AP PGECET 2025 Pharmacy Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download. AP PGECET 2025 Pharmacy Question Paper consists of 120 questions with a total weightage of 120 marks.
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The drug 'Pectin' belongs to the category of _______
Pectin is a polymeric substance found in plant cell walls.
It is classified as a polyuronide due to its high content of galacturonic acid units.
It is commonly used as a gelling agent in foods and pharmaceuticals.
Quick Tip: Pectin = polyuronide → rich in galacturonic acid.
Remember: It is not a simple sugar or alkaloid.
Source of pale catechu is _______
Pale catechu is obtained from the heartwood of Uncaria gambir.
It is used as an astringent and in traditional medicine preparations.
Quick Tip: Catechu → Uncaria gambir.
Dark catechu comes from Acacia catechu.
Trichomes with quadracellular head & sessile stalk are seen in _______
Hyoscyamus shows multicellular glandular trichomes with quadracellular head and sessile stalk.
These trichomes are important for secreting alkaloids.
Quick Tip: Trichomes with 4-celled head → Hyoscyamus.
Key identifier in pharmacognostic studies.
Which of the following crude drug is obtained from mineral origin _______
Kaolin is an inert clay obtained from minerals.
It is used as an adsorbent and in pharmaceutical preparations.
Quick Tip: Mineral drugs → Kaolin, Talc, etc.
Plant drugs are not included here.
The natural oil of winter green majorly contains _______
Wintergreen oil is extracted from Gaultheria species.
Its main component is methyl salicylate, responsible for analgesic properties.
Quick Tip: Wintergreen oil = methyl salicylate.
Salicylic acid is present only as a precursor in plants.
Mangifera indica belongs to the family _______
Mangifera indica (Mango) belongs to the Anacardiaceae family.
This family includes several resinous plants and economically important fruit trees.
Quick Tip: Mango → Anacardiaceae.
Other members: cashew, pistachio.
Steroidal saponins are biosynthesized via _______
Steroidal saponins are triterpenoid glycosides synthesized via the mevalonate pathway.
The pathway provides the C5 isoprene units needed for triterpene formation.
Quick Tip: Steroidal saponins → mevalonic acid pathway.
Shikimic pathway → aromatic compounds.
The swelling index of a crude drug is used to evaluate _______
The swelling index measures the ability of a drug to swell in water.
It indicates the presence and quantity of mucilage in the drug.
Quick Tip: Swelling index → mucilage content.
Higher swelling indicates more polysaccharides.
The biological source of cotton fiber is _______
Cotton fiber is obtained from the seed hairs of Gossypium species.
Gossypium barbadense is a commercially cultivated species.
Quick Tip: Cotton fiber → Gossypium species.
Remember: barbadense & hirsutum are main cultivated types.
Number of isoprene units present in diterpenes are _______
Diterpenes are composed of 4 isoprene units.
Each isoprene unit has 5 carbon atoms, giving diterpenes 20 carbons.
Quick Tip: Diterpenes → 4 isoprene units → 20 carbons.
Use isoprene count to identify terpenoid class.
Which is the specific test for the identification of cardiac glycoside? _______
Keller-Kiliani test is a specific chemical test for cardiac glycosides, especially for detecting deoxy sugars attached to glycone part.
It produces a characteristic color reaction with the glycoside.
Quick Tip: Cardiac glycoside test → Keller-Kiliani.
Always look for deoxy sugar detection.
Match the following correctly: A) Goldbeater skin test B) Molisch test C) Mayer's test D) Salkowski test _______
Goldbeater skin test → Tannins
Molisch test → Carbohydrates
Mayer's test → Alkaloids
Salkowski test → Terpenoids
Quick Tip: Match key tests with class: Goldbeater = tannins, Molisch = carbs.
Mayer’s for alkaloids, Salkowski = terpenoids.
Glass wool is primarily used in pharmaceutical applications for _______
Glass wool is a fibrous material used for filtration of liquids and air, and also as insulation in pharmaceutical equipment.
Quick Tip: Glass wool → filtration & insulation.
Not used as drug or capsule material.
An alkaloid containing one of the nitrogen atoms as quaternary nitrogen is _______
Tubocurarine is a quaternary ammonium alkaloid.
It contains one nitrogen atom permanently positively charged, making it polar and affecting absorption.
Quick Tip: Quaternary N → polar alkaloids like Tubocurarine.
Atropine/Ephedrine are tertiary alkaloids.
Which of the following plant cell culture technique is generally regarded as a "closed system" technique _______
Batch suspension cultures are closed systems where nutrients are supplied at the start and products are harvested at the end without continuous addition.
Quick Tip: Closed system = Batch culture.
Continuous → open system with nutrient feed.
Rasburicase is a newer drug used in gout. It acts by _______
Rasburicase is an enzyme that catalyzes oxidation of uric acid to allantoin, which is more soluble and easily excreted.
Quick Tip: Rasburicase → uric acid → allantoin (oxidation).
Helps rapid urate clearance in gout.
1-[(5-methylpyrazin-2-yl-carboxamide) ethyl phenyl sulphonyl]-3-cyclohexyl urea is _______
Repaglinide is a meglitinide-class oral hypoglycemic agent with the given chemical structure.
Quick Tip: Repaglinide → rapid onset insulin secretagogue.
Recognize by chemical name patterns.
Select the INCORRECT statement with respect to the SAR of adrenergic agonists with specific reference to 3',5'-dihydroxy ring substitution pattern _______
3',5'-dihydroxy substitution increases β2-selectivity and COMT resistance, but does not significantly affect drug distribution.
Quick Tip: Remember: COMT resistance & β2-selectivity are SAR effects.
Distribution is unrelated.
The term "bioisosterism" in drug design aims to maintain or improve the molecule's biological activity by _______
Bioisosterism replaces a functional group with a similar one to maintain activity while improving stability or reducing toxicity.
Quick Tip: Bioisosterism → preserve activity by chemical similarity.
Common in lead optimization.
Pharmacophore modelling involves _______
Pharmacophore modelling identifies essential molecular features required for target binding, aiding drug design.
Quick Tip: Pharmacophore → 3D arrangement of features for target binding.
Not about excipients or PK monitoring.
IUPAC name of aspirin is _______
Aspirin is chemically acetylsalicylic acid.
Its systematic IUPAC name is 2-acetoxybenzoic acid.
Quick Tip: Remember: Aspirin = acetylsalicylic acid → 2-acetoxybenzoic acid.
Which of the following drugs act via PPAR-\(\alpha\) activation?
Step 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks to identify the drug from the given chemical structures that exerts its therapeutic effect by activating the Peroxisome Proliferator-Activated Receptor alpha (PPAR-\(\alpha\)).
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
First, let's identify the drugs corresponding to the given structures and their mechanisms of action.
Structure (A) is Atorvastatin: This is a statin drug. Statins act by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is a key enzyme in the cholesterol synthesis pathway. They are primarily used to lower LDL cholesterol. Their mechanism is not PPAR-\(\alpha\) activation.
Structure (B) is Rosiglitazone: This is a thiazolidinedione (TZD) class of drug. TZDs are agonists of PPAR-\(\gamma\) (gamma), not PPAR-\(\alpha\). They are used as anti-diabetic drugs as they increase insulin sensitivity.
Structure (C) is Fenofibrate: This drug belongs to the fibrate class. Fibrates are well-known agonists (activators) of PPAR-\(\alpha\). Activation of PPAR-\(\alpha\) leads to an increase in the synthesis of lipoprotein lipase and a decrease in the production of apolipoprotein C-III. This enhances the clearance of triglyceride-rich lipoproteins, making fibrates effective in lowering high triglyceride levels. Therefore, this is the correct option.
Structure (D) is Ezetimibe: This is a cholesterol absorption inhibitor. It acts at the brush border of the small intestine to inhibit the absorption of cholesterol, leading to a decrease in the delivery of intestinal cholesterol to the liver. Its mechanism is independent of PPAR-\(\alpha\) activation.
Step 4: Final Answer:
Based on the analysis of the mechanisms of action, Fenofibrate (Structure C) is the drug that acts via PPAR-\(\alpha\) activation.
Quick Tip: For pharmacology questions, it's crucial to remember the major drug classes and their primary mechanisms. For lipid-lowering agents:
- \textbf{Statins} -> HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
- \textbf{Fibrates} -> PPAR-\(\alpha\) activators.
- \textbf{Ezetimibe} -> Cholesterol absorption inhibitor.
- \textbf{TZDs} (like Rosiglitazone) are anti-diabetic drugs that are PPAR-\(\gamma\) activators.
What does "QSAR" stand for in drug design? _______
QSAR is a method to relate chemical structure quantitatively to biological activity.
Used extensively in medicinal chemistry to optimize drug design.
Quick Tip: QSAR → Quantitative, not qualitative.
Connects structure → activity numerically.
What is the primary function of dental abrasives? _______
Dental abrasives mechanically clean teeth by removing stains and plaque without affecting enamel.
Quick Tip: Dental abrasives → mechanical cleaning of teeth.
Not related to systemic functions.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the following structure (nevirapine)? _______
Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI).
It binds allosterically near the RT active site, inhibiting HIV replication.
Quick Tip: NNRTI → allosteric binding; NRTI → substrate mimic.
When 6-OH of morphine is replaced by 6-O-acetyl group, then the activity will _______
6-O-acetylmorphine is more lipophilic than morphine, allowing faster CNS penetration and stronger analgesic effect.
Quick Tip: Acetylation at 6-OH → increased activity (e.g., heroin).
Which of the following drugs causes severe birth defects due to stereochemical differences in its enantiomers? _______
Thalidomide's R-enantiomer is sedative, while the S-enantiomer is teratogenic.
Leads to severe birth defects when given to pregnant women.
Quick Tip: Stereochemistry → critical in teratogenicity.
Thalidomide = classic example.
The antihypertensive drug with a tetrazole nucleus that binds to AT1 receptor is _______
Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist (ARB) with a tetrazole ring that enhances receptor binding.
Quick Tip: Tetrazole → common in ARBs (e.g., Losartan).
ACE inhibitors have -pril suffix.
The drug Nifedipine is chemically classified as a _______
Nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that reduces vascular smooth muscle contraction, lowering BP.
Quick Tip: Nifedipine → DHP CCB; remember suffixes: -dipine → CCB.
In the synthesis of local anesthetics, the formation of the _______ bond is a critical step.
Local anesthetics are generally esters or amides; modern stable anesthetics are mostly amides.
Amide bond formation is key in synthesis.
Quick Tip: Modern anesthetics → amide linkage (e.g., lidocaine).
A compound containing _______ functional group is a characteristic feature of barbiturates.
Barbiturates are derivatives of barbituric acid which contains the hydantoin functional group.
This functional group is key for their CNS depressant activity.
Quick Tip: Hydantoin → hallmark functional group in barbiturates.
The primary mechanism of action of Penicillins is _______
Penicillins inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking transpeptidase enzymes, leading to cell lysis.
Quick Tip: Penicillins → beta -lactam antibiotics → inhibit cell wall synthesis.
The stability of a drug molecule to light is measured in terms of _______
Photolytic stability refers to how a drug resists degradation when exposed to light.
It is critical for storage and packaging considerations.
Quick Tip: Photolytic = light stability; check packaging if drug is photosensitive.
What is the role of ethanol in the preparation of barium sulphate reagent? _______
Ethanol is added to prevent super-saturation of barium sulphate during precipitation.
It ensures uniform and controlled crystal formation.
Quick Tip: Ethanol → control crystal growth, prevents precipitation errors.
Identify the key step in the synthesis of beta-blockers. _______
Beta-blockers are synthesized via condensation of amines with aromatic epoxides or halides, forming the amino alcohol side chain.
Quick Tip: Amines + aromatic rings → key intermediate for beta-blockers.
As compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins _______
LMWH has more predictable pharmacokinetics than UFH, allowing uniform subcutaneous absorption and less frequent monitoring.
Quick Tip: LMWH → predictable absorption, less monitoring, lower HIT risk.
Anxiolytic drugs like lorazepam primarily act on _______ receptors.
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that enhances GABA-A receptor activity, increasing inhibitory neurotransmission in the CNS.
Quick Tip: Benzodiazepines → GABA-A agonists → anxiolytic and sedative effects.
Which of the following is used as anticaries agent? _______
Sodium fluoride strengthens enamel and prevents dental caries by promoting remineralization.
Quick Tip: Fluoride → anticaries; Calcium carbonate → abrasive.
The locally acting antacid(s) known for its constipation effect is/are: _______
Aluminium hydroxide neutralizes gastric acid but can cause constipation due to its low solubility.
Quick Tip: Aluminium hydroxide → constipation; Magnesium hydroxide → laxative.
Match the following limit test reagents correctly. _______
Arsenic → Mercuric chloride, Lead → Dithizone, Iron → Thioglycolic acid, Barium → Barium chloride.
Limit tests use these reagents to detect trace metals.
Quick Tip: Memorize standard reagents for limit tests of common metals.
Which is the official source of water in the preparation of parenteral products? _______
Water for injection (WFI) is the official source for parenteral preparations because it is pyrogen-free and suitable for injection after sterilization.
Quick Tip: WFI → pyrogen-free water required for parenterals.
The glass type commonly used for parenteral products is _______
Type I glass is borosilicate glass with high chemical resistance and thermal stability, suitable for parenteral packaging.
Quick Tip: Parenterals → always use Type I borosilicate glass for safety.
Which of the following is a physical hazard during the handling of hazardous materials? _______
Physical hazards are environmental or mechanical hazards like radiation, heat, or mechanical injury.
Chemical exposure and inhalation are considered chemical hazards.
Quick Tip: Radioactive exposure → physical hazard; chemical contact → chemical hazard.
Schedule _______ deals with the requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of drugs.
Schedule M of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act specifies requirements for factory premises, equipment, and personnel for manufacturing drugs.
Quick Tip: Schedule M → GMP standards for drug manufacturing facilities.
The distance between two tangents on opposite sides of the particle parallel to some fixed direction is called as _______ diameter.
Feret diameter is measured as the distance between two parallel tangents on opposite sides of a particle in a given direction.
Quick Tip: Feret diameter → “caliper measurement” along a chosen direction.
_______ is the method of choice for determining the size distribution of powders for inhalation products.
Laser light scattering (e.g., Malvern) provides accurate particle size distribution for fine powders, especially inhalation products.
Quick Tip: Inhalation powders → use laser light scattering for PSD.
_______ is a method used for the size reduction of heat-sensitive materials.
Cryogenic grinding uses low temperatures (liquid nitrogen) to prevent heat generation, ideal for heat-sensitive drugs.
Quick Tip: Heat-sensitive → cryogenic; general milling → ball/roller.
The density that is determined by displacement of helium is known as _______ density.
True density is measured by helium pycnometry, which fills all pores, giving actual material density.
Quick Tip: True density = density of the solid material excluding pores.
Which sterilization method is suitable for heat-labile parenteral solutions? _______
Heat-labile solutions cannot withstand autoclaving. Sterile filtration using 0.22 μm filters is the preferred method.
Quick Tip: Heat-sensitive → filter sterilization; heat-stable → autoclave.
The solubility of the drug will be high when it is in its _______ form.
Metastable forms (amorphous or less stable polymorphs) have higher solubility than stable crystalline forms.
Quick Tip: Metastable → high solubility, rapid dissolution; crystalline → lower solubility.
In a suspension the purpose of flocculating agent is _______
Flocculating agents help particles form loose aggregates (flocs) in suspensions, preventing compact sedimentation (caking) and making redispersion easier.
Quick Tip: Flocculation → prevents caking; deflocculation → fine uniform suspension.
Which suppository base is water-soluble? _______
Polyethylene glycol (PEG) is water-soluble and commonly used as a suppository base for hydrophilic drugs.
Quick Tip: PEG → water-soluble base; cocoa butter/Witepsol → fat-soluble base.
Vanishing cream is an example of _______
Vanishing cream is an oil-in-water (O/W) emulsion, where oil droplets are dispersed in water and easily washable.
Quick Tip: O/W emulsion → washable cream; W/O → greasy cream.
Bulking agent used for parenteral preparation is _______
Sorbitol acts as a bulking agent in parenteral solutions, providing isotonicity and stabilizing the formulation.
Quick Tip: Bulking agent → stabilizes concentration; sorbitol common in injections.
The disintegration time for sugar coated tablet is _______ minutes.
Sugar-coated tablets have an additional coating layer, increasing disintegration time to about 60 minutes compared to uncoated tablets.
Quick Tip: Sugar coating → delays disintegration; film coating → faster.
The technique that involves measuring the angle of repose is employed to determine the _______ of powders.
Angle of repose is used to assess the flowability of powders; lower angles indicate better flow.
Quick Tip: Flow property → angle of repose; <30° → free-flowing.
The term 'bloom' in pharmaceutical compounding is associated with _______
Bloom value measures the gel strength of gelatin used for hard capsules; higher bloom → stronger gel.
Quick Tip: Bloom → gelatin strength; important for capsule integrity.
To prevent the growth of molds and fungi in oral liquid formulations, which of the following is commonly used? _______
Benzoic acid is a common preservative for oral liquids, inhibiting mold and fungal growth.
Quick Tip: Benzoic acid → antifungal preservative; pH-dependent activity.
The primary role of LAL (Limulus Amebocyte Lysate) test is to detect _______
LAL test detects bacterial endotoxins (pyrogens) in parenteral drugs to prevent febrile reactions.
Quick Tip: LAL → pyrogen detection; based on clotting reaction with endotoxins.
If the plasma half-life of a drug is \(1.386~h\) and the volume of distribution is \(40~L\), then the total body clearance in \(L/h\) will be _______
Clearance \(Cl = \frac{0.693 \times V_d}{t_{1/2}} = \frac{0.693 \times 40}{1.386} = 20~L/h\)
Quick Tip: Cl = 0.693 × Vd / t1/2; plug values carefully.
The best explanation for the absorption of salicylic acid from intestine, despite being ionized is _______
Even though salicylic acid is mostly ionized in the intestine (pH ~7.4), a small fraction (about 1%) remains un-ionized.
This un-ionized portion is lipid-soluble and can cross the intestinal membrane, allowing absorption.
Quick Tip: Only the un-ionized form of weak acids/bases is absorbed through lipid membranes.
The area under the serum concentration time curve represents the _______
The area under the curve (AUC) from plasma concentration-time plot is proportional to the total drug absorbed systemically.
Quick Tip: AUC → measures systemic exposure → directly reflects drug absorption.
Fumaric acid is used in gelatin capsule shell as _______
Fumaric acid acts as a plasticizer in gelatin capsules, improving flexibility and preventing brittleness of the shell.
Quick Tip: Plasticizers → make gelatin capsules flexible; fumaric acid is commonly used.
Wurster's process is also better known as _______
Wurster’s process is an air suspension coating technique used to coat particles or granules uniformly with film-forming agents.
Quick Tip: Air suspension coating → Wurster process → perfect for pellets or beads.
What is the ideal particle size for topical powders?
Step 1: Understanding the Question:
The question asks for the ideal particle size range for powders that are intended for topical (external) application on the skin.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The particle size of a topical powder is a critical parameter that affects its physical properties, therapeutic efficacy, and patient comfort.
Patient Comfort and Feel: The powder should feel smooth and non-gritty upon application. Particles larger than 100-150 µm tend to feel gritty and can cause mechanical irritation to the skin. Therefore, options (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect as they would result in a coarse, uncomfortable powder.
Adhesion and Coverage: The particle size should be optimal for the powder to adhere to the skin and provide good coverage over the application area.
Safety Concerns: Very fine particles (e.g., less than 10 µm) pose a risk of inhalation, which can be harmful to the respiratory system. They can also be absorbed through the skin into the systemic circulation, which is generally undesirable for a topical preparation intended for local action.
Ideal Range: The range of 50 to 100 µm is considered ideal. Particles in this range are "impalpable," meaning they are not felt as individual gritty particles when rubbed on the skin. This size provides a smooth feel and good adhesion without the risks associated with very fine or very coarse powders.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The ideal particle size for topical powders is 50 to 100 µm, as this ensures a smooth, non-gritty feel and good skin adhesion without posing an inhalation hazard.
Quick Tip: For topical powders, the key is "impalpability" - the powder should not feel gritty. A general rule in pharmaceutics is that particles above 100-150 µm start to feel gritty on the skin. This helps in quickly eliminating options with larger particle sizes.
A super disintegrant in tablet formulation is ________.
Sodium starch glycolate is a superdisintegrant that swells upon contact with water to break tablets.
It has high swelling capacity (up to 300 times its weight).
Added at 2-8% concentration.
Other options: starch is regular disintegrant, lactose is diluent, talc is glidant.
Superdisintegrants: croscarmellose, crospovidone.
Mechanism: wicking and swelling. Quick Tip: Superdisintegrant: sodium starch glycolate (2-8%). Swells 300x, wicks water. Faster than regular starch.
Creatinine clearance in normal 70 kg individuals is typically in the range of ________ mL/min.
Normal creatinine clearance for adult males (70 kg) is 97-137 mL/min.
For females: 88-128 mL/min.
Average range: 120-130 mL/min.
Used to estimate glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
Formula: (140-age) × weight (kg) × 0.85 (female) / 72.
Decreases with age, increases with muscle mass. Quick Tip: Normal CrCl: 120-130 mL/min. Cockcroft-Gault formula for estimation. Used for drug dose adjustment.
A co-solvent used in the preparation of parenteral products is ________.
Dimethyl acetamide (DMA) is a polar aprotic solvent used as co-solvent in injectables.
It enhances solubility of poorly water-soluble drugs.
Used in 10-50% concentration with water or saline.
Benzyl alcohol is preservative; methyl alcohol toxic.
Phenol is preservative.
DMA is biocompatible, low toxicity. Quick Tip: DMA: co-solvent for injectables. Polar aprotic, enhances solubility. 10-50% in formulations.
If zeta potential of a suspension is high, then the system will be considered as ________.
High zeta potential (\(>\)30 mV) indicates strong electrostatic repulsion — deflocculated.
Particles remain dispersed, no settling.
Low zeta (\(<\)10 mV) — flocculated, loose aggregate.
Deflocculated: stable but viscous; flocculated: easy redispersion.
Zeta = potential at slipping plane.
Measured by electrophoretic mobility. Quick Tip: High zeta (>30 mV) → deflocculated, stable. Low zeta (<10 mV) → flocculated, sediment. Electrolyte reduces zeta potential.
Non-linear pharmacokinetics is most likely due to ________.
Non-linear PK occurs when elimination processes saturate (zero-order).
Enzyme saturation (e.g., CYP3A4) at high dose — rate constant.
First-pass: linear. Renal: capacity-limited but linear at low dose.
Protein binding: displacement causes linear change.
Examples: phenytoin, alcohol.
Michaelis-Menten kinetics: V = Vmax C / (Km + C). Quick Tip: Non-linear: saturation (zero-order). V = Vmax C / (Km + C). Phenytoin, salicylates.
Match the following:

Schedule Y: Requirements and guidelines for clinical trials.
Schedule G: List of drugs to be sold under medical supervision.
Schedule N: Minimum equipment for pharmacy.
Schedule P: Life period of drugs (stability). Quick Tip: Schedule Y: clinical trials. Schedule G: dangerous drugs. Schedule P: expiry date.
The first schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 deals with ________.
First Schedule lists classical books for Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani standards.
Schedule A: imported drugs standards.
Schedule F: medical devices.
Schedule V: cosmetics standards. Quick Tip: Schedule 1: ASU classical books. Charaka, Sushruta, Ashtanga Hridaya. Essential for ASU formulations.
The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) can issue an order to ban a drug on the recommendations of _______
DCGI acts on the recommendations of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB), which advises on technical matters related to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
Quick Tip: DTAB → advisory body for regulatory decisions; key in drug bans and approvals.
_______ is a psychotropic substance under the Narcotics and Psychotropic Substances Act.
Barbital is a barbiturate and is classified as a psychotropic substance under the NDPS Act.
Other options are not controlled under this Act.
Quick Tip: Barbiturates → psychotropic; antibiotics and anthelmintics → not psychotropic.
Who is the Ex-officio Member of Pharmacy Council of India? _______
The DGHS serves as an ex-officio member of PCI by virtue of their position to oversee pharmacy education and practice in India.
Quick Tip: DGHS → statutory member in PCI; ensures government oversight.
Which drug acts as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)? _______
Fluoxetine selectively inhibits serotonin reuptake in the CNS, increasing serotonin levels.
Amitriptyline → TCA; Diazepam → benzodiazepine; Phenelzine → MAOI.
Quick Tip: SSRI mnemonic: "Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Citalopram" → selective serotonin action.
Atropine blocks the effects of acetylcholine at _______ receptors.
Atropine is a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in parasympathetic pathways.
It does not affect nicotinic or adrenergic receptors.
Quick Tip: Atropine → "Muscarinic blocker" → dry mouth, tachycardia, pupil dilation effects.
Levothyroxine is a synthetic analogue of _______
Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroxine (\(T_4\)), used to treat hypothyroidism.
It is converted in the body to the more active \(T_3\).
Quick Tip: T4 → prodrug; converted to T3 in peripheral tissues.
Penicillins act by inhibiting _______
Penicillins inhibit transpeptidase enzymes involved in peptidoglycan cross-linking of bacterial cell walls.
This results in bacterial lysis.
Quick Tip: Beta-lactams → cell wall synthesis inhibitors.
Which of the following antidiabetic agents primarily enhances insulin sensitivity in target tissues? _______
Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) activate PPAR-\(\gamma\) receptors, improving insulin sensitivity in muscle and adipose tissue.
Biguanides (e.g., metformin) reduce hepatic glucose output, sulfonylureas stimulate insulin release.
Quick Tip: TZDs → "sensitize target tissues to insulin."
Which local anaesthetic is commonly used for spinal anaesthesia due to its long duration of action? _______
Bupivacaine has a long duration of action and high potency, making it suitable for spinal anaesthesia.
Lidocaine acts faster but has shorter duration.
Quick Tip: Bupivacaine → "long-acting spinal anesthetic."
Development of drug resistance is not generally associated with overexpression of which of the following transporters? _______
BCRP, ABCB1, and MDR1 efflux drugs from cells → multi-drug resistance.
Folate receptors are not involved in drug efflux mechanisms.
Quick Tip: Overexpression of efflux pumps → resistance; folate receptor → drug targeting, not resistance.
Which of the following cellular transport requires energy? _______
Active transport moves molecules against concentration gradient using ATP.
Passive transport and facilitated diffusion do not require energy.
Quick Tip: Energy required → active transport; passive/facilitated → no energy.
Which of the following is not correct for the \(H_{1}\) receptor antagonists? _______
H1 blockers inhibit allergy symptoms and vascular permeability.
H2 receptors, not H1, regulate gastric acid secretion.
Quick Tip: H1 → allergy/itch; H2 → gastric acid.
Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by co-administering _______
Ascorbic acid reduces ferric to ferrous iron and forms soluble complexes → enhances absorption.
Quick Tip: Vitamin C co-administered with iron → better absorption.
The weight ratio of T4 and T3 in the combination preparations is _______
Thyroid combination therapy commonly uses T4:T3 in 3:1 ratio to mimic physiological secretion.
Quick Tip: T4:T3 ratio ≈ 3:1 in tablets.
The antiplatelet action of aspirin involves inhibition _______
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase → prevents thromboxane A2 synthesis → inhibits platelet aggregation.
Quick Tip: Aspirin → COX inhibitor → antiplatelet.
The drug that is not metabolized using hydrolysis reaction is _______
Aspirin, lidocaine, and procaine undergo hydrolysis reactions.
Morphine is metabolized primarily by conjugation (glucuronidation) in the liver, not hydrolysis.
Quick Tip: Morphine → glucuronidation; ester drugs → hydrolysis.
Which receptor type is primarily involved in the "fight or flight" response? _______
Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors mediate vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure during the sympathetic "fight or flight" response.
Beta-2 receptors mainly mediate bronchodilation.
Quick Tip: Alpha-1 → vasoconstriction; Beta-2 → bronchodilation.
Find the direct oral anticoagulant drug from the following. _______
Dabigatran is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that directly inhibits thrombin.
Heparin is injectable; Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist; Aspirin is an antiplatelet.
Quick Tip: DOAC → oral, direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor.
Which of the following is true regarding the purpose of taking a medication history of a patient? _______
Medication history helps prevent adverse drug reactions, interactions, and ensures patient safety.
Cost is secondary and not a primary purpose.
Quick Tip: Medication history → safety first (interactions/allergies).
Which of the following is acting as an antidiarrheal agent? _______
Loperamide is an opioid receptor agonist in the gut that reduces intestinal motility.
Other options like Bisacodyl (laxative), Docusate (stool softener), Lactulose (osmotic laxative) are used to treat constipation.
Quick Tip: Antidiarrheal → Loperamide; Laxatives → Bisacodyl, Lactulose, Docusate.
For the emergency treatment of severe hypoglycaemia, which of the following is administered? _______
Glucagon rapidly increases blood glucose by stimulating hepatic glycogenolysis.
Other agents (Pramlintide, Rosiglitazone, Metformin) are not used for emergency hypoglycaemia.
Quick Tip: Emergency hypoglycaemia → Glucagon injection or IV dextrose.
Identify the drug used in androgen replacement therapy. _______
Testosterone enanthate is an androgen used in replacement therapy for male hypogonadism.
Cortisol → glucocorticoid, Estrogen/Progesterone → female sex hormones.
Quick Tip: Androgen therapy → Testosterone derivatives.
The primary action of diuretics in hypertension management is _______
Diuretics reduce plasma volume, lowering cardiac output and blood pressure.
They do not directly inhibit calcium channels (CCBs) or increase heart rate.
Quick Tip: Diuretics → decrease intravascular volume → lower BP.
When absorption energy is increased, then the shift is called _______
Bathochromic shift (red shift) → absorption maximum moves to longer wavelength due to increased energy absorption.
Hypochromic → decreased absorption; Hyperchromic → increased absorption at same wavelength.
Quick Tip: Bathochromic = red shift; Hypsochromic = blue shift; Hyper/Hypochromic → intensity changes.
What is the wavelength of fingerprint region? _______
The IR fingerprint region lies between 500–1500 \(cm^{-1}\) and contains unique molecular vibrations.
Quick Tip: Fingerprint region → identify compounds uniquely.
Beer-Lambert's law indicates _______
Beer-Lambert law: \(A = \epsilon c l\) where \(A\) = absorbance, \(\epsilon\) = molar absorptivity, \(c\) = concentration, \(l\) = path length.
Quick Tip: A ∝ c ∝ l; linear relationship in UV-Vis spectroscopy.
In HPLC analysis, what type of column is preferred? _______
Low HETP (Height Equivalent to a Theoretical Plate) and high plate number → better separation efficiency in HPLC.
Quick Tip: Better column → low HETP + high plates = high resolution.
Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the following. Identify the same. _______
Liquid phase in GLC should have low viscosity to allow efficient flow and separation.
High viscosity would increase column backpressure and reduce efficiency.
Quick Tip: GLC mobile phase → low viscosity, inert, low vapor pressure, high resolving power.
Which of the following is a primary function of GLP? _______
GLP (Good Laboratory Practice) ensures reliability and reproducibility of non-clinical safety data.
It focuses on the process and documentation of experiments rather than finished product certification.
Quick Tip: GLP → non-clinical study quality; GMP → product quality.
The electrode potentials are calculated by _______
Electrode potential is calculated using the Nernst equation: \(E = E^0 - \frac{0.0591}{n} \log Q\).
Other equations relate to diffusion (Ilkovic) or viscosity (Stokes).
Quick Tip: Electrode potential → Nernst equation; concentration & redox relationship.
ICH stands for _______
ICH coordinates technical requirements for pharmaceuticals to harmonize quality, safety, and efficacy guidelines.
Quick Tip: ICH = International Conference on Harmonisation (regulatory guideline body).
Resolution of HPLC can not be modified by _______
Resolution depends on column efficiency (particle size, diameter) and mobile phase conditions (flow rate).
Detector changes do not affect separation quality.
Quick Tip: HPLC resolution → column & mobile phase; detector only measures signal.
The errors arising due to use of un-calibrated or improperly calibrated weights are known as: _______
Instrumental errors arise from defective or uncalibrated equipment or reagents.
Additive/proportional errors are a type of instrumental error.
Quick Tip: Check calibration → prevent instrumental & reagent errors.
For the pH range of 2.8 to 4.6, which indicator should be preferred? _______
Methyl red changes color in the pH range 4.4–6.2 (approx. 2.8–4.6 in acidic titrations).
Phenolphthalein → basic range.
Quick Tip: Acidic pH indicators → methyl red; basic → phenolphthalein.
The phenomenon called "levelling effect" for weak acids will be observed in _______ solvents.
Levelling effect → acid/base strength is limited by the solvent itself; observed in amphiprotic solvents like water.
Quick Tip: Levelling effect = solvent dictates maximum acid/base strength.
To obtain the best results in any of the quantitative TLC methods, the spots being used should have \(R_{f}\) values between _______
Optimal \(R_f\) range (0.3–0.7) ensures good separation and easy quantification.
Quick Tip: \(R_f\) too low → spot near baseline; too high → spot near solvent front.
As per the Indian Pharmacopoeia, the test organism for the microbiological assay of amikacin is _______
Amikacin assay uses Micrococcus luteus as the test organism because it is sensitive to aminoglycosides.
Quick Tip: Micrococcus luteus → aminoglycoside sensitivity assay (amikacin).
Subpart C of Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) regulations, specifically under 21 CFR Part-58, focuses on _______
Subpart C deals with responsibilities of personnel, training, and organizational structure to ensure GLP compliance.
Quick Tip: GLP Subpart C → people \& organization; Subpart D → facilities.
The relationship between the atoms present in their ground-state and excited-state in flame photometry is given by equation _______
The Boltzmann equation relates the population of atoms in the ground and excited states as \(N_2/N_1 = \exp(-E/kT)\), which is used in flame photometry.
Quick Tip: Flame photometry → uses Boltzmann distribution for excited-state populations.
Which of the following functional group(s) does not show two absorption peaks in IR spectroscopy _______
Secondary amines show only one N-H stretching absorption in IR, whereas primary amines show two peaks (symmetric & asymmetric).
Quick Tip: Primary amine → 2 N-H peaks; Secondary amine → 1 N-H peak.
If 10 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid solution requires 20 mL of NaOH solution, then the normality of NaOH solution is _______
Normality calculation: \(N_1 V_1 = N_2 V_2\) → \(0.1 \times 10 = N_2 \times 20 \Rightarrow N_2 = 0.05\) N.
Quick Tip: Use \(N_1V_1 = N_2V_2\) for acid-base titration normality calculations.
During titration of strong acid with a weak base, which one is correct with respect to conductance _______
Strong acid + weak base → conductance decreases because weak base contributes fewer ions than strong acid.
Quick Tip: Strong acid titrated with weak base → conductance decreases until endpoint.
Which substance is commonly used titrant in iodometric titrations _______
Sodium thiosulfate is the standard titrant for iodometric titrations, reacting with liberated iodine.
Quick Tip: Iodometric titration → sodium thiosulfate titrates iodine.
Which of the following is correct about robustness and ruggedness in method validation _______
Robustness → method's stability to small deliberate changes.
Ruggedness → reproducibility across different labs/analysts.
Quick Tip: Robustness → small changes; Ruggedness → inter-lab reproducibility.
Which of the following is a primary standard used in the calibration of spectrophotometers _______
Potassium dichromate solution is stable, reproducible, and absorbs UV light at known wavelengths → primary standard for spectrophotometer calibration.
Quick Tip: UV calibration → primary standard: K\textsubscript{2}Cr\textsubscript{2}O\textsubscript{7}.
Find the correct sentence from the following about accuracy and precision in pharmaceutical analysis _______
Accuracy = closeness to true value; Precision = repeatability/reproducibility of measurements.
Quick Tip: Accuracy → correctness; Precision → consistency.
Which guideline is commonly referred to for method validation in pharmaceutical analysis _______
ICH Q2 (R1) provides guidance on validation parameters: accuracy, precision, linearity, range, detection & quantitation limits.
Quick Tip: Method validation guideline → ICH Q2 (R1).
What will be change observed in liquid chromatography with increased mobile phase flow rate _______
Increasing mobile phase flow rate decreases the retention time because analytes spend less time in the column.
However, very high flow may reduce resolution.
Quick Tip: Higher flow → faster elution → shorter retention time; monitor resolution.
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