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AP PGECET 2025 Pharmacy Question Paper with Solutions Pdf

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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Nov 20, 2025

AP PGECET 2025 Pharmacy Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download. AP PGECET 2025 Pharmacy Question Paper consists of 120 questions with a total weightage of 120 marks.

AP PGECET 2025 Pharmacy Question Paper with Solution PDF

AP PGECET 2025 Pharmacy Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
AP PGECET 2025 Pharmacy Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

The drug 'Pectin' belongs to the category of _______

  • (1) polyuronide
  • (2) disaccharide
  • (3) alkaloid
  • (4) Monosaccharide
Correct Answer: (1) polyuronide
View Solution



Pectin is a polymeric substance found in plant cell walls.

It is classified as a polyuronide due to its high content of galacturonic acid units.

It is commonly used as a gelling agent in foods and pharmaceuticals.
Quick Tip: Pectin = polyuronide → rich in galacturonic acid.
Remember: It is not a simple sugar or alkaloid.


Question 2:

Source of pale catechu is _______

  • (1) Eucalyptus rostrata
  • (2) Uncaria gambir
  • (3) Terminalia chebula
  • (4) Punica granatum
Correct Answer: (2) Uncaria gambir
View Solution



Pale catechu is obtained from the heartwood of Uncaria gambir.

It is used as an astringent and in traditional medicine preparations.
Quick Tip: Catechu → Uncaria gambir.
Dark catechu comes from Acacia catechu.


Question 3:

Trichomes with quadracellular head & sessile stalk are seen in _______

  • (1) Digitalis
  • (2) Belladonna
  • (3) Hyoscyamus
  • (4) Vasaka
Correct Answer: (3) Hyoscyamus
View Solution



Hyoscyamus shows multicellular glandular trichomes with quadracellular head and sessile stalk.

These trichomes are important for secreting alkaloids.
Quick Tip: Trichomes with 4-celled head → Hyoscyamus.
Key identifier in pharmacognostic studies.


Question 4:

Which of the following crude drug is obtained from mineral origin _______

  • (1) Digitalis
  • (2) Sandalwood
  • (3) Nux vomica
  • (4) Kaolin
Correct Answer: (4) Kaolin
View Solution



Kaolin is an inert clay obtained from minerals.

It is used as an adsorbent and in pharmaceutical preparations.
Quick Tip: Mineral drugs → Kaolin, Talc, etc.
Plant drugs are not included here.


Question 5:

The natural oil of winter green majorly contains _______

  • (1) methyl salicylate
  • (2) salicylic acid
  • (3) phenol
  • (4) a-napthol
Correct Answer: (1) methyl salicylate
View Solution



Wintergreen oil is extracted from Gaultheria species.

Its main component is methyl salicylate, responsible for analgesic properties.
Quick Tip: Wintergreen oil = methyl salicylate.
Salicylic acid is present only as a precursor in plants.


Question 6:

Mangifera indica belongs to the family _______

  • (1) Phyllanthaceae
  • (2) Combretaceae
  • (3) Meliaceae
  • (4) Anacardiaceae
Correct Answer: (4) Anacardiaceae
View Solution



Mangifera indica (Mango) belongs to the Anacardiaceae family.

This family includes several resinous plants and economically important fruit trees.
Quick Tip: Mango → Anacardiaceae.
Other members: cashew, pistachio.


Question 7:

Steroidal saponins are biosynthesized via _______

  • (1) shikimic acid pathway
  • (2) mevalonic acid pathway
  • (3) aceto-acetate pathway
  • (4) Calvin's cycle
Correct Answer: (2) mevalonic acid pathway
View Solution



Steroidal saponins are triterpenoid glycosides synthesized via the mevalonate pathway.

The pathway provides the C5 isoprene units needed for triterpene formation.
Quick Tip: Steroidal saponins → mevalonic acid pathway.
Shikimic pathway → aromatic compounds.


Question 8:

The swelling index of a crude drug is used to evaluate _______

  • (1) presence of alkaloids
  • (2) moisture content
  • (3) mucilage content
  • (4) presence of volatile oils
Correct Answer: (3) mucilage content
View Solution



The swelling index measures the ability of a drug to swell in water.

It indicates the presence and quantity of mucilage in the drug.
Quick Tip: Swelling index → mucilage content.
Higher swelling indicates more polysaccharides.


Question 9:

The biological source of cotton fiber is _______

  • (1) Cyamopsis tetragonolobus
  • (2) Gossypium barbadense
  • (3) Saraca indica
  • (4) Arachis hypogaea
Correct Answer: (2) Gossypium barbadense
View Solution



Cotton fiber is obtained from the seed hairs of Gossypium species.

Gossypium barbadense is a commercially cultivated species.
Quick Tip: Cotton fiber → Gossypium species.
Remember: barbadense & hirsutum are main cultivated types.


Question 10:

Number of isoprene units present in diterpenes are _______

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution



Diterpenes are composed of 4 isoprene units.

Each isoprene unit has 5 carbon atoms, giving diterpenes 20 carbons.
Quick Tip: Diterpenes → 4 isoprene units → 20 carbons.
Use isoprene count to identify terpenoid class.


Question 11:

Which is the specific test for the identification of cardiac glycoside? _______

  • (1) Baljet's test
  • (2) Legal test
  • (3) Keller - kiliani test
  • (4) 3,5-dinitro benzoic acid test
Correct Answer: (3) Keller - kiliani test
View Solution



Keller-Kiliani test is a specific chemical test for cardiac glycosides, especially for detecting deoxy sugars attached to glycone part.

It produces a characteristic color reaction with the glycoside.
Quick Tip: Cardiac glycoside test → Keller-Kiliani.
Always look for deoxy sugar detection.


Question 12:

Match the following correctly: A) Goldbeater skin test B) Molisch test C) Mayer's test D) Salkowski test _______

  • (1) A-2; B-3; C-4; D-1
  • (2) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
  • (3) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
  • (4) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
Correct Answer: (3) A-3; B-1; C-4; D-2
View Solution



Goldbeater skin test → Tannins

Molisch test → Carbohydrates

Mayer's test → Alkaloids

Salkowski test → Terpenoids
Quick Tip: Match key tests with class: Goldbeater = tannins, Molisch = carbs.
Mayer’s for alkaloids, Salkowski = terpenoids.


Question 13:

Glass wool is primarily used in pharmaceutical applications for _______

  • (1) drug formulation
  • (2) insulation and filtration
  • (3) textile production
  • (4) capsule coating
Correct Answer: (2) insulation and filtration
View Solution



Glass wool is a fibrous material used for filtration of liquids and air, and also as insulation in pharmaceutical equipment.
Quick Tip: Glass wool → filtration & insulation.
Not used as drug or capsule material.


Question 14:

An alkaloid containing one of the nitrogen atoms as quaternary nitrogen is _______

  • (1) Atropine
  • (2) Ephedrine
  • (3) Tubocurarine
  • (4) Mescaline
Correct Answer: (3) Tubocurarine
View Solution



Tubocurarine is a quaternary ammonium alkaloid.

It contains one nitrogen atom permanently positively charged, making it polar and affecting absorption.
Quick Tip: Quaternary N → polar alkaloids like Tubocurarine.
Atropine/Ephedrine are tertiary alkaloids.


Question 15:

Which of the following plant cell culture technique is generally regarded as a "closed system" technique _______

  • (1) Continuous cultures
  • (2) Batch suspension cultures
  • (3) Semi continuous cultures
  • (4) Petri plate cultures
Correct Answer: (2) Batch suspension cultures
View Solution



Batch suspension cultures are closed systems where nutrients are supplied at the start and products are harvested at the end without continuous addition.
Quick Tip: Closed system = Batch culture.
Continuous → open system with nutrient feed.


Question 16:

Rasburicase is a newer drug used in gout. It acts by _______

  • (1) decreasing urate synthesis
  • (2) increasing urate oxidation
  • (3) decreasing intestinal absorption of uric acid
  • (4) increasing renal excretion of uric acid
Correct Answer: (2) increasing urate oxidation
View Solution



Rasburicase is an enzyme that catalyzes oxidation of uric acid to allantoin, which is more soluble and easily excreted.
Quick Tip: Rasburicase → uric acid → allantoin (oxidation).
Helps rapid urate clearance in gout.


Question 17:

1-[(5-methylpyrazin-2-yl-carboxamide) ethyl phenyl sulphonyl]-3-cyclohexyl urea is _______

  • (1) Glimepiride
  • (2) Glipizide
  • (3) Glyburide
  • (4) Repaglinide
Correct Answer: (4) Repaglinide
View Solution



Repaglinide is a meglitinide-class oral hypoglycemic agent with the given chemical structure.
Quick Tip: Repaglinide → rapid onset insulin secretagogue.
Recognize by chemical name patterns.


Question 18:

Select the INCORRECT statement with respect to the SAR of adrenergic agonists with specific reference to 3',5'-dihydroxy ring substitution pattern _______

  • (1) Increases the drug distribution
  • (2) Increases resistance to metabolism by COMT
  • (3) Provides selectivity for β2-receptors
  • (4) Orally active bronchodilator
Correct Answer: (1) Increases the drug distribution
View Solution



3',5'-dihydroxy substitution increases β2-selectivity and COMT resistance, but does not significantly affect drug distribution.
Quick Tip: Remember: COMT resistance & β2-selectivity are SAR effects.
Distribution is unrelated.


Question 19:

The term "bioisosterism" in drug design aims to maintain or improve the molecule's biological activity by _______

  • (1) Replacement of a functional group with another that enhances lipophilicity
  • (2) Replacement of a chemical group in a molecule with another that has similar physical and chemical properties
  • (3) Structural modification to increase water solubility
  • (4) Conversion of a drug into a salt form
Correct Answer: (2) Replacement of a chemical group in a molecule with another that has similar physical and chemical properties
View Solution



Bioisosterism replaces a functional group with a similar one to maintain activity while improving stability or reducing toxicity.
Quick Tip: Bioisosterism → preserve activity by chemical similarity.
Common in lead optimization.


Question 20:

Pharmacophore modelling involves _______

  • (1) identifying excipients for formulation development with enhanced bioavailability
  • (2) monitoring plasma levels of drugs for better pharmacodynamics
  • (3) predicting half-life of drugs
  • (4) creating a 3D model of the necessary features to interact with a target
Correct Answer: (4) creating a 3D model of the necessary features to interact with a target
View Solution



Pharmacophore modelling identifies essential molecular features required for target binding, aiding drug design.
Quick Tip: Pharmacophore → 3D arrangement of features for target binding.
Not about excipients or PK monitoring.


Question 21:

IUPAC name of aspirin is _______

  • (1) salicylic anhydride
  • (2) 2-ethyl salicylate
  • (3) 2-acetoxybenzoic acid
  • (4) 4-hydroxybenzoic acid
Correct Answer: (3) 2-acetoxybenzoic acid
View Solution



Aspirin is chemically acetylsalicylic acid.

Its systematic IUPAC name is 2-acetoxybenzoic acid.
Quick Tip: Remember: Aspirin = acetylsalicylic acid → 2-acetoxybenzoic acid.


Question 22:

Which of the following drugs act via PPAR-\(\alpha\) activation?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks to identify the drug from the given chemical structures that exerts its therapeutic effect by activating the Peroxisome Proliferator-Activated Receptor alpha (PPAR-\(\alpha\)).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

First, let's identify the drugs corresponding to the given structures and their mechanisms of action.


Structure (A) is Atorvastatin: This is a statin drug. Statins act by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, which is a key enzyme in the cholesterol synthesis pathway. They are primarily used to lower LDL cholesterol. Their mechanism is not PPAR-\(\alpha\) activation.

Structure (B) is Rosiglitazone: This is a thiazolidinedione (TZD) class of drug. TZDs are agonists of PPAR-\(\gamma\) (gamma), not PPAR-\(\alpha\). They are used as anti-diabetic drugs as they increase insulin sensitivity.

Structure (C) is Fenofibrate: This drug belongs to the fibrate class. Fibrates are well-known agonists (activators) of PPAR-\(\alpha\). Activation of PPAR-\(\alpha\) leads to an increase in the synthesis of lipoprotein lipase and a decrease in the production of apolipoprotein C-III. This enhances the clearance of triglyceride-rich lipoproteins, making fibrates effective in lowering high triglyceride levels. Therefore, this is the correct option.

Structure (D) is Ezetimibe: This is a cholesterol absorption inhibitor. It acts at the brush border of the small intestine to inhibit the absorption of cholesterol, leading to a decrease in the delivery of intestinal cholesterol to the liver. Its mechanism is independent of PPAR-\(\alpha\) activation.



Step 4: Final Answer:

Based on the analysis of the mechanisms of action, Fenofibrate (Structure C) is the drug that acts via PPAR-\(\alpha\) activation.
Quick Tip: For pharmacology questions, it's crucial to remember the major drug classes and their primary mechanisms. For lipid-lowering agents:
- \textbf{Statins} -> HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
- \textbf{Fibrates} -> PPAR-\(\alpha\) activators.
- \textbf{Ezetimibe} -> Cholesterol absorption inhibitor.
- \textbf{TZDs} (like Rosiglitazone) are anti-diabetic drugs that are PPAR-\(\gamma\) activators.


Question 23:

What does "QSAR" stand for in drug design? _______

  • (1) Qualitative Selective-Activity Response
  • (2) Quick Structure-Activity Response
  • (3) Quantitative Structure-Activity Relationship
  • (4) Quantitative Selective-Activity Relationship
Correct Answer: (3) Quantitative Structure-Activity Relationship
View Solution



QSAR is a method to relate chemical structure quantitatively to biological activity.

Used extensively in medicinal chemistry to optimize drug design.
Quick Tip: QSAR → Quantitative, not qualitative.
Connects structure → activity numerically.


Question 24:

What is the primary function of dental abrasives? _______

  • (1) Removing plaque and stains
  • (2) Enhancing digestion
  • (3) Neutralizing stomach acid
  • (4) Regulating blood pressure
Correct Answer: (1) Removing plaque and stains
View Solution



Dental abrasives mechanically clean teeth by removing stains and plaque without affecting enamel.
Quick Tip: Dental abrasives → mechanical cleaning of teeth.
Not related to systemic functions.


Question 25:

Which of the following statements is true regarding the following structure (nevirapine)? _______


  • (1) It is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)
  • (2) It binds to an allosteric binding site next to the substrate binding site of reverse transcriptase
  • (3) It is an achiral molecule
  • (4) It is an example of a second-generation drug of its class
Correct Answer: (2) It binds to an allosteric binding site next to the substrate binding site of reverse transcriptase
View Solution



Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI).

It binds allosterically near the RT active site, inhibiting HIV replication.
Quick Tip: NNRTI → allosteric binding; NRTI → substrate mimic.


Question 26:

When 6-OH of morphine is replaced by 6-O-acetyl group, then the activity will _______

  • (1) increase
  • (2) decrease
  • (3) no effect
  • (4) Antagonistic
Correct Answer: (1) increase
View Solution



6-O-acetylmorphine is more lipophilic than morphine, allowing faster CNS penetration and stronger analgesic effect.
Quick Tip: Acetylation at 6-OH → increased activity (e.g., heroin).


Question 27:

Which of the following drugs causes severe birth defects due to stereochemical differences in its enantiomers? _______

  • (1) Tamoxifen
  • (2) Methamphetamine
  • (3) Thalidomide
  • (4) Paclitaxel
Correct Answer: (3) Thalidomide
View Solution



Thalidomide's R-enantiomer is sedative, while the S-enantiomer is teratogenic.

Leads to severe birth defects when given to pregnant women.
Quick Tip: Stereochemistry → critical in teratogenicity.
Thalidomide = classic example.


Question 28:

The antihypertensive drug with a tetrazole nucleus that binds to AT1 receptor is _______

  • (1) Lisinopril
  • (2) Losartan
  • (3) Captopril
  • (4) Enalapril
Correct Answer: (2) Losartan
View Solution



Losartan is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist (ARB) with a tetrazole ring that enhances receptor binding.
Quick Tip: Tetrazole → common in ARBs (e.g., Losartan).
ACE inhibitors have -pril suffix.


Question 29:

The drug Nifedipine is chemically classified as a _______

  • (1) Diuretic
  • (2) Beta blocker
  • (3) Calcium channel blocker
  • (4) ACE inhibitor
Correct Answer: (3) Calcium channel blocker
View Solution



Nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that reduces vascular smooth muscle contraction, lowering BP.
Quick Tip: Nifedipine → DHP CCB; remember suffixes: -dipine → CCB.


Question 30:

In the synthesis of local anesthetics, the formation of the _______ bond is a critical step.

  • (1) ether
  • (2) amide
  • (3) ester
  • (4) acetal
Correct Answer: (2) amide
View Solution



Local anesthetics are generally esters or amides; modern stable anesthetics are mostly amides.

Amide bond formation is key in synthesis.
Quick Tip: Modern anesthetics → amide linkage (e.g., lidocaine).


Question 31:

A compound containing _______ functional group is a characteristic feature of barbiturates.

  • (1) Hydantoin
  • (2) Pyrimidine
  • (3) Thiazolidine
  • (4) Oxazolidine
Correct Answer: (1) Hydantoin
View Solution



Barbiturates are derivatives of barbituric acid which contains the hydantoin functional group.

This functional group is key for their CNS depressant activity.
Quick Tip: Hydantoin → hallmark functional group in barbiturates.


Question 32:

The primary mechanism of action of Penicillins is _______

  • (1) inhibition of protein synthesis
  • (2) inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  • (3) disruption of cell membrane
  • (4) inhibition of DNA replication
Correct Answer: (2) inhibition of cell wall synthesis
View Solution



Penicillins inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by blocking transpeptidase enzymes, leading to cell lysis.
Quick Tip: Penicillins → beta -lactam antibiotics → inhibit cell wall synthesis.


Question 33:

The stability of a drug molecule to light is measured in terms of _______

  • (1) Hydrolytic stability
  • (2) Photolytic stability
  • (3) Thermal stability
  • (4) Oxidative stability
Correct Answer: (2) Photolytic stability
View Solution



Photolytic stability refers to how a drug resists degradation when exposed to light.

It is critical for storage and packaging considerations.
Quick Tip: Photolytic = light stability; check packaging if drug is photosensitive.


Question 34:

What is the role of ethanol in the preparation of barium sulphate reagent? _______

  • (1) To provide an acidic medium
  • (2) To oxidize barium
  • (3) To precipitate barium
  • (4) To prevent super-saturation
Correct Answer: (4) To prevent super-saturation
View Solution



Ethanol is added to prevent super-saturation of barium sulphate during precipitation.

It ensures uniform and controlled crystal formation.
Quick Tip: Ethanol → control crystal growth, prevents precipitation errors.


Question 35:

Identify the key step in the synthesis of beta-blockers. _______

  • (1) Condensation of amines with aromatic rings
  • (2) Hydrolysis of esters
  • (3) Oxidation of alcohols
  • (4) Reduction of ketones
Correct Answer: (1) Condensation of amines with aromatic rings
View Solution



Beta-blockers are synthesized via condensation of amines with aromatic epoxides or halides, forming the amino alcohol side chain.
Quick Tip: Amines + aromatic rings → key intermediate for beta-blockers.


Question 36:

As compared to unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparins _______

  • (1) are absorbed more uniformly when given subcutaneously
  • (2) require more frequent laboratory monitoring
  • (3) can be given to patients with heparin induced thrombocytopenia
  • (4) predispose to a higher risk of osteopenia
Correct Answer: (1) are absorbed more uniformly when given subcutaneously
View Solution



LMWH has more predictable pharmacokinetics than UFH, allowing uniform subcutaneous absorption and less frequent monitoring.
Quick Tip: LMWH → predictable absorption, less monitoring, lower HIT risk.


Question 37:

Anxiolytic drugs like lorazepam primarily act on _______ receptors.

  • (1) serotonin
  • (2) NMDA
  • (3) GABA-A
  • (4) dopamine
Correct Answer: (3) GABA-A
View Solution



Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that enhances GABA-A receptor activity, increasing inhibitory neurotransmission in the CNS.
Quick Tip: Benzodiazepines → GABA-A agonists → anxiolytic and sedative effects.


Question 38:

Which of the following is used as anticaries agent? _______

  • (1) Calcium carbonate
  • (2) Sodium lauryl sulphate
  • (3) Zinc chloride
  • (4) Sodium fluoride
Correct Answer: (4) Sodium fluoride
View Solution



Sodium fluoride strengthens enamel and prevents dental caries by promoting remineralization.
Quick Tip: Fluoride → anticaries; Calcium carbonate → abrasive.


Question 39:

The locally acting antacid(s) known for its constipation effect is/are: _______

  • (1) Sodium bicarbonate
  • (2) Aluminium hydroxide
  • (3) Magnesium hydroxide
  • (4) Sucralose
Correct Answer: (2) Aluminium hydroxide
View Solution



Aluminium hydroxide neutralizes gastric acid but can cause constipation due to its low solubility.
Quick Tip: Aluminium hydroxide → constipation; Magnesium hydroxide → laxative.


Question 40:

Match the following limit test reagents correctly. _______


  • (1) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
  • (2) A-3; B-2; C-4; D-1
  • (3) A-2; B-1; C-4; D-3
  • (4) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1
Correct Answer: (1) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
View Solution



Arsenic → Mercuric chloride, Lead → Dithizone, Iron → Thioglycolic acid, Barium → Barium chloride.

Limit tests use these reagents to detect trace metals.
Quick Tip: Memorize standard reagents for limit tests of common metals.


Question 41:

Which is the official source of water in the preparation of parenteral products? _______

  • (1) Purified water
  • (2) Water for injection
  • (3) Sterile water for injection
  • (4) Distilled water
Correct Answer: (2) Water for injection
View Solution



Water for injection (WFI) is the official source for parenteral preparations because it is pyrogen-free and suitable for injection after sterilization.
Quick Tip: WFI → pyrogen-free water required for parenterals.


Question 42:

The glass type commonly used for parenteral products is _______

  • (1) Type I
  • (2) Type II
  • (3) Type III
  • (4) Type IV
Correct Answer: (1) Type I
View Solution



Type I glass is borosilicate glass with high chemical resistance and thermal stability, suitable for parenteral packaging.
Quick Tip: Parenterals → always use Type I borosilicate glass for safety.


Question 43:

Which of the following is a physical hazard during the handling of hazardous materials? _______

  • (1) Skin exposure to chemicals
  • (2) Exposure to a radioactive material
  • (3) Consumption of contaminated food
  • (4) Inhalation of chemical vapors
Correct Answer: (2) Exposure to a radioactive material
View Solution



Physical hazards are environmental or mechanical hazards like radiation, heat, or mechanical injury.

Chemical exposure and inhalation are considered chemical hazards.
Quick Tip: Radioactive exposure → physical hazard; chemical contact → chemical hazard.


Question 44:

Schedule _______ deals with the requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of drugs.

  • (1) M
  • (2) Y
  • (3) P
  • (4) C
Correct Answer: (1) M
View Solution



Schedule M of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act specifies requirements for factory premises, equipment, and personnel for manufacturing drugs.
Quick Tip: Schedule M → GMP standards for drug manufacturing facilities.


Question 45:

The distance between two tangents on opposite sides of the particle parallel to some fixed direction is called as _______ diameter.

  • (1) Martin diameter
  • (2) Feret diameter
  • (3) Projected area diameter
  • (4) Projected number diameter
Correct Answer: (2) Feret diameter
View Solution



Feret diameter is measured as the distance between two parallel tangents on opposite sides of a particle in a given direction.
Quick Tip: Feret diameter → “caliper measurement” along a chosen direction.


Question 46:

_______ is the method of choice for determining the size distribution of powders for inhalation products.

  • (1) Sedimentation
  • (2) Light scattering
  • (3) Sieving
  • (4) Microscopy
Correct Answer: (2) Light scattering
View Solution



Laser light scattering (e.g., Malvern) provides accurate particle size distribution for fine powders, especially inhalation products.
Quick Tip: Inhalation powders → use laser light scattering for PSD.


Question 47:

_______ is a method used for the size reduction of heat-sensitive materials.

  • (1) Fluid energy mill
  • (2) Cryogenic grinding
  • (3) Ball mill
  • (4) Roller mill
Correct Answer: (2) Cryogenic grinding
View Solution



Cryogenic grinding uses low temperatures (liquid nitrogen) to prevent heat generation, ideal for heat-sensitive drugs.
Quick Tip: Heat-sensitive → cryogenic; general milling → ball/roller.


Question 48:

The density that is determined by displacement of helium is known as _______ density.

  • (1) true
  • (2) intrinsic
  • (3) granule
  • (4) bulk
Correct Answer: (1) true
View Solution



True density is measured by helium pycnometry, which fills all pores, giving actual material density.
Quick Tip: True density = density of the solid material excluding pores.


Question 49:

Which sterilization method is suitable for heat-labile parenteral solutions? _______

  • (1) Autoclaving
  • (2) Dry heat
  • (3) Filtration
  • (4) UV radiation
Correct Answer: (3) Filtration
View Solution



Heat-labile solutions cannot withstand autoclaving. Sterile filtration using 0.22 μm filters is the preferred method.
Quick Tip: Heat-sensitive → filter sterilization; heat-stable → autoclave.


Question 50:

The solubility of the drug will be high when it is in its _______ form.

  • (1) stable
  • (2) metastable
  • (3) unstable
  • (4) crystalline
Correct Answer: (2) metastable
View Solution



Metastable forms (amorphous or less stable polymorphs) have higher solubility than stable crystalline forms.
Quick Tip: Metastable → high solubility, rapid dissolution; crystalline → lower solubility.


Question 51:

In a suspension the purpose of flocculating agent is _______

  • (1) increase viscosity
  • (2) prevent caking
  • (3) enhance solubility
  • (4) reduce particle size
Correct Answer: (2) prevent caking
View Solution



Flocculating agents help particles form loose aggregates (flocs) in suspensions, preventing compact sedimentation (caking) and making redispersion easier.
Quick Tip: Flocculation → prevents caking; deflocculation → fine uniform suspension.


Question 52:

Which suppository base is water-soluble? _______

  • (1) Cocoa butter
  • (2) PEG
  • (3) Gelatin
  • (4) Witepsol
Correct Answer: (2) PEG
View Solution



Polyethylene glycol (PEG) is water-soluble and commonly used as a suppository base for hydrophilic drugs.
Quick Tip: PEG → water-soluble base; cocoa butter/Witepsol → fat-soluble base.


Question 53:

Vanishing cream is an example of _______

  • (1) w/o emulsion
  • (2) O/W
  • (3) W/O/W
  • (4) Microemulsion
Correct Answer: (2) O/W
View Solution



Vanishing cream is an oil-in-water (O/W) emulsion, where oil droplets are dispersed in water and easily washable.
Quick Tip: O/W emulsion → washable cream; W/O → greasy cream.


Question 54:

Bulking agent used for parenteral preparation is _______

  • (1) sodium metabisulphite
  • (2) benzyl alcohol
  • (3) carboxylic acid
  • (4) Sorbitol
Correct Answer: (4) Sorbitol
View Solution



Sorbitol acts as a bulking agent in parenteral solutions, providing isotonicity and stabilizing the formulation.
Quick Tip: Bulking agent → stabilizes concentration; sorbitol common in injections.


Question 55:

The disintegration time for sugar coated tablet is _______ minutes.

  • (1) 30
  • (2) 60
  • (3) 15
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (2) 60
View Solution



Sugar-coated tablets have an additional coating layer, increasing disintegration time to about 60 minutes compared to uncoated tablets.
Quick Tip: Sugar coating → delays disintegration; film coating → faster.


Question 56:

The technique that involves measuring the angle of repose is employed to determine the _______ of powders.

  • (1) Density
  • (2) Flow property
  • (3) Hygroscopicity
  • (4) Porosity
Correct Answer: (2) Flow property
View Solution



Angle of repose is used to assess the flowability of powders; lower angles indicate better flow.
Quick Tip: Flow property → angle of repose; <30° → free-flowing.


Question 57:

The term 'bloom' in pharmaceutical compounding is associated with _______

  • (1) Tablet coating
  • (2) Hard gelatin capsule
  • (3) Suppositories
  • (4) Syrup formulation
Correct Answer: (2) Hard gelatin capsule
View Solution



Bloom value measures the gel strength of gelatin used for hard capsules; higher bloom → stronger gel.
Quick Tip: Bloom → gelatin strength; important for capsule integrity.


Question 58:

To prevent the growth of molds and fungi in oral liquid formulations, which of the following is commonly used? _______

  • (1) Benzoic acid
  • (2) Chlorbutol
  • (3) Benzalkonium chloride
  • (4) Cresol
Correct Answer: (1) Benzoic acid
View Solution



Benzoic acid is a common preservative for oral liquids, inhibiting mold and fungal growth.
Quick Tip: Benzoic acid → antifungal preservative; pH-dependent activity.


Question 59:

The primary role of LAL (Limulus Amebocyte Lysate) test is to detect _______

  • (1) pyrogens
  • (2) exotoxins
  • (3) proteinaceous matter
  • (4) DNA contamination
Correct Answer: (1) pyrogens
View Solution



LAL test detects bacterial endotoxins (pyrogens) in parenteral drugs to prevent febrile reactions.
Quick Tip: LAL → pyrogen detection; based on clotting reaction with endotoxins.


Question 60:

If the plasma half-life of a drug is \(1.386~h\) and the volume of distribution is \(40~L\), then the total body clearance in \(L/h\) will be _______

  • (1) 40
  • (2) 20
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 5
Correct Answer: (2) 20
View Solution



Clearance \(Cl = \frac{0.693 \times V_d}{t_{1/2}} = \frac{0.693 \times 40}{1.386} = 20~L/h\)
Quick Tip: Cl = 0.693 × Vd / t1/2; plug values carefully.


Question 61:

The best explanation for the absorption of salicylic acid from intestine, despite being ionized is _______

  • (1) High surface area of the drug molecules
  • (2) Dissolution of drug
  • (3) Availability of 1% of the un-ionized form
  • (4) Availability of receptors
Correct Answer: (3) Availability of 1% of the un-ionized form
View Solution



Even though salicylic acid is mostly ionized in the intestine (pH ~7.4), a small fraction (about 1%) remains un-ionized.

This un-ionized portion is lipid-soluble and can cross the intestinal membrane, allowing absorption.
Quick Tip: Only the un-ionized form of weak acids/bases is absorbed through lipid membranes.


Question 62:

The area under the serum concentration time curve represents the _______

  • (1) biological half-life of the drug
  • (2) amount of drug absorbed
  • (3) amount of drug excreted in the urine
  • (4) amount of drug in the original dosage form
Correct Answer: (2) amount of drug absorbed
View Solution



The area under the curve (AUC) from plasma concentration-time plot is proportional to the total drug absorbed systemically.
Quick Tip: AUC → measures systemic exposure → directly reflects drug absorption.


Question 63:

Fumaric acid is used in gelatin capsule shell as _______

  • (1) plasticizer
  • (2) antioxidant
  • (3) solubilizer
  • (4) Opacifier
Correct Answer: (1) plasticizer
View Solution



Fumaric acid acts as a plasticizer in gelatin capsules, improving flexibility and preventing brittleness of the shell.
Quick Tip: Plasticizers → make gelatin capsules flexible; fumaric acid is commonly used.


Question 64:

Wurster's process is also better known as _______

  • (1) rotary plate process
  • (2) air suspension coating
  • (3) coacervation process
  • (4) pan coating
Correct Answer: (2) air suspension coating
View Solution



Wurster’s process is an air suspension coating technique used to coat particles or granules uniformly with film-forming agents.
Quick Tip: Air suspension coating → Wurster process → perfect for pellets or beads.


Question 65:

What is the ideal particle size for topical powders?

  • (A) 50 to 100 µm
  • (B) 150 to 250 µm
  • (C) 250 to 500 µm
  • (D) Above 1000 µm
Correct Answer: (A) 50 to 100 µm
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Question:

The question asks for the ideal particle size range for powders that are intended for topical (external) application on the skin.


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

The particle size of a topical powder is a critical parameter that affects its physical properties, therapeutic efficacy, and patient comfort.


Patient Comfort and Feel: The powder should feel smooth and non-gritty upon application. Particles larger than 100-150 µm tend to feel gritty and can cause mechanical irritation to the skin. Therefore, options (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect as they would result in a coarse, uncomfortable powder.

Adhesion and Coverage: The particle size should be optimal for the powder to adhere to the skin and provide good coverage over the application area.

Safety Concerns: Very fine particles (e.g., less than 10 µm) pose a risk of inhalation, which can be harmful to the respiratory system. They can also be absorbed through the skin into the systemic circulation, which is generally undesirable for a topical preparation intended for local action.

Ideal Range: The range of 50 to 100 µm is considered ideal. Particles in this range are "impalpable," meaning they are not felt as individual gritty particles when rubbed on the skin. This size provides a smooth feel and good adhesion without the risks associated with very fine or very coarse powders.



Step 4: Final Answer:

The ideal particle size for topical powders is 50 to 100 µm, as this ensures a smooth, non-gritty feel and good skin adhesion without posing an inhalation hazard.
Quick Tip: For topical powders, the key is "impalpability" - the powder should not feel gritty. A general rule in pharmaceutics is that particles above 100-150 µm start to feel gritty on the skin. This helps in quickly eliminating options with larger particle sizes.


Question 66:

A super disintegrant in tablet formulation is ________.

  • (A) sodium starch glycolate
  • (B) starch
  • (C) lactose
  • (D) talc
Correct Answer: (A) sodium starch glycolate
View Solution



Sodium starch glycolate is a superdisintegrant that swells upon contact with water to break tablets.

It has high swelling capacity (up to 300 times its weight).

Added at 2-8% concentration.

Other options: starch is regular disintegrant, lactose is diluent, talc is glidant.

Superdisintegrants: croscarmellose, crospovidone.

Mechanism: wicking and swelling. Quick Tip: Superdisintegrant: sodium starch glycolate (2-8%). Swells 300x, wicks water. Faster than regular starch.


Question 67:

Creatinine clearance in normal 70 kg individuals is typically in the range of ________ mL/min.

  • (A) 100-120
  • (B) 200-250
  • (C) 50-100
  • (D) 120-200
Correct Answer: (D) 120-200
View Solution



Normal creatinine clearance for adult males (70 kg) is 97-137 mL/min.

For females: 88-128 mL/min.

Average range: 120-130 mL/min.

Used to estimate glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

Formula: (140-age) × weight (kg) × 0.85 (female) / 72.

Decreases with age, increases with muscle mass. Quick Tip: Normal CrCl: 120-130 mL/min. Cockcroft-Gault formula for estimation. Used for drug dose adjustment.


Question 68:

A co-solvent used in the preparation of parenteral products is ________.

  • (A) benzyl alcohol
  • (B) methyl alcohol
  • (C) dimethyl acetamide
  • (D) phenol
Correct Answer: (C) dimethyl acetamide
View Solution



Dimethyl acetamide (DMA) is a polar aprotic solvent used as co-solvent in injectables.

It enhances solubility of poorly water-soluble drugs.

Used in 10-50% concentration with water or saline.

Benzyl alcohol is preservative; methyl alcohol toxic.

Phenol is preservative.

DMA is biocompatible, low toxicity. Quick Tip: DMA: co-solvent for injectables. Polar aprotic, enhances solubility. 10-50% in formulations.


Question 69:

If zeta potential of a suspension is high, then the system will be considered as ________.

  • (A) deflocculated
  • (B) flocculated
  • (C) emulsion
  • (D) sedimented
Correct Answer: (A) deflocculated
View Solution



High zeta potential (\(>\)30 mV) indicates strong electrostatic repulsion — deflocculated.

Particles remain dispersed, no settling.

Low zeta (\(<\)10 mV) — flocculated, loose aggregate.

Deflocculated: stable but viscous; flocculated: easy redispersion.

Zeta = potential at slipping plane.

Measured by electrophoretic mobility. Quick Tip: High zeta (>30 mV) → deflocculated, stable. Low zeta (<10 mV) → flocculated, sediment. Electrolyte reduces zeta potential.


Question 70:

Non-linear pharmacokinetics is most likely due to ________.

  • (A) first-pass metabolism
  • (B) saturation of metabolic enzymes
  • (C) renal excretion
  • (D) high plasma protein binding
Correct Answer: (B) saturation of metabolic enzymes
View Solution



Non-linear PK occurs when elimination processes saturate (zero-order).

Enzyme saturation (e.g., CYP3A4) at high dose — rate constant.

First-pass: linear. Renal: capacity-limited but linear at low dose.

Protein binding: displacement causes linear change.

Examples: phenytoin, alcohol.

Michaelis-Menten kinetics: V = Vmax C / (Km + C). Quick Tip: Non-linear: saturation (zero-order). V = Vmax C / (Km + C). Phenytoin, salicylates.


Question 71:

Match the following: 

Q71 Table

  • (A) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1
  • (B) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
  • (C) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2
  • (D) A-1; B-3; C-4; D-2
Correct Answer: (C) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2
View Solution



Schedule Y: Requirements and guidelines for clinical trials.

Schedule G: List of drugs to be sold under medical supervision.

Schedule N: Minimum equipment for pharmacy.

Schedule P: Life period of drugs (stability). Quick Tip: Schedule Y: clinical trials. Schedule G: dangerous drugs. Schedule P: expiry date.


Question 72:

The first schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 deals with ________.

  • (A) standards to be complied with by imported drugs and by drugs manufactured for sale, stocked or exhibited for sale, sold or distributed
  • (B) standard to be complied for cosmetics
  • (C) authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani Tibb system
  • (D) standards to be complied for medical devices
Correct Answer: (C) authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani Tibb system
View Solution



First Schedule lists classical books for Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani standards.

Schedule A: imported drugs standards.

Schedule F: medical devices.

Schedule V: cosmetics standards. Quick Tip: Schedule 1: ASU classical books. Charaka, Sushruta, Ashtanga Hridaya. Essential for ASU formulations.


Question 73:

The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) can issue an order to ban a drug on the recommendations of _______

  • (1) Indian Council of Medical Research
  • (2) Pharmacy Council of India
  • (3) Drugs Technical Advisory Board
  • (4) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority
Correct Answer: (3) Drugs Technical Advisory Board
View Solution



DCGI acts on the recommendations of the Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB), which advises on technical matters related to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
Quick Tip: DTAB → advisory body for regulatory decisions; key in drug bans and approvals.


Question 74:

_______ is a psychotropic substance under the Narcotics and Psychotropic Substances Act.

  • (1) Barbital
  • (2) Ampicillin
  • (3) Albendazole
  • (4) Chloroquine
Correct Answer: (1) Barbital
View Solution



Barbital is a barbiturate and is classified as a psychotropic substance under the NDPS Act.

Other options are not controlled under this Act.
Quick Tip: Barbiturates → psychotropic; antibiotics and anthelmintics → not psychotropic.


Question 75:

Who is the Ex-officio Member of Pharmacy Council of India? _______

  • (1) Director, Central Drugs Research Laboratory
  • (2) Director General of Health Services
  • (3) President, Medical Council of India
  • (4) Director, Central Research Institute
Correct Answer: (2) Director General of Health Services
View Solution



The DGHS serves as an ex-officio member of PCI by virtue of their position to oversee pharmacy education and practice in India.
Quick Tip: DGHS → statutory member in PCI; ensures government oversight.


Question 76:

Which drug acts as a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)? _______

  • (1) Amitriptyline
  • (2) Fluoxetine
  • (3) Diazepam
  • (4) Phenelzine
Correct Answer: (2) Fluoxetine
View Solution



Fluoxetine selectively inhibits serotonin reuptake in the CNS, increasing serotonin levels.

Amitriptyline → TCA; Diazepam → benzodiazepine; Phenelzine → MAOI.
Quick Tip: SSRI mnemonic: "Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Citalopram" → selective serotonin action.


Question 77:

Atropine blocks the effects of acetylcholine at _______ receptors.

  • (1) nicotinic
  • (2) muscarinic
  • (3) alpha-1
  • (4) beta-2
Correct Answer: (2) muscarinic
View Solution



Atropine is a competitive antagonist of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors in parasympathetic pathways.

It does not affect nicotinic or adrenergic receptors.
Quick Tip: Atropine → "Muscarinic blocker" → dry mouth, tachycardia, pupil dilation effects.


Question 78:

Levothyroxine is a synthetic analogue of _______

  • (1) Triiodothyronine \((T_{3})\)
  • (2) Thyroxine \((T_{4})\)
  • (3) TSH
  • (4) Calcitonin
Correct Answer: (2) Thyroxine \((T_{4})\)
View Solution



Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroxine (\(T_4\)), used to treat hypothyroidism.

It is converted in the body to the more active \(T_3\).
Quick Tip: T4 → prodrug; converted to T3 in peripheral tissues.


Question 79:

Penicillins act by inhibiting _______

  • (1) cell membrane synthesis
  • (2) DNA gyrase
  • (3) cell wall synthesis
  • (4) protein synthesis
Correct Answer: (3) cell wall synthesis
View Solution



Penicillins inhibit transpeptidase enzymes involved in peptidoglycan cross-linking of bacterial cell walls.

This results in bacterial lysis.
Quick Tip: Beta-lactams → cell wall synthesis inhibitors.


Question 80:

Which of the following antidiabetic agents primarily enhances insulin sensitivity in target tissues? _______

  • (1) Sulfonylureas
  • (2) Biguanides
  • (3) Thiazolidinediones
  • (4) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Correct Answer: (3) Thiazolidinediones
View Solution



Thiazolidinediones (TZDs) activate PPAR-\(\gamma\) receptors, improving insulin sensitivity in muscle and adipose tissue.

Biguanides (e.g., metformin) reduce hepatic glucose output, sulfonylureas stimulate insulin release.
Quick Tip: TZDs → "sensitize target tissues to insulin."


Question 81:

Which local anaesthetic is commonly used for spinal anaesthesia due to its long duration of action? _______

  • (1) Lidocaine
  • (2) Bupivacaine
  • (3) Procaine
  • (4) Mepivacaine
Correct Answer: (2) Bupivacaine
View Solution



Bupivacaine has a long duration of action and high potency, making it suitable for spinal anaesthesia.

Lidocaine acts faster but has shorter duration.
Quick Tip: Bupivacaine → "long-acting spinal anesthetic."


Question 82:

Development of drug resistance is not generally associated with overexpression of which of the following transporters? _______

  • (1) BCRP
  • (2) ABCB1
  • (3) MDR1
  • (4) Folate receptors
Correct Answer: (4) Folate receptors
View Solution



BCRP, ABCB1, and MDR1 efflux drugs from cells → multi-drug resistance.

Folate receptors are not involved in drug efflux mechanisms.
Quick Tip: Overexpression of efflux pumps → resistance; folate receptor → drug targeting, not resistance.


Question 83:

Which of the following cellular transport requires energy? _______

  • (1) Active transport
  • (2) Passive transport
  • (3) Facilitated transport
  • (4) Pinocytosis
Correct Answer: (1) Active transport
View Solution



Active transport moves molecules against concentration gradient using ATP.

Passive transport and facilitated diffusion do not require energy.
Quick Tip: Energy required → active transport; passive/facilitated → no energy.


Question 84:

Which of the following is not correct for the \(H_{1}\) receptor antagonists? _______

  • (1) Strongly block the increased capillary permeability caused by histamine
  • (2) Suppress the flare and itching caused by intradermal injection
  • (3) Always suppress the gastric secretion
  • (4) Relieve the allergic reactions
Correct Answer: (3) Always suppress the gastric secretion
View Solution



H1 blockers inhibit allergy symptoms and vascular permeability.

H2 receptors, not H1, regulate gastric acid secretion.
Quick Tip: H1 → allergy/itch; H2 → gastric acid.


Question 85:

Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by co-administering _______

  • (1) calcium carbonate
  • (2) calcium phosphate
  • (3) ascorbic acid
  • (4) casein
Correct Answer: (3) ascorbic acid
View Solution



Ascorbic acid reduces ferric to ferrous iron and forms soluble complexes → enhances absorption.
Quick Tip: Vitamin C co-administered with iron → better absorption.


Question 86:

The weight ratio of T4 and T3 in the combination preparations is _______

  • (1) \(1:3\)
  • (2) \(3:1\)
  • (3) \(1:4\)
  • (4) \(4:1\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(3:1\)
View Solution



Thyroid combination therapy commonly uses T4:T3 in 3:1 ratio to mimic physiological secretion.
Quick Tip: T4:T3 ratio ≈ 3:1 in tablets.


Question 87:

The antiplatelet action of aspirin involves inhibition _______

  • (1) arachidonic acid pathway
  • (2) ADP pathway
  • (3) glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
  • (4) phosphodiesterase
Correct Answer: (1) arachidonic acid pathway
View Solution



Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase → prevents thromboxane A2 synthesis → inhibits platelet aggregation.
Quick Tip: Aspirin → COX inhibitor → antiplatelet.


Question 88:

The drug that is not metabolized using hydrolysis reaction is _______

  • (1) aspirin
  • (2) lidocaine
  • (3) morphine
  • (4) procaine
Correct Answer: (3) morphine
View Solution



Aspirin, lidocaine, and procaine undergo hydrolysis reactions.

Morphine is metabolized primarily by conjugation (glucuronidation) in the liver, not hydrolysis.
Quick Tip: Morphine → glucuronidation; ester drugs → hydrolysis.


Question 89:

Which receptor type is primarily involved in the "fight or flight" response? _______

  • (1) alpha-1 adrenergic
  • (2) beta-2 adrenergic
  • (3) Muscarinic
  • (4) Nicotinic
Correct Answer: (1) alpha-1 adrenergic
View Solution



Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors mediate vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure during the sympathetic "fight or flight" response.

Beta-2 receptors mainly mediate bronchodilation.
Quick Tip: Alpha-1 → vasoconstriction; Beta-2 → bronchodilation.


Question 90:

Find the direct oral anticoagulant drug from the following. _______

  • (1) Heparin
  • (2) Dabigatran
  • (3) Warfarin
  • (4) Aspirin
Correct Answer: (2) Dabigatran
View Solution



Dabigatran is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that directly inhibits thrombin.

Heparin is injectable; Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist; Aspirin is an antiplatelet.
Quick Tip: DOAC → oral, direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor.


Question 91:

Which of the following is true regarding the purpose of taking a medication history of a patient? _______

  • (1) To identify potential drug interactions and allergies
  • (2) To know the cost of medications
  • (3) Both a and b are correct
  • (4) Both a and b are incorrect
Correct Answer: (1) To identify potential drug interactions and allergies
View Solution



Medication history helps prevent adverse drug reactions, interactions, and ensures patient safety.

Cost is secondary and not a primary purpose.
Quick Tip: Medication history → safety first (interactions/allergies).


Question 92:

Which of the following is acting as an antidiarrheal agent? _______

  • (1) Bisacodyl
  • (2) Docusate
  • (3) Loperamide
  • (4) Lactulose
Correct Answer: (3) Loperamide
View Solution



Loperamide is an opioid receptor agonist in the gut that reduces intestinal motility.

Other options like Bisacodyl (laxative), Docusate (stool softener), Lactulose (osmotic laxative) are used to treat constipation.
Quick Tip: Antidiarrheal → Loperamide; Laxatives → Bisacodyl, Lactulose, Docusate.


Question 93:

For the emergency treatment of severe hypoglycaemia, which of the following is administered? _______

  • (1) Pramlintide
  • (2) Glucagon
  • (3) Rosiglitazone
  • (4) Metformin
Correct Answer: (2) Glucagon
View Solution



Glucagon rapidly increases blood glucose by stimulating hepatic glycogenolysis.

Other agents (Pramlintide, Rosiglitazone, Metformin) are not used for emergency hypoglycaemia.
Quick Tip: Emergency hypoglycaemia → Glucagon injection or IV dextrose.


Question 94:

Identify the drug used in androgen replacement therapy. _______

  • (1) Cortisol
  • (2) Estrogen
  • (3) Progesterone
  • (4) Testosterone enanthate
Correct Answer: (4) Testosterone enanthate
View Solution



Testosterone enanthate is an androgen used in replacement therapy for male hypogonadism.

Cortisol → glucocorticoid, Estrogen/Progesterone → female sex hormones.
Quick Tip: Androgen therapy → Testosterone derivatives.


Question 95:

The primary action of diuretics in hypertension management is _______

  • (1) reducing urine output
  • (2) reducing volume of blood
  • (3) inhibiting calcium channels
  • (4) increasing heart rate
Correct Answer: (2) reducing volume of blood
View Solution



Diuretics reduce plasma volume, lowering cardiac output and blood pressure.

They do not directly inhibit calcium channels (CCBs) or increase heart rate.
Quick Tip: Diuretics → decrease intravascular volume → lower BP.


Question 96:

When absorption energy is increased, then the shift is called _______

  • (1) Hypochromic shift
  • (2) Hyperchromic shift
  • (3) Bathochromic shift
  • (4) Hypscochromic shift
Correct Answer: (3) Bathochromic shift
View Solution



Bathochromic shift (red shift) → absorption maximum moves to longer wavelength due to increased energy absorption.

Hypochromic → decreased absorption; Hyperchromic → increased absorption at same wavelength.
Quick Tip: Bathochromic = red shift; Hypsochromic = blue shift; Hyper/Hypochromic → intensity changes.


Question 97:

What is the wavelength of fingerprint region? _______

  • (1) \(100-500~cm^{-1}\)
  • (2) \(500-1500~cm^{-1}\)
  • (3) \(1700-2000~cm^{-1}\)
  • (4) \(400-800~cm^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(500-1500~cm^{-1}\)
View Solution



The IR fingerprint region lies between 500–1500 \(cm^{-1}\) and contains unique molecular vibrations.
Quick Tip: Fingerprint region → identify compounds uniquely.


Question 98:

Beer-Lambert's law indicates _______

  • (1) absorbance is directly proportional to concentration
  • (2) absorbance is indirectly proportional to concentration
  • (3) absorbance is indirectly proportional to path length
  • (4) absorbance is indirectly proportional to molar absorptivity
Correct Answer: (1) absorbance is directly proportional to concentration
View Solution



Beer-Lambert law: \(A = \epsilon c l\) where \(A\) = absorbance, \(\epsilon\) = molar absorptivity, \(c\) = concentration, \(l\) = path length.
Quick Tip: A ∝ c ∝ l; linear relationship in UV-Vis spectroscopy.


Question 99:

In HPLC analysis, what type of column is preferred? _______

  • (1) A column with high HETP and high number of plates
  • (2) A column with low HETP and low number of plates
  • (3) A column with high HETP and low number of plates
  • (4) A column with low HETP and high number of plates
Correct Answer: (4) A column with low HETP and high number of plates
View Solution



Low HETP (Height Equivalent to a Theoretical Plate) and high plate number → better separation efficiency in HPLC.
Quick Tip: Better column → low HETP + high plates = high resolution.


Question 100:

Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the following. Identify the same. _______

  • (1) It should be inert to the analytes
  • (2) It should have high viscosity at operating temperature
  • (3) It should have low vapour pressure at the operating temperature
  • (4) It should have a high resolving power
Correct Answer: (2) It should have high viscosity at operating temperature
View Solution



Liquid phase in GLC should have low viscosity to allow efficient flow and separation.

High viscosity would increase column backpressure and reduce efficiency.
Quick Tip: GLC mobile phase → low viscosity, inert, low vapor pressure, high resolving power.


Question 101:

Which of the following is a primary function of GLP? _______

  • (1) To ensure the safety of consumers by testing the quality of food products.
  • (2) To establish a framework for conducting non-clinical studies, ensuring the quality, integrity, and reproducibility of the data generated.
  • (3) To certify the quality of pharmaceutical products after they have been manufactured.
  • (4) To ensure the proper storage and disposal of hazardous waste generated in a laboratory.
Correct Answer: (2) To establish a framework for conducting non-clinical studies, ensuring the quality, integrity, and reproducibility of the data generated.
View Solution



GLP (Good Laboratory Practice) ensures reliability and reproducibility of non-clinical safety data.

It focuses on the process and documentation of experiments rather than finished product certification.
Quick Tip: GLP → non-clinical study quality; GMP → product quality.


Question 102:

The electrode potentials are calculated by _______

  • (1) Ilkovic equation
  • (2) Stokes equation
  • (3) Nernst equation
  • (4) Ohm's Law
Correct Answer: (3) Nernst equation
View Solution



Electrode potential is calculated using the Nernst equation: \(E = E^0 - \frac{0.0591}{n} \log Q\).

Other equations relate to diffusion (Ilkovic) or viscosity (Stokes).
Quick Tip: Electrode potential → Nernst equation; concentration & redox relationship.


Question 103:

ICH stands for _______

  • (1) International Committee on Harmonisation
  • (2) International Conference on Harmonisation
  • (3) International Council for Harmonisation
  • (4) International Council of Harmony
Correct Answer: (2) International Conference on Harmonisation
View Solution



ICH coordinates technical requirements for pharmaceuticals to harmonize quality, safety, and efficacy guidelines.
Quick Tip: ICH = International Conference on Harmonisation (regulatory guideline body).


Question 104:

Resolution of HPLC can not be modified by _______

  • (1) decreasing particle size
  • (2) decreasing column diameter
  • (3) changing flow rate
  • (4) changing detector
Correct Answer: (4) changing detector
View Solution



Resolution depends on column efficiency (particle size, diameter) and mobile phase conditions (flow rate).

Detector changes do not affect separation quality.
Quick Tip: HPLC resolution → column & mobile phase; detector only measures signal.


Question 105:

The errors arising due to use of un-calibrated or improperly calibrated weights are known as: _______

  • (1) Operational and personal errors
  • (2) Instrumental and reagent errors
  • (3) Errors of methods
  • (4) Additive and proportional errors
Correct Answer: (2) Instrumental and reagent errors
View Solution



Instrumental errors arise from defective or uncalibrated equipment or reagents.

Additive/proportional errors are a type of instrumental error.
Quick Tip: Check calibration → prevent instrumental & reagent errors.


Question 106:

For the pH range of 2.8 to 4.6, which indicator should be preferred? _______

  • (1) Phenolphthalein
  • (2) Methyl red
  • (3) Thymol blue
  • (4) Bromophenol blue
Correct Answer: (2) Methyl red
View Solution



Methyl red changes color in the pH range 4.4–6.2 (approx. 2.8–4.6 in acidic titrations).

Phenolphthalein → basic range.
Quick Tip: Acidic pH indicators → methyl red; basic → phenolphthalein.


Question 107:

The phenomenon called "levelling effect" for weak acids will be observed in _______ solvents.

  • (1) aprotic
  • (2) protophilic
  • (3) protogenic
  • (4) amphiprotic
Correct Answer: (4) amphiprotic
View Solution



Levelling effect → acid/base strength is limited by the solvent itself; observed in amphiprotic solvents like water.
Quick Tip: Levelling effect = solvent dictates maximum acid/base strength.


Question 108:

To obtain the best results in any of the quantitative TLC methods, the spots being used should have \(R_{f}\) values between _______

  • (1) 0.01 to 0.3
  • (2) 0.3 to 0.7
  • (3) 0.7 to 1.0
  • (4) 1.0
Correct Answer: (2) 0.3 to 0.7
View Solution



Optimal \(R_f\) range (0.3–0.7) ensures good separation and easy quantification.
Quick Tip: \(R_f\) too low → spot near baseline; too high → spot near solvent front.


Question 109:

As per the Indian Pharmacopoeia, the test organism for the microbiological assay of amikacin is _______

  • (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • (2) Micrococcus luteus
  • (3) Klebsiella pneumoniae
  • (4) Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: (2) Micrococcus luteus
View Solution



Amikacin assay uses Micrococcus luteus as the test organism because it is sensitive to aminoglycosides.
Quick Tip: Micrococcus luteus → aminoglycoside sensitivity assay (amikacin).


Question 110:

Subpart C of Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) regulations, specifically under 21 CFR Part-58, focuses on _______

  • (1) test and control articles
  • (2) organisational and personnel
  • (3) testing facilities operations
  • (4) Facilities
Correct Answer: (2) organisational and personnel
View Solution



Subpart C deals with responsibilities of personnel, training, and organizational structure to ensure GLP compliance.
Quick Tip: GLP Subpart C → people \& organization; Subpart D → facilities.


Question 111:

The relationship between the atoms present in their ground-state and excited-state in flame photometry is given by equation _______

  • (1) Arrhenius
  • (2) Nernst
  • (3) Boltzmann
  • (4) de Broglie
Correct Answer: (3) Boltzmann
View Solution



The Boltzmann equation relates the population of atoms in the ground and excited states as \(N_2/N_1 = \exp(-E/kT)\), which is used in flame photometry.
Quick Tip: Flame photometry → uses Boltzmann distribution for excited-state populations.


Question 112:

Which of the following functional group(s) does not show two absorption peaks in IR spectroscopy _______

  • (1) Anhydride
  • (2) Primary amine
  • (3) Nitro
  • (4) Secondary amine
Correct Answer: (4) Secondary amine
View Solution



Secondary amines show only one N-H stretching absorption in IR, whereas primary amines show two peaks (symmetric & asymmetric).
Quick Tip: Primary amine → 2 N-H peaks; Secondary amine → 1 N-H peak.


Question 113:

If 10 mL of 0.1 M sulphuric acid solution requires 20 mL of NaOH solution, then the normality of NaOH solution is _______

  • (1) 0.1 N
  • (2) 0.05 N
  • (3) 0.2 N
  • (4) 0.4 N
Correct Answer: (2) 0.05 N
View Solution



Normality calculation: \(N_1 V_1 = N_2 V_2\) → \(0.1 \times 10 = N_2 \times 20 \Rightarrow N_2 = 0.05\) N.
Quick Tip: Use \(N_1V_1 = N_2V_2\) for acid-base titration normality calculations.


Question 114:

During titration of strong acid with a weak base, which one is correct with respect to conductance _______

  • (1) It increases till the end point
  • (2) It decreases till the end point
  • (3) End point cannot be determined using conductimetry
  • (4) Conductance not altered
Correct Answer: (2) It decreases till the end point
View Solution



Strong acid + weak base → conductance decreases because weak base contributes fewer ions than strong acid.
Quick Tip: Strong acid titrated with weak base → conductance decreases until endpoint.


Question 115:

Which substance is commonly used titrant in iodometric titrations _______

  • (1) Potassium iodide
  • (2) Sodium thiosulfate
  • (3) Iodine solution
  • (4) Potassium permanganate
Correct Answer: (2) Sodium thiosulfate
View Solution



Sodium thiosulfate is the standard titrant for iodometric titrations, reacting with liberated iodine.
Quick Tip: Iodometric titration → sodium thiosulfate titrates iodine.


Question 116:

Which of the following is correct about robustness and ruggedness in method validation _______

  • (1) Robustness evaluates inter-laboratory variations, while ruggedness evaluates small changes in method parameters
  • (2) Ruggedness evaluates inter-laboratory variations, while robustness evaluates small changes in method parameters
  • (3) Robustness focuses on analyst variations, while ruggedness evaluates intra-laboratory changes
  • (4) Ruggedness focuses on temperature changes, while robustness focuses on pressure changes
Correct Answer: (2) Ruggedness evaluates inter-laboratory variations, while robustness evaluates small changes in method parameters
View Solution



Robustness → method's stability to small deliberate changes.

Ruggedness → reproducibility across different labs/analysts.
Quick Tip: Robustness → small changes; Ruggedness → inter-lab reproducibility.


Question 117:

Which of the following is a primary standard used in the calibration of spectrophotometers _______

  • (1) Sodium dichromate
  • (2) Sodium chloride
  • (3) Potassium dichromate
  • (4) Potassium chloride
Correct Answer: (3) Potassium dichromate
View Solution



Potassium dichromate solution is stable, reproducible, and absorbs UV light at known wavelengths → primary standard for spectrophotometer calibration.
Quick Tip: UV calibration → primary standard: K\textsubscript{2}Cr\textsubscript{2}O\textsubscript{7}.


Question 118:

Find the correct sentence from the following about accuracy and precision in pharmaceutical analysis _______

  • (1) Accuracy refers to reproducibility, while precision refers to closeness to the true value
  • (2) Accuracy refers to closeness to the true value, while precision refers to reproducibility
  • (3) Both accuracy and precision refers to the same concept
  • (4) Accuracy is related to random errors, while precision is related to systematic errors
Correct Answer: (2) Accuracy refers to closeness to the true value, while precision refers to reproducibility
View Solution



Accuracy = closeness to true value; Precision = repeatability/reproducibility of measurements.
Quick Tip: Accuracy → correctness; Precision → consistency.


Question 119:

Which guideline is commonly referred to for method validation in pharmaceutical analysis _______

  • (1) ICH Q3A
  • (2) ICH Q2 (R1)
  • (3) ICH QIB
  • (4) ICH Q4A
Correct Answer: (2) ICH Q2 (R1)
View Solution



ICH Q2 (R1) provides guidance on validation parameters: accuracy, precision, linearity, range, detection & quantitation limits.
Quick Tip: Method validation guideline → ICH Q2 (R1).


Question 120:

What will be change observed in liquid chromatography with increased mobile phase flow rate _______

  • (1) Decreased pressure
  • (2) Increased resolution
  • (3) Increased sensitivity
  • (4) Reduced retention times
Correct Answer: (4) Reduced retention times
View Solution



Increasing mobile phase flow rate decreases the retention time because analytes spend less time in the column.

However, very high flow may reduce resolution.
Quick Tip: Higher flow → faster elution → shorter retention time; monitor resolution.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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