20 April 2026: JEE Main 2026 Session 2 Result is Out. Download Scorecard Here
20 April 2026: JEE Main 2026 Session 2 Final Answer Key Out. Download Here

20 April 2026: JEE Main 2026 Session 2 Result is Out. Download Scorecard Here
20 April 2026: JEE Main 2026 Session 2 Final Answer Key Out. Download Here
JEE Main 2027 Session 1 is tentatively scheduled for 22, 23, 24, 28, 29 and 30 January 2027, with 31 January reserved as a buffer day. Registration has not opened. The dates come from NTA's examination calendar, which describes its schedule as tentative.
JEE Main connects three different degree routes: B.E./B.Tech through Paper 1, B.Arch through Paper 2A and B.Planning through Paper 2B. Its rank is used for admission to participating NITs, IIITs and other centrally funded institutions. For IIT admission, Paper 1 is a qualifying stage for JEE Advanced, not a substitute for it. The sections below explain these routes using the latest published 2026 rules; the 2027 information bulletin and syllabus are still awaited.
The calendar lists six proposed examination days rather than one continuous nine-day test window. A buffer day is held in reserve; it does not mean every applicant will receive an additional attempt. A candidate's actual date and shift are assigned separately.
| Event | Official position |
|---|---|
| Session 1 examination | 22–24 and 28–30 January 2027, tentative |
| Buffer day | 31 January 2027 |
| Session 1 registration and last date | Not announced |
| Session 2 schedule | Not announced |
| 2027 information bulletin and syllabus | Not released on the JEE Main portal |
The published calendar covers examinations up to March 2027, so it does not establish an April date for JEE Main Session 2. Registration, correction and admit-card deadlines must come from the examination notice, not an estimate based on a previous year. The official JEE Main portal is the source for these announcements.
The paper depends on the degree, not the institute name alone. Engineering, architecture and planning have different subject combinations. In particular, a Paper 1 score does not replace the architecture or planning paper required for those admission routes.
| Paper | Degree and examination content |
|---|---|
| Paper 1 | B.E./B.Tech: Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry |
| Paper 2A | B.Arch: Mathematics, Aptitude and Drawing |
| Paper 2B | B.Planning: Mathematics, Aptitude and Planning-based questions |
For the NIT+ system, which includes NITs, IIEST, participating IIITs and Other-GFTIs, JoSAA uses the relevant JEE Main rank. IIT admissions use JEE Advanced ranks and separate eligibility conditions. Other universities or state admission authorities may use JEE Main scores through their own processes; a JEE Main application does not register a candidate for every counselling system. These routes are distinguished in the NTA admission provisions and JoSAA 2026 rank-list rules.
The 2026 eligibility rules allowed candidates who passed Class 12 or an equivalent examination in 2024 or 2025, or were appearing in 2026, to take JEE Main. There was no age limit for the examination. An admitting institution could still impose its own conditions. The passing-year window for 2027 has not yet been notified; the 2026 years below are historical, not a new eligibility announcement.
The board-percentage condition applied at the admission stage for the NIT+ route, not as a separate minimum percentage for taking JEE Main. Under the 2026 provisions, applicants needed at least 75% in the prescribed Class 12 aggregate, or a place in their board's category-wise top 20 percentile. The percentage threshold was 65% for SC, ST and PwD candidates. The top-20-percentile route remained an alternative, not an extra requirement on top of 75%.
| Admission paper | Required qualifying-examination subjects |
|---|---|
| Paper 1 | Physics, Mathematics, a language, one of Chemistry/Biotechnology/Biology/Technical Vocational subject, and one other subject |
| Paper 2A | Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and two other subjects |
| Paper 2B | Mathematics and four other subjects |
The subject combination matters because the admission aggregate is not automatically the same as any percentage printed on a marksheet. Architecture and planning admissions outside this route may have their own applicable requirements. The scope of the table is the NIT+ provision in Section 5.8.1 of the 2026 bulletin; it is not a universal admission rule for every college.
An improvement examination did not restart the eligibility window. NTA used the year in which the candidate first passed Class 12, rather than the year of a later improvement result. This is different from counting attempts from the first JEE Main registration. Missing a session did not move the Class 12 passing-year window forward.
The 2026 rules also distinguished first passing from an earlier unsuccessful board attempt. A student who failed in one year and passed later did not have the same passing year as a student who passed earlier and then improved marks. The qualifying-year clause makes this distinction. Zollege's 2026 JEE Main eligibility guide gives the historical criteria in greater detail.
JEE Main registration is an online process involving an application number, personal and academic details, paper and city preferences, supporting documents and payment. In 2026, a candidate registered for Session 1 used the same application number for Session 2, while paying the applicable session fee. Candidates who had not applied for the first session could apply during the second-session window.
The official 2026 FAQs confirmed that taking both sessions was not compulsory. For candidates appearing in both, the better total NTA score was used. This made the second session an additional opportunity within the same examination year, not a requirement for receiving a rank.
The 2026 form included live photograph capture as well as a scanned photograph and signature. It also required the Class 10 certificate or marksheet and applicable disability documentation. Identity, category, qualifying examination and contact details were part of the application record. A successful payment generated the confirmation page; entering the form without completing payment was not equivalent to a completed application.
Category proof had an important distinction: the 2026 FAQ on category certificates asked for certificate details, or the relevant acknowledgement details where applicable, rather than a category-certificate upload at that stage. Admission authorities verified the necessary certificates later. This should not be confused with the disability-document requirements in the form.
| Candidate category | Male | Female |
|---|---|---|
| General | ₹1,000 | ₹800 |
| Gen-EWS / OBC-NCL | ₹900 | ₹800 |
| SC / ST / PwD / PwBD | ₹500 | ₹500 |
The one-paper fee for third-gender candidates at Indian centres was ₹500. For combinations of two or all three papers, General/Gen-EWS/OBC-NCL candidates paid ₹2,000 for males and ₹1,600 for females; the SC/ST/PwD/PwBD and third-gender fee was ₹1,000. Processing charges and GST were additional. Overseas centres had a separate fee schedule. These are 2026 per-session fees, not announced 2027 charges.
The 2026 application-process page explains the earlier form. Its old registration dates are not the 2027 application window.
The latest published format is the 2026 examination pattern. Paper 1 had 75 questions worth 300 marks. Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry each contributed 25 questions: 20 multiple-choice questions and five numerical-value questions. There was no choice of five questions from a larger numerical section in this format; an unanswered question still received zero marks.
| Paper | Questions and marks | Standard duration |
|---|---|---|
| Paper 1: B.E./B.Tech | 75 questions; 300 marks | 3 hours |
| Paper 2A: B.Arch | 25 Mathematics + 50 Aptitude + 2 Drawing; 400 marks | 3 hours |
| Paper 2B: B.Planning | 25 Mathematics + 50 Aptitude + 25 Planning; 400 marks | 3 hours |
| Paper 2A and 2B together | Combined architecture and planning examination | 3 hours 30 minutes |
Paper 1 and Paper 2B were computer-based. In Paper 2A, Mathematics and Aptitude were computer-based, while Drawing was completed on a drawing sheet. The standard durations above exclude compensatory time available to eligible candidates under NTA's disability provisions.
Multiple-choice and numerical-value questions carried four marks for a correct response, minus one for an incorrect response and zero if unanswered. Numerical answers were entered as values rather than selected from options; the bulletin instructed candidates to round them to the nearest integer. The two B.Arch Drawing questions together carried 100 marks and were not governed by the objective-question +4/−1 rule.
Mathematics: 25% (100 of 400 marks)
Aptitude: 50% (200 of 400 marks)
Drawing (B.Arch) or Planning (B.Planning): 25% (100 of 400 marks)
Scale: each full track represents 100% of the paper's 400 marks. Drawing and Planning are alternatives in different papers, not two sections in the same paper.
Source: 2026 bulletin, Paper 2A and Paper 2B marks tables. Percentages above are calculated from the official section marks.
The bulletin listed 13 examination languages. English was available at all centres; Hindi and Urdu across centres in India; other regional-language options depended on location. Where versions differed, the English question governed. Zollege's JEE Main exam-pattern page separately identifies the pending 2027 pattern and the published 2026 reference.
NTA's 2026 syllabus PDF is the latest syllabus linked on the official portal. It specifies topics within each unit, not just broad school-level chapter names. The following sections explain selected areas of that document; the syllabus does not specify fixed chapter weightages for the 2027 examination.
The Mathematics syllabus includes sets, relations and functions; complex numbers and quadratic equations; matrices and determinants; permutations and combinations; the binomial theorem; and sequences and series. Calculus covers limits, continuity, differentiation, integration and differential equations. Coordinate geometry, three-dimensional geometry, vectors, statistics, probability and trigonometry complete the subject outline.
Several units go beyond recalling a formula. Matrices include consistency and solutions of simultaneous equations. Applications of derivatives include rates of change, increasing and decreasing functions, and maxima and minima. Integration includes areas bounded by simple curves, while probability includes Bayes' theorem and random-variable distributions. These are specific syllabus requirements, not predictions of how many questions a chapter will receive.
Physics spans measurement, mechanics, thermal physics, waves, electricity, magnetism, optics, modern physics and electronic devices. Experimental Skills is a separate unit. Its examples include measurement with vernier calipers and a screw gauge, resistance measurements, focal-length experiments and diode characteristics. It therefore covers observations and measurement methods as well as theoretical laws.
This distinction is easy to miss in a short list of “important chapters”. The Experimental Skills unit describes the actual experiments and activities. It does not assign a guaranteed number of questions to them.
Physical Chemistry includes stoichiometry, atomic structure, chemical bonding, thermodynamics, solutions, equilibrium, electrochemistry and chemical kinetics. Inorganic units cover periodicity, p-block elements, d- and f-block elements, and coordination compounds. Organic Chemistry includes purification and characterisation, basic principles, hydrocarbons, functional-group chemistry and biomolecules.
Practical Chemistry is also included. The document names tests, preparations and experimental principles rather than treating the subject as a list of reactions alone. For example, its practical content includes enthalpy measurements and a kinetic study involving iodide ions and hydrogen peroxide. These details belong to the official coverage; broad claims that an entire branch is only “memory-based” are not a substitute for that coverage.
The architecture Aptitude syllabus includes visualising three-dimensional objects from drawings, scale and proportion, plans and elevations, and visual, numerical and verbal reasoning. Drawing includes sketches of urban, rural and natural scenes. Planning adds general awareness, social sciences and thinking skills, including maps, charts, tables and quantitative reasoning. Physics and Chemistry are not separate sections of these papers.
For the complete unit listing, use the JEE Main 2026 syllabus guide alongside NTA's document. Zollege also has a 2026 question-paper archive; any conclusion about chapter frequency must be based on identified papers and shifts, not on the syllabus list alone.
NTA recorded 15,38,468 unique candidates appearing in Paper 1 in 2026. January attendance was 13,04,653 and April attendance was 10,34,330. These are different measures: a student who sat both sessions appears in each session total but only once in the unique-candidate figure. The figures come from page 3 of NTA's final 2026 Paper 1 result notice.
| Group | Registered | Appeared |
|---|---|---|
| January session | 13,55,293 | 13,04,653 |
| April session | 11,10,904 | 10,34,330 |
| Unique candidates across both sessions | 16,04,854 | 15,38,468 |
Blue: registered. Green: appeared. Each full track represents 17,00,000 candidates; all bars use the same scale.
January
April
Unique across both sessions
These historical figures show the scale of the examination, not the number of candidates who will register in 2027. They also do not provide an exact percentile-to-rank formula for a future year: the candidate pool, best-session scores and tie rules all affect the final rank list.
The city intimation slip and admit card serve different purposes. The 21 March 2026 city notice explicitly said the city slip was not the admit card. It informed candidates about the allotted examination city; the admit card was issued separately. The 2026 admit-card page records that earlier release cycle, not a live 2027 download.
An admit card identifies the candidate's assigned date, shift and centre and carries the relevant reporting instructions. NTA's 2026 FAQs said candidates could not choose their own examination date or shift; these were allotted by the system. This is why a general calendar and a candidate's actual appointment are not interchangeable.
NTA displayed the question paper, recorded responses and provisional key for challenges. Under the 2026 challenge procedure, a challenge cost ₹200 per question, non-refundable, and required supporting evidence. The final answer key, after review, formed the basis for the result.
For the ordinary +4/−1 scoring rule, an answer changing from incorrect to correct raises the raw score by five marks: the original minus one is replaced by plus four. The reverse change lowers it by five. A dropped question follows the separate official rule; the 2026 bulletin provided four marks to all candidates who appeared in the relevant shift when a question was dropped. That is not the same as awarding marks only to candidates who challenged or attempted it.
The answer-key exceptions matter when comparing a response-sheet calculation with the final score. A revised key can change raw marks before normalisation is applied.
Raw marks, NTA percentile and rank describe different things. Raw marks are calculated from responses and the final answer key. A percentile describes performance relative to candidates in the same shift. The final rank combines the applicable scores across sessions using NTA's ranking and tie-breaking rules.
| Measure | What it means |
|---|---|
| Raw marks | Marks calculated from the final key and the relevant marking rules |
| NTA score / percentile | 100 multiplied by the proportion of candidates in the shift whose raw score is equal to or below the candidate's score |
| All India Rank | Position in the final rank list after applicable session-merging and tie rules |
As the 2026 result notice explains, percentile is not percentage of marks. A 99 percentile therefore does not mean 99% of 300 marks. The number of candidates at or below a score changes across shifts, so one universal marks-to-percentile conversion cannot be applied to every question paper.
For candidates appearing in both sessions, NTA used the better total NTA score. It did not construct a new total by combining the best Mathematics score from one session with the best Physics or Chemistry scores from the other. The bulletin also says the total percentile is not the average of the three subject percentiles. These distinctions are set out in the result provisions and normalisation appendix.
Zollege's JEE Main 2026 result guide covers the completed cycle. Marks-to-rank estimates may provide context, but they are not a substitute for the final rank or a guarantee of a particular college.
The qualifying cutoff for JEE Advanced is a percentile threshold in JEE Main Paper 1. An admission cutoff is usually a closing rank for an institute, programme, round, category and quota. Passing the first threshold does not promise an NIT seat, and an NIT closing rank cannot be read as a percentage of marks.
| Category in NTA notice | Minimum NTA percentile |
|---|---|
| UR-ALL | 93.4123549 |
| UR-PwBD | 0.0023186 |
| EWS-ALL | 82.4164528 |
| OBC-ALL | 80.9232583 |
| SC-ALL | 63.9172792 |
| ST-ALL | 52.0174712 |
Source: NTA final Paper 1 result notice, 20 April 2026. These are historical qualifying thresholds, not predicted 2027 cutoffs. The category labels reproduce the notice; applicable reservation eligibility still has to be satisfied.
For admission, the meaningful comparison is the same programme and the same seat category, quota and counselling round. A Home State closing rank and an Other State closing rank answer different questions. Likewise, a category rank and a Common Rank List position are not interchangeable. A single “safe percentile for all NITs” conceals those distinctions.
The 2026 JEE Main cutoff page provides additional historical context. The 2026 cutoff is not a predicted 2027 threshold or a guaranteed marks target.
JoSAA registration is separate from the NTA examination application. In the 2026 allocation rules, the seat offered depended on rank, category, preference order, seat availability and the applicable rules. NIT+ allocation used JEE Main ranks; IIT allocation used JEE Advanced ranks. Other admission systems could use their own registration and selection processes.
The counselling process involves a ranked list of institute-programme choices, allotment rounds and acceptance of an offered seat. Acceptance is not complete merely because a seat appears on screen. The 2026 process required the applicable payment, document submission and verification, including replies to any verification queries. Final admission also involved the admitting institute's requirements.
The online reporting rules explain why a provisional allotment is not an unconditional admission guarantee. Incorrect or unverified documents can affect eligibility and the allotted seat. The examination result cannot replace this stage.
| Option | Effect after accepting the offered seat |
|---|---|
| Freeze | Retain the seat and stop participating in subsequent allocation rounds |
| Float | Remain eligible for a higher-preference programme in any institute; retain the existing seat if no upgrade is offered |
| Slide | Remain eligible for a higher-preference programme within the same institute |
Under clauses 48–52, Float and Slide were unavailable in the last round, and a first-choice allotment offered only Freeze. Once selected, Freeze could not later be reversed.
CSAB's special vacant-seat rounds for the NIT+ system are distinct from JoSAA's allocation rounds. They have separate rules and schedules. They should not be described as additional IIT counselling rounds, nor should last year's registration dates or number of rounds be carried forward as the 2027 schedule.
The 2026 list of qualifying examinations included the NIOS Senior Secondary School Examination with at least five subjects. This recognition did not remove the passing-year or course-specific admission conditions. The applicable 2027 rules will still determine eligibility for the new cycle.
Under the 2026 state-code rules, a candidate who passed Class 12 in one state and later improved marks in another retained the state where Class 12 was first passed. The code was not determined simply by current residence. NIOS candidates had a separate study-centre-based provision.
The 2026 reservation provisions referred to the Central List of OBCs for OBC-NCL benefits in the relevant centrally administered admission route. Inclusion only in a state list was not equivalent. Non-creamy-layer status and the admitting authority's certificate requirements also mattered.
No. Question 17 of NTA's 2026 FAQs said APAAR ID was not mandatory. Its presence as a field should not be described as a universal compulsory document for the next cycle without the new instructions.
No. The 2026 official FAQ said calculators were not permitted in any form. A claim that the computer-based mode automatically provides a virtual calculator is incorrect for that cycle.
No. The 2026 FAQs allowed corrections only in selected fields during the specified window. A correction facility should not be treated as permission to replace every detail. The fields and dates for 2027 depend on its own correction notice.
*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.
Without a doubt the best college in India for engineering are the top 3 IITs, IIT Delhi, IIT Bombay and IIT Madras. Then these are followed by BITs Pilania and so on.
It is a subjective question. However, ideally once in the beginning to see where you stand and then after you are done with a major portion of the syllabus. Going through JEE Main previous year paper will prepare you mentally to appear for the exam.
Yes, the JEE Main question paper for all shifts is different in order to prevent the leaking of questions. However, the authorities try to maintain the difficulty level across the slots.
If the question paper of one slot comes difficult than the other, NTA will follow the process of normalisation of scores. This will ensure a fair marking approach across all shifts.
The competition level of JEE Main is very high. Moreover, the difficulty level of question paper ranges from moderate to tough. So, only with a good preparation will you be able to clear the exam.