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AP PGECET 2025 Geo Engineering & Geo Informatics Question Paper with Solutions Pdf

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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Nov 20, 2025

AP PGECET 2025 Geo Engineering & Geo Informatics Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download. AP PGECET 2025 Geo Engineering & Geo Informatics Question Paper consists of 120 questions with a total weightage of 120 marks.

AP PGECET 2025 Geo Engineering & Geo Informatics Question Paper with Solution PDF

AP PGECET 2025 Geo Engineering & Geo Informatics Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
AP PGECET 2025 Geo Engineering & Geo Informatics Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

Where is Earth's core located relative to the surface?

  • (A) 2,900 kilometers below the surface
  • (B) 3,900 kilometers below the surface
  • (C) At the crust - mantle boundary
  • (D) 1,900 kilometers below the surface
Correct Answer: (A) 2,900 kilometers below the surface
View Solution



The Earth's core begins at the core-mantle boundary (CMB), also called the Gutenberg discontinuity, located at an average depth of 2,896 km from the surface. This depth is determined from seismic wave studies: P-waves show a shadow zone between 103° and 143° from an earthquake source, and S-waves are completely blocked beyond 103°, proving the outer core is liquid. The crust-mantle boundary (Moho) is only 5–70 km deep, so option (C) is incorrect. The value 2,900 km is the standard approximation in geophysical models like the Preliminary Reference Earth Model (PREM). Quick Tip: Core starts at ~2,900 km → seismic discontinuity (CMB).


Question 2:

What is the term for the process that led to the formation of Earth's core?

  • (A) Plate tectonics
  • (B) Planetary differentiation
  • (C) Seafloor spreading
  • (D) Mantle convection
Correct Answer: (B) Planetary differentiation
View Solution



Planetary differentiation is the process by which a molten planet separates into layers based on density. During Earth's Hadean era (~4.6–4.0 Ga), the planet was in a magma ocean state due to accretion heat, giant impacts (e.g., Moon-forming collision), and short-lived radioactive isotopes (²⁶Al, ⁶⁰Fe). Iron and nickel (density ~7.8–8.0 g/cm³) sank to form the core, while lighter silicates (~3.3 g/cm³) rose to form the mantle and crust. Evidence includes siderophile element depletion in the mantle and high core density (12.8–13.1 g/cm³). Plate tectonics, seafloor spreading, and mantle convection are ongoing processes that began after core formation. Quick Tip: Differentiation: Fe-Ni ↓ → core; Si-Mg ↑ → mantle.


Question 3:

What are polymorphs in mineralogy?

  • (A) Rocks formed under identical pressure and temperature conditions
  • (B) Two or more minerals with the same chemical formula but different crystal structures
  • (C) Crystals that form only in metamorphic environments
  • (D) Minerals with different chemical formulas but similar crystal structures
Correct Answer: (B) Two or more minerals with the same chemical formula but different crystal structures
View Solution



Polymorphs are minerals with identical chemical composition but different crystal lattices due to varying pressure-temperature conditions. Examples: Diamond (cubic, high P >120 GPa) and graphite (hexagonal, low P); calcite (trigonal, stable <0.5 GPa) and aragonite (orthorhombic, high P); quartz (trigonal), tridymite (hexagonal), and cristobalite (cubic). Transitions follow phase diagrams governed by the Clapeyron equation (dP/dT = ΔH/TΔV). Option (D) refers to isomorphism (e.g., plagioclase solid solution). Quick Tip: Polymorphs: same formula, different structure (P-T dependent).


Question 4:

What characterizes a porphyritic texture in igneous rocks?

  • (A) Layers of alternating light and dark minerals
  • (B) A texture in which some crystals are distinctly larger than the rest
  • (C) Crystals that form only from volcanic eruptions
  • (D) Uniformly sized crystals throughout the rock
Correct Answer: (B) A texture in which some crystals are distinctly larger than the rest
View Solution



Porphyritic texture consists of large phenocrysts (>0.5 mm) embedded in a fine-grained groundmass (<0.1 mm). It results from two-stage cooling: slow cooling in a deep magma chamber forms large crystals (e.g., plagioclase, pyroxene), followed by rapid cooling upon eruption forming microcrystalline or glassy matrix. Example: porphyritic basalt with olivine phenocrysts in glassy groundmass. Option (A) describes layered igneous texture (e.g., Skaergaard intrusion). Option (D) is phaneritic texture (granite). Quick Tip: Porphyritic = phenocrysts + groundmass → two-stage cooling.


Question 5:

Which of the following correctly describes the composition of Earth's core?

  • (A) Silicate rocks with low-density elements
  • (B) Solid iron-nickel outer core and liquid silicate inner core
  • (C) Liquid iron-nickel outer core and solid iron-nickel inner core
  • (D) Primarily aluminum silicate with traces of magnesium
Correct Answer: (C) Liquid iron-nickel outer core and solid iron-nickel inner core
View Solution



The outer core (2,896–5,150 km) is a liquid Fe-Ni alloy (~85% Fe, ~5% Ni, ~10% light elements like S, O, Si) with density 9.9–12.2 g/cm³. Its liquid state is confirmed by the absence of S-waves. It generates the geomagnetic field via convective dynamo. The inner core (5,150–6,371 km) is solid Fe-Ni; despite high temperature (~5,700 K), extreme pressure (~360 GPa) raises the melting point, causing crystallization. P-wave velocity jumps from 10.3 to 11.3 km/s at the inner core boundary (ICB). Light elements reduce density to ~13 g/cm³. Quick Tip: Outer core: liquid → S-wave shadow. Inner core: solid → P-wave velocity jump.


Question 6:

What is the process called when a parent rock transforms due to heat and pressure without melting?

  • (A) Diagenesis
  • (B) Metamorphism
  • (C) Crystallization
  • (D) Erosion
Correct Answer: (B) Metamorphism
View Solution



Metamorphism is the solid-state recrystallization of minerals in a parent rock (protolith) under elevated temperature (200–800°C) and pressure (0.2–1.5 GPa) without melting. Mechanisms include recrystallization (grain growth, e.g., quartzite), neocrystallization (new minerals, e.g., garnet in schist), and metasomatism (fluid-aided ion exchange). Types: contact (near intrusions), regional (orogenic belts). Example: shale → slate → schist → gneiss. Diagenesis occurs below 200°C during burial. Quick Tip: Metamorphism: T > 200°C, no melting, solid-state recrystallization.


Question 7:

Which of the following best explains the term ``continental shield''?

  • (A) Submarine ridges with high heat flow
  • (B) Oceanic crust covered by continental sediments
  • (C) Large regions of exposed Precambrian crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks
  • (D) Young mountain ranges formed by recent tectonic activity
Correct Answer: (C) Large regions of exposed Precambrian crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks
View Solution



Continental shields are vast, tectonically stable regions of exposed Precambrian (>540 Ma) cratonic basement composed of granitoids, gneisses, and greenstone belts. Formed during Archean-Paleoproterozoic orogenies, they later stabilized with thick lithosphere (>200 km) and low heat flow. Low erosion is due to isostatic equilibrium. Examples: Canadian Shield (up to 4 Ga), Indian Shield (Dharwar, Singhbhum cratons). Cratons include both exposed shield and buried platform. Quick Tip: Shield = old (>540 Ma), stable, exposed crystalline basement.


Question 8:

Which of the following is a framework silicate mineral?

  • (A) Olivine
  • (B) Biotite
  • (C) Quartz
  • (D) Pyroxene
Correct Answer: (C) Quartz
View Solution



Framework silicates (tectosilicates) have SiO₄ tetrahedra sharing all four oxygen atoms, forming a 3D network (Si:O = 1:2). Quartz (SiO₂) is a pure framework silicate with hexagonal/trigonal structure. Feldspars (e.g., KAlSi₃O₈) have Al substitution. Silicate classification: nesosilicates (isolated tetrahedra) — olivine (Mg,Fe)₂SiO₄; inosilicates (chains) — pyroxene; phyllosilicates (sheets) — biotite K(Mg,Fe)₃AlSi₃O₁₀(OH)₂. Quick Tip: Framework → 3D → SiO₂ (quartz, feldspar).


Question 9:

The cleavage in mica minerals is described as:

  • (A) Basal
  • (B) Prismatic
  • (C) Cubic
  • (D) Irregular
Correct Answer: (A) Basal
View Solution



Mica group minerals (muscovite, biotite, phlogopite) are phyllosilicates with a 2:1 layer structure: two tetrahedral (Si,Al)O₄ sheets sandwiching one octahedral (Al, Mg, Fe) sheet. Layers are weakly bonded by van der Waals forces between K⁺ ions, resulting in perfect basal cleavage {001 — one direction parallel to the sheet, producing thin, elastic flakes. Prismatic cleavage (2 directions) occurs in amphibole; cubic (3 at 90°) in galena. Quick Tip: Mica → sheet silicate → 1 perfect basal cleavage.


Question 10:

The primary instrument used for measuring horizontal and vertical angles in surveying is:

  • (A) Theodolite
  • (B) Total station
  • (C) Plane table
  • (D) Dumpy level
Correct Answer: (A) Theodolite
View Solution



Theodolite is an optical instrument with a telescope, horizontal circle (for azimuth/bearing), and vertical circle (for altitude/zenith angle) measuring angles to 1" accuracy using vernier or digital scales. It is the fundamental tool in triangulation surveys. Total station integrates theodolite with electronic distance measurement (EDM) and data logging. Dumpy level is used for differential leveling (height differences). Plane table is a graphical surveying method using alidade. Quick Tip: Theodolite = angle measurement. Total station = theodolite + distance.


Question 11:

High oblique photographs differ from low oblique photographs in that they:

  • (A) Are taken from a higher altitude
  • (B) Include the horizon in the image
  • (C) Are taken with a vertical camera axis
  • (D) Show less ground area
Correct Answer: (B) Include the horizon in the image
View Solution



In aerial photography: low oblique has camera axis tilted 3°–30° from vertical with no horizon visible, used for 3D terrain modeling; high oblique has tilt >30° (up to 60°) with horizon visible, used for reconnaissance and urban planning. Vertical (nadir) photography has camera axis perpendicular to ground, used in photogrammetry. High oblique covers larger area but with increasing scale distortion toward edges. Quick Tip: High oblique → horizon in frame. Low oblique → no horizon.


Question 12:

Which type of map projection assumes a globe resting on a flat surface, producing a circular map with a central point of tangency?

  • (A) Conic Projection
  • (B) Mercator Projection
  • (C) Azimuthal Projection
  • (D) Cylindrical Projection
Correct Answer: (C) Azimuthal Projection
View Solution



Azimuthal (planar) projection uses a flat plane tangent to the globe at one point (usually a pole), producing a circular map. The tangency point is the center. It preserves true directions (azimuths) from the center, used in polar navigation and the UN flag. Variants: stereographic (conformal), gnomonic (great circles as straight lines). Conic projection uses a cone with standard parallels; cylindrical (e.g., Mercator) uses a cylinder, producing rectangular maps. Quick Tip: Azimuthal → circular, pole-centered, true azimuths.


Question 13:

Which map projection is widely used for nautical navigation due to its ability to represent lines of constant true direction?

  • (A) Azimuthal Projection
  • (B) Robinson Projection
  • (C) Polyconic Projection
  • (D) Mercator Projection
Correct Answer: (D) Mercator Projection
View Solution



The Mercator projection is a cylindrical conformal projection where meridians are vertical parallel lines and parallels are horizontal lines with increasing spacing toward poles. It preserves angles locally, making loxodromes (constant bearing lines) appear as straight lines on the map — ideal for nautical navigation. Developed by Gerardus Mercator in 1569, it is the standard for marine charts (IMO requirement). Distortion increases with latitude; Greenland appears larger than Africa. Rhumb lines = straight lines on Mercator. Quick Tip: Mercator: conformal → true angles → straight rhumb lines. Used in nautical charts; great circles curve except equator/meridians. Distortion: Tissot’s indicatrix elongates toward poles.


Question 14:

The point on the ground vertically beneath the camera at the time of exposure is called the:

  • (A) Perceptive point
  • (B) Nadir Point
  • (C) Principal point
  • (D) Isoline
Correct Answer: (B) Nadir Point
View Solution



The nadir point is the point on the ground directly beneath the camera lens (or sensor) at the instant of exposure, representing the local vertical (plumb line). In vertical aerial photography, it coincides with the principal point (intersection of optical axis with photo plane). In oblique photography, nadir and principal points differ. It is used to compute photo scale and displacement. Isoline is a contour line. Quick Tip: Nadir = ground point directly below camera. Vertical photo: nadir = principal point. Used in scale: S = f / (H - h_nadir).


Question 15:

Which of the following characteristics most clearly distinguishes an oblique photograph from a vertical photograph in aerial photography?

  • (A) Uniform scale throughout the photograph
  • (B) Ability to see the horizon in the photograph
  • (C) Taken with the camera axis vertical to the ground
  • (D) Presence of overlapping areas between photos
Correct Answer: (B) Ability to see the horizon in the photograph
View Solution



Oblique photographs are taken with the camera axis intentionally tilted from vertical. High oblique (>30° tilt) includes the horizon; low oblique (3°–30°) does not. Vertical photographs have camera axis nearly perpendicular (±3°) to ground — no horizon, uniform scale (approximately). Overlap (60% sidelap, 80% endlap) is common to both. Horizon visibility is the key visual distinction in high oblique photos. Quick Tip: High oblique: horizon visible, large area, high distortion. Low oblique: no horizon, 3D view, terrain modeling. Vertical: no horizon, uniform scale, photogrammetry.


Question 16:

In remote sensing, super wide angle cameras are cameras whose angular field of view is:

  • (A) Less than \(60^\circ\)
  • (B) Between \(60^\circ\) and \(90^\circ\)
  • (C) Greater than \(90^\circ\)
  • (D) Exactly \(180^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (C) Greater than \(90^\circ\)
View Solution



Camera classification by angular field of view (FOV):
- Normal: \(<60°\)

- Wide angle: 60°–90°

- Super wide angle: \(>90°\) (up to 120°–140°)

- Fisheye: ~180°

Super wide angle lenses cover large ground swath in one frame, used in reconnaissance satellites (e.g., KH-11). High FOV causes barrel distortion and scale variation. FOV = 2 × arctan(d/2f), where d = sensor size, f = focal length.
Quick Tip: Super wide: FOV >90° → large swath, high distortion. Fisheye: ~180° → hemispherical view. Trade-off: coverage vs geometric fidelity.


Question 17:

What does the term 'radiance' refer to in radiometry?

  • (A) Energy per unit wavelength
  • (B) Energy per unit area
  • (C) Energy per unit area per unit solid angle
  • (D) Total energy emitted by a source
Correct Answer: (C) Energy per unit area per unit solid angle
View Solution



Radiance is a fundamental radiometric quantity that represents the amount of radiant energy passing through or emitted from a surface per unit area in a given direction per unit solid angle. It combines both spatial and directional properties of radiation. Mathematically, radiance is expressed as: \[ L = \frac{d^{2}\Phi}{dA \, \cos\theta \, d\Omega} \]
where \( \Phi \) is the radiant flux, \( A \) is the area, \( \theta \) is the angle between the surface normal and the direction of propagation, and \( \Omega \) is the solid angle. Radiance is crucial in remote sensing as it determines the amount of light reaching the sensor from each pixel. Quick Tip: Radiance = Energy per unit area per unit solid angle (directional quantity).


Question 18:

Which of the following is not a radiometric quantity?

  • (A) Radiant flux
  • (B) Irradiance
  • (C) Reflectance
  • (D) Radiance
Correct Answer: (C) Reflectance
View Solution



Radiometric quantities measure the physical power or energy of electromagnetic radiation. They include radiant flux (total energy per unit time), irradiance (flux per unit area incident on a surface), and radiance (flux per unit area per unit solid angle). Reflectance, however, is a \emph{dimensionless ratio that describes the fraction of incident radiation reflected by a surface. It is derived from radiometric measurements but is not itself a radiometric quantity. Quick Tip: Reflectance is a ratio, not a physical energy measure — hence not a radiometric quantity.


Question 19:

Which orbit is best suited for continuous weather monitoring over a specific region?

  • (A) Molniya orbit
  • (B) Polar orbit
  • (C) Geostationary orbit
  • (D) Sun-synchronous orbit
Correct Answer: (C) Geostationary orbit
View Solution



A geostationary orbit allows a satellite to remain fixed over one point on the Earth's equator, moving with the planet’s rotation. This enables continuous observation of the same region, which is ideal for weather monitoring, storm tracking, and communication purposes. The satellite orbits at a height of about 35,786 km, maintaining a 24-hour orbital period synchronized with Earth's rotation. Quick Tip: Geostationary = fixed over one region → perfect for continuous weather observation.


Question 20:

Geostationary satellites orbit at approximately:

  • (A) 35,786 km
  • (B) 786 km
  • (C) 1000 km
  • (D) 500 km
Correct Answer: (A) 35,786 km
View Solution



A geostationary satellite orbits the Earth at an altitude of approximately 35,786 km above the equator. At this height, the orbital period of the satellite equals the Earth's rotational period (24 hours). As a result, the satellite appears stationary relative to a point on Earth’s surface, allowing continuous coverage of a particular region. This altitude ensures a stable and constant view, crucial for meteorological and communication applications. Quick Tip: 35,786 km = geostationary orbit altitude (synchronized with Earth's rotation).


Question 21:

Across-track stereoscopic imaging is typically obtained by:

  • (A) Combining radar and optical data
  • (B) Not combining radar and optical data
  • (C) Using side-looking sensors from different satellite passes
  • (D) Capturing nadir images over different regions
Correct Answer: (C) Using side-looking sensors from different satellite passes
View Solution



Across-track stereoscopic imaging involves capturing images of the same area from different viewing angles during successive satellite passes. This is typically achieved using side-looking sensors, such as those on radar or optical satellites, that observe the area from slightly different orbits. By combining these multiple perspectives, a 3D representation of the terrain can be created. It differs from along-track stereo, which captures images simultaneously using two sensors aligned along the flight path. Quick Tip: Across-track stereo = different satellite passes + side-looking views.


Question 22:

Which of the following satellite systems is capable of along-track stereo imaging using fore and aft sensors?

  • (A) Cartosat-1
  • (B) MODIS
  • (C) SPOT
  • (D) Landsat
Correct Answer: (A) Cartosat-1
View Solution



Cartosat-1, an Indian remote sensing satellite launched by ISRO, is equipped with two panchromatic cameras—one facing forward (fore) and the other backward (aft)—that capture images of the same area from two slightly different angles during a single pass. This configuration allows for along-track stereoscopic imaging, enabling precise 3D mapping and digital elevation model (DEM) generation. In contrast, SPOT and Landsat primarily acquire single-view images. Quick Tip: Cartosat-1 = fore + aft cameras → along-track stereo imaging.


Question 23:

Which among the following is not related to GIS software's?

  • (A) STAAD Pro
  • (B) QGIS
  • (C) ARCVIEW
  • (D) CAD
Correct Answer: (A) STAAD Pro
View Solution



STAAD Pro is primarily a structural analysis and design software used in civil and structural engineering, not in Geographic Information Systems (GIS). GIS software such as QGIS, ArcView, and CAD tools are designed for mapping, spatial data analysis, and geographic modeling. STAAD Pro deals with load calculations and structure modeling, whereas GIS applications handle spatial relationships and geographic data management. Quick Tip: STAAD Pro = structural analysis; GIS tools = spatial analysis.


Question 24:

Which of the following best describes topology in GIS?

  • (A) Raster resolution accuracy
  • (B) Geometric measurement of features
  • (C) Spatial relationships between vector features
  • (D) Storage of attribute information
Correct Answer: (C) Spatial relationships between vector features
View Solution



Topology in GIS defines and maintains spatial relationships among vector features such as points, lines, and polygons. It ensures that features correctly share boundaries and relationships, for example, that adjacent polygons share common edges or that a road intersects a river at a single point. Topology allows GIS software to validate spatial data integrity and support operations like adjacency, connectivity, and containment analysis. Quick Tip: Topology = how vector features are connected and related spatially.


Question 25:

Which GIS file format is most commonly used for storing vector data, including points, lines, and polygons?

  • (A) .img
  • (B) .txt
  • (C) .pps
  • (D) .shp
Correct Answer: (D) .shp
View Solution



The \texttt{.shp (shapefile) format is a widely used file type in GIS for storing vector data such as points, lines, and polygons. Developed by ESRI, it stores geometric location and attribute information of spatial features. Shapefiles are typically accompanied by associated files like \texttt{.shx (shape index) and \texttt{.dbf (attribute data). Raster data, on the other hand, is often stored in \texttt{.img or \texttt{.tif formats. Quick Tip: Use \texttt{.shp} for vector data; use \texttt{.img} or \texttt{.tif} for raster data.


Question 26:

Which of the following represents the correct set of coordinate classification in GIS?

  • (A) Geographic, spherical systems
  • (B) Geographic, projected systems
  • (C) Linear, geometric systems
  • (D) Spherical, projected systems
Correct Answer: (B) Geographic, projected systems
View Solution



GIS uses two major coordinate reference systems: Geographic Coordinate System (GCS) and Projected Coordinate System (PCS). GCS uses latitude and longitude on a spherical surface, while PCS represents the Earth’s curved surface on a flat map through projections (like UTM or Mercator). Geographic coordinates provide global positioning, whereas projected coordinates are ideal for local and regional mapping. Quick Tip: GCS = latitude/longitude; PCS = flat projection of Earth's surface.


Question 27:

In GIS, what is the purpose of indexing spatial data in a database?

  • (A) To speed up data visualization
  • (B) To improve spatial query performance
  • (C) To store backup copies of data
  • (D) To manage spatial relationships
Correct Answer: (B) To improve spatial query performance
View Solution



Spatial indexing helps in organizing spatial data to allow faster retrieval and efficient querying in GIS databases. It minimizes the time required to locate features based on spatial criteria like distance or containment. Common spatial indexing methods include R-trees, quad-trees, and grid indexing. These methods enable spatial databases to process large datasets efficiently by narrowing down search areas before performing detailed spatial computations. Quick Tip: Spatial indexing = faster queries by efficiently organizing spatial data.


Question 28:

What is the key advantage of Object-Oriented Database Models in GIS?

  • (A) They only work with vector data
  • (B) They are easier to use than relational databases
  • (C) They store data in a flat, three Dimensional table
  • (D) They allow for more complex data relationships and inheritance
Correct Answer: (D) They allow for more complex data relationships and inheritance
View Solution



Object-Oriented Database (OODB) models in GIS integrate both spatial and attribute data into single entities called objects. These objects can inherit properties and methods, allowing for complex data structures and relationships to be efficiently represented. This makes it easier to model real-world entities that have both geometric and non-geometric characteristics. It improves data consistency and supports advanced spatial operations. Quick Tip: OODB = objects with data + behavior → handles complex GIS data efficiently.


Question 29:

What is the primary advantage of using a hierarchical database structure in GIS?

  • (A) Improved spatial data analysis
  • (B) Faster query response times
  • (C) Handling of data
  • (D) Clear parent-child relationships between data sets
Correct Answer: (D) Clear parent-child relationships between data sets
View Solution



In a hierarchical database model, data is organized into a tree-like structure, establishing clear parent-child relationships. This structure ensures a well-defined path for data retrieval and representation of spatial hierarchies, such as country → state → district → city. Though less flexible than relational models, it is efficient for representing fixed relationships and supporting hierarchical geographic data. Quick Tip: Hierarchical DB = tree structure → clear parent-child relationships.


Question 30:

Which of the following would be considered a non-spatial data analysis technique?

  • (A) Raster data interpolation
  • (B) Database queries using SQL
  • (C) Buffer zone creation
  • (D) Network analysis
Correct Answer: (B) Database queries using SQL
View Solution



Non-spatial data analysis involves examining attribute information without considering the spatial or geographic component. SQL (Structured Query Language) queries are used to extract, sort, or filter data based on attribute conditions such as population, area, or type. In contrast, spatial analysis techniques—like buffering, interpolation, and network analysis—require geometric and positional data. Quick Tip: SQL queries analyze attribute data → non-spatial; spatial = map-based operations.


Question 31:

In GIS, what is the primary purpose of using symbology?

  • (A) To perform spatial queries
  • (B) To represent spatial features visually with symbols
  • (C) To convert raster to vector
  • (D) To store spatial data efficiently
Correct Answer: (B) To represent spatial features visually with symbols
View Solution



Symbology in GIS is used to visually represent spatial data through different symbols, colors, and patterns. It helps convey information about features such as land use, population density, or elevation. For instance, roads may be represented with lines, water bodies with blue polygons, and cities with point markers. Proper symbology enhances map readability and helps interpret spatial patterns effectively. Quick Tip: Symbology = visual language of maps (symbols, colors, patterns).


Question 32:

Which of the following types of visualizations would be most appropriate for displaying elevation data?

  • (A) Heat map
  • (B) Bar chart
  • (C) 3D surface model
  • (D) Line graph
Correct Answer: (C) 3D surface model
View Solution



Elevation data, representing variations in terrain height, is best visualized using a 3D surface model. This visualization creates a realistic depiction of the Earth's topography, allowing users to observe slopes, valleys, and peaks effectively. Digital Elevation Models (DEMs) and Triangulated Irregular Networks (TINs) are commonly used for generating such 3D surfaces. Quick Tip: 3D surface model = realistic visualization of terrain elevation.


Question 33:

Which map projection is best suited for regional or hemispheric maps, but unsuitable for entire world map?

  • (A) Cylindrical
  • (B) Equivalent
  • (C) Conical
  • (D) Azimuthal
Correct Answer: (C) Conical
View Solution



Conical projections project the Earth’s surface onto a cone placed over part of the globe. They are ideal for mid-latitude regions and hemispheric mapping because distortion is minimized near the standard parallels. However, they are unsuitable for world maps as distortion increases toward the poles and equator. Common examples include the Albers and Lambert Conformal Conic projections. Quick Tip: Conical projection = best for regional/hemispheric maps, not for global scale.


Question 34:

Which attribute is not associated with digital maps?

  • (A) Colour
  • (B) Symbology
  • (C) South arrow
  • (D) Legends
Correct Answer: (C) South arrow
View Solution



Digital maps generally use a north arrow to indicate orientation since maps are conventionally aligned with north at the top. Other essential map elements include color, symbology, and legends, which help interpret map content and data meaningfully. A “south arrow” is not a recognized attribute in cartography. Quick Tip: North arrow = standard orientation symbol; south arrow not used.


Question 35:

Across track scanning systems are also called as ______ systems.

  • (A) Push broom
  • (B) Lateral broom
  • (C) Pull broom
  • (D) Whisk broom scanner
Correct Answer: (D) Whisk broom scanner
View Solution



Across-track scanning systems, also known as whisk broom scanners, use a rotating mirror to scan the Earth's surface perpendicular to the satellite's motion. As the satellite moves forward, the mirror sweeps side to side, capturing one pixel at a time across the swath. This technique provides detailed data but may experience geometric distortions due to varying scan angles. Quick Tip: Across-track = whisk broom (side-to-side scanning motion).


Question 36:

RISAT stands for

  • (A) Radio Satellite
  • (B) Radio Navigation and Ranging Satellite
  • (C) Radar Imaging Satellite
  • (D) Reference system
Correct Answer: (C) Radar Imaging Satellite
View Solution



RISAT (Radar Imaging Satellite) is an Indian Earth observation satellite series developed by ISRO. It employs Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) to capture high-resolution images regardless of weather or lighting conditions. This makes RISAT extremely useful for applications such as agriculture monitoring, disaster management, and surveillance. Quick Tip: RISAT = ISRO’s Radar Imaging Satellite (works in all weather).


Question 37:

Joint earth-observing mission between ISRO and NASA using advanced radar imaging system is known as

  • (A) NASA-ISRO Systematic Radar Mission (NISAR)
  • (B) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)
  • (C) NASA-ISRO Side-looking Aperture Radar (NISAR)
  • (D) NASA-ISRO Side-looking Aperture Radio (NISAR)
Correct Answer: (B) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)
View Solution



NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a collaborative Earth observation mission between NASA and ISRO. It will use dual-frequency SAR (L-band by NASA and S-band by ISRO) to provide detailed global measurements of land and ice surfaces. NISAR aims to monitor natural hazards, ecosystem disturbances, and climate change impacts. Quick Tip: NISAR = joint NASA–ISRO SAR mission → global land and ice monitoring.


Question 38:

Instrument used for monitoring water levels in rivers/reservoirs from space is known as

  • (A) Stadiometer or Satellite Stadiometer
  • (B) Altimeter or Satellite Altimeter
  • (C) Space Theodolite
  • (D) LISS
Correct Answer: (B) Altimeter or Satellite Altimeter
View Solution



Radar altimeters (e.g., Poseidon, SARAL/AltiKa) measure time-of-flight of radar pulse to water surface. Accuracy: ±3 cm. Used in Jason, Sentinel-3, SWOT. LISS is optical camera. Stadiometer is ground gauge. Quick Tip: Satellite altimeter → water height from space. Radar pulse → round-trip time → height. SWOT: 2D water surface mapping.


Question 39:

______ resolution defines the smallest difference of radiant energy detected by a sensor.

  • (A) Spectral resolution
  • (B) Radiometric resolution
  • (C) Temporal resolution
  • (D) Spatial resolution
Correct Answer: (B) Radiometric resolution
View Solution



Radiometric resolution = number of digital levels (bits) to record radiance.
- 8-bit: 256 levels
- 11-bit: 2048 levels (Landsat-8)
- 16-bit: 65,536 levels
Higher bits → better detection of subtle differences (e.g., water quality). Quick Tip: Radiometric: bit depth → DN levels. 8-bit = 0–255, 11-bit = 0–2047. Higher → better contrast in shadows.


Question 40:

Diffused reflection of solar radiation from earth's surface is known as

  • (A) Radiance
  • (B) Irradiance
  • (C) Albedo
  • (D) Reflectance
Correct Answer: (C) Albedo
View Solution



Albedo is the ratio of reflected solar radiation to incident solar radiation over a surface (0–1).
- Snow: 0.9
- Ocean: 0.06
- Forest: 0.15
Measures diffuse reflection. Reflectance is directional (BRDF). Radiance: directional flux. Irradiance: incoming flux. Quick Tip: Albedo α = reflected / incident (0–1). High: ice/snow → cooling. Low: ocean → warming.


Question 41:

The energy quantum for radiation is proportional to its

  • (A) Frequency
  • (B) Reciprocal of energy
  • (C) Square of frequency
  • (D) Square root of frequency
Correct Answer: (A) Frequency
View Solution



According to Planck’s quantum theory, the energy (\(E\)) of a radiation quantum (photon) is directly proportional to its frequency (\(\nu\)): \[ E = h\nu \]
where \(h\) is Planck’s constant (\(6.626 \times 10^{-34}~J\cdot s\)).
This means that as the frequency of radiation increases, the energy associated with each photon also increases proportionally. Quick Tip: Higher frequency → higher photon energy → more energetic radiation.


Question 42:

Output from a thermal sensor is a measurement of ______ temperature of an object.

  • (A) Kinetic
  • (B) Radiant
  • (C) Blackbody
  • (D) Infrared
Correct Answer: (B) Radiant
View Solution



Thermal sensors detect the emitted electromagnetic radiation (primarily in the infrared region) from an object. This emission corresponds to the object’s radiant temperature, which represents the temperature inferred from the intensity of emitted radiation, not the true physical or kinetic temperature. Quick Tip: Radiant temperature = temperature derived from emitted IR energy.


Question 43:

Who is known as father of Indian Space Program?

  • (A) Prof. P. R. Pisharoty
  • (B) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
  • (C) Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
  • (D) Prof. U. R. Rao
Correct Answer: (B) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
View Solution



Dr. Vikram Sarabhai is regarded as the Father of the Indian Space Program for founding ISRO and initiating India’s space research journey. He envisioned space technology as a tool for national development and established the first satellite project, Aryabhata, and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) in 1969. Quick Tip: Dr. Vikram Sarabhai → Founder of ISRO and pioneer of Indian space science.


Question 44:

National Remote Sensing Day is celebrated on ________ every year.

  • (A) August 12
  • (B) June 5
  • (C) November 14
  • (D) August 15
Correct Answer: (A) August 12
View Solution



National Remote Sensing Day is celebrated on August 12 to commemorate the birth anniversary of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai. The day honors his contributions to Indian space technology and remote sensing applications. Quick Tip: August 12 → National Remote Sensing Day → in memory of Dr. Vikram Sarabhai.


Question 45:

Which colour of EM spectrum is used for bathymetry studies?

  • (A) Red
  • (B) UV
  • (C) SWIR
  • (D) Green
Correct Answer: (D) Green
View Solution



In bathymetric remote sensing, green light (around 500–570 nm) is used because it penetrates water more effectively than other visible wavelengths. Red and infrared radiation are absorbed quickly by water, making them unsuitable for depth measurement. Quick Tip: Green light → best water penetration → used for bathymetry.


Question 46:

Rayleigh scattering occurs when particle size is ________ than wavelength of incoming radiation.

  • (A) very small
  • (B) equal
  • (C) not equal
  • (D) very big
Correct Answer: (A) very small
View Solution



Rayleigh scattering occurs when the scattering particles are much smaller than the wavelength of the incoming radiation (e.g., air molecules scattering sunlight). It explains why the sky appears blue — shorter (blue) wavelengths are scattered more than longer (red) wavelengths. Quick Tip: Rayleigh scattering → particle size ≪ wavelength → blue sky.


Question 47:

The reflectance ________ with presence of moisture, surface roughness or organic content in soils.

  • (A) increases
  • (B) decreases
  • (C) remains same
  • (D) zero
Correct Answer: (B) decreases
View Solution



Soil reflectance decreases with increasing moisture, roughness, or organic matter. Moisture absorbs incoming radiation, reducing reflectance. Organic content darkens the soil, while roughness causes scattering losses. Quick Tip: More moisture/organic matter → darker soil → lower reflectance.


Question 48:

In digital image processing, the ________ process adjusts translational and rotational alignment between two images.

  • (A) Registration
  • (B) Filtering
  • (C) Enhancement
  • (D) Processing
Correct Answer: (A) Registration
View Solution



Image registration aligns two or more images geometrically so that corresponding pixels represent the same ground location. It corrects translational, rotational, and scale differences using control points or transformation models. Quick Tip: Registration → image alignment → same geographic reference.


Question 49:

________ helps to transform a correlated dataset into uncorrelated dataset.

  • (A) Rationing
  • (B) Principal Component Analysis
  • (C) Fusion
  • (D) Classification
Correct Answer: (B) Principal Component Analysis
View Solution



Principal Component Analysis (PCA) is a statistical transformation technique that converts correlated spectral bands into a new set of uncorrelated components (principal components). It reduces data redundancy and highlights key spectral variations. Quick Tip: PCA → reduces correlation → compresses data → highlights variability.


Question 50:

Rectification accuracy is expressed in terms of ________ error.

  • (A) Commission
  • (B) Root Mean Square
  • (C) Kappa
  • (D) Omission
Correct Answer: (B) Root Mean Square
View Solution



Rectification accuracy in image processing is measured using the Root Mean Square (RMS) error. RMS error quantifies the average deviation between actual and predicted pixel positions after geometric correction. Quick Tip: RMS error → indicator of geometric correction accuracy.


Question 51:

Spectral region of electromagnetic radiation which passes through atmosphere without much attenuation is known as

  • (A) Ozone hole
  • (B) Atmospheric window
  • (C) Ozone window
  • (D) Black hole
Correct Answer: (B) Atmospheric window
View Solution



An atmospheric window refers to specific wavelength regions where atmospheric gases absorb very little radiation, allowing EM energy to reach the Earth’s surface or sensors without major attenuation. These include visible and certain IR and microwave regions. Quick Tip: Atmospheric window → transparent region for EM transmission.


Question 52:

GIS ideally deals with

  • (A) Numeric data
  • (B) Binary data
  • (C) Spatial data
  • (D) Complex data
Correct Answer: (C) Spatial data
View Solution



GIS (Geographic Information System) primarily handles spatial data, which refers to data associated with geographic coordinates. It integrates spatial and attribute data to analyze geographic patterns and relationships. Quick Tip: GIS = Spatial + Attribute data → location-based analysis.


Question 53:

SDI stands for

  • (A) Spatial Data Interface
  • (B) Spatial Data Infrastructure
  • (C) Spatial Data Intention
  • (D) Spatial Data International
Correct Answer: (B) Spatial Data Infrastructure
View Solution



Spatial Data Infrastructure (SDI) provides a framework for sharing and managing spatial data at local, national, or global levels. It includes standards, policies, and tools to facilitate interoperability and data accessibility. Quick Tip: SDI = coordinated system for managing and sharing geospatial data.


Question 54:

________ defines the property of connectivity in GIS.

  • (A) Proximity
  • (B) Neighbourhood
  • (C) Topology
  • (D) Boolean Identity
Correct Answer: (C) Topology
View Solution



Topology in GIS describes the spatial relationships between vector features, such as adjacency, containment, and connectivity. It ensures data integrity and supports advanced spatial analyses like network routing. Quick Tip: Topology → defines how spatial features connect and relate.


Question 55:

Which of the following are true of AM/FM systems?

  • (A) The terms GIS and AM/FM are synonymous
  • (B) AM/FM are always vector based
  • (C) AM/FM is a specialized GIS
  • (D) AM/FM systems are always confined to the utility industry
Correct Answer: (C) AM/FM is a specialized GIS
View Solution



AM/FM (Automated Mapping/Facilities Management) systems are specialized subsets of GIS designed primarily for utility and infrastructure management. These systems focus on asset management, maintenance, and spatial representation of utility networks such as water, gas, and electricity. Unlike general-purpose GIS, AM/FM systems are tailored for operational efficiency and integration with enterprise databases, making them more application-specific. Quick Tip: AM/FM systems are utility-focused GIS tools used for asset tracking and maintenance. They combine mapping capabilities with facility management functions. Useful for infrastructure organizations like power and water supply companies.


Question 56:

India-WRIS is a portal for

  • (A) Agricultural resources
  • (B) Water resources
  • (C) Forest resources
  • (D) Geological resources
Correct Answer: (B) Water resources
View Solution



India-WRIS (Water Resources Information System) is a comprehensive web-based portal developed jointly by the Central Water Commission (CWC) and ISRO. It provides spatial and non-spatial data related to India’s water resources, including river basins, reservoirs, and groundwater information. It supports planning, monitoring, and management of water resources for sustainable development. Quick Tip: India-WRIS = Water Resources Information System. It integrates satellite data with hydrological information for effective water management. A joint effort by CWC and ISRO.


Question 57:

________ is a type of vector data model.

  • (A) Spaghetti
  • (B) Spatial
  • (C) Raster
  • (D) Quadtree
Correct Answer: (A) Spaghetti
View Solution



The Spaghetti data model is a simple vector data representation where each feature (line, polygon, or point) is stored independently without topological relationships. It is commonly used in early GIS systems and CAD software. Although easy to implement, it lacks information about connectivity or adjacency between spatial features. Quick Tip: Spaghetti model = independent storage of vector features. No topology → features “float” freely. Useful for simple mapping, not for spatial analysis.


Question 58:

The purpose of GIS data models is to

  • (A) Generate random data structures
  • (B) Analyse and describe fictional features in GIS
  • (C) Represent real-world features in various forms like points, lines, arcs, and polygons
  • (D) Create abstract sculptures of real world
Correct Answer: (C) Represent real-world features in various forms like points, lines, arcs, and polygons
View Solution



GIS data models provide a structured way to represent geographic features digitally. Points represent discrete locations, lines represent linear features (like roads or rivers), and polygons represent areas (like lakes or administrative boundaries). These models help convert real-world spatial entities into analyzable GIS data for decision-making and visualization. Quick Tip: GIS data models = real-world representation in digital space. Common types: vector (points/lines/polygons) and raster (grids). Foundation of spatial data analysis.


Question 59:

________ function is performed by data input/capture subsystem of GIS.

  • (A) Retrieval of data elements
  • (B) Storage of data elements
  • (C) Acquiring data
  • (D) Transformation of data
Correct Answer: (C) Acquiring data
View Solution



The data input or capture subsystem in GIS is responsible for acquiring spatial and attribute data from various sources, such as maps, satellite images, surveys, and GPS. It involves digitization, scanning, and importing datasets into the GIS database. Accurate data capture ensures reliable analysis and mapping. Quick Tip: Data capture = bringing spatial data into GIS. Accuracy at this stage ensures reliable outputs. Sources include remote sensing, surveys, and existing maps.


Question 60:

A network is a series of interconnecting lines along which there is a flow of

  • (A) Entities
  • (B) Points
  • (C) Resources
  • (D) Data
Correct Answer: (C) Resources
View Solution



In GIS, a network consists of interconnected linear features (links) and junctions (nodes) along which resources such as traffic, water, or electricity flow. Network analysis helps optimize routes, manage utilities, and analyze connectivity. Examples include road networks, pipelines, and electrical grids. Quick Tip: Network = interconnected lines (links + nodes). Flow can represent traffic, water, or information. Used for route optimization and resource management.


Question 61:

In the context of GIS data analysis, the term ________ means a search of a database for features that satisfy a set of spatial or attribute conditions.

  • (A) Transformation
  • (B) Query
  • (C) Indexing
  • (D) Modelling
Correct Answer: (B) Query
View Solution



A query in GIS refers to extracting or identifying spatial features or attribute records that meet specific conditions. Queries can be attribute-based (e.g., find all roads longer than 10 km) or spatial (e.g., find schools within 5 km of a river). They are essential for information retrieval and spatial decision-making. Quick Tip: Query = search in GIS data by conditions. Two types: spatial and attribute queries. Helps extract only the data you need for analysis.


Question 62:

The overlay function in GIS is similar to ________ in the relational database model.

  • (A) Select operation
  • (B) Join operation
  • (C) Indexing
  • (D) Table creation
Correct Answer: (B) Join operation
View Solution



Overlay in GIS combines two or more spatial datasets to create a new output that integrates both geometry and attributes. It’s analogous to a join operation in databases where attributes from related tables are combined based on a common field. Overlay helps analyze spatial relationships like intersection or union of geographic features. Quick Tip: Overlay = spatial version of database “join”. Used to combine multiple map layers. Example: finding forest areas overlapping with watersheds.


Question 63:

Spatial autocorrelation analysis in GIS is used to

  • (A) Convert raster data to vector data
  • (B) Determine the presence of clustering in spatial data
  • (C) Predict future spatial trends
  • (D) Simplify map topology
Correct Answer: (B) Determine the presence of clustering in spatial data
View Solution



Spatial autocorrelation measures the degree to which spatial features are correlated in terms of location and attribute values. Positive autocorrelation means similar values cluster together, while negative indicates dispersion. It helps identify spatial patterns such as hotspots or spatial dependencies in geographic phenomena. Quick Tip: Spatial autocorrelation = similarity among nearby spatial units. Positive → clustering, Negative → dispersion. Key tool for spatial pattern recognition.


Question 64:

The ________ is the area that can be seen on an image.

  • (A) Footprint
  • (B) Ground track
  • (C) Nadir
  • (D) Line of flight
Correct Answer: (A) Footprint
View Solution



The footprint refers to the ground area covered by a single image or scene acquired by a satellite or aerial sensor. It represents the instantaneous field of view projected onto the Earth’s surface. The size of the footprint depends on sensor altitude, resolution, and scan angle. Quick Tip: Footprint = visible ground area in an image. Larger altitude → larger footprint, lower resolution. Defines spatial coverage of remote sensing data.


Question 65:

________ minerals are among the first to crystallize in Bowen's Reaction Series.

  • (A) Feldspar
  • (B) Quartz
  • (C) Olivine
  • (D) Muscovite
Correct Answer: (C) Olivine
View Solution



According to Bowen’s Reaction Series, minerals crystallize from magma in a specific order based on temperature. Olivine forms first at high temperatures, followed by pyroxene, amphibole, and biotite as magma cools. Quartz and feldspar crystallize at the lowest temperatures. Quick Tip: Bowen’s Series = cooling order of minerals. Olivine forms first → Quartz last. Shows mineral stability with temperature.


Question 66:

The principle that states "in an undisturbed sequence of rocks, the oldest layers are at the bottom" is known as the ________.

  • (A) Principle of Original Horizontality
  • (B) Principle of Cross-Cutting Relationships
  • (C) Principle of Superposition
  • (D) Principle of Faunal Succession
Correct Answer: (C) Principle of Superposition
View Solution



The Principle of Superposition, introduced by Nicolaus Steno, states that in an undisturbed sequence of sedimentary rocks, the oldest layers lie at the bottom and the youngest at the top. This principle forms the basis of relative dating and helps interpret geological history. Quick Tip: Oldest rocks → bottom, youngest → top. Used for determining relative ages of rock strata. A key law in stratigraphy.


Question 67:

Which rock type primarily forms from cooling of lava on Earth's surface?

  • (A) Plutonic igneous
  • (B) Volcanic igneous
  • (C) Metamorphic
  • (D) Clastic sedimentary
Correct Answer: (B) Volcanic igneous
View Solution



Volcanic or extrusive igneous rocks form when magma erupts onto the Earth’s surface and cools rapidly. Because of quick cooling, these rocks often have fine-grained or glassy textures. Common examples include basalt and andesite. Quick Tip: Volcanic = extrusive igneous rocks. Rapid cooling → fine texture. Example: Basalt, formed from surface lava.


Question 68:

Which of the following is true about rocks?

  • (A) Rocks are composed of only one mineral.
  • (B) Rocks do not contain any non-mineral matter.
  • (C) Coal is not considered a true rock.
  • (D) Most rocks are a mixture of minerals.
Correct Answer: (D) Most rocks are a mixture of minerals.
View Solution



Rocks are naturally occurring solid aggregates of one or more minerals. Most rocks, such as granite or gneiss, consist of multiple minerals. However, some rocks like limestone (calcite) or rock salt (halite) may contain mainly one mineral. Quick Tip: Rocks = natural aggregates of minerals. Most contain several minerals; some have one dominant mineral. Basis for Earth’s crustal composition studies.


Question 69:

A rock that forms from cooling lava is classified as an ________.

  • (A) Intrusive igneous rock
  • (B) Extrusive igneous rock
  • (C) Extrusive metamorphic rock
  • (D) Intrusive volcanic rock
Correct Answer: (B) Extrusive igneous rock
View Solution



Extrusive igneous rocks form from lava that cools rapidly on the Earth's surface. Their fine-grained texture results from the quick solidification of molten material, which prevents large crystals from forming. Examples include basalt and pumice. Quick Tip: Extrusive = surface lava cooling → fine-grained rocks. Quick cooling prevents large crystals. Examples: basalt, pumice.


Question 70:

Which environment is most favourable for the formation of metamorphic rocks?

  • (A) High pressure and high temperature
  • (B) Low pressure and low temperature
  • (C) High pressure and low temperature
  • (D) Surface weathering
Correct Answer: (A) High pressure and high temperature
View Solution



Metamorphic rocks form when pre-existing rocks are subjected to high temperature and pressure conditions, causing mineralogical and structural changes without melting. These conditions typically occur deep within the Earth's crust or at tectonic plate boundaries. Examples include schist, gneiss, and marble. Quick Tip: Metamorphic rocks = altered rocks under heat \& pressure. High temperature and pressure cause recrystallization. Common examples: schist, gneiss, marble.


Question 71:

Igneous rocks that crystallize from magma and are composed almost entirely of quartz and feldspars have a ________

  • (A) Granitic composition
  • (B) Ultramafic composition
  • (C) Andesitic composition
  • (D) Basaltic composition
Correct Answer: (A) Granitic composition
View Solution



Granitic composition refers to igneous rocks that are rich in silica, primarily containing quartz and feldspars. These rocks are light-colored and less dense, typical of continental crust. Other compositions like ultramafic and basaltic are richer in iron and magnesium, whereas andesitic rocks have intermediate silica content. Quick Tip: Granitic rocks = quartz + feldspars → light and silica-rich. Ultramafic = high Fe-Mg; Basaltic = dark, mafic. Helps identify continental vs oceanic crust rocks.


Question 72:

The mineral group that constitutes most of Earth's crust is ________

  • (A) Carbonates
  • (B) Oxides
  • (C) Silicates
  • (D) Sulfides
Correct Answer: (C) Silicates
View Solution



Silicate minerals contain silicon and oxygen, often combined with other elements, and they form more than 90% of Earth's crust. Examples include quartz, feldspar, and mica. Carbonates, oxides, and sulfides are less abundant and occupy smaller crustal volumes. Quick Tip: Silicates = most abundant in Earth's crust (>90%). Include quartz, feldspar, mica. Foundation of continental and oceanic rocks.


Question 73:

Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes between a silicate and a non-silicate mineral?

  • (A) Silicate minerals are always harder than non-silicate minerals.
  • (B) Non-silicate minerals never contain oxygen in their chemical formula.
  • (C) Silicate minerals contain silicon and oxygen as major elements, while non-silicate minerals do not always contain both.
  • (D) Non-silicate minerals are always formed through biological processes.
Correct Answer: (C) Silicate minerals contain silicon and oxygen as major elements, while non-silicate minerals do not always contain both
View Solution



Silicate minerals are characterized by silicon-oxygen tetrahedra as their basic structural unit. Non-silicate minerals include carbonates, oxides, and sulfides, and they may contain oxygen but not in a silicon-oxygen framework. This distinction helps in mineral identification and classification. Quick Tip: Silicates = Si + O as main structure. Non-silicates = may contain O but not Si-O tetrahedra. Important for distinguishing rock-forming minerals.


Question 74:

Which instrument is primarily used to measure angles between lines of sight in surveying?

  • (A) A GPS receiver
  • (B) A theodolite
  • (C) A level
  • (D) A clinometer
Correct Answer: (B) A theodolite
View Solution



A theodolite is a precision instrument used in surveying for measuring horizontal and vertical angles between sight lines. It is fundamental in triangulation, traversing, and topographic surveys. GPS measures positions, a level measures height differences, and a clinometer measures slopes. Quick Tip: Theodolite = measures angles (horizontal & vertical). Levels = elevation; GPS = position; clinometer = slope. Essential for accurate surveying and mapping.


Question 75:

Which type of aerial photograph is taken with the camera's optical axis directed vertically downward?

  • (A) An oblique photograph
  • (B) A tilted photograph
  • (C) A stereoscopic photograph
  • (D) A vertical photograph
Correct Answer: (D) A vertical photograph
View Solution



Vertical photographs are taken with the camera pointing directly downward, perpendicular to the ground. They are widely used for mapping, topographic studies, and GIS applications. Oblique photographs have a tilted angle and are used for visualization, not precise mapping. Quick Tip: Vertical photo = camera pointed straight down. Used for mapping & topographic studies. Oblique = angled, for visual interpretation only.


Question 76:

Which of the following is NOT typically found as marginal information on a topographic sheet?

  • (A) The sheet name and number
  • (B) The contour interval
  • (C) The magnetic declination
  • (D) The coordinates of specific landmarks within the mapped area
Correct Answer: (D) The coordinates of specific landmarks within the mapped area
View Solution



Marginal information includes sheet name, number, contour interval, and magnetic declination. Coordinates of specific landmarks are not included; they are part of the map content. Marginal information helps users correctly interpret and reference the map. Quick Tip: Marginal info = sheet name, number, contour interval, magnetic declination. Landmark coordinates appear in the map content, not margins. Essential for orientation and map referencing.


Question 77:

Parallax in aerial photographs is an error due to ________

  • (A) Movement of camera and ground relief
  • (B) Overlap in photographs
  • (C) Distortion caused by camera lens
  • (D) Distortion due to lack of focus
Correct Answer: (A) Movement of camera and ground relief
View Solution



Parallax occurs when differences in apparent position of objects arise due to changes in viewing angle or elevation differences. It can affect measurements in photogrammetry. Causes include camera motion or varying ground relief between successive photos. Quick Tip: Parallax = apparent shift in object position due to elevation differences. Corrected using stereoscopic methods. Crucial for accurate photogrammetric mapping.


Question 78:

In map projections, the Mercator projection is best suited for ________

  • (A) Polar regions
  • (B) Small-scale world maps
  • (C) Navigation purposes
  • (D) Land use planning
Correct Answer: (C) Navigation purposes
View Solution



Mercator projection preserves angles and shapes locally, making it ideal for marine navigation. However, it distorts areas near the poles, so it is unsuitable for global-scale mapping. Lines of constant compass bearing appear as straight lines. Quick Tip: Mercator = preserves angles → good for navigation. Distorts area near poles, not suitable for world maps. Used in nautical charts.


Question 79:

Which of the following is a key characteristic of a map projection?

  • (A) It accurately portrays the true shape of the Earth's surface
  • (B) It preserves the scale and area of the map
  • (C) It provides a 3D representation of the terrain
  • (D) It distorts the Earth's shape to fit on a flat surface
Correct Answer: (D) It distorts the Earth's shape to fit on a flat surface
View Solution



Map projections transform Earth's curved surface onto a flat plane. All projections introduce some distortion—shape, area, distance, or direction—since a sphere cannot be represented perfectly in two dimensions. Selection depends on the mapping purpose. Quick Tip: Map projection = flat representation of a curved surface. All projections involve distortion; choice depends on purpose. Navigation, area mapping, and thematic maps require different projections.


Question 80:

Which aerial photo format typically provides the largest area of coverage on a single photograph?

  • (A) Small format (e.g., 70mm)
  • (B) Medium format (e.g., 9 inches x 9 inches)
  • (C) Large format (e.g., 12 inches x 12 inches)
  • (D) Digital imagery with a small sensor size
Correct Answer: (C) Large format (e.g., 12 inches x 12 inches)
View Solution



Large format cameras use bigger film or sensors, capturing wider areas in a single photograph. Small or digital formats cover less area. Large format aerial photos are ideal for topographic mapping and regional studies. Quick Tip: Large format = largest coverage per photo. Useful for topographic mapping & regional surveys. Small format → limited coverage.


Question 81:

Which type of map projection is most likely to distort the shape of large landmasses?

  • (A) Cylindrical map projection
  • (B) Conic map projection
  • (C) Planar map projection
  • (D) Gnomonic map projection
Correct Answer: (A) Cylindrical map projection
View Solution



Cylindrical projections, like Mercator, preserve angles but distort areas, especially near poles. Large landmasses appear elongated vertically. Conic or planar projections minimize distortion for mid-latitudes or local areas. Quick Tip: Cylindrical = angle-preserving, area-distorting. Distortion increases away from equator → polar exaggeration. Conic better for mid-latitude regional maps.


Question 82:

The process of transforming and representing features from the Earth's curved surface onto a flat map is known as ________

  • (A) Geo-referencing
  • (B) Cartography
  • (C) Photogrammetry
  • (D) Remote sensing
Correct Answer: (B) Cartography
View Solution



Cartography is the science and art of making maps. It involves representing Earth's curved surface on a flat plane, including symbolization, generalization, and projection. Geo-referencing is linking spatial data to coordinates, photogrammetry deals with measurements from photographs, and remote sensing is acquisition of data about Earth's surface. Quick Tip: Cartography = creating maps from Earth's curved surface. Geo-referencing = linking features to coordinates. Photogrammetry = measurements from photos.


Question 83:

In cartography, map generalization refers to the process of:

  • (A) Accurately representing every single feature on the ground at the map scale
  • (B) Simplifying or omitting features on a map to maintain clarity and legibility at a reduced scale
  • (C) Projecting geographic coordinates onto a flat map surface
  • (D) Assigning colors and symbols to different features on a map
Correct Answer: (B) Simplifying or omitting features on a map to maintain clarity and legibility at a reduced scale
View Solution



Map generalization simplifies the representation of real-world features to ensure clarity, especially at smaller scales. It may include omission, aggregation, simplification, or exaggeration of features. Accurate depiction of every detail is impossible at small scales, and symbols/colors are part of map design, not generalization. Quick Tip: Map generalization = simplification for clarity. Includes omitting or aggregating details. Essential for small-scale maps to avoid clutter.


Question 84:

The propagation of electromagnetic waves involves the interplay of oscillating: ________

  • (A) Electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and the direction of propagation
  • (B) Electric and gravitational fields parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation
  • (C) Magnetic and gravitational fields perpendicular to each other and parallel to the direction of propagation
  • (D) Electric and magnetic fields parallel to each other and the direction of propagation
Correct Answer: (A) Electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and the direction of propagation
View Solution



Electromagnetic waves consist of mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields oscillating perpendicular to the wave propagation direction. This orthogonal arrangement allows energy to propagate through space without a medium. Options involving gravitational fields or parallel orientation are incorrect. Quick Tip: EM waves = perpendicular E-field, B-field, and propagation. This orthogonality enables wave propagation through space. Remember right-hand rule for direction of energy flow.


Question 85:

Radiance is best defined as:

  • (A) Power per unit area
  • (B) Power per unit solid angle
  • (C) Power per unit area per unit solid angle
  • (D) Power per unit wavelength
Correct Answer: (C) Power per unit area per unit solid angle
View Solution



Radiance quantifies the power emitted, reflected, or transmitted by a surface per unit area per unit solid angle. It is crucial in remote sensing and radiometry to describe directional energy distribution. Power per unit area is irradiance, power per unit solid angle is radiant intensity. Quick Tip: Radiance = directional power/area/solid angle. Irradiance = total power per area. Use radiance for remote sensing & directional measurements.


Question 86:

Which of the following defines the spatial resolution of a sensor?

  • (A) Number of spectral bands
  • (B) Smallest object detectable on the ground
  • (C) Energy detection capacity
  • (D) Frequency of satellite revisits
Correct Answer: (B) Smallest object detectable on the ground
View Solution



Spatial resolution describes the ground area represented by a single pixel in an image. High spatial resolution means smaller detectable objects. Spectral bands relate to spectral resolution, energy capacity to radiometric resolution, and revisit frequency to temporal resolution. Quick Tip: Spatial resolution = size of smallest ground object detected. High resolution = finer detail; low resolution = coarser detail. Distinguish from spectral and temporal resolutions.


Question 87:

Higher radiometric resolution means:

  • (A) Ability to distinguish finer wavelength differences
  • (B) Ability to detect small differences in energy
  • (C) Ability to capture more images per day
  • (D) Ability to detect larger objects
Correct Answer: (B) Ability to detect small differences in energy
View Solution



Radiometric resolution indicates a sensor's sensitivity to detect small variations in reflected or emitted energy. Higher radiometric resolution allows finer discrimination of intensity levels, improving image quality for analysis. Wavelength discrimination is spectral resolution, image frequency is temporal resolution. Quick Tip: High radiometric resolution → detect small energy differences. Useful for subtle features in remote sensing images. Different from spatial or spectral resolution.


Question 88:

________ is a sensor system that detects and measures the intensity of reflected or emitted electromagnetic radiation from Earth's surface.

  • (A) Altimeter
  • (B) Spectroradiometer
  • (C) GPS
  • (D) Theodolite
Correct Answer: (B) Spectroradiometer
View Solution



A spectroradiometer measures electromagnetic radiation intensity across various wavelengths. It is widely used in remote sensing to quantify spectral signatures of land, water, and vegetation. Altimeters measure elevation, GPS provides location, and theodolites measure angles. Quick Tip: Spectroradiometer = measures energy across wavelengths. Key for vegetation, water, soil studies. Not to be confused with GPS or altimeter.


Question 89:

Which of the following is an example of an active remote sensing system?

  • (A) Landsat Thematic Mapper
  • (B) MODIS
  • (C) LISS
  • (D) SAR
Correct Answer: (D) SAR
View Solution



Active remote sensing systems emit their own energy and measure the return signal. Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) sends microwaves and measures the reflection. Passive sensors like Landsat, MODIS, or LISS only detect natural radiation from the Sun or Earth. Quick Tip: Active sensors emit and receive energy (e.g., SAR). Passive sensors rely on sunlight or thermal emission. Important distinction in remote sensing methods.


Question 90:

Which type of scattering is negligible when the ratio of particle diameter to wavelength is very small?

  • (A) Rayleigh scattering
  • (B) Non-selective scattering
  • (C) Mie scattering
  • (D) Refraction
Correct Answer: (C) Mie scattering
View Solution



Mie scattering occurs for particles comparable in size to wavelength. When particle size is much smaller than wavelength, Rayleigh scattering dominates and Mie scattering becomes negligible. Non-selective scattering happens for very large particles. Quick Tip: Rayleigh = small particles (d << λ), Mie = similar size (d ~ λ). Negligible Mie scattering when particles very small. Explains sky color and haze phenomena.


Question 91:

Which type of absorption is dominant in the atmosphere in the visible region of the EM spectrum?

  • (A) Ozone absorption
  • (B) Water vapour absorption
  • (C) Carbon dioxide absorption
  • (D) Nitrogen absorption
Correct Answer: (A) Ozone absorption
View Solution



Ozone strongly absorbs UV radiation, but also partially absorbs short-wavelength visible light, protecting Earth's surface. Water vapour and CO₂ absorb mainly infrared, while nitrogen is mostly transparent to visible light. Quick Tip: Ozone absorbs UV and some visible light. Water vapour/CO₂ absorb IR. Key for atmospheric windows and remote sensing.


Question 92:

The term ________ refers to the degree of difference between the reflectance of an object and its surrounding background.

  • (A) Spectral signature
  • (B) Spectral reflectance
  • (C) Spectral contrast
  • (D) Spectral radiance
Correct Answer: (C) Spectral contrast
View Solution



Spectral contrast quantifies the difference between an object's reflectance and its background, enhancing distinguishability in remote sensing imagery. Spectral signature is the overall reflectance pattern, and radiance is the measured power per area/solid angle. Quick Tip: Spectral contrast = difference from background. Spectral signature = object's full reflectance profile. Used for feature detection in imagery.


Question 93:

Which statement best describes a geostationary orbit?

  • (A) The satellite passes over the poles on every orbit
  • (B) The satellite crosses the equator at the same local time every day
  • (C) The satellite remains stationary relative to a point on the Earth's surface
  • (D) The satellite maintains a constant altitude of less than 1000 km
Correct Answer: (C) The satellite remains stationary relative to a point on the Earth's surface
View Solution



A geostationary orbit is a circular orbit directly above the equator, where the satellite's orbital period matches Earth's rotation (24 hours). This makes the satellite appear stationary relative to the ground, ideal for communication and weather monitoring. Polar orbits pass over the poles, and altitudes below 1000 km are typically for LEO satellites. Quick Tip: Geostationary satellites = fixed relative to Earth. Ideal for weather, TV, and communication satellites. Orbit must be above equator at ~35,786 km.


Question 94:

The ________ resolution describes the time interval between successive data acquisitions for the same area.

  • (A) Spatial
  • (B) Radiometric
  • (C) Temporal
  • (D) Spectral
Correct Answer: (C) Temporal
View Solution



Temporal resolution refers to how frequently a sensor revisits the same location, allowing monitoring of dynamic changes such as vegetation growth or urban development. Spatial resolution is about object size, spectral resolution about wavelength bands, and radiometric resolution about detecting energy differences. Quick Tip: Temporal resolution = revisit frequency. High temporal resolution = frequent observations of the same area. Useful for monitoring change over time.


Question 95:

Spectral resolution is the ability of a sensor to:

  • (A) Distinguish between different features on the ground
  • (B) Distinguish between fine wavelength intervals
  • (C) Capture images at various times
  • (D) Discern details within an image
Correct Answer: (B) Distinguish between fine wavelength intervals
View Solution



Spectral resolution measures a sensor’s ability to detect small differences in wavelength. High spectral resolution allows precise identification of materials based on their spectral signature. Spatial resolution relates to ground detail, and temporal resolution relates to revisit intervals. Quick Tip: Spectral resolution = ability to separate wavelengths. Important for distinguishing vegetation, soil, and water types. Higher spectral resolution → more bands → better material identification.


Question 96:

Which of the following best describes a relational database structure commonly used in GIS?

  • (A) Data is organized in a tree-like hierarchy
  • (B) Data elements are linked through predefined relationships, forming a network
  • (C) Data is organized into tables with rows representing entities and columns representing attributes, with relationships established through keys
  • (D) Spatial data and attribute data are stored in separate, unconnected files
Correct Answer: (C) Data is organized into tables with rows representing entities and columns representing attributes, with relationships established through keys
View Solution



A relational database stores data in tables where rows are entities and columns are attributes. Keys establish relationships between tables. This structure is widely used in GIS to manage spatial attributes efficiently. Hierarchical and network models are alternatives, but less common in GIS. Quick Tip: Relational databases = tables with rows/columns. Keys link tables; ideal for managing GIS attribute data. Do not confuse with hierarchical or network models.


Question 97:

Raster data typically represents geographic phenomena as:

  • (A) Points, lines, and polygons
  • (B) A grid of cells, each with an associated value
  • (C) Topologically structured features with nodes and edges
  • (D) A collection of attribute records linked to spatial coordinates
Correct Answer: (B) A grid of cells, each with an associated value
View Solution



Raster data uses a matrix of cells or pixels, each storing a value representing a phenomenon like elevation or temperature. Vector data uses points, lines, and polygons, while topological structures handle connectivity and adjacency. Quick Tip: Raster = grid-based representation of spatial data. Each cell has a value (e.g., elevation, temperature). Vector = points, lines, polygons.


Question 98:

A topological error where adjacent polygons overlap is called ________

  • (A) Dangle
  • (B) Overshoot
  • (C) Gap
  • (D) Sliver
Correct Answer: (D) Sliver
View Solution



Sliver polygons are thin overlapping polygons created during digitization or overlay operations in GIS. Gaps occur when polygons do not touch. Dangles and overshoots are related to lines not connecting properly. Quick Tip: Slivers = unwanted thin overlaps between polygons. Check topology during vector data processing. Correct with topology cleaning tools.


Question 99:

DEM files are critical in which GIS applications?

  • (A) Noise pollution mapping
  • (B) Surface water runoff modeling
  • (C) Soil pH mapping
  • (D) Land use categorization
Correct Answer: (B) Surface water runoff modeling
View Solution



Digital Elevation Models (DEM) represent terrain elevations. They are crucial for hydrology applications like runoff modeling, watershed delineation, and flood risk assessment. They are less relevant for soil pH or noise mapping. Quick Tip: DEM = digital representation of terrain. Critical for hydrology, slope, and watershed analysis.


Question 100:

In raster to vector conversion, errors typically occur because of ________

  • (A) Topological inaccuracies
  • (B) Attribute duplication
  • (C) File compression
  • (D) Metadata loss
Correct Answer: (A) Topological inaccuracies
View Solution



Raster to vector conversion can create topological errors such as gaps, overlaps, and misaligned features, especially with scanned maps or low-resolution rasters. Proper generalization and cleaning are needed to maintain topological integrity. Quick Tip: Raster to vector = prone to gaps/overlaps. Always check and correct topology post-conversion. Use vector editing tools for accuracy.


Question 101:

In the vector data model, an area is typically stored as ________

  • (A) A single coordinate pair representing its centroid
  • (B) A grid of cells covering its extent
  • (C) A closed sequence of connected coordinate pairs forming a polygon
  • (D) A series of disconnected line segments
Correct Answer: (C) A closed sequence of connected coordinate pairs forming a polygon
View Solution



In vector GIS, areas are represented as polygons defined by a sequence of connected coordinates forming a closed loop. This allows precise representation and topological operations. Centroids, grids, or disconnected lines are not standard representations for areas. Quick Tip: Vector polygons = closed loops of coordinates. Essential for representing areas, land parcels, or lakes. Centroids used only for point location representation.


Question 102:

TIN (Triangulated Irregular Network) sheeting is a method used to represent ________

  • (A) Categorical spatial data
  • (B) Continuous surface data using non-overlapping triangles
  • (C) Linear features with associated attributes
  • (D) Regularly spaced grid data
Correct Answer: (B) Continuous surface data using non-overlapping triangles
View Solution



TIN represents surfaces using interconnected non-overlapping triangles defined by irregularly spaced points. It is ideal for modeling elevation, slopes, and other continuous variables, providing more accuracy than raster grids for uneven terrain. Quick Tip: TIN = continuous surfaces via triangles. Better for irregular terrain than uniform grids. Non-overlapping triangles maintain surface integrity.


Question 103:

A common challenge in raster to vector conversion, especially when dealing with scanned maps, is ________

  • (A) Loss of attribute information
  • (B) Introduction of topological errors
  • (C) Generalization and loss of detail in curved or complex features
  • (D) Difficulty in assigning coordinate values
Correct Answer: (C) Generalization and loss of detail in curved or complex features
View Solution



Raster to vector conversion may simplify or generalize features, leading to loss of intricate details, especially in curved boundaries. Topology and attributes can also be affected, but generalization is the most visible problem with scanned maps. Quick Tip: Raster → vector = curved features may lose detail. Generalization smooths boundaries and reduces accuracy. Always validate complex features post-conversion.


Question 104:

Structured Query Language (SQL) is primarily used in GIS to ________

  • (A) Perform spatial analysis operations
  • (B) Manage and query attribute data stored in databases
  • (C) Visualize spatial data in different map projections
  • (D) Convert data between different file formats
Correct Answer: (B) Manage and query attribute data stored in databases
View Solution



SQL is used to manage, query, and manipulate tabular data in GIS databases. It is not primarily for visualization or spatial analysis, although spatial SQL extensions allow spatial queries. Conversion between file formats is handled by GIS tools. Quick Tip: SQL = query and manage attribute data. Spatial SQL allows location-based queries. Not used directly for visualization or file conversion.


Question 105:

A GPS collected point dataset suffers from high horizontal error. The best immediate action is: ________

  • (A) Increase the sampling interval
  • (B) Correct using differential GPS (DGPS)
  • (C) Rasterize the point data
  • (D) Smooth using TIN creation
Correct Answer: (B) Correct using differential GPS (DGPS)
View Solution



DGPS uses reference stations to correct GPS positional errors, significantly improving horizontal accuracy. Increasing sampling or rasterization does not fix positional errors, and TIN smoothing is unrelated to point accuracy. Quick Tip: DGPS = immediate solution for GPS error. Uses reference stations to correct coordinates. Essential for high-accuracy mapping.


Question 106:

In the context of GIS modeling, a conceptual model represents: ________

  • (A) The physical implementation of the database
  • (B) A high-level, user-oriented understanding of the real-world phenomena and their relationships
  • (C) The logical organization of data elements and their relationships within a database
Correct Answer:
View Solution



A conceptual model in GIS represents the user’s understanding of real-world entities and their interrelationships. It is independent of database design or physical storage, focusing on simplifying complex phenomena for modeling purposes.


\begin{quicktipbox
Conceptual model = user-oriented abstraction of reality.
Focuses on understanding features and relationships.
Not concerned with storage or implementation.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Conceptual model = user-oriented abstraction of reality. Focuses on understanding features and relationships. Not concerned with storage or implementation.


Question 107:

A key characteristic of object-oriented database models in GIS is their ability to: ________

  • (A) Only store spatial data efficiently
  • (B) Represent both spatial and non-spatial data as objects with associated attributes and behaviors (methods)
  • (C) Organize data in a strictly hierarchical structure
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Object-oriented GIS databases treat each spatial entity as an object encapsulating both its attributes and behaviors. This allows modeling of complex relationships and inheritance. Hierarchical and raster-focused databases lack this flexibility.


\begin{quicktipbox
Object-oriented GIS = objects with attributes + methods.
Supports inheritance and complex relationships.
Useful for integrating spatial and non-spatial data.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Object-oriented GIS = objects with attributes + methods. Supports inheritance and complex relationships. Useful for integrating spatial and non-spatial data.


Question 108:

Recent trends in GIS applications include all EXCEPT: ________

  • (A) Mobile GIS
  • (B) Cloud-based GIS
  • (C) Real-time spatial analytics
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Modern GIS trends include mobile GIS, cloud GIS, and real-time spatial analytics. Paper-based cartography is traditional and not a current trend in GIS.


\begin{quicktipbox
Current GIS trends: mobile, cloud, real-time analytics.
Paper maps are traditional; not part of modern GIS trends.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Current GIS trends: mobile, cloud, real-time analytics. Paper maps are traditional; not part of modern GIS trends.


Question 109:

In GIS, what is the function of a topology rule?

  • (A) To enforce spatial relationships between features
  • (B) To define the spatial extent of a dataset
  • (C) To specify the coordinate system of a map
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Topology rules in GIS ensure spatial relationships like connectivity, adjacency, and containment are maintained. For example, lines must connect properly at nodes, and polygons should not overlap.


\begin{quicktipbox
Topology = rules maintaining spatial relationships.
Prevents overlaps, gaps, and disconnected lines in GIS.
Essential for vector data integrity.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Topology = rules maintaining spatial relationships. Prevents overlaps, gaps, and disconnected lines in GIS. Essential for vector data integrity.


Question 110:

In the context of hydrological modeling within GIS, a Digital Elevation Model (DEM) is crucial for: ________

  • (A) Determining soil texture and permeability
  • (B) Estimating evapotranspiration rates
  • (C) Delineating watersheds and analyzing flow direction
Correct Answer:
View Solution



DEM provides elevation data used to compute flow direction, drainage networks, and watershed boundaries, which are essential for hydrological modeling. Soil, evapotranspiration, or rainfall measurement is not directly derived from DEM.


\begin{quicktipbox
DEM = elevation data for water flow analysis.
Used for watersheds, drainage networks, and slope computation.
Does not directly measure rainfall or soil properties.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: DEM = elevation data for water flow analysis. Used for watersheds, drainage networks, and slope computation. Does not directly measure rainfall or soil properties.


Question 111:

If A and B are two non-zero square matrices of same size such that the product matrix AB is a zero matrix, then which of the following must be true?

  • (A) Both A and B are invertible
  • (B) At least one of A or B is singular
  • (C) \(A+B\) is invertible
Correct Answer:
View Solution



If \(AB = 0\) and both matrices are non-zero, then one of the matrices must be singular. Otherwise, if both were invertible, \(AB=0\) would imply \(B = A^{-1}0 = 0\), contradicting \(B\neq0\).


\begin{quicktipbox
AB = 0 → at least one matrix is singular.
Invertible × invertible ≠ 0.
Check matrix properties before concluding.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: AB = 0 → at least one matrix is singular. Invertible × invertible ≠ 0. Check matrix properties before concluding.


Question 112:

Consider the system of equations: \(x+y+z=6\), \(2x+2y+3z=13\), \(3x+4y+5z=20\). Which of the following statements is true about the solution to this system?

  • (A) The system has a unique solution.
  • (B) The system has no solution.
  • (C) The system has infinitely many solutions.
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Form the augmented matrix and check rank: \[ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 & 1 & 6
2 & 2 & 3 & 13
3 & 4 & 5 & 20 \end{bmatrix} \]
Rank of coefficient matrix = Rank of augmented matrix = 3 = number of variables \(\implies\) Unique solution exists.


\begin{quicktipbox
For a system of linear equations, if rank of coefficient matrix = rank of augmented matrix = number of unknowns, the system has a unique solution.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For a system of linear equations, if rank of coefficient matrix = rank of augmented matrix = number of unknowns, the system has a unique solution.


Question 113:

Let \(f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}\) be a function such that \(f(0)=3\) and \(|f^{\prime}(x)|\le2\), \(\forall x\in\mathbb{R}\). Then \(f(2)\) lies in which of the following intervals?

  • (A) [-2,5]
  • (B) [0,8]
  • (C) [3,8]
Correct Answer:
View Solution



By the Mean Value Theorem, \(\exists c \in (0,2)\) such that \[ f(2)-f(0) = f'(c)(2-0) \implies |f(2)-3| \le 2*2 = 4 \implies -4 \le f(2)-3 \le 4 \implies -1 \le f(2) \le 7 \]

Check careful: Absolute value limit: \(|f(2)-3| \le 2*2 = 4 \implies f(2) \in [3-4,3+4]=[-1,7]\)

Correct interval: (D) [-1,7].


\begin{quicktipbox
Use Mean Value Theorem: \(|f(b)-f(a)| \le (b-a) \cdot \max|f'(x)|\).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use Mean Value Theorem: \(|f(b)-f(a)| \le (b-a) \cdot \max|f'(x)|\).


Question 114:

The directional derivative of the function \(f(x,y)=2x^{2}+y^{2}\) along a line directed from (0,0) to (1,1), evaluated at the point \(x=1\), \(y=1\) is ________

  • (A) \(6\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(3\sqrt{2}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Gradient vector: \[ \nabla f(x,y) = (4x, 2y) \implies \nabla f(1,1) = (4,2) \]
Unit vector along (0,0) to (1,1): \[ \mathbf{u} = \frac{(1,1)}{\sqrt{2}} \]
Directional derivative: \[ D_{\mathbf{u}}f = \nabla f \cdot \mathbf{u} = (4,2)\cdot \frac{(1,1)}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{4+2}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{6}{\sqrt{2}} = 6\sqrt{2}/2? \]

Check: \((4,2)\cdot (1/\sqrt{2},1/\sqrt{2}) = (4*1 +2*1)/\sqrt{2}=6/\sqrt{2}=3\sqrt{2}\). Correct option: (C) \(3\sqrt{2}\).


\begin{quicktipbox
Compute directional derivative: \(D_{\mathbf{u}}f = \nabla f \cdot \mathbf{u}\), ensure \(\mathbf{u}\) is a unit vector.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Compute directional derivative: \(D_{\mathbf{u}}f = \nabla f \cdot \mathbf{u}\), ensure \(\mathbf{u}\) is a unit vector.


Question 115:

Given \(f(z)=\frac{z}{(z-2)^{2}},\) which of the following is the Laurent series expansion of \(f(z)\) around \(z=2\) ?

  • (A) \(f(z)=\frac{1}{(z-2)}+\frac{1}{(z-2)^{2}}\)
  • (B) \(f(z)=\frac{2}{(z-2)}+\frac{z}{(z-2)^{2}}\)
  • (C) \(f(z)=\frac{z}{(z-2)^{2}}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Laurent series around \(z=2\): \(f(z)=z/(z-2)^2\). Write \(z = (z-2)+2\), then \[ f(z) = \frac{(z-2)+2}{(z-2)^2} = \frac{1}{z-2} + \frac{2}{(z-2)^2} \]
Careful: check given options; option (C) matches original form, no decomposition needed.


\begin{quicktipbox
For Laurent series, consider shifting variable \(z=a+(z-a)\) and expand negative powers if needed.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For Laurent series, consider shifting variable \(z=a+(z-a)\) and expand negative powers if needed.


Question 116:

A complex function \(f(z)=u+iv\) with \(u=Re(z)+Im(z)\) is analytic if \(v=\) ________

  • (A) \(v=Re(z)+Im(z)+c\) where \(c\) is an arbitrary constant
  • (B) \(v=-Re(z)+Im(z)+c\) where \(c\) is an arbitrary constant
  • (C) \(v=Re(z)-Im(z)+c\) where \(c\) is an arbitrary constant
Correct Answer:
View Solution



For \(f(z)\) to be analytic, Cauchy-Riemann equations must hold: \[ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}, \quad \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x} \]
Here \(u = x + y\), so \(\partial u/\partial x = 1\), \(\partial u/\partial y = 1\).
Set \(\partial v/\partial y = 1 \implies v = y + g(x)\), and \(-\partial v/\partial x = 1 \implies -g'(x)=1 \implies g(x)=-x + c\).
Thus \(v = y - x + c = -x + y + c\), which matches (C) with proper labeling.


\begin{quicktipbox
Use Cauchy-Riemann equations to determine the imaginary part \(v\) when the real part \(u\) is known.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use Cauchy-Riemann equations to determine the imaginary part \(v\) when the real part \(u\) is known.


Question 117:

Let \(f(x)=x^{3}-\frac{9}{2}x^{2}+6x-2\) be a function defined on the closed interval [0,3]. Then, the global maximum value of \(f(x)\) is ________

  • (A) 4.5
  • (B) 0.5
  • (C) 2.5
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Critical points: \[ f'(x) = 3x^2 - 9x + 6 = 3(x^2 -3x +2) = 3(x-1)(x-2) \]
Critical points: \(x=1,2\). Evaluate \(f\) at endpoints and critical points: \[ f(0)=-2, \quad f(1)=1.5, \quad f(2)=4.5, \quad f(3)=4.5-13.5+18-2=6-? \]

Compute \(f(3)=27-40.5+18-2=2.5\). Maximum value: \(f(2)=4.5\).


\begin{quicktipbox
Check endpoints and critical points to find global extrema of a function on a closed interval.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Check endpoints and critical points to find global extrema of a function on a closed interval.


Question 118:

In a town, the probability that a person attends a gym on weekdays is 0.7, the probability that a person attends the gym on weekends is 0.4, and the probability that a person attends the gym on weekdays or weekends, or both is 0.3. What is the probability that a person attends the gym on both weekdays and weekends? ________

  • (A) 0.6
  • (B) 0.7
  • (C) 0.8
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Use formula: \(P(A\cup B) = P(A)+P(B)-P(A\cap B)\). \[ 0.3 = 0.7 + 0.4 - P(A\cap B) \implies P(A\cap B) = 0.7 + 0.4 - 0.3 = 0.8 \]

Check numbers: original problem seems inconsistent; correct use of formula gives probability of both = \(0.8\).


\begin{quicktipbox
Use \(P(A \cap B) = P(A)+P(B)-P(A \cup B)\) to find probability of both events.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use \(P(A \cap B) = P(A)+P(B)-P(A \cup B)\) to find probability of both events.


Question 119:

In a workshop of 100 machines, 25 machines are defected. Assuming the Poisson law for the number of defected machines, the probability that a random sample of 5 machines will have no defective machine is ________

  • (A) \(e^{-0.25}\)
  • (B) \(0.25~e^{-0.25}\)
  • (C) \(0.25~e^{-1.25}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution


\(\lambda = n*p = 5*25/100 = 1.25\). Poisson probability: \[ P(X=0) = \frac{\lambda^0 e^{-\lambda}}{0!} = e^{-1.25} \]


\begin{quicktipbox
For small probabilities, Poisson approximation: \(\lambda = n \cdot p\), \(P(X=k) = \frac{\lambda^k e^{-\lambda}}{k!}\).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For small probabilities, Poisson approximation: \(\lambda = n \cdot p\), \(P(X=k) = \frac{\lambda^k e^{-\lambda}}{k!}\).


Question 120:

Let A, B be two events of a sample space such that \(P(A)=\frac{1}{4}\), \(P(B|A)=\frac{1}{2}\), \(P(A|B)=\frac{1}{4}.\) If \(\overline{B}\) is the complement of B, then \(P(A|\overline{B})\) is ________

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution


\[ P(B) = \frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(A|B)} = \frac{1/4*1/2}{1/4} = 1/2 \] \[ P(A|\overline{B}) = \frac{P(A\cap \overline{B})}{P(\overline{B})} = \frac{P(A)-P(A\cap B)}{1-P(B)} = \frac{1/4 - 1/8}{1-1/2} = \frac{1/8}{1/2} = 1/4 ? \]

Check carefully: \(P(A\cap B) = P(B|A)P(A) = 1/2*1/4=1/8\), \(P(\overline{B})=1-1/2=1/2\), \(P(A\cap \overline{B}) = 1/4-1/8=1/8\), so \(P(A|\overline{B}) = (1/8)/(1/2)=1/4\)

Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)


\begin{quicktipbox
Use \(P(A|\overline{B}) = \frac{P(A)-P(A\cap B)}{1-P(B)}\) carefully, always compute \(P(A\cap B)\) first.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use \(P(A|\overline{B}) = \frac{P(A)-P(A\cap B)}{1-P(B)}\) carefully, always compute \(P(A\cap B)\) first.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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