D) Wine prepared from mixture of mangoes and grapes
Correct Answer: (A) Wine prepared from cashew nuts
View Solution




Feni is a traditional liquor produced exclusively in the state of Goa, India.


It is classified as a "country liquor".


There are two main types of Feni: cashew feni and coconut feni.


Cashew feni is made by fermenting the juice of the cashew apple (the fleshy fruit attached to the cashew nut) and then distilling the fermented mash.


The question uses the term "wine" loosely to mean a fermented beverage. The product made from the cashew apple is technically a fruit wine, which is then distilled to make Feni.
Quick Tip: Feni is a unique spirit from Goa, India. The most famous type is made from the cashew apple, the fruit that the cashew nut grows on.


Question 83:

Hooke's law states that:

  • (A) Stress is irreversible to the strain of ideal solid
  • (B) Stress is directly proportional to strain of ideal solid
  • (C) Stress is independent of strain of ideal solid
  • (D) Strain is proportional to stress of ideal solids
Correct Answer: (B) Stress is directly proportional to strain of ideal solid
View Solution




Hooke's Law is a principle of physics and mechanics of materials that describes the behavior of elastic solids.


It states that for small deformations, the force needed to stretch or compress a spring is directly proportional to the distance of that stretch or compression.


In terms of material properties, this is expressed as: Stress is directly proportional to strain, within the elastic limit of the material.


Mathematically, this is written as \(\sigma = E\epsilon\), where \(\sigma\) is stress, \(\epsilon\) is strain, and E is the constant of proportionality known as the Young's modulus or modulus of elasticity.


Option (D) is equivalent, but the standard statement defines stress as a function of strain.
Quick Tip: The simplest way to remember Hooke's Law is "stress is proportional to strain" (\(\sigma \propto \epsilon\)). This describes the linear, spring-like behavior of an ideal solid.


Question 84:

How many iodine molecules are present in thyroxine?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
View Solution




Thyroxine is one of the two major hormones produced by the thyroid gland.


Its full chemical name is tetraiodothyronine.


The prefix "tetra-" means four.


The name indicates that the thyroxine molecule contains four atoms of iodine.


For this reason, thyroxine is commonly abbreviated as T4.


The other major thyroid hormone is triiodothyronine (T3), which contains three atoms of iodine.
Quick Tip: The abbreviations for the thyroid hormones tell you the answer: Thyroxine = T4 = 4 iodine atoms. Triiodothyronine = T3 = 3 iodine atoms.


Question 85:

World food day is celebrated every year on:

  • (A) October 16
  • (B) January 16
  • (C) December 16
  • (D) March 16
Correct Answer: (A) October 16
View Solution




World Food Day is an international day celebrated every year around the world.


It is observed on October 16th to commemorate the date of the founding of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.


The FAO was founded on October 16, 1945.


The day is celebrated to raise awareness of poverty and hunger and to promote action for food security and nutritious diets for all.
Quick Tip: Associate World Food Day with the founding of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). Both events share the same date: October 16.


Question 86:

Butyrometer is used to:

  • (A) Detect water percentage in milk
  • (B) Detect fat percentage in milk
  • (C) Detect protein content in milk
  • (D) Detect fat percentage in Oils
Correct Answer: (B) Detect fat percentage in milk
View Solution




The Gerber method is a common and rapid test used in the dairy industry to determine the fat content of milk and milk products.


A butyrometer is a specialized piece of glassware used specifically for this test.


In the Gerber method, a measured volume of milk is mixed with sulfuric acid and amyl alcohol in the butyrometer.


The mixture is then centrifuged, which causes the fat to separate and collect in the calibrated neck of the butyrometer.


The percentage of fat can then be read directly from the scale on the neck.
Quick Tip: The prefix "Butyro-" relates to butter or fat (from butyric acid, a fatty acid). Therefore, a "butyrometer" is a meter used to measure fat, specifically in milk via the Gerber method.


Question 87:

Sequence of steps in gram's staining technique in the identification of bacteria are:

  • (A) Crystal violet - ethanol - Grams Iodine - Safranin
  • (B) Crystal violet - Safranin - Grams Iodine - ethanol
  • (C) Crystal violet - ethanol - Safranin - Grams Iodine
  • (D) Crystal violet - Grams Iodine - ethanol - Safranin
Correct Answer: (D) Crystal violet - Grams Iodine - ethanol - Safranin
View Solution




Gram staining is a differential staining technique used to classify bacteria into two large groups: Gram-positive and Gram-negative.


The correct sequence of reagents is crucial for the procedure to work.


1. Primary Stain: Crystal Violet is applied to stain all cells purple.


2. Mordant: Gram's Iodine is added. It forms a complex with the crystal violet, making it harder to remove.


3. Decolorizer: Ethanol (or an acetone-ethanol mixture) is applied. It dehydrates the thick peptidoglycan layer of Gram-positive cells, trapping the stain. In Gram-negative cells, it dissolves the outer membrane and washes the purple stain out.


4. Counterstain: Safranin is applied. It stains the now-colorless Gram-negative cells pink/red, while the Gram-positive cells remain purple.
Quick Tip: Remember the Gram stain steps with the acronym C-I-A-S: Crystal Violet (stain), Iodine (mordant), Alcohol (decolorize), Safranin (counterstain).


Question 88:

Which of the following is correct about \(\alpha\)-amino acids?

  • (A) All \(\alpha\)-amino acids contain an asymmetric carbon atoms
  • (B) In nature, they are always present in optically active form
  • (C) They are always exist in L forms
  • (D) In nature, they are present in both L and D forms
Correct Answer: (D) In nature, they are present in both L and D forms
View Solution




Let's analyze the options for \(\alpha\)-amino acids.


(A) This is false. Glycine is the simplest amino acid, and its \(\alpha\)-carbon is bonded to two hydrogen atoms, so it is not an asymmetric (chiral) carbon.


(B) This is false. Since glycine is not chiral, it is not optically active.


(C) This is mostly true for proteins in higher organisms, where almost all amino acids are in the L-form. However, D-amino acids are found in nature, particularly in bacterial cell walls and some antibiotics. Therefore, stating they "always" exist in L forms is incorrect in a broader biological context.


(D) This is the most accurate statement. While L-amino acids are far more common in proteins, D-amino acids also exist in nature (e.g., in bacteria, some marine invertebrates). Therefore, nature as a whole contains both L and D forms.
Quick Tip: Be careful with absolute terms like "all" and "always". For amino acids, Glycine is the exception to chirality. And while L-forms dominate in proteins, D-forms exist in other parts of nature, especially in the microbial world.


Question 89:

Codex Alimentarius Commission is an international food standard commission?

  • (A) Jointly established by Food and Agriculture Organization and the World Health Organization
  • (B) Established by HACCP
  • (C) Established by FSSAI
  • (D) Jointly established by FSSAI and HACCP
Correct Answer: (A) Jointly established by Food and Agriculture Organization and the World Health Organization
View Solution




The Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC), often simply referred to as Codex, is the central body of the Joint FAO/WHO Food Standards Programme.


It was established in the early 1960s.


Its creation was a joint initiative by two specialized agencies of the United Nations: the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO).


The purpose of Codex is to develop international food standards, guidelines, and codes of practice to protect consumer health and ensure fair trade practices.


HACCP is a system, not an organization, and FSSAI is India's national food authority.
Quick Tip: Codex is the top-level international food standards body. Remember that it's a joint effort by two major UN agencies: the FAO (dealing with food production) and the WHO (dealing with health).


Question 90:

Heat sterilization method to inactivate deleterious enzymes prior to canning, freezing and drying is \hspace{1cm}.

  • (A) Sterilization
  • (B) Pasteurization
  • (C) Leaching
  • (D) Blanching
Correct Answer: (D) Blanching
View Solution




The question describes a heat treatment used as a preparatory step before other preservation methods like canning, freezing, and drying.


The main purpose of this step is to inactivate enzymes that could cause quality degradation (e.g., off-flavors, color changes) during storage.


This process is known as blanching. It involves briefly exposing the food, usually vegetables, to boiling water or steam.


Sterilization and pasteurization are complete preservation methods in themselves, not pre-treatments for other methods. Leaching is the loss of water-soluble nutrients, which can be an undesirable side effect of blanching, not its purpose.
Quick Tip: The key term here is "prior to" other preservation methods. Blanching is the go-to pre-treatment step used to inactivate enzymes before freezing, canning, or drying to preserve food quality.


Question 91:

The scientific name of barley is:

  • (A) Triticum vulgare
  • (B) Hordeum vulgare
  • (C) Vigna mungo
  • (D) Oryza sativum
Correct Answer: (B) Hordeum vulgare
View Solution




Scientific names, or binomial nomenclature, are used to classify organisms.


Triticum vulgare (also known as Triticum aestivum) is the scientific name for common wheat.


Hordeum vulgare is the scientific name for common barley.


Vigna mungo is the scientific name for black gram (urad dal).


Oryza sativa is the scientific name for Asian rice.
Quick Tip: It's useful to memorize the scientific names for the major cereal grains: Wheat (Triticum), Barley (Hordeum), Rice (Oryza), and Corn (Zea).


Question 92:

The mathematical equation of enthalpy (H) is:

  • (A) H = U + pV
  • (B) H = U - pV
  • (C) H = U / pV
  • (D) H = pV
Correct Answer: (A) H = U + pV
View Solution




Enthalpy (H) is a thermodynamic property of a system.


It is defined as the sum of the internal energy (U) of the system plus the product of its pressure (p) and volume (V).


This pV term represents the "flow work" or the energy required to establish the system's physical presence in its environment.


Therefore, the correct mathematical definition of enthalpy is H = U + pV.
Quick Tip: Enthalpy (H) represents the total heat content of a system. Remember the equation H = U + pV, where U is the internal energy and pV is the work done by the system on its surroundings.


Question 93:

Caffine belongs to \hspace{1cm} class.

  • (A) Methylxanthine
  • (B) Ethylxanthine
  • (C) Trimtheylhydroxanthine
  • (D) Tetrahydromethylxanthine
Correct Answer: (A) Methylxanthine
View Solution




Caffeine is a central nervous system stimulant.


Its chemical structure is based on a purine ring system known as xanthine.


Specifically, caffeine's chemical name is 1,3,7-trimethylxanthine, meaning it has three methyl groups attached to the xanthine backbone.


Because its core structure is a xanthine with methyl groups attached, it belongs to the general class of compounds called methylxanthines.


Other methylxanthines include theobromine (in chocolate) and theophylline (in tea).
Quick Tip: Caffeine is a "methylated xanthine." Theobromine and theophylline are also methylxanthines. They are all related plant alkaloids with stimulant properties.


Question 94:

Water activity is defined as:

  • (A) the vapour pressure of water in substance
  • (B) a ratio of the vapour pressure of water in substance to vapour pressure of pure water at the different temperatures
  • (C) a ratio of the vapour pressure of water in substance to vapour pressure of pure water at the same temperature
  • (D) vapour pressure of pure water
Correct Answer: (C) a ratio of the vapour pressure of water in substance to vapour pressure of pure water at the same temperature
View Solution




Water activity (a\(_w\)) is a measure of the "free" or "available" water in a food system for microbial growth and chemical reactions.


It is formally defined by a thermodynamic relationship.


Water activity is the ratio of the water vapor pressure of the food (P) to the vapor pressure of pure water (P\(_0\)) at the same temperature.


The formula is a\(_w\) = P / P\(_0\).


The "same temperature" clause is critical, as vapor pressure is highly dependent on temperature.
Quick Tip: Remember the formula for water activity: a\(_w\) = P\(_{food}\) / P\(_{water}\). It's a ratio, so it's a unitless value from 0 to 1. Pure water has an a\(_w\) of 1.0. Lowering a\(_w\) is a key principle of food preservation.


Question 95:

High gravity wort refers to a brew where the original gravity is significantly higher than standard and ranges between:

  • (A) 13-18° Plato.
  • (B) 18-20° Plato.
  • (C) 20-25° Plato.
  • (D) 25-30° Plato.
Correct Answer: (A) 13-18° Plato.
View Solution




In brewing, "gravity" refers to the specific gravity or density of the wort (the sugary liquid extracted from malted barley).


It is a measure of the dissolved sugar content, which will be fermented into alcohol.


"High gravity brewing" is a technique where a very concentrated wort is produced and fermented. The resulting high-alcohol beer is then diluted with water to the desired final strength.


Standard strength worts are typically around 10-12° Plato.


Worts considered to be "high gravity" for large-scale commercial brewing generally start in the range of 13° to 18° Plato.


While higher gravities are possible, this range represents the typical industrial definition of high gravity brewing.
Quick Tip: Degrees Plato (°P) is a measure of the percentage of dissolved solids (mostly sugar) by weight in wort. Standard beer wort is ~12°P. "High gravity" is anything significantly above that, with the 13-18°P range being a common industrial standard.


Question 96:

Penetrometer is a device to:

  • (A) Measure the tenderness of meat
  • (B) Measure the taste of meat
  • (C) Measure the colour of meat
  • (D) Measure the quantity of meat
Correct Answer: (A) Measure the tenderness of meat
View Solution




A penetrometer is an instrument used to measure the hardness or consistency of a material.


It works by measuring the force required to push a probe (a cone, needle, or plunger) into a sample, or the distance the probe penetrates under a fixed weight.


In food science, it is used to objectively measure texture.


For meat, tenderness is a critical textural attribute. A penetrometer can be used to measure the force needed to shear through or penetrate the meat, providing an objective measurement of its tenderness.


It does not measure taste, color, or quantity.
Quick Tip: The word "penetrometer" literally means "penetration meter." It measures how easily something can be penetrated, which is a direct way to quantify textural properties like firmness, consistency, or tenderness.


Question 97:

What are the factors that affects fluid flow regimes?

  • (A) Mass flow rate, density, viscosity of fluid and geometry of the flow channel
  • (B) Mass flow rate and geometry of the flow channel
  • (C) Density and viscosity of the fluid
  • (D) Geometry of the flow channel only
Correct Answer: (A) Mass flow rate, density, viscosity of fluid and geometry of the flow channel
View Solution




Fluid flow regimes, primarily whether the flow is laminar or turbulent, are determined by a dimensionless number called the Reynolds number (Re).


The formula for the Reynolds number in a pipe is Re = \((ρvD) / μ.\)


Here,\( ρ is the fluid density, v is the fluid velocity (related to mass flow rate), D is the pipe diameter (geometry), and μ\) is the fluid viscosity.


This formula shows that the flow regime depends on the fluid's properties (density and viscosity), the flow condition (velocity/mass flow rate), and the system's physical dimensions (geometry).


Therefore, all the listed factors affect the fluid flow regime.
Quick Tip: The transition between laminar and turbulent flow is governed by the Reynolds number. The formula for the Reynolds number includes all four key factors: fluid density, fluid velocity, pipe diameter (geometry), and fluid viscosity.


Question 98:

Which of the following diseases occurs due to vitamin deficiency:

  • (A) Hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism
  • (B) Pellagra and Beriberi
  • (C) Phenylketonuria and alkaptonuria
  • (D) Myositis and Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: (B) Pellagra and Beriberi
View Solution




Vitamins are essential micronutrients, and their deficiency leads to specific diseases.


Beriberi is a disease caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine).


Pellagra is a disease caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B3 (Niacin).


Hypothyroidism is often caused by iodine deficiency. Hyperthyroidism is an overactive thyroid.


Phenylketonuria and alkaptonuria are genetic metabolic disorders.


Myositis and Myasthenia gravis are autoimmune/inflammatory muscle diseases.


Therefore, Pellagra and Beriberi are the diseases listed that are caused by vitamin deficiencies.
Quick Tip: Memorize the classic vitamin deficiency diseases: Beriberi (B1), Pellagra (B3), Scurvy (C), Rickets (D), and Night Blindness (A). These are frequently asked in exams.


Question 99:

Maillard browning is a:

  • (A) Enzymatic reaction between amino acids and reducing sugars
  • (B) Non-enzymatic reaction between amino acids and reducing sugars
  • (C) Enzymatic reaction between amino acids and lipids
  • (D) Non-enzymatic reaction between amino acids and lipids
Correct Answer: (B) Non-enzymatic reaction between amino acids and reducing sugars
View Solution




The Maillard reaction is a complex series of chemical reactions responsible for the desirable brown color and flavor of many cooked foods, such as baked bread, seared steak, and roasted coffee.


This reaction is a form of non-enzymatic browning, meaning it occurs due to heat without the involvement of enzymes.


The key chemical reactants required for the Maillard reaction are an amino acid (from proteins) and a reducing sugar (like glucose or fructose).


The presence of heat accelerates the reaction significantly.
Quick Tip: The Maillard reaction is the flavor of "browning." Remember the recipe: Amino Acid + Reducing Sugar + Heat. It's non-enzymatic, unlike the browning of a cut apple.


Question 100:

What is the principle of centrifugation?

  • (A) Sedimentation principle
  • (B) Filtration principle
  • (C) Evaporation principle
  • (D) Size reduction principle
Correct Answer: (A) Sedimentation principle
View Solution




Centrifugation is a mechanical process used to separate components in a mixture based on their density.


The process relies on the principle of sedimentation.


Sedimentation is the tendency for particles in suspension to settle out of the fluid in which they are entrained and come to rest against a barrier. This is due to the force of gravity (or a similar force).


A centrifuge works by spinning the mixture at a very high speed, which generates a powerful centrifugal force.


This centrifugal force is many times stronger than gravity and dramatically accelerates the rate of sedimentation, causing denser particles to move to the bottom of the container much faster.
Quick Tip: Think of centrifugation as "super-fast gravity." It works by accelerating the natural process of sedimentation, where denser things sink.


Question 101:

The basic law of fluid flow through porous media is known as:

  • (A) Boltzmann law
  • (B) Bernoulli's law
  • (C) Darcy Law
  • (D) Stokes law
Correct Answer: (C) Darcy Law
View Solution




This question asks for the fundamental law governing fluid flow in a porous medium, such as water through soil or a liquid through a packed bed filter.


Darcy's Law is the equation that describes this phenomenon.


It states that the rate of fluid flow through a porous medium is proportional to the pressure gradient and the hydraulic conductivity of the medium.


Bernoulli's law describes energy conservation in a moving fluid in open channels or pipes.


Stokes' law describes the drag force on a sphere moving through a viscous fluid.
Quick Tip: Associate the laws with their application: Bernoulli's Law \(\rightarrow\) pipe flow energy. Stokes' Law \(\rightarrow\) particle settling. Darcy's Law \(\rightarrow\) flow through a porous medium (like a filter bed or soil).


Question 102:

Which of the following is a size reduction unit operation in liquids?

  • (A) Milling
  • (B) Homogenization
  • (C) Grinding
  • (D) Mixing
Correct Answer: (B) Homogenization
View Solution




The question asks for a size reduction operation that is performed on components within a liquid.


Milling and grinding are terms for size reduction of solid materials.


Mixing is an operation to combine ingredients, not primarily to reduce particle size.


Homogenization is a process specifically designed to reduce the size of particles or droplets dispersed in a liquid and to make their distribution uniform.


The most common example is the homogenization of milk, where large fat globules are forced through a narrow gap at high pressure to break them down into much smaller droplets that remain suspended.
Quick Tip: Milling and grinding are for solids. Homogenization is for reducing the size of droplets (like fat in milk) or suspended particles within a liquid to create a stable emulsion or suspension.


Question 103:

If the value of Reynolds number > 10000 for an impeller, the power number:

  • (A) Increases first and then decreases with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
  • (B) Increase with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
  • (C) Remains constant with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
  • (D) Decreases first and then increases with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
Correct Answer: (C) Remains constant with an increase in impeller Reynolds number
View Solution




The power number (N\(_p\)) is a dimensionless parameter used to relate the power consumed by an impeller to its operating conditions.


The impeller Reynolds number (Re\(_i\)) characterizes the flow regime in a stirred tank (laminar, transitional, or turbulent).


For low Reynolds numbers (laminar flow), the power number is inversely proportional to Re\(_i\).


For intermediate Reynolds numbers (transitional flow), the power number changes in a complex way.


However, once the Reynolds number becomes very high (typically Re\(_i\) > 10,000), the flow in the tank is fully turbulent.


In the fully turbulent regime, the power number becomes independent of the Reynolds number and remains constant for a given impeller geometry.
Quick Tip: For mixing, remember the power curve. In the fully turbulent region (Re > 10,000), the power number becomes constant. This means power consumption is then proportional to the cube of the impeller speed and the fifth power of its diameter.


Question 104:

In a feedback control of milk heat exchanger:

  • (A) A thermometer measures the temperature of the milk coming out of the heat exchanger and sends to the controller a measurement signal
  • (B) Temperature of the milk is not measured through feedback control of milk heat exchanger
  • (C) A thermometer measures the temperature of the milk entering the heat exchanger and sends a measurement signal to the controller.
  • (D) A thermometer measures the temperature of the milk entering the heat exchanger first and then measure temperature coming out of the heat exchanger
Correct Answer: (A) A thermometer measures the temperature of the milk coming out of the heat exchanger and sends to the controller a measurement signal
View Solution




Feedback control is a type of control system where the output of the process is measured and compared to a desired setpoint.


In the context of a milk heat exchanger (like a pasteurizer), the desired output is the final temperature of the milk after heating.


Therefore, a sensor (a thermometer) must be placed at the outlet of the heat exchanger to measure the actual final temperature of the milk.


This measured value is then "fed back" to a controller. The controller compares this value to the setpoint (e.g., 72°C) and adjusts the heating medium (e.g., the flow of hot water) to correct any deviation.


Measuring the inlet temperature is part of a feedforward control strategy, not feedback control.
Quick Tip: Think of "feedback" control like driving a car. You look at the output (your position on the road) and make corrections to the input (steering wheel). For a pasteurizer, you measure the final milk temperature (output) and adjust the heat (input).


Question 105:

The process of food preservation using drying technique:

  • (A) Increases water activity
  • (B) No change in water activity
  • (C) Reduces water activity
  • (D) Independent of water activity
Correct Answer: (C) Reduces water activity
View Solution




Food preservation techniques aim to inhibit or prevent the growth of spoilage microorganisms.


Microorganisms require a certain level of available water to grow. This available water is measured by the parameter called water activity (a\(_w\)).


Drying is a preservation method that works by physically removing water from the food.


By removing water, the concentration of solutes in the remaining water increases, and the amount of free water available for microbial use decreases significantly.


This directly results in a reduction of the food's water activity to a level below which most bacteria, yeasts, and molds cannot grow.
Quick Tip: The fundamental principle of preservation by drying is the reduction of water activity (a\(_w\)). Less water means less microbial growth, leading to a longer shelf life.


Question 106:

If a culture starts with 500 bacteria and doubles every hour, how many bacteria will there be after 4 hours?

  • (A) 4 x 10\(^3\)
  • (B) 8 x 10\(^3\)
  • (C) 6 x 10\(^3\)
  • (D) 5 x 10\(^3\)
Correct Answer: (B) 8 x 10\(^3\)
View Solution




This is a problem of exponential growth. The formula for exponential growth is N(t) = N\(_0\) 2\(^{(t/d)}\), where N(t) is the final number, N\(_0\) is the initial number, t is the total time, and d is the doubling time.


Initial number of bacteria (N\(_0\)) = 500.


Doubling time (d) = 1 hour.


Total time (t) = 4 hours.


After 1 hour: 500 2 = 1000


After 2 hours: 1000 2 = 2000


After 3 hours: 2000 2 = 4000


After 4 hours: 4000 2 = 8000


In scientific notation, 8000 is written as 8 x 10\(^3\).
Quick Tip: For doubling problems, you can simply multiply the initial number by 2 for each doubling period. Here, with 4 periods (hours), you calculate 500 2 2 2 2.


Question 107:

PFA act was established in the year:

  • (A) 1954
  • (B) 1955
  • (C) 1956
  • (D) 1965
Correct Answer: (A) 1954
View Solution




The PFA Act stands for the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act.


This was the primary central legislation governing food safety and quality in India for many decades.


The PFA Act was enacted by the Parliament of India in the year 1954.


It came into force on June 1, 1955.


This act has since been repealed and replaced by the comprehensive Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA) of 2006.
Quick Tip: Remember the key dates for Indian food law: The old law, the Prevention of Food Adulteration (PFA) Act, was passed in 1954. The new law, the Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA), was passed in 2006.


Question 108:

Alpha tocopherol contains:

  • (A) No methyl group attached to chromanol ring
  • (B) One methyl group attached to chromanol ring
  • (C) Eight methyl groups attached to chromanol ring
  • (D) Three methyl groups attached to chromanol ring
Correct Answer: (D) Three methyl groups attached to chromanol ring
View Solution




Tocopherols are a class of chemical compounds that exhibit Vitamin E activity.


Their basic structure consists of a chromanol ring and a long phytol tail.


There are four main types of tocopherols: alpha (\(\alpha\)), beta (\(\beta\)), gamma (\(\gamma\)), and delta (\(\delta\)).


They differ from each other only in the number and position of methyl (-CH\(_3\)) groups attached to the chromanol ring.


Alpha-tocopherol, which has the highest biological activity, has three methyl groups attached to the chromanol ring at positions 5, 7, and 8.


Beta- and gamma-tocopherols have two methyl groups, and delta-tocopherol has one.
Quick Tip: The different forms of Vitamin E (tocopherols) are named based on their methyl groups on the chromanol ring: alpha has 3, beta/gamma have 2, and delta has 1. Alpha-tocopherol is the most active form.


Question 109:

The relationship between pressure drop and velocity follows:

  • (A) Hooke's law
  • (B) Stokes' Law
  • (C) Bernoulli Law
  • (D) Venturi's Law
Correct Answer: (C) Bernoulli Law
View Solution




The Bernoulli principle, derived from Bernoulli's equation, describes the relationship between pressure, velocity, and potential energy in a moving fluid.


A key consequence of this principle is that for a fluid flowing horizontally, an increase in the speed (velocity) of the fluid occurs simultaneously with a decrease in pressure.


This inverse relationship between static pressure and velocity is a fundamental concept in fluid dynamics.


The Venturi effect is a specific application of Bernoulli's principle, but Bernoulli's Law is the fundamental relationship itself.
Quick Tip: Remember the core concept of Bernoulli's principle: Fast-moving fluid = Low pressure. Slow-moving fluid = High pressure. This explains everything from how airplane wings generate lift to how a venturi meter works.


Question 110:

Identify the index organism of pasteurization efficacy:

  • (A) Escherichia coli
  • (B) Bacillus subtilis
  • (C) Staphylococcus aureus
  • (D) Coxiella burnetti
Correct Answer: (D) Coxiella burnetti
View Solution




An index organism is a microorganism used to verify the effectiveness of a food processing step like pasteurization.


The ideal index organism should be more heat-resistant than the most heat-resistant pathogen of concern, but not so resistant as to require excessive heat that would damage the food.


For milk pasteurization, the target pathogen was historically Mycobacterium tuberculosis.


However, it was discovered that the rickettsial organism Coxiella burnetii, which causes Q fever and can be transmitted through milk, is slightly more heat-resistant.


Therefore, pasteurization time-temperature standards are set to guarantee the destruction of Coxiella burnetii, ensuring that all less-resistant pathogens are also killed.
Quick Tip: For milk pasteurization, Coxiella burnetii is the target or "index" organism. The process is designed to kill it, with the assurance that any other common pathogens will also be destroyed by the heat treatment.


Question 111:

Role of Grams Iodine in gram staining technique:

  • (A) Enhances the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
  • (B) Blocks the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
  • (C) Neither blocks nor enhances the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
  • (D) Enhances the ability of alcohol to remove the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
Correct Answer: (A) Enhances the binding of crystal violet to cell wall
View Solution




In the Gram staining procedure, Gram's Iodine is used as a mordant.


A mordant is a substance that fixes a stain or dye, making it less easily removed.


After the primary stain (Crystal Violet) is applied, the iodine is added.


The iodine ions interact with the crystal violet molecules to form a large, insoluble Crystal Violet-Iodine (CV-I) complex.


This larger complex gets trapped more effectively within the thick peptidoglycan layer of the Gram-positive bacterial cell wall, thus enhancing the binding and retention of the primary stain.
Quick Tip: In Gram staining, think of Iodine as the "glue" or "anchor." It binds to the Crystal Violet stain, creating a large complex that gets stuck in the thick cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria.


Question 112:

Which of the following is a phospholipid?

  • (A) Lecithin
  • (B) Arachidonic acid
  • (C) Ergosterol
  • (D) Cerebroside
Correct Answer: (A) Lecithin
View Solution




A phospholipid is a type of lipid molecule that is a major component of all cell membranes.


It consists of a glycerol backbone, two fatty acid tails (hydrophobic), and a phosphate group (hydrophilic) which is modified by an alcohol.


Lecithin is a common name for a class of phospholipids known as phosphatidylcholines.


Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid.


Ergosterol is a sterol found in fungi.


A cerebroside is a glycolipid (containing a sugar, not a phosphate group).


Therefore, lecithin is the phospholipid among the options.
Quick Tip: Phospholipids are key emulsifiers and membrane components. Lecithin (phosphatidylcholine) is the most common example, widely found in egg yolks and soybeans.


Question 113:

The gelling agent in the preparation of jam is:

  • (A) Lectin
  • (B) Rutin
  • (C) Pectin
  • (D) Inulin
Correct Answer: (C) Pectin
View Solution




Jam is a gel made from fruit pulp or juice, sugar, and acid.


The substance responsible for the gel structure is pectin.


Pectin is a naturally occurring structural polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants, particularly in fruits like apples and citrus peels.


When heated in the presence of the correct concentration of sugar and acid, the long pectin molecules cross-link with each other to form a three-dimensional network that traps the liquid, resulting in a gel.


Lectin is a protein, rutin is a flavonoid, and inulin is a storage polysaccharide; none have the gelling properties of pectin under jam-making conditions.
Quick Tip: For jam/jelly making, remember the three essential ingredients for a good gel: Pectin (the gelling agent), Sugar (to bind water), and Acid (to help pectin set).


Question 114:

Consumer protection act was established in the year?

  • (A) 1987
  • (B) 1980
  • (C) 1986
  • (D) 1979
Correct Answer: (C) 1986
View Solution




The Consumer Protection Act was a landmark piece of legislation in India designed to protect the interests of consumers.


It established consumer rights and provided for the establishment of consumer councils and other authorities for the settlement of consumers' disputes.


This act was enacted by the Parliament of India in the year 1986.


It has been recently replaced by the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which has introduced updated provisions.
Quick Tip: Remember the year 1986 for the original Consumer Protection Act in India. This was a major step in establishing consumer rights in the country.


Question 115:

Spice oils are extracted by a process known as:

  • (A) Fermentation
  • (B) Steam distillation
  • (C) Sublimation
  • (D) Milling
Correct Answer: (B) Steam distillation
View Solution




Spice oils, also known as essential oils, are the volatile aromatic compounds responsible for the characteristic flavor and aroma of spices.


A common and effective method for extracting these volatile oils from plant material is steam distillation.


In this process, steam is passed through the ground spice. The hot steam vaporizes the volatile oils.


The mixture of steam and oil vapor is then cooled and condensed back into a liquid.


Since the oil is not soluble in water, it can be easily separated from the condensed water (hydrosol).
Quick Tip: The extraction of volatile compounds like essential oils from plants is most commonly done using distillation, specifically steam distillation, which uses steam to carry the volatile oils away from the plant material.


Question 116:

Which international standardization organization represents food safety management system?

  • (A) ISO 20000
  • (B) ISO 22000
  • (C) ISO 02000
  • (D) ISO 22200
Correct Answer: (B) ISO 22000
View Solution




The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) develops and publishes a wide range of international standards.


ISO has a specific series of standards for the food industry.


ISO 22000 is the main international standard that specifies the requirements for a food safety management system (FSMS).


It integrates the principles of Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) with prerequisite programs (PRPs) and provides a framework for organizations throughout the food chain to ensure food safety.


ISO 20000 relates to IT service management.
Quick Tip: When you see a question about the main ISO standard for Food Safety Management Systems, the answer is ISO 22000. It's the global benchmark for managing food safety.


Question 117:

If the melting point of oils are low as compared to its surrounding temperature, then oils remain in:

  • (A) gaseous state
  • (B) solid state
  • (C) liquid state
  • (D) vapour state
Correct Answer: (B) solid state
View Solution




The melting point is the temperature at which a substance transitions from a solid state to a liquid state.


If the surrounding temperature is above the melting point of a substance, the substance will be a liquid. This is the case for most oils at room temperature.


However, the question asks what happens if the surrounding temperature is lower than the melting point.


If the temperature of the environment is below the melting point, the substance will not have enough thermal energy to melt and will remain in its solid state.


This is why fats like butter or coconut oil, which have higher melting points than vegetable oils, are solid at cool room temperatures.


The question's wording implies the oil has a low melting point, but the condition "compared to its surrounding temperature" seems to be inverted in the question's intent vs. the correct keyed answer. Assuming the intended question is "If the surrounding temperature is low compared to the melting point...", then the oil would be solid. This logical path leads to the provided key.
Quick Tip: Remember the rule: Temperature > Melting Point \(\rightarrow\) Liquid. Temperature < Melting Point \(\rightarrow\) Solid. A substance is only solid when it is colder than its melting point.


Question 118:

A wet food product contains 70 water. After drying, it is found that 70 of original water has been removed. The mass of water removed per kilogram of wet food is:

  • (A) 4.9 kg
  • (B) 49 kg
  • (C) 0.49 kg
  • (D) 0.049 kg
Correct Answer: (C) 0.49 kg
View Solution




Start with 1 kg of wet food.


The initial water content is 70%.


Mass of original water in 1 kg of wet food = 1 kg 70% = 1 kg 0.70 = 0.70 kg.


The problem states that 70% of this original water is removed during drying.


Mass of water removed = 70% of the original water mass.


Mass of water removed = 0.70 (0.70 kg) = 0.49 kg.


Therefore, the mass of water removed per kilogram of wet food is 0.49 kg.
Quick Tip: Break down moisture removal problems into two steps: 1. Find the initial mass of water. 2. Calculate the percentage of that water that was removed. Don't confuse the percentage moisture with the percentage removal.


Question 119:

Miso is a product of :

  • (A) Fermented mangoes
  • (B) Fermented Soya beans
  • (C) Fermented grapes
  • (D) Fermented cabbage
Correct Answer: (B) Fermented Soya beans
View Solution




Miso is a traditional Japanese seasoning.


It is produced by fermenting soybeans with salt and koji.


Koji is a starter culture, typically steamed rice or barley that has been inoculated with the mold Aspergillus oryzae.


The mixture of soybeans, salt, and koji is allowed to ferment for a period ranging from a few months to several years, resulting in a thick paste with a rich, savory (umami) flavor.


Therefore, miso is a product of fermented soybeans.
Quick Tip: Associate traditional East Asian fermented pastes and sauces with soybeans as the primary ingredient. Soy sauce and miso are the two most famous examples.


Question 120:

Fat bloom is the defect found in:

  • (A) Margarine
  • (B) Yoghurt
  • (C) Ghee
  • (D) Chocolate
Correct Answer: (D) Chocolate
View Solution




Fat bloom is a common quality defect in chocolate.


It appears as a whitish or grayish coating on the surface of the chocolate.


It is caused by the migration and recrystallization of the fat (cocoa butter) in the chocolate.


This often happens when chocolate is stored at fluctuating or excessively warm temperatures, which causes the stable crystal form of the cocoa butter to melt and then re-solidify into larger, unstable crystals on the surface.


While harmless to eat, it gives the chocolate an unappealing appearance and a slightly waxy texture.
Quick Tip: There are two types of "bloom" on chocolate: Fat bloom (grayish, caused by fat recrystallization due to poor storage) and Sugar bloom (gritty, caused by moisture dissolving and recrystallizing sugar). Fat bloom is the more common one.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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