
TS LAWCET 2023 LLB 3 Years Question Paper for May 25 Shift 1 is available here for download. TS LAWCET 2023 LLB 3 Years Question Paper consists of 120 questions carrying 1 mark each.TS LAWCET 2023 LLB 3 Years includes three subjects, General Knowledge and Mental Ability, Current Affairs and Aptitude for study of Law . The General Knowledge and Mental Ability and Current Affairs section of the paper includes 30 questions each while the Aptitude for study of Law section includes a total of 60 questions. Download TS LAWCET 2023 Question Paper May 25 Shift 1 with Solution PDF from link below.
| TS LAWCET 2023 LLB 3 Years Question Paper for May 25 Shift 1 | Download PDF | Check Solutions |

Which Novel has been nominated for International Booker Prize 2023?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The International Booker Prize is a prestigious literary award given annually to a book translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland.
It recognizes authors and translators from around the globe who contribute significantly to world literature.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The novel titled Pookuzhi, written by the celebrated Tamil writer Perumal Murugan, was longlisted for the International Booker Prize 2023.
The English translation of the book is titled "Pyre", translated by Aniruddhan Vasudevan.
This nomination was historic as it was the first time a Tamil novel had ever been longlisted for this international award.
The story is a powerful narrative dealing with the harsh realities of caste-based discrimination and the tragic consequences of inter-caste love in rural India.
The International Booker Prize is distinct from the Booker Prize, as it specifically focuses on translated works.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The novel nominated for the International Booker Prize 2023 is Pookuzhi.
Quick Tip: For competitive exams, always remember both the original author and the translator for works nominated for international awards, as questions can be asked about either.
Which country signed an agreement with the European Union to collaborate on responsible advancements in Artificial Intelligence?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
International cooperation in Artificial Intelligence (AI) is vital for setting global ethical standards, ensuring security, and leveraging technology for public welfare.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In January 2023, the United States and the European Union (EU) signed a landmark administrative arrangement to speed up and enhance cooperation in AI.
The agreement focuses on using AI to address major global challenges such as climate change, natural disasters, health improvements, and energy grid management.
This partnership aims to create a common framework for "Responsible AI," ensuring that advancements are ethical and safe for human use.
It marks one of the most significant steps toward trans-Atlantic digital cooperation between major world economies.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The United States signed the agreement with the European Union for AI collaboration.
Quick Tip: Current affairs related to AI regulations and international digital treaties (like the EU AI Act) are becoming increasingly important in modern General Awareness papers.
Indian Institute of Democratic Leadership hosted India's first Model G-20 Summit in which State/City?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A "Model Summit" is an educational simulation where students take on the roles of world leaders to discuss and solve global issues, mirroring the actual G-20 proceedings.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
India's first Model G-20 Summit was organized by the Indian Institute of Democratic Leadership (IIDL).
The event took place in Mumbai, specifically at the Rambhau Mhalgi Prabodhini (RMP) campus in Uttan.
The summit was inaugurated by Amitabh Kant, who served as India's G-20 Sherpa during the nation's presidency.
The primary objective of this summit was to involve the youth in India's G-20 journey and to educate them on international diplomacy and the functioning of global organizations.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The first Model G-20 Summit was hosted in Mumbai.
Quick Tip: Since India hosted the actual G-20 summit in 2023, all subsidiary events like Model G-20, Y-20 (Youth 20), and B-20 (Business 20) are high-probability exam topics.
Who is the founder of Paytm?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Paytm is a major Indian multinational financial technology company that revolutionized digital payments in India through mobile wallets and UPI.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Vijay Shekhar Sharma is the founder of Paytm, established in 2010 under the parent company One97 Communications.
The name Paytm stands for "Pay Through Mobile".
Sharma is recognized as a pioneer in the Indian fintech industry, especially following the 2016 demonetization when Paytm saw massive growth.
Let's briefly look at the other options provided:
1) Jawed Karim is one of the co-founders of YouTube.
2) Larry Page is a co-founder of Google.
4) Sundar Pichai is the current CEO of Google and Alphabet Inc., but not the founder.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The founder of Paytm is Vijay Shekar Sharma.
Quick Tip: Knowing the founders of Indian "Unicorns" (companies valued \(>\)
(1 billion) like Flipkart, Zomato, and Ola is essential for Static GK and Business Awareness.
Which vitamin is known as hormone vitamin?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
While most vitamins are nutrients that the body cannot produce, certain vitamins act more like hormones because they are synthesized within the body and regulate specific physiological functions.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Vitamin D is uniquely classified as a "pro-hormone" or "hormone vitamin".
This is because humans can synthesize it in the skin through exposure to ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation from the sun.
Once produced, it undergoes conversion in the liver and then in the kidneys to become an active hormone called Calcitriol.
It functions like a hormone by traveling through the bloodstream to regulate calcium and phosphorus absorption in the intestines and bone health.
Without Vitamin D, the body cannot properly absorb calcium, leading to conditions like Rickets in children and Osteomalacia in adults.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Vitamin D is the vitamin known as the hormone vitamin.
Quick Tip: Vitamin D is fat-soluble. Other fat-soluble vitamins are A, E, and K. Remember them with the mnemonic "KEDA".
Jawaharlal Nehru University, Delhi was established in which year?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) is a leading public research university located in New Delhi, known for its academic excellence in social sciences and humanities.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
JNU was established in 1969 through an act of Parliament known as the Jawaharlal Nehru University Act, 1966.
It was named after India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, who envisioned an institution that would foster scientific temper and social justice.
The university was formally inaugurated by the then President of India, V.V. Giri, in 1969.
G. Parthasarathi served as the first Vice-Chancellor of the university.
It has consistently been ranked as one of the top universities in India by the NIRF (National Institutional Ranking Framework).
Step 3: Final Answer:
The establishment year of JNU is 1969.
Quick Tip: Famous institutions often have their establishment years asked in exams. JNU (1969), IIT Kharagpur (1951), and AIIMS Delhi (1956) are frequent ones.
Where is the Headquarter of SAARC located?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) is a regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of states in South Asia.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The SAARC Secretariat (Headquarters) is located in Kathmandu, Nepal.
It was established in Kathmandu on January 16, 1987, and was inaugurated by the late King Birendra Bir Bikram Shah of Nepal.
SAARC comprises eight member nations: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.
Let's look at the other locations mentioned:
- New York is home to the United Nations (UN) headquarters.
- The Hague (Netherlands) is home to the International Court of Justice (ICJ).
- Tibet is an autonomous region and does not host major international organization headquarters.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Headquarters of SAARC is in Kathmandu.
Quick Tip: To remember SAARC members, use the acronym \textbf{MBBS PAIN}: Maldives, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Afghanistan, India, Nepal.
Amartya Sen won the Nobel Prize in the field of Economics in the year _______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences is awarded annually for outstanding contributions to the field of economics.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Amartya Sen, a world-renowned Indian economist and philosopher, was awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics in 1998.
He received the prize for his contributions to welfare economics and his research on social choice theory.
His work on the causes of famine led to the development of practical solutions for preventing or limiting the effects of real or perceived shortages of food.
Following his Nobel victory, he was awarded India's highest civilian honor, the Bharat Ratna, in 1999.
He is also famous for developing the "Capability Approach," which influenced the Human Development Index (HDI) used by the UN.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Amartya Sen won the Nobel Prize in 1998.
Quick Tip: Note the difference: Amartya Sen (Economics - 1998), Mother Teresa (Peace - 1979), and C.V. Raman (Physics - 1930). Dates of Indian Nobel laureates are common questions.
Which State is called as the fruit bowl of India?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Geographical epithets or nicknames are given to states and cities based on their primary agricultural production or unique geographical features.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Himachal Pradesh is widely known as the "Fruit Bowl of India".
The state has a diverse climate that is highly suitable for the cultivation of various temperate fruits.
It is the largest producer of apples in the country, but it also produces significant quantities of peaches, plums, apricots, cherries, and pears.
The horticulture sector is a backbone of the state's economy.
Other state nicknames:
- Punjab is known as the "Granary of India" or the "Bread Basket of India" due to wheat production.
- Madhya Pradesh is often called the "Soya State" due to high soybean production.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The "Fruit Bowl of India" is Himachal Pradesh.
Quick Tip: Don't confuse "Fruit Bowl of India" (Himachal Pradesh) with "Egg Bowl of Asia" (Andhra Pradesh).
Which one of the following rivers is known as the "Sorrow of Bihar"?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Certain rivers are called the "sorrow" of a region because of their tendency to cause frequent, devastating floods that destroy crops, homes, and lives.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Kosi River is famously known as the "Sorrow of Bihar".
It is an antecedent river that originates in the Himalayas and flows through Nepal and India.
The river is notorious for its shifting course. Over the last 250 years, it has shifted its channel by over 120 km from east to west.
During the monsoon, the heavy silt load it carries causes it to overflow, leading to catastrophic floods in the plains of North Bihar.
Comparatively:
- Damodar was historically known as the "Sorrow of Bengal" (before the Damodar Valley Project).
- Mahanadi is often called the "Sorrow of Odisha."
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Kosi river is known as the "Sorrow of Bihar".
Quick Tip: Rivers changing their course frequently are called "Meandering" rivers. The Kosi is one of the most meandrous rivers in India.
Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question requires matching specific geographical locations in India with the minerals or natural resources for which they are famous.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Let's analyze each pair:
1) Panna : Diamond: Correct. Panna in Madhya Pradesh is famous for being the only place in India where diamonds are actively mined.
2) Neyveli : Lignite: Correct. Neyveli in Tamil Nadu is home to the largest lignite (brown coal) deposits and mines in India.
3) Mysore : Marble: Incorrect. Mysore (Karnataka) is famous for Sandalwood and Silk. The most famous place for marble in India is Makrana in Rajasthan.
4) Sambhar : Salt: Correct. The Sambhar Salt Lake in Rajasthan is India's largest inland salt lake and a major source of salt production.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The pair Mysore : Marble is not correctly matched.
Quick Tip: In match-the-following questions, if you find one pair that is obviously wrong (like Mysore not being a marble hub), you can save time by not over-analyzing the others.
The reservation of seats for women in the Panchayat Raj Institution is _______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Panchayati Raj system was constitutionally recognized to ensure decentralized governance, and special provisions were made to empower women in local politics.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 mandated the reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).
According to Article 243D of the Constitution, at least one-third (\(1/3\)) of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election and the number of offices of chairpersons must be reserved for women.
This includes the seats reserved for women belonging to SCs and STs.
Note: While the central law mandates \(33%\) (\(1/3\)), many Indian states like Bihar, Kerala, and Maharashtra have increased this reservation to \(50%\) via state legislation. However, the constitutional minimum is \(1/3\).
Step 3: Final Answer:
The reservation for women in PRIs is 1/3rd of the total seats.
Quick Tip: Remember: 73rd Amendment = Rural Local Bodies (Panchayats); 74th Amendment = Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities). Both have \(1/3\) women reservation.
Which Social Reformer's birthday is celebrated on 3rd January every year?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Social reformers in India played a crucial role in abolishing social evils and promoting education. Their birth anniversaries are often celebrated as commemorative days.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Savitribai Phule was born on January 3, 1831, in Naigaon, Maharashtra.
She is widely regarded as the first female teacher of India.
Along with her husband, Jyotirao Phule, she opened the first school for girls in Bhide Wada, Pune, in 1848, at a time when women's education was strongly opposed.
She worked tirelessly to abolish discrimination based on caste and gender.
She also founded the Satyashodhak Samaj to support marginalized communities.
In Maharashtra, her birthday is celebrated as Balika Din (Girl Child Day).
Step 3: Final Answer:
Savitri Bai Phule's birthday is celebrated on 3rd January.
Quick Tip: Common Reformer Birthdays: Jan 3 (Savitribai Phule), Jan 12 (Swami Vivekananda), Apr 14 (B.R. Ambedkar), Oct 2 (Mahatma Gandhi).
How many bits make one byte?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Data in computers is stored and processed in binary format. Bits and Bytes are the fundamental units of digital information.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
The standard hierarchy of data units is:
1 Bit = Binary Digit (\(0\) or \(1\))
1 Nibble = 4 Bits
1 Byte = 8 Bits
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
In modern computing, a Byte is the smallest addressable unit of memory.
It consists of exactly 8 bits.
A single bit can only represent two states (\(0\) or \(1\)), whereas a byte can represent \(2^{8} = 256\) different values, which is sufficient to encode a character in the ASCII system.
As we scale up:
\[ 1 Kilobyte (KB) = 1024 Bytes \]
\[ 1 Megabyte (MB) = 1024 KB \]
Step 4: Final Answer:
One byte is composed of 08 bits.
Quick Tip: Watch out for "b" vs "B". Small "b" usually stands for bit (e.g., Mbps), and capital "B" stands for Byte (e.g., MBps). There are 8 bits in 1 Byte.
FERA was changed to FEMA in 1998, FEMA stands for ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The regulation of foreign exchange in India transitioned from a restrictive control regime to a more liberal management regime to facilitate external trade and payments.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1973 was a stringent law meant to conserve foreign exchange.
As India moved towards economic liberalization, FERA was found unsuitable for the changing environment.
Consequently, it was replaced by the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA).
While the bill was introduced and processed in 1998, the Act was formally passed in 1999 and became effective from June 1, 2000.
The shift from "Regulation" to "Management" signified a move toward encouraging foreign investment rather than just restricting foreign exchange usage.
Step 3: Final Answer:
FEMA stands for Foreign Exchange Management Act.
Quick Tip: Remember: FERA was about "Control/Regulation" (Restrictive), while FEMA is about "Management" (Facilitative). This distinction is a frequent examiner favorite in economics.
______ is the present Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Union Cabinet of India consists of various ministries led by ministers appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
As per the cabinet portfolios at the time of this examination (2023), Anurag Singh Thakur served as the Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting.
He also held the portfolio for the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
Other options check:
1) K.T. Rama Rao is a state-level minister in Telangana, not a Union Minister.
2) Smriti Irani served as the Minister for Women and Child Development and Minority Affairs.
3) Ashwini Vaishnaw is the Minister of Railways, Communications, and Electronics and Information Technology.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Anurag Singh Thakur is the Union Minister of Information and Broadcasting.
Quick Tip: Always update your knowledge of the Union Cabinet before the exam, as portfolios can change during cabinet reshuffles.
Which gas is present in Compressed Natural Gas?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is an eco-friendly fuel alternative to gasoline and diesel, made by compressing natural gas.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The primary constituent of natural gas is Methane (\(CH_4\)).
In CNG, methane typically makes up about \(80%\) to \(95%\) of the total volume.
Other components may include small amounts of ethane, propane, and nitrogen, but methane is the dominant and active combustible component.
It is stored at high pressure (typically \(200\) to \(250\) bar) in cylindrical tanks.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Methane is the main gas present in Compressed Natural Gas.
Quick Tip: LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) is primarily Propane and Butane, whereas CNG is primarily Methane. Do not confuse the two!
Which case is famously known as Habeas Corpus case?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The writ of \textit{Habeas Corpus is a fundamental legal instrument that protects individuals against arbitrary detention.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The case of ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976) is infamously known as the Habeas Corpus Case.
During the Emergency (1975–1977), the Supreme Court was asked whether a person could seek the writ of Habeas Corpus if their fundamental rights were suspended.
In a controversial 4:1 judgment, the Court ruled that during an emergency, a person's right to approach the court for enforcement of fundamental rights (including Article 21) remains suspended.
Justice H.R. Khanna was the lone dissenter in this case, a stance for which he is highly respected today.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The ADM Jabalpur case is known as the Habeas Corpus case.
Quick Tip: Landmark SC judgments like Kesavananda Bharati (Basic Structure) or ADM Jabalpur (Emergency) are essential for any exam covering Indian Polity.
In the year 2021, ______ was given Padma Vibhushan after his death in the field of Art.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award in India, conferred for exceptional and distinguished service.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In 2021, the legendary playback singer S. P. Balasubrahmanyam was posthumously awarded the Padma Vibhushan for his monumental contributions to the field of Art.
He was a polyglot singer who recorded over 40,000 songs in 16 Indian languages.
He passed away in September 2020 due to complications from COVID-19.
Other options:
1) Puneeth Rajkumar was awarded the Karnataka Ratna posthumously but not the Padma Vibhushan in 2021.
2) Dilip Kumar received the Padma Vibhushan in 2015.
Step 3: Final Answer:
S P Bala Subramaniam was the recipient of the Padma Vibhushan (Posthumous) in 2021 for Art.
Quick Tip: Always look for "Posthumous" (after death) awards in current affairs, as they are frequently highlighted in competitive exams.
In which year the University Grants Commission was established?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The University Grants Commission (UGC) is a statutory body set up by the Government of India for the coordination, determination, and maintenance of standards of higher education.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
While the UGC was formally inaugurated in December 1953 by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, it was established as a statutory body by the Government of India through the UGC Act, 1956.
Its primary role is to provide funds to universities and maintain educational standards in the country.
Its headquarters are located in New Delhi.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The University Grants Commission was established as a statutory body in 1956.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between "Inauguration" (1953) and "Statutory Establishment" (1956). Competitive exams usually look for the year it became a legal entity (1956).
The letter in the first set has certain relationship. On the basis of the relationship what is the right choice for the second set?
BF : GK :: LP : ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Analogy based on alphabetical positions involves identifying the numerical shift between corresponding letters in the sets.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Assign numerical values to letters: A=1, B=2, C=3, ..., Z=26.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
First set: BF : GK
B (2) \(\xrightarrow{+5}\) G (7)
F (6) \(\xrightarrow{+5}\) K (11)
The logic is a shift of +5 for each letter.
Apply same logic to the second set: LP : ?
L (12) \(\xrightarrow{+5}\) 17 \(\rightarrow\) Q
P (16) \(\xrightarrow{+5}\) 21 \(\rightarrow\) U
The resulting pair is QU.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The correct choice is QU.
Quick Tip: Writing down the alphabet with numbers (1–26) and in reverse (Z=1, Y=2...) on your rough sheet can speed up such reasoning questions significantly.
If the BLOOD is coded as 23113 and BRUST as 20678, then code for ROBUST is ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a "Direct Substitution Coding" problem where each letter is assigned a specific digit from the given coded words.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
From BLOOD coded as 23113:
B \(\rightarrow\) 2, L \(\rightarrow\) 3, O \(\rightarrow\) 1, O \(\rightarrow\) 1, D \(\rightarrow\) 3.
From BRUST coded as 20678:
B \(\rightarrow\) 2, R \(\rightarrow\) 0, U \(\rightarrow\) 6, S \(\rightarrow\) 7, T \(\rightarrow\) 8.
Now, code for ROBUST:
R \(\rightarrow\) 0
O \(\rightarrow\) 1
B \(\rightarrow\) 2
U \(\rightarrow\) 6
S \(\rightarrow\) 7
T \(\rightarrow\) 8
Combining these, we get 012678.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The code for ROBUST is 012678.
Quick Tip: In substitution coding, check if the letters of the target word (ROBUST) are all present in the example words (BLOOD, BRUST). If yes, simply pick the corresponding digits.
A bag contains equal number of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins. If the total amount in the bag is Rs.35, how many coins of each type are there?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This problem relates to ratios and currency values. We need to express all coin values in a single unit (either Rupees or Paise) to form an equation.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Total Value = (No. of coins \(\times\) Value of each coin type) summed up.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Let the number of coins of each type be \(x\).
Values in Rupees:
1 Rupee coin = Rs. 1.00
50 Paise coin = Rs. 0.50
25 Paise coin = Rs. 0.25
Total Value = \(1.00x + 0.50x + 0.25x = 35\)
\[ 1.75x = 35 \]
\[ x = \frac{35}{1.75} \]
To remove the decimal, multiply numerator and denominator by 100:
\[ x = \frac{3500}{175} \]
Divide by 25:
\[ x = \frac{140}{7} \]
\[ x = 20 \]
Step 4: Final Answer:
There are 20 coins of each type.
Quick Tip: For faster calculation, convert everything to Paise: \(100x + 50x + 25x = 3500\) Paise.
\(175x = 3500 \Rightarrow x = 20\). No decimals involved!
The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Even numbers increase by 2. The average of an even number of consecutive terms is the midpoint between the middle two terms.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Let the four consecutive even numbers be \(x\), \(x+2\), \(x+4\), and \(x+6\).
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Average = \(\frac{Sum}{Total Number}\)
\[ \frac{x + (x+2) + (x+4) + (x+6)}{4} = 27 \]
\[ \frac{4x + 12}{4} = 27 \]
\[ x + 3 = 27 \]
\[ x = 24 \]
The four numbers are 24, 26, 28, and 30.
The largest number is 30.
Step 4: Final Answer:
The largest of these numbers is 30.
Quick Tip: For consecutive numbers, the average is the exact middle point. If the average is 27, the middle two numbers must be 26 and 28. Thus the sequence is 24, 26, 28, 30. No algebra needed!
India's first satellite is named after ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Space research in India began in the 1960s, leading to the creation of indigenous satellites and launch vehicles.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
India's first satellite was named Aryabhatta, after the 5th-century Indian astronomer and mathematician.
It was launched on April 19, 1975, by the Soviet Union using a Kosmos-3M launch vehicle from Kapustin Yar.
It was built by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to conduct experiments in X-ray astronomy, aeronomics, and solar physics.
Other options:
1) Rohini was the first satellite to be launched by an Indian-made launch vehicle (SLV-3).
2) Bhaskara I was India's first experimental remote sensing satellite.
Step 3: Final Answer:
India's first satellite is Aryabhatta.
Quick Tip: Distinction: First satellite = Aryabhatta (launched by Russia). First satellite on Indian Rocket = Rohini.
The sides of a triangle are in the ratio \(1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4\). If its perimeter is \(52 cm\), the length of the smallest side is ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The ratio of the sides is given in fractional form. To simplify the calculations, we first convert the fractional ratio into a whole number ratio by multiplying each term by the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the denominators.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
1. Find the LCM of the denominators (\(2, 3, and 4\)).
2. Convert the ratio.
3. Use the formula for perimeter: \( Perimeter = Sum of all sides \).
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Given Ratio = \( \frac{1}{2} : \frac{1}{3} : \frac{1}{4} \)
The LCM of \( 2, 3, and 4 \) is \( 12 \).
Multiply each term by \( 12 \):
\[ \left( \frac{1}{2} \times 12 \right) : \left( \frac{1}{3} \times 12 \right) : \left( \frac{1}{4} \times 12 \right) = 6 : 4 : 3 \]
Let the sides of the triangle be \( 6x, 4x, and 3x \).
Given Perimeter = \( 52 cm \).
\[ 6x + 4x + 3x = 52 \]
\[ 13x = 52 \]
\[ x = \frac{52}{13} = 4 \]
The smallest side corresponds to the smallest ratio value, which is \( 3x \).
\[ Smallest side = 3 \times 4 = 12 cm \]
Step 4: Final Answer:
The length of the smallest side is \( 12 cm \).
Quick Tip: To quickly convert fractional ratios to whole numbers, multiply the entire ratio by the LCM of the denominators. This makes the addition for perimeter calculation much faster.
In the following question, a group of three interrelated words is given. Choose a word from the given alternatives, that belongs to the same group.
Peas, Gram, Pulses ?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question asks to identify a word that belongs to the same logical category as the given group. This is a classification-based logical reasoning question.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The given words are: Peas, Gram, and Pulses.
- Peas and Gram are specific types of legumes that fall under the broader category of "Pulses".
- Now, let us analyze the options:
1. Beans: These are also legumes/seeds that belong to the family of pulses.
2. Coconut: This is a fruit or a nut, not a pulse.
3. Rice: This is a cereal grain, not a pulse.
4. Barley: This is also a cereal grain, not a pulse.
Since Beans belong to the same category of legumes/pulses as Peas and Gram, they fit the group.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct word belonging to the same group is Beans.
Quick Tip: In classification questions, identify the common characteristic or the "parent" category. Here, the category is "Leguminous plants/Pulses".
In writing all the integers from 1 to 300, how many times is the digit 1 used?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
We need to count the occurrences of the digit '1' in three different ranges: 1 to 99, 100 to 199, and 200 to 300.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Case 1: From 1 to 99
- Digit 1 at the unit's place: \( 1, 11, 21, 31, 41, 51, 61, 71, 81, 91 \) (10 times).
- Digit 1 at the ten's place: \( 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19 \) (10 times).
- Total for 1-99 = \( 10 + 10 = 20 \) times.
Case 2: From 100 to 199
- Digit 1 at the hundred's place: Every number from 100 to 199 has a '1' at the hundred's place.
Number of occurrences = \( 199 - 100 + 1 = 100 \) times.
- Digit 1 at the ten's and unit's place: This is same as the count from 00 to 99, which we found is 20 times.
- Total for 100-199 = \( 100 + 20 = 120 \) times.
Case 3: From 200 to 300
- Digit 1 at the hundred's place: None (it starts with 2 or 3).
- Digit 1 at the ten's and unit's place: Same as 00 to 99.
Occurrences: \( 201, 211, \dots, 291 \) (units) and \( 210, \dots, 219 \) (tens).
- Total for 200-300 = 20 times. (Note: 300 does not contain digit 1).
Step 3: Total Count:
Total occurrences = \( 20 (from 1-99) + 120 (from 100-199) + 20 (from 200-300) \)
Total = \( 160 \).
Step 4: Final Answer:
The digit 1 is used 160 times.
Quick Tip: For any digit \( d \) (where \( d \neq 0 \)), it appears \( 2n \times 10^{n-1} \) times in the range \( 0 \) to \( 10^n - 1 \). For 1-99, it is \( 2 \times 10^1 = 20 \). For ranges involving 100-199, always remember to add the extra 100 occurrences at the hundred's place.
If 5 men or 9 women can finish a piece of work in 19 days, 3 men and 6 women can do the same work in how many days?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a "Men-Women" work problem. The word "or" indicates that the work capacity of 5 men is equal to that of 9 women. We need to find the time taken when they work together ("and").
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Efficiency Relation: \( 5M = 9W \implies 1M = \frac{9}{5}W \).
Total Work = \( Efficiency \times Time \).
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
From the problem:
\[ 5 Men = 9 Women \]
\[ 1 Man = \frac{9}{5} Women = 1.8 Women \]
Now, calculate the combined strength of 3 men and 6 women in terms of women:
\[ 3M + 6W = 3 \times \left( \frac{9}{5} \right)W + 6W \]
\[ = \frac{27}{5}W + 6W = 5.4W + 6W = 11.4W \]
We know that 9 women can finish the work in 19 days.
Using the formula \( M_1 D_1 = M_2 D_2 \):
\[ 9 \times 19 = 11.4 \times D_2 \]
\[ D_2 = \frac{9 \times 19}{11.4} \]
\[ D_2 = \frac{171}{11.4} = 15 days \]
Step 4: Final Answer:
3 men and 6 women can finish the work in 15 days.
Quick Tip: Shortcut for "OR/AND" problems:
\[ Days = \frac{Initial Days}{\left( \frac{And Men}{Or Men} \right) + \left( \frac{And Women}{Or Women} \right)} \]
\[ Days = \frac{19}{\left( \frac{3}{5} \right) + \left( \frac{6}{9} \right)} = \frac{19}{0.6 + 0.666} = \frac{19}{1.266} \approx 15 days. \]
If \(A=26, SUN = 27\), then \(CAT\) is equal to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In this coding-decoding problem, letters are assigned numerical values. Since \( A=26 \), it suggests the alphabet is numbered in reverse order (\( Z=1, Y=2, \dots, A=26 \)).
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
The reverse positional value of a letter = \( 27 - (Forward positional value) \).
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Let's verify with \( SUN \):
S is 19th letter (Forward): Reverse = \( 27 - 19 = 8 \)
U is 21st letter (Forward): Reverse = \( 27 - 21 = 6 \)
N is 14th letter (Forward): Reverse = \( 27 - 14 = 13 \)
Sum = \( 8 + 6 + 13 = 27 \). (This matches the given value).
Now, calculate for \( CAT \):
C is 3rd letter (Forward): Reverse = \( 27 - 3 = 24 \)
A is 1st letter (Forward): Reverse = \( 27 - 1 = 26 \)
T is 20th letter (Forward): Reverse = \( 27 - 20 = 7 \)
Sum = \( 24 + 26 + 7 = 57 \).
Step 4: Final Answer:
The value of CAT is 57.
Quick Tip: Remember the word "EJOTY" (5, 10, 15, 20, 25) for forward positions. For reverse positions, subtract the forward position from 27.
How many new members have been recently added to the U.N. Security Council in 2023, for a two-year tenure?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) consists of 15 members: 5 permanent members (P5) and 10 non-permanent members.
The 10 non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly for two-year terms, with five members being replaced each year.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Every year, the UN General Assembly elects five new non-permanent members to the Security Council for a two-year term.
In June 2022, five nations were elected to serve for the 2023–2024 term.
The newly added members starting their tenure in January 2023 were Ecuador, Japan, Malta, Mozambique, and Switzerland.
These countries replaced India, Ireland, Kenya, Mexico, and Norway, whose terms ended on December 31, 2022.
This annual rotation ensures regional representation and brings fresh perspectives to global security issues.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Five new members were added to the U.N. Security Council in 2023.
Quick Tip: Non-permanent members are elected based on geographical distribution: 5 for African and Asian States, 1 for Eastern European States, 2 for Latin American and Caribbean States, and 2 for Western European and other States.
In the FIH Hockey Men's World Cup 2023, which country defeated India in the crossover match?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The FIH Men's Hockey World Cup 2023 was hosted by India in Odisha.
The tournament format included group stages followed by crossover matches for teams finishing second and third in their groups to reach the quarterfinals.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
India finished second in Group D and faced New Zealand (who finished third in Group C) in a crucial crossover match held at the Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar.
The match ended in a 3-3 draw during regulation time.
In the subsequent penalty shootout, India lost 4-5 to New Zealand.
This defeat resulted in India's early exit from the title race, as they failed to qualify for the quarterfinals.
Germany eventually won the tournament by defeating Belgium in the final.
Step 3: Final Answer:
New Zealand defeated India in the crossover match of the 2023 Hockey World Cup.
Quick Tip: Major sports tournaments hosted in India (like the Hockey World Cup or Cricket World Cup) are high-priority topics for current affairs. Focus on India's position and the eventual winner.
Which state hosted the 'Tri-services Amphibious Exercise, AMPHEX 2023'?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
AMPHEX is a biennial institutionalized tri-services exercise involving the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force.
It aims to validate and hone the military's capabilities in conducting amphibious operations.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The 2023 edition of the 'Tri-services Amphibious Exercise', AMPHEX 2023, was conducted from January 17 to January 22, 2023.
The exercise took place at Kakinada in Andhra Pradesh.
It was the largest edition of AMPHEX to date, involving a significant number of troops, ships, and aircraft.
The exercise focused on the synergy and joint operational capabilities of the three services for complex operations like beach landings and maritime security.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Andhra Pradesh hosted the AMPHEX 2023 exercise.
Quick Tip: Military exercises are categorized into domestic (like AMPHEX), bilateral (two countries), and multilateral (multiple countries). Memorizing the location and participating forces is key.
UN General Assembly declares November \(26^{th}\) as ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
International days are designated by the United Nations to raise awareness and promote action on specific global issues.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In May 2023, the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution to designate November 26 as World Sustainable Transport Day.
The goal of this day is to raise public awareness of the benefits of sustainable transport and mobility.
It emphasizes the role of transport in climate change mitigation, social equity, and economic growth.
Note: November 25 is recognized as the International Day for the Elimination of Violence against Women.
By designating November 26, the UN aims to promote a shift towards more environmentally friendly and inclusive transportation systems globally.
Step 3: Final Answer:
November 26th is declared as World Sustainable Transport Day.
Quick Tip: Newly declared UN days are frequently asked in competitive exams. Always keep an updated list of the UN calendar.
The State which adopted a resolution urging the Centre to implement the Sethusamudram project is ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Sethusamudram Shipping Canal Project aims to create a shipping route in the shallow straits between India and Sri Lanka, bypassing the long route around the island nation.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In January 2023, the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly unanimously passed a resolution urging the Central Government to implement the Sethusamudram project immediately.
The resolution stated that the project is essential for the economic development of Tamil Nadu and the country, as it would reduce shipping time and promote maritime trade.
The project has been controversial due to environmental concerns and religious sentiments regarding the 'Ram Setu'.
The state government emphasized that the project would boost the development of southern districts in Tamil Nadu.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The state is Tamil Nadu.
Quick Tip: Resolutions passed by state assemblies regarding central projects often indicate significant political or economic developments in current affairs.
______ is the Vice-President of Toyota Kirloskar Motors.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Corporate appointments in major multinational joint ventures like Toyota Kirloskar Motors (TKM) are significant indicators of industry leadership trends.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Following the untimely demise of Vikram Kirloskar (who was the Vice Chairman of TKM), his daughter, Manasi Tata (formerly Manasi Kirloskar), was appointed as the Vice Chairperson of Toyota Kirloskar Motor in January 2023.
She is the daughter of Vikram and Geetanjali Kirloskar and is married into the Tata family.
She oversees the strategic direction and community development initiatives of the company.
Her appointment marks a generational shift in the leadership of the Kirloskar group's partnership with Toyota.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Manasi Tata is the Vice-President (Vice Chairperson) of Toyota Kirloskar Motors.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to major corporate transitions in the Indian automobile and tech sectors, especially when they involve prominent industrial families like the Tatas or Kirloskars.
In 2023, banks from how many countries were permitted by the Reserve Bank of India to trade in rupees?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
To promote the internationalization of the Indian Rupee (INR) and reduce dependency on the US Dollar, the RBI allows the opening of Special Vostro Rupee Accounts (SVRAs) for settlement of international trade.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In March 2023, it was officially reported that the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had granted permission to banks from 18 countries to open Special Vostro Rupee Accounts.
These countries included Russia, Sri Lanka, Mauritius, Singapore, United Kingdom, Myanmar, Israel, Germany, Malaysia, and others.
This mechanism allows traders to invoice and pay for imports and exports in INR.
It facilitates smoother trade with countries facing dollar shortages or sanctions and helps stabilize the exchange rate of the rupee.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Banks from 18 countries were permitted to trade in rupees.
Quick Tip: Terms like 'Vostro Account' and 'Nostro Account' are vital for banking and economy sections. Vostro means "Your account in our books."
Which Country is the host of the 'United Nations 2023 Water Conference'?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The UN Water Conference is a global event aimed at reviewing the progress of the 'Water Action Decade' and addressing the global water crisis.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The United Nations 2023 Water Conference was held from March 22 to March 24, 2023.
The venue for this historic conference was the United Nations Headquarters in New York City, USA.
It was co-hosted by the governments of Tajikistan and the Netherlands.
This was the first such UN conference on water since 1977.
The outcome was the 'Water Action Agenda', a collection of voluntary commitments from various stakeholders to ensure water security globally.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The USA hosted the UN 2023 Water Conference.
Quick Tip: New York City (USA) and Geneva (Switzerland) are the most frequent hosts for UN-led global conferences.
International Criminal Court has issued an arrest warrant against the President of which Country in the month of March 2023?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The International Criminal Court (ICC) is an intergovernmental organization and international tribunal that has the jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for international crimes of genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggression.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In March 2023, the International Criminal Court issued an arrest warrant for Vladimir Putin, the President of Russia.
The warrant was issued in connection with alleged war crimes, specifically the unlawful deportation and transfer of children from occupied areas of Ukraine to the Russian Federation.
This was a significant legal move, making Putin the first leader of a permanent member of the UN Security Council to be targeted by an ICC warrant.
Along with Putin, an arrest warrant was also issued for Maria Lvova-Belova, the Russian Commissioner for Children's Rights.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The arrest warrant was issued against the President of Russia.
Quick Tip: The ICC is headquartered in The Hague, Netherlands. Not all countries (including Russia, USA, and India) are members of the ICC, which affects the enforcement of its warrants.
Which is the first State to pass the Advocates Protection Bill, 2023?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Advocates Protection Bill aims to provide legal protection to lawyers against violence, threats, and harassment while they perform their professional duties.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In March 2023, Rajasthan became the first state in India to pass the Advocates Protection Bill.
The bill was introduced by the state government following long-standing demands and protests by the legal fraternity after several incidents of violence against lawyers.
The Act provides for punishment for acts of violence against advocates and ensures their safety in court premises.
It includes provisions for non-bailable offenses in cases of assault or grievous hurt to a lawyer.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Rajasthan is the first state to pass the Advocates Protection Bill.
Quick Tip: "First in India" facts regarding state laws or social initiatives are extremely common in public service commission exams.
Which institution has released 'Ethical Guidelines for AI in Healthcare and Biomedical Research'?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
As Artificial Intelligence (AI) is increasingly integrated into medical diagnostics and research, ethical frameworks are needed to ensure patient privacy, data security, and unbiased outcomes.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) released the 'Ethical Guidelines for AI in Healthcare and Biomedical Research' in March 2023.
The guidelines were developed by the Department of Health Research (DHR) under ICMR.
They focus on key ethical principles such as accountability, transparency, data privacy, and reliability of AI-based tools in the Indian medical context.
The aim is to provide a guide for researchers, developers, and clinicians to use AI responsibly without compromising patient safety.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The ICMR released these ethical guidelines.
Quick Tip: ICMR is the apex body in India for the formulation, coordination, and promotion of biomedical research.
The Women's Premier League Trophy 2023 final was won by ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Women's Premier League (WPL) is a women's Twenty20 cricket franchise league in India, owned and operated by the BCCI. The 2023 edition was the inaugural season.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The inaugural final of the Women's Premier League (WPL) 2023 took place on March 26, 2023, at the Brabourne Stadium in Mumbai.
The Mumbai Indians, captained by Harmanpreet Kaur, faced the Delhi Capitals in the final.
Mumbai Indians successfully chased down the target set by Delhi Capitals to win the match by 7 wickets.
Hayley Matthews and Nat Sciver-Brunt were key performers for Mumbai Indians throughout the season.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Mumbai Indians won the Women's Premier League Trophy 2023 final.
Quick Tip: For the inaugural season of any league (like WPL), questions often cover the winning team, the captain, and individual award winners (like the Orange and Purple Cap).
What is the name of the indigenous data link communication developed by the IAF?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A data link communication system allows for the secure and jam-resistant exchange of tactical data between various military assets like aircraft, ground stations, and naval ships.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Indian Air Force (IAF) has developed an indigenous data link communication system named 'Vayulink'.
It was showcased at the Aero India 2023 exhibition.
Vayulink uses the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), also known as NavIC, to send radio communication to the base station when signals are weak.
This system helps in preventing "friendly fire" incidents and provides pilots with real-time weather and positioning data even in poor network areas.
It enhances the situational awareness of pilots by providing data on other aircraft and ground targets.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The indigenous data link communication developed by the IAF is Vayu link.
Quick Tip: 'Vayulink' is specifically for the Air Force. Similarly, 'Sanchar' and other systems exist for the Army and Navy. NavIC is India's own GPS.
Israeli Aerospace Industries (IAI) signed MoU with which Indian organization to form a joint venture related to the Armed Forces?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
International defense collaborations often involve Memorandums of Understanding (MoUs) between global aerospace leaders and domestic defense public sector undertakings (PSUs) to enhance local support and manufacturing.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In early 2023, during the Aero India exhibition, Israeli Aerospace Industries (IAI) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).
The objective of this MoU was to establish a joint venture that would serve as a single point of contact for providing long-term product support services for the MRSAM (Medium Range Surface to Air Missile) systems used by the Indian Armed Forces.
The MRSAM is an advanced path-breaking air and missile defense system that provides ultimate protection against a variety of aerial platforms, jointly developed by IAI and DRDO.
This partnership is a significant step towards the 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' (Self-Reliant India) initiative, ensuring that critical defense systems are maintained and supported within the country.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Indian organization is Bharat Electronics Limited.
Quick Tip: Defense-related MoUs signed during major events like Aero India or DefExpo are high-priority topics for current affairs in competitive exams.
Who is the chair of the \(22^{nd}\) Law Commission, which was recently extended until 2024?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to time to recommend legislative reforms and review existing laws.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Justice Rituraj Awasthi, the former Chief Justice of the Karnataka High Court, is the chairperson of the \(22^{nd}\) Law Commission of India.
The Union Cabinet recently extended the term of this commission until August 31, 2024.
The commission's mandate includes identifying laws which are no longer relevant, recommending new legislations, and considering matters relating to the Uniform Civil Code (UCC), which has been a major focus of their recent deliberations.
Other options like Justice Ranjan Gogoi are former Chief Justices of India, but they do not currently head this specific commission.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The chair of the \(22^{nd}\) Law Commission is Justice Rituraj Awasthi.
Quick Tip: The Law Commission of India is usually headed by a retired Supreme Court judge or a retired Chief Justice of a High Court.
Which city is the host of 'International Bio-resource Conclave \& Ethno-pharmacology Congress 2023'?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Scientific conclaves and congresses are hosted to bring together researchers and experts to discuss biodiversity, medicinal plants, and traditional knowledge (ethno-pharmacology).
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The International Bio-resource Conclave \& Ethno-pharmacology Congress 2023 was held in Imphal, Manipur.
The event was organized by the Institute of Bio-resources and Sustainable Development (IBSD) in collaboration with the Society for Ethno-pharmacology, India.
The theme of the congress focused on "Reimagine Ethno-pharmacology: Globalization of Traditional Medicine."
Hosting such a prestigious international event in the Northeast highlights the region's rich biodiversity and its potential as a hub for bio-resource research.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The host city was Imphal.
Quick Tip: Events hosted in Northeast India are frequently featured in national-level exams to encourage awareness of the region's scientific and cultural contributions.
As per the 'Indian States Energy Transition' report, which States made the most progress in transition to clean electricity?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The energy transition involves shifting from fossil-fuel-based energy production to renewable and clean energy sources like solar and wind to meet sustainability goals.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
According to a report titled 'Indian States' Energy Transition' released by the Institute for Energy Economics and Financial Analysis (IEEFA) and Ember, Karnataka and Gujarat emerged as the top performers.
The report analyzed 16 Indian states that account for \(90%\) of India's annual power requirement.
Karnataka was praised for its robust performance across all dimensions of the transition, including decarbonization and grid flexibility.
Gujarat followed closely due to its massive investments in solar and wind power infrastructure.
This report tracks the progress of states in achieving India's target of \(500\) GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The states are Karnataka and Gujarat.
Quick Tip: Indices and reports related to the environment and renewable energy are vital for exams, as India is taking a global lead in climate action.
NASA's Curiosity Rover recently captured the crepuscular rays on which planet?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Crepuscular rays, often called "sunrays," are rays of sunlight that appear to radiate from the point in the sky where the sun is located, usually when the sun is below the horizon during twilight.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
NASA's Curiosity Rover, which has been exploring the Gale Crater on Mars since 2012, recently captured clear images of crepuscular rays.
This was a significant observation because it was the first time sunrays were viewed so clearly on the Red Planet.
The rays were seen shining through clouds at sunset, providing scientists with data about the Martian atmosphere and the composition of its clouds, which are believed to be made of carbon dioxide ice (dry ice).
This phenomenon on Mars is similar to what we see on Earth but occurs under different atmospheric conditions.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The rays were captured on Mars.
Quick Tip: Remember: Curiosity and Perseverance are NASA's rovers on Mars. Mangalyaan (MOM) was India's successful Mars orbiter mission.
Which State approved the 10% horizontal reservation to statehood activists in State Government jobs?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Horizontal reservation refers to the reservation of seats for certain categories (like women, veterans, or activists) across various vertical categories (like SC, ST, OBC, General).
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Uttarakhand state cabinet approved a proposal to provide \(10%\) horizontal reservation to individuals who were involved in the movement for the creation of the separate state of Uttarakhand.
This reservation is applicable in state government jobs.
The movement for statehood (Uttarakhand Andolan) was a long struggle that eventually led to the formation of the state on November 9, 2000.
This step by the state government is seen as a way to honor the contributions of those activists.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The state is Uttarakhand.
Quick Tip: Policy decisions that are unique to a particular state (like specific reservation quotas) are common in General Awareness sections of state and central exams.
Which institution launched the 'Zero-Draft' of the Pandemic Treaty?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A pandemic treaty is an international legal agreement designed to strengthen global prevention, preparedness, and response to future pandemics, based on lessons learned from COVID-19.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The World Health Organization (WHO) launched the 'Zero-Draft' of the International Pandemic Treaty (also known as the Pandemic Accord).
The draft was prepared by the Intergovernmental Negotiating Body (INB) established by the World Health Assembly.
The goal of the treaty is to ensure equitable access to vaccines and medicines, facilitate data sharing, and improve global cooperation to prevent a repeat of the devastation caused by the COVID-19 pandemic.
The 'Zero-Draft' serves as the starting point for negotiations among the \(194\) member states of the WHO.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The institution is the World Health Organization.
Quick Tip: Any global health initiative launched following the COVID-19 pandemic is of high relevance for current affairs questions.
Which Indian State topped the medal tally in the \(5^{th}\) Khelo India Youth Games?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) is a flagship national program by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to identify and nurture grassroots sporting talent in India.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The \(5^{th}\) edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was held in Madhya Pradesh in 2023.
Maharashtra topped the final medal tally with a total of \(161\) medals (\(56\) Gold, \(55\) Silver, and \(50\) Bronze).
Haryana secured the second position, and the host state Madhya Pradesh finished third.
Maharashtra has consistently performed well in this tournament, having won the title in multiple previous editions as well.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Maharashtra topped the medal tally.
Quick Tip: For sports events, always remember: 1. Host city/state 2. Winner 3. Runner-up. This "triple check" helps in answering almost any MCQ.
As per FAO recent database, which country ranked first in milk production across the world?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Global agricultural and livestock production rankings are maintained by organizations like the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
According to the latest production data from the Food and Agriculture Organization Corporate Statistical Database (FAOSTAT), India is the world's largest producer of milk.
India contributes approximately \(24%\) of the global milk production.
The country's milk production has grown significantly over the last few decades, thanks to initiatives like Operation Flood (the White Revolution).
Following India, the United States of America is the second-largest producer.
Step 3: Final Answer:
India ranks first in milk production globally.
Quick Tip: India leads the world in Milk and Pulses production and ranks second in Rice and Wheat production.
Which company launched the World's first satellite-based two-way messaging system?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Satellite-based messaging allows smartphones to send and receive messages in areas without traditional cellular coverage by connecting directly to low-earth orbit (LEO) satellites.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Qualcomm announced the world's first satellite-based two-way capable messaging solution for premium smartphones, called 'Snapdragon Satellite'.
This technology was developed in partnership with the satellite operator Iridium.
While Apple had previously launched an emergency SOS satellite feature, Qualcomm's solution was designed for regular two-way SMS and messaging applications in remote areas.
It allows users to stay connected even in the middle of a desert or ocean where no mobile towers exist.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The company is Qualcomm.
Quick Tip: Breakthroughs in mobile technology (like 6G research or satellite messaging) are frequently tested in the "Science and Tech" portion of competitive exams.
Which city recently hosted the 'Military Literature Festival'?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Military literature festivals are organized to create awareness about military history, literature, and the contribution of the armed forces among the general public and youth.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The district-level Military Literature Festival (MLF) was recently hosted in Patiala, Punjab.
While the main state-level festival is usually held in Chandigarh, the Patiala chapter was organized in January 2023 to bring the experience to a more local audience.
The festival features panel discussions by veterans, book readings, and exhibitions of military equipment.
It serves as a platform to inspire the youth to join the armed forces by showcasing the heritage and valor of Indian soldiers.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The city is Patiala.
Quick Tip: While Chandigarh is the permanent venue for the national MLF, regional chapters (like Patiala) are often organized and can be the subject of current affairs questions.
Which country has recently passed Anti-Homosexuality Bill 2023, criminalising the intimacy between the same sex?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
International current affairs often cover significant legislative changes in foreign countries, especially those involving human rights and social policies.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In early 2023, the parliament of Uganda passed a controversial and stringent Anti-Homosexuality Bill.
The law prescribes severe punishments, including long-term imprisonment and even the death penalty in some cases, for same-sex acts.
It also criminalizes the "promotion" of homosexuality and imposes penalties on individuals and organizations that support LGBTQ+ rights.
The bill faced widespread international criticism from human rights groups and several Western nations, but was defended by the Ugandan government as a move to protect traditional values.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The country is Uganda.
Quick Tip: International bills that generate global controversy or involve the UN's intervention are important topics for UPSC and PSC exams.
In 2023 the "Triple Threat" report was released by which organisation?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
International organizations periodically release thematic reports to highlight global challenges and advocate for policy changes.
The "Triple Threat" report specifically focuses on the intersection of water-related vulnerabilities.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In March 2023, UNICEF (United Nations Children's Fund) released a report titled "Triple Threat" to coincide with the UN Water Conference.
The "Triple Threat" refers to the three simultaneous burdens faced by children:
1. Inadequate water, sanitation, and hygiene (WASH) services.
2. Related diseases such as cholera and diarrhea.
3. Climate-related hazards like floods and droughts.
The report highlighted that 190 million children in 10 African countries are at the highest risk from this convergence of threats.
It emphasized the urgent need for investment in climate-resilient water and sanitation services to protect children's health and futures.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The "Triple Threat" report was released by UNICEF.
Quick Tip: Reports concerning children, education, and maternal health are almost always published by UNICEF.
Memorizing the themes of major annual reports (like the State of the World's Children) is a common requirement for current affairs sections.
"Vayu Prahar" is a multi-domain air and land exercise conducted in the midst of the ongoing stand-off between India and China at LAC for a duration of ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Joint military exercises between different wings of the armed forces are conducted to enhance synergy, communication, and rapid deployment capabilities during conflicts.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Indian Army and the Indian Air Force (IAF) conducted a multi-domain joint exercise named "Vayu Prahar" in March 2023.
The exercise was held in the Eastern Sector, close to the Line of Actual Control (LAC), against the backdrop of the boundary dispute with China.
The duration of the exercise was 96 hours.
The primary objective was to coordinate the rapid mobilization of troops and equipment using air assets to high-altitude areas.
It involved various platforms, including transport aircraft, helicopters, and special forces, to validate plans for high-speed and efficient deployment in a multi-domain battle environment.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Exercise "Vayu Prahar" was conducted for a duration of 96 hours.
Quick Tip: Exercises near the LAC (Line of Actual Control) involve the Army and Air Force, whereas those near the LoC (Line of Control) often focus more on land-based counter-insurgency tactics.
National Good Governance Day is celebrated in the memory of ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Important days in India are often established to honor the contributions of former leaders and to promote their vision for the country's administration and ethics.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
National Good Governance Day (Sushasan Divas) is observed annually on December 25.
It was established in 2014 to commemorate the birth anniversary of former Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Vajpayee was a three-time Prime Minister of India and a recipient of the Bharat Ratna.
The aim of celebrating this day is to raise awareness among the citizens of the country about accountability in government and to foster a commitment to "Good Governance."
It serves to remind government officials of their duty to be transparent and responsive to the needs of the public.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Good Governance Day is celebrated in the memory of Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Quick Tip: December 25 is also Christmas Day. In competitive exams, look for overlapping events to help remember specific dates.
Good Governance Day = Dec 25 = Vajpayee's Birthday.
Priyanshu Rajawat is a well-known ______ player.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In the sports section of competitive exams, candidates are often expected to identify the sports associated with rising athletes who have recently won international titles.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Priyanshu Rajawat is a prominent Indian Badminton player.
He gained significant international recognition in April 2023 after winning the Orleans Masters title (a BWF World Tour Super 300 event) in France.
He was also a part of the Indian men's team that made history by winning the Thomas Cup in 2022.
Hailing from Madhya Pradesh, he trains at the Pullela Gopichand Badminton Academy in Hyderabad and is considered one of the brightest prospects in Indian men's singles.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Priyanshu Rajawat is a well-known Badminton player.
Quick Tip: Keep an eye on winners of BWF World Tour events (Super 300, 500, 750, 1000) as these athletes frequently appear in General Awareness questions.
What is the program launched by ISRO to encourage students to pursue careers in STEM?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Scientific organizations launch outreach programs to inspire younger generations and cultivate an interest in Space Science and Technology.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
YUVIKA stands for "Yuva Vigyani Karyakram" (Young Scientist Programme).
It is a special program for school children organized by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
The main objective of YUVIKA is to impart basic knowledge on Space Technology, Space Science, and Space Applications to students, primarily those in the 9th grade.
The program aims to spark interest in STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) careers.
It includes residential training programs where students visit various ISRO centers, interact with scientists, and witness laboratory demonstrations.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The program launched by ISRO is YUVIKA.
Quick Tip: YUVIKA acronym: YU-va VI-gyani KA-ryakram.
ISRO outreach programs are frequent topics in exams—focus on their target audience (e.g., school students vs. research scholars).
Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the disqualification of MPs from Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Constitution of India provides specific grounds under which a member of either House of Parliament can be disqualified from their membership.
These provisions ensure the integrity and functional capacity of the legislative bodies.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Article 102 of the Indian Constitution lays down the grounds for disqualification of a member of either House of Parliament.
A person shall be disqualified if:
1. He holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.
2. He is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court.
3. He is an undischarged insolvent.
4. He is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign State.
5. He is so disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament (e.g., Representation of the People Act, 1951).
Additionally, the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) provides further grounds for disqualification, which is also mentioned under Article 102(2).
Step 3: Final Answer:
Article 102 deals with the disqualification of members of Parliament (MPs).
Quick Tip: Remember: Article 102 is for MPs (Parliament), while Article 191 provides for the disqualification of members of State Legislative Assemblies (MLAs).
What power does Rajya Sabha have with regard to Money Bills?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A Money Bill (Article 110) has a special legislative procedure where the Lok Sabha has overriding authority over the Rajya Sabha.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Under Article 109 of the Constitution, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
After it is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations.
The Rajya Sabha has limited powers:
1. It cannot reject or amend the Money Bill.
2. It must return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within a period of 14 days.
3. It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept.
If the Rajya Sabha does not return the bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was passed by the Lok Sabha.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Rajya Sabha can withhold the Bill for a maximum of 14 days to suggest recommendations.
Quick Tip: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the final authority to decide whether a bill is a Money Bill or not, and this decision cannot be challenged in any court.
Who was the Constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Constituent Assembly was the body tasked with drafting the Constitution of India. It comprised various committees and key officials who provided legal and procedural guidance.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Sir Benegal Narsingh Rau (B.N. Rau) was appointed as the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly in 1946.
He was responsible for preparing the initial draft of the Constitution, which was then scrutinized and refined by the Drafting Committee.
His profound knowledge of international law and various world constitutions played a pivotal role in shaping the basic structure of the Indian Constitution.
While Dr. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Assembly, B.N. Rau served as the primary legal expert.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Sir Benegal Narsingh Rau was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly.
Quick Tip: B.N. Rau also served as the first Indian judge at the International Court of Justice (ICJ) and assisted in drafting the Constitution of Myanmar (Burma).
The concept of Welfare State is included under the Constitution of India in ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A Welfare State is a concept where the government plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social well-being of its citizens.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), contained in Part IV (Articles 36 to 51) of the Indian Constitution, embody the concept of a Welfare State.
Article 38 explicitly states that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people by securing and protecting a social order in which justice—social, economic, and political—shall inform all the institutions of national life.
While Fundamental Rights (Part III) provide for political democracy, the DPSP aim at establishing social and economic democracy, which is the cornerstone of a welfare state.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The concept of a Welfare State is found in the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Quick Tip: Directive Principles are non-justiciable (cannot be enforced by courts), yet they are fundamental in the governance of the country.
Sarkaria Commission refers to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Commissions are often appointed by the government to study specific administrative or constitutional issues and suggest reforms.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983 by the Central Government of India.
It was headed by Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria, a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
The commission's mandate was to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments in the country and suggest changes within the framework of the Constitution.
It made 247 recommendations, including those on the appointment of Governors, the use of Article 356, and the setting up of the Inter-State Council.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Sarkaria Commission refers to Centre-State Relations.
Quick Tip: Another important commission regarding Centre-State relations is the Punchhi Commission (2007).
Who was awarded the ``Gruber Prize for Justice'' 2002?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Gruber Prize for Justice is an international award presented to individuals or organizations that have made significant contributions to the cause of justice through the legal system.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Fali Sam Nariman (F.S. Nariman), a distinguished Indian jurist and senior advocate to the Supreme Court of India, was awarded the Gruber Prize for Justice in 2002.
He was recognized for his role in defending the rule of law and the independence of the judiciary in India.
Nariman has been a prominent figure in many landmark cases and is highly respected for his commitment to constitutional values.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Gruber Prize for Justice 2002 was awarded to F. S. Nariman.
Quick Tip: F.S. Nariman also received the Padma Vibhushan (2007) and authored the famous autobiography ``Before Memory Fades''.
Who was the first Chief Justice of Telangana High Court?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Following the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh and the creation of Telangana in 2014, separate high courts were established for both states on January 1, 2019.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Justice Thottathil B. Radhakrishnan was appointed as the first Chief Justice of the newly formed Telangana High Court.
Before this, he served as the Chief Justice of the Hyderabad High Court (which was common for both states).
He took the oath on January 1, 2019, when the separate High Court for Telangana officially came into existence.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Justice T.B. Radhakrishnan was the first Chief Justice of the Telangana High Court.
Quick Tip: The Telangana High Court is located in Hyderabad and is one of the most beautiful heritage buildings in the city.
Ashby vs White case relates to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a landmark case in the Law of Torts, establishing the principle of ``Injuria sine damno'' (Injury without damage).
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In the case of \textit{Ashby v. White (1703), the plaintiff (Ashby) was a qualified voter who was wrongfully prevented from casting his vote by the defendant (White), a returning officer.
Even though the candidate for whom Ashby intended to vote actually won the election and no physical or financial loss was suffered, the court held the defendant liable.
The court ruled that the violation of a person's legal right (the right to vote) is a sufficient cause for action, even if no actual damage is caused.
This established that whenever there is a breach of a legal right, the law provides a remedy.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Ashby vs White relates to the breach of a legal right.
Quick Tip: Injuria sine damno means a legal injury occurred without actual physical loss; Damnum sine injuria means actual loss occurred without violating a legal right.
Doctrine of Pith and Substance relates to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In a federal system like India, powers are divided between the Union and the States. Sometimes, a law passed by one may incidentally encroach upon the subjects reserved for the other.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Doctrine of Pith and Substance is used by courts to determine the true nature and character of a legislation.
If the ``pith and substance'' (the core essence) of a law falls within the legislative competence of the body that passed it, the law is valid, even if it incidentally touches upon a subject in the other list.
This doctrine helps resolve conflicts between the Union and State legislatures regarding their respective fields of legislation (List I, II, and III of the 7th Schedule).
Option (B) refers to the Doctrine of Severability; Option (C) refers to the Doctrine of Territorial Nexus.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Doctrine of Pith and Substance relates to the interpretation of statutes to solve problems of competing legislatures.
Quick Tip: Pith means ``essence'' and Substance means ``most important part''. It looks at the real purpose of the law rather than its incidental effects.
The Constitution of India recognises ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Indian Constitution provides cultural and educational protections for minority groups to preserve their distinct identity.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Article 30(1) of the Indian Constitution states: ``All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.''
This clearly indicates that the Constitution recognizes two types of minorities:
1. Religious minorities.
2. Linguistic minorities.
While ethnic or cultural groups may have protections under Article 29, the specific recognition of ``minorities'' as a category for special institutional rights is limited to religion and language.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Constitution recognizes religious and linguistic minorities.
Quick Tip: Article 29 protects the interests of ``any section of citizens'' (including majorities) having a distinct language, script, or culture.
Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India recognises official languages?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Schedules are appendices to the Constitution that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activity and government policy.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the list of official languages recognized by the Government of India.
Initially, there were 14 languages in this schedule.
Currently, there are 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu.
Other schedules:
- Sixth Schedule: Provisions for administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
- Seventh Schedule: Division of powers (Union, State, and Concurrent Lists).
- Ninth Schedule: Validation of certain Acts and Regulations (dealing with land reforms).
Step 3: Final Answer:
Official languages are recognized under the Eighth Schedule.
Quick Tip: English is NOT one of the 22 languages listed in the Eighth Schedule, even though it is an official link language in India.
The control of expenditure of the Government of India vests in ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In a parliamentary democracy like India, the executive is accountable to the legislature for every penny spent from the public purse.
This ensures financial accountability and prevents the arbitrary use of public funds.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Constitution of India mandates that no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law passed by the Parliament.
Under Article 114, the Appropriation Bill must be passed by the Parliament before the government can spend money.
Furthermore, the Parliament exercises control through various committees like the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) and the Estimates Committee, which scrutinize government spending based on reports from the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
While the Finance Minister prepares the budget and the Lok Sabha has a superior role in financial matters, the ultimate constitutional vesting of control over expenditure lies with the Parliament as a whole.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The control of expenditure of the Government of India vests in the Parliament.
Quick Tip: Remember that while "Parliament" vests the control, the \textbf{Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)} is known as the "Guardian of the Public Purse" because they audit the accounts on behalf of the Parliament.
Mandal Commission refers to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Commission (SEBC), popularly known as the Mandal Commission, was established to identify the "socially or educationally backward classes" of India.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Mandal Commission was established in 1979 by the Morarji Desai government and headed by B.P. Mandal.
The commission submitted its report in 1980, recommending that \( 27% \) of seats in central government jobs and educational institutions be reserved for Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
This recommendation was implemented in 1990 by the V.P. Singh government, leading to widespread protests and a landmark Supreme Court case known as the Indra Sawhney case (1992), which upheld the reservation subject to certain conditions like the "Creamy Layer" exclusion.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Mandal Commission refers to Reservations for Other Backward Classes.
Quick Tip: The first Backward Classes Commission (1953) was headed by \textbf{Kaka Kalelkar}. The Mandal Commission was the second one.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and States falls under its ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Supreme Court of India acts as a federal court and has exclusive authority to resolve legal disputes between different units of the Indian federation.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Under Article 131 of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court has Original Jurisdiction.
This means the case can be brought directly to the Supreme Court without going through lower courts.
This jurisdiction extends to disputes between:
1. The Government of India and one or more States.
2. The Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other.
3. Two or more States.
This ensures that the Supreme Court maintains the federal balance of the country.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Disputes between the Centre and States fall under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Quick Tip: Original Jurisdiction (Art 131) does NOT cover disputes arising out of any pre-Constitution treaty, agreement, or covenant. These are excluded by the proviso to the Article.
Which landmark case is celebrating its fifty years in 2023?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Certain judgments are so influential that they shape the constitutional landscape for decades. The "Basic Structure" doctrine is the most significant outcome of such a judgment.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The judgment in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala was delivered on April 24, 1973.
Calculating for the year 2023:
\[ 2023 - 1973 = 50 years \]
This case is famous because it established the Doctrine of Basic Structure, which states that while the Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter its essential features or "Basic Structure" (e.g., secularism, federalism, judicial review).
It was decided by the largest ever bench in the history of the Supreme Court, consisting of 13 judges, with a 7:6 majority.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Kesavananda Bharathi case celebrated its 50th anniversary in 2023.
Quick Tip: The 50th anniversary was widely observed in 2023, making it a hot topic for current affairs and law-related exams. Remember the date: April 24, 1973.
Representation of the People Act was enacted in the year ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Articles 324 to 329 of the Constitution provide for the electoral system in India, and the Parliament has passed specific laws to detail the conduct of elections and the qualifications of representatives.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
There are two main Representation of the People Acts:
1. RPA 1950: Deals with the preparation of electoral rolls and delimitation of constituencies.
2. RPA 1951: Deals with the actual conduct of elections, qualifications, and disqualifications of MPs and MLAs, and administrative machinery for conducting polls.
In the context of competitive exams, "Representation of the People Act" usually refers to the 1951 Act as it covers the substantial rules regarding membership and corrupt practices.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Representation of the People Act was enacted in 1951.
Quick Tip: Section 8 of the RPA 1951 is often in the news because it deals with the disqualification of representatives on conviction for certain offences.
Who is the Attorney General of India as on May 2023?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Attorney General for India is the central government's chief legal advisor and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court. It is a constitutional post under Article 76.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Senior advocate R. Venkataramani was appointed as the 16th Attorney General for India in October 2022 for a term of three years.
He succeeded K.K. Venugopal, whose term ended on September 30, 2022.
Therefore, as of May 2023, R. Venkataramani held the position.
The Attorney General is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Step 3: Final Answer:
R. Venkataramani was the Attorney General as of May 2023.
Quick Tip: The Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament but does NOT have the right to vote.
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held in the year ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Constituent Assembly was formed under the Cabinet Mission Plan to draft the Constitution of independent India.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly took place on December 9, 1946, in the Constitution Hall (now the Central Hall of Parliament House).
At this meeting, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, being the oldest member, was elected as the temporary (interim) President of the Assembly, following the French practice.
Later, on December 11, 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Assembly.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The first meeting was held in 1946.
Quick Tip: The Muslim League boycotted this first meeting, insisting on a separate state of Pakistan. Only 211 members attended the first session.
Layoff means ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Layoff is a term used in industrial relations and labour law to describe the inability of an employer to provide work to employees for specific reasons.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In industrial law, specifically the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, "Lay-off" means the failure, refusal, or inability of an employer to give employment to a workman due to reasons like shortage of coal, power, or raw materials, accumulation of stocks, or breakdown of machinery.
In a general sense used in many exams, it is often associated with the termination of employment initiated by the employer, usually due to economic reasons or downsizing, rather than the fault of the employee.
Option (A) is the closest general definition, though technically "termination" is permanent whereas "layoff" can be temporary in specific legal contexts.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Layoff generally refers to terminating an employee at the will/necessity of the employer.
Quick Tip: While "Layoff" is often initiated by the employer for business reasons, "Retrenchment" is the specific legal term for permanent termination of services for reasons other than disciplinary action.
S.R. Bommai's case is pertaining to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Article 356 allows the President to impose President's Rule in a state if the constitutional machinery breaks down. This power was historically prone to misuse by the Centre.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The judgment in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) is one of the most important cases regarding federalism and President's Rule (Article 356).
The Supreme Court laid down strict guidelines for the imposition of President's Rule:
1. The power is not absolute and is subject to judicial review.
2. The material on which the President's satisfaction is based can be scrutinized.
3. The floor of the Assembly is the only place to test the majority of the government (not the Governor's subjective opinion).
4. Secularism was declared as a part of the "Basic Structure".
Step 3: Final Answer:
S.R. Bommai's case pertains to the imposition of President's Rule.
Quick Tip: Before this judgment, the dismissal of state governments by the Centre was frequent; after 1994, such instances significantly decreased due to judicial check.
Traffic in human beings is violation of ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Indian Constitution provides specific Fundamental Rights to protect individuals from forced labour and human trafficking under the cluster of "Right against Exploitation".
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Article 23 of the Constitution specifically prohibits "traffic in human beings and \textit{begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour".
Any contravention of this provision is an offence punishable in accordance with law.
This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
"Traffic in human beings" includes selling and buying of men, women, and children like goods, and encompasses slavery and immoral trafficking of women and children.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Traffic in human beings is a violation of the Right against Exploitation.
Quick Tip: The "Right against Exploitation" consists of two Articles: Art 23 (Trafficking/Forced Labour) and Art 24 (Prohibition of Child Labour).
During National Emergency, which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution cannot be suspended?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
While certain Fundamental Rights are suspended during a National Emergency (Article 352) to give the state more power, the 44th Amendment Act (1978) restricted this power to protect individual liberty.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Under Article 359, the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during an emergency.
However, the 44th Amendment mandated that:
1. The enforcement of rights under Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during an emergency.
This ensures that even during a crisis, the state cannot arbitrarily deprive a person of their life or convict them under retrospective laws.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a National Emergency.
Quick Tip: Article 19 is \textbf{automatically} suspended under Article 358 \textbf{only} if the emergency is declared on the grounds of War or External Aggression (not Armed Rebellion).
Which one of the following Schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of States and specifies their territories?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Schedules are additional details or tables appended to the articles of the Constitution to categorize and list specific information.
The first few schedules define the geographical and administrative structure of the Union.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The First Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the list of all States and Union Territories of India and describes their territorial jurisdictions.
Whenever a new state is created (e.g., Telangana in 2014) or a state is converted into a Union Territory (e.g., Jammu and Kashmir in 2019), the First Schedule must be amended.
Brief overview of other options:
1. Second Schedule: Deals with the provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, and privileges of high officials like the President, Governors, Speaker, and Judges.
2. Third Schedule: Contains the forms of Oaths or Affirmations for various constitutional posts.
3. Fourth Schedule: Specifies the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the States and Union Territories.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The First Schedule lists the names of States and specifies their territories.
Quick Tip: To remember the schedules in order, use the mnemonic: \textbf{TEARS OF OLD PM}.
\textbf{T} - Territories (First), \textbf{E} - Emoluments (Second), \textbf{A} - Affirmations/Oaths (Third), \textbf{R} - Rajya Sabha (Fourth).
\(R \ vs \ Tolson\) case relates to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In criminal law, "Mistake of Fact" can sometimes be a defense if the person acted in good faith with a reasonable belief that their action was lawful.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The case of \(R \ vs \ Tolson\) (1889) is a landmark English case regarding the defense of Mistake of Fact in a charge of bigamy.
Mrs. Tolson's husband went missing at sea, and after making reasonable inquiries and waiting for seven years, she believed him to be dead and remarried.
However, the husband reappeared. She was charged with bigamy.
The court held that a bona fide and reasonable belief in the death of the first husband at the time of the second marriage afforded a good defense to the charge.
This differs from Mistake of Law, which is generally not an excuse (\textit{Ignorantia legis neminem excusat).
Step 3: Final Answer:
The \(R \ vs \ Tolson\) case relates to the legal principle of Mistake of Fact.
Quick Tip: Under the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Section 76 and Section 79 deal with Mistake of Fact as an exception to criminal liability.
\(Balfour \ vs \ Balfour\) case relates to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
One of the essential elements of a valid contract is the intention to create a legal relationship.
Social or domestic agreements are generally not considered legally binding contracts.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
\(Balfour \ vs \ Balfour\) (1919) is a fundamental case in the Law of Contract.
A husband promised to pay his wife a monthly allowance while he was working abroad. When they separated, the wife sued for the arrears.
The court held that there was no enforceable contract because, in domestic arrangements, it is presumed that the parties do not intend to be legally bound.
The court ruled that such agreements are based on mutual trust and social obligations rather than legal ones.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The \(Balfour \ vs \ Balfour\) case is a classic precedent in Contract Law regarding the intention to create legal relations.
Quick Tip: Always remember: Social, religious, or domestic agreements are not contracts unless there is clear evidence that the parties wanted the law to intervene.
\(73^{rd}\) and \(74^{th}\) Constitutional amendments deal with ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
These amendments provided constitutional status to the third tier of government in India, ensuring democratic decentralization.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The \(73^{rd}\) Amendment Act, 1992 introduced Part IX and the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution, dealing with Panchayati Raj Institutions (Rural Local Government).
The \(74^{th}\) Amendment Act, 1992 introduced Part IXA and the Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution, dealing with Municipalities (Urban Local Government).
These amendments mandated regular elections, reserved seats for women, SCs, and STs, and empowered local bodies to manage local affairs and finances.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The \(73^{rd}\) and \(74^{th}\) amendments are related to Local Self Government.
Quick Tip: Note that these amendments were passed in 1992 but came into effect in 1993. April 24 is celebrated as National Panchayati Raj Day.
A Foreign citizen staying in India cannot claim right to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Fundamental Rights in India are divided into two categories: those available to all persons (citizens and foreigners) and those available only to citizens.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19 are available only to the citizens of India.
Article 19(1)(g) grants the freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Since a foreign citizen is not a citizen of India, they cannot claim this right as a constitutional guarantee under Article 19.
Other options check:
1. Article 14 (Equality before law) is available to both citizens and foreigners.
2. Article 21 (Life and personal liberty) is available to all persons.
3. Article 25 (Freedom of religion) is available to all persons.
Step 3: Final Answer:
A foreign citizen cannot claim the Freedom of Trade and Profession.
Quick Tip: Articles \textbf{15, 16, 19, 29, and 30} are exclusively available to Indian citizens only. All other rights are available to everyone.
\(Vishaka \ vs \ State \ of \ Rajasthan\) case pertains to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a landmark case that addressed the safety of women at the workplace and led to the creation of specific guidelines in the absence of a legislation.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In \(Vishaka \ vs \ State \ of \ Rajasthan\) (1997), the Supreme Court of India recognized that Sexual Harassment at the workplace is a violation of the Fundamental Rights of women (Articles 14, 15, and 21).
Since there was no law at the time to deal with this issue, the Supreme Court laid down the "Vishaka Guidelines".
These guidelines mandated the creation of Internal Complaints Committees (ICC) in organizations.
This eventually led to the enactment of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Vishaka case pertains specifically to Sexual Harassment at the workplace.
Quick Tip: This judgment is an example of "Judicial Legislation" where the court fills a gap in the law using international conventions (like CEDAW).
The Advocates Act, 1961 deals with ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The legal profession in India is a regulated profession, and a specific act governs the conduct, enrollment, and discipline of legal practitioners.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Advocates Act, 1961 was enacted to amend and consolidate the law relating to legal practitioners and to provide for the constitution of the Bar Council of India (BCI) and State Bar Councils.
The Act sets out the ethics, standards of professional conduct, and etiquettes that advocates must follow.
It also defines the qualifications for enrollment, rights of advocates to practice, and the disciplinary powers of the Bar Councils to punish professional misconduct.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Advocates Act, 1961 deals with ethics and rules relating to advocates.
Quick Tip: The Bar Council of India is the statutory body that sets the standards for legal education and professional conduct in India.
The Epidemic Diseases Act was enacted in which year?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a colonial-era legislation designed to provide for the better prevention of the spread of dangerous epidemic diseases.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Epidemic Diseases Act was enacted in 1897 during the British colonial period.
It was originally passed to tackle the outbreak of the bubonic plague in the then Bombay State.
The Act empowers the Central and State governments to take special measures and prescribe regulations to contain an outbreak.
It gained significant importance recently as it was widely invoked across India to manage the COVID-19 pandemic.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Epidemic Diseases Act was enacted in 1897.
Quick Tip: Despite being over 120 years old, this Act is one of the shortest in India, containing only four sections. It was recently amended in 2020 to provide more protection to healthcare workers.
The National Green Tribunal was established in the year ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized body set up for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on October 18, 2010, under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
Its primary objective is to handle cases involving environmental issues, forest conservation, and preservation of other natural resources.
The NGT is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
India became the third country in the world—after Australia and New Zealand—to set up a specialized environmental tribunal.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The NGT was established in 2010.
Quick Tip: The Principal Bench of the NGT is located in New Delhi, with regional benches in Pune, Kolkata, Bhopal, and Chennai.
Which of the following is not the legislative power of the President?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The President of India possesses various types of powers: Executive, Legislative, Judicial, Diplomatic, Military, and Emergency powers.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Let's categorize the powers mentioned in the options:
1. Summoning each house of Parliament: This is a Legislative power under Article 85. The President also prorogues the Houses and dissolves the Lok Sabha.
2. Issuing Ordinance: This is a Legislative power under Article 123, exercised when Parliament is not in session.
3. Giving assent to a bill: This is a Legislative power under Article 111. A bill becomes an act only after the President's assent.
4. To declare war and peace: This is a Military/Executive power under Article 53(2), which makes the President the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces. It is not a legislative power.
Step 3: Final Answer:
To declare war and peace is not a legislative power of the President.
Quick Tip: Always read the question carefully for the word "not". Declaring war/peace is done by the President as the head of the State/Military, but it must be backed by the approval of the Parliament.
Who appoints the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
As a high-level body, its appointments are made by the highest executive authority of the country.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
According to the Protection of Human Rights Act, the Chairperson and members of the NHRC are appointed by the President of India.
However, the President does not make this appointment arbitrarily.
The appointment is made based on the recommendations of a high-level selection committee consisting of:
1. The Prime Minister (as Chairperson).
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
3. The Union Home Minister.
4. The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
5. The Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha.
6. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Chairperson of the NHRC is appointed by the President.
Quick Tip: While the President appoints the NHRC Chairperson, remember that the Chairperson must be a retired Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Who was the \(16^{th}\) Chief Justice of India?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the head of the judiciary of India and the Supreme Court.
Competitive exams often ask about landmark figures or chronological rankings of the CJIs.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Justice Yashwant Vishnu (Y.V.) Chandrachud served as the \(16^{th}\) Chief Justice of India.
He holds the record for the longest tenure as CJI, serving from February 1978 to July 1985 (approximately 7 years).
He is the father of Justice Dhananjaya Yashwant (D.Y.) Chandrachud, who served as the \(50^{th}\) Chief Justice of India.
Other options:
- Justice K. Subba Rao was the \(9^{th}\) CJI.
- Justice P.N. Bhagwati was the \(17^{th}\) CJI (pioneer of PIL).
Step 3: Final Answer:
The \(16^{th}\) CJI was Justice Yashwant Vishnu Chandrachud.
Quick Tip: Y.V. Chandrachud (Father) = \(16^{th}\) CJI and longest serving.
D.Y. Chandrachud (Son) = \(50^{th}\) CJI.
Full form of UPOV is ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
UPOV is an intergovernmental organization with headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
It was established by the International Convention for the Protection of New Varieties of Plants.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The acronym UPOV comes from the French name: \textit{Union internationale pour la protection des obtentions végétales.
In English, this translates to the International Union for the Protection of New Varieties of Plants.
The mission of UPOV is to provide and promote an effective system of plant variety protection, with the aim of encouraging the development of new varieties of plants for the benefit of society.
It ensures that the breeders of new plant varieties can protect their intellectual property through a \textit{sui generis system.
Step 3: Final Answer:
UPOV stands for International Union for the Protection of New Varieties of Plants.
Quick Tip: Acronyms of international organizations often derive from their French or Spanish names (like FIFA, Interpol, or UPOV), which is why the English letters might not perfectly match the English name.
Which is not a trade mark?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A trademark is a recognizable sign, design, or expression which identifies products or services of a particular source from those of others.
Trademarks cannot be generic terms that describe the product itself.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
- Nike, Google, and Coca-cola are all specific brand names used to distinguish the goods or services of one company from those of others. They are legally registered trademarks.
- Computer is a generic, descriptive term for a category of electronic devices.
Under intellectual property law, a generic term cannot be trademarked for the product it describes because it belongs to the common language.
For example, a company cannot call its product "Computer" and prevent other computer manufacturers from using that word.
Step 3: Final Answer:
"Computer" is not a trademark.
Quick Tip: Generic names (e.g., Apple for the fruit) cannot be trademarked, but the same word can be a trademark for a non-related product (e.g., Apple for technology).
The concept of Independent Judiciary under the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the constitution of ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Indian Constitution is often called a "borrowed document" because the makers adopted features from various world constitutions and adapted them to the Indian context.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The concept of an Independent Judiciary and Judicial Review was primarily borrowed from the United States of America (USA).
An independent judiciary ensures that the courts are free from the influence of the executive and the legislature, allowing them to uphold the rule of law.
Other features borrowed from the USA include:
1. Fundamental Rights.
2. Preamble.
3. Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges.
4. Post of Vice-President.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The concept of an Independent Judiciary was borrowed from the USA.
Quick Tip: USA = Independence of Judiciary; UK = Parliamentary form of government; Ireland = DPSP; USSR = Fundamental Duties.
Lok Adalat cannot decide ______ cases.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Lok Adalat (People's Court) is a component of the Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) system. It settles disputes through conciliation and compromise.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Lok Adalats have jurisdiction to settle:
1. Any case pending before any court.
2. Any matter at the pre-litigation stage.
They can handle civil cases, matrimonial/family disputes, and compoundable criminal offenses.
However, they cannot decide cases relating to non-compoundable offenses under any law.
Non-compoundable offenses are those which are serious in nature (e.g., murder, rape) and cannot be settled by a mutual agreement between the parties as they are considered crimes against the state.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Lok Adalat cannot decide non-compoundable cases.
Quick Tip: Lok Adalat decisions are final and binding like a civil court decree, and no appeal lies against such an award in any court of law.
A minimum of ______ members are required for unlawful assembly under IPC, 1860.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
"Unlawful Assembly" is a specific offense defined in the Indian Penal Code (IPC) involving a group of people gathered with a common illegal objective.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
According to Section 141 of the Indian Penal Code, an assembly is designated as an "unlawful assembly" if it consists of five or more persons.
The common object of these persons must be one of the following:
1. Overawing the government by criminal force.
2. Resisting the execution of any law or legal process.
3. Committing any mischief, criminal trespass, or other offense.
4. Depriving any person of the enjoyment of a right of way or of the use of water.
5. Compelling any person to do what he is not legally bound to do by using criminal force.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Minimum of 5 members are required for an unlawful assembly.
Quick Tip: Unlawful Assembly = 5 or more persons (Sec 141).
Rioting = 5 or more persons with violence (Sec 146).
Affray = 2 or more persons in a public place (Sec 159).
Which Article of the Indian Constitution speaks about the participation of workers in the management of undertakings?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are guidelines given to the state to secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
- Article 43A was added to the Constitution by the \(42^{nd}\) Amendment Act of 1976.
It states: "The State shall take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments or other organisations engaged in any industry."
Other options:
- Article 42: Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
- Article 43: Living wage, etc., for workers.
- Article 44: Uniform Civil Code.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Article 43A deals with the participation of workers in management.
Quick Tip: Articles ending with a capital letter (like 39A, 43A, 48A) were generally added through amendments later and were not part of the original Constitution.
CSR means ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
CSR is a management concept whereby companies integrate social and environmental concerns in their business operations and interactions with their stakeholders.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
CSR stands for Corporate Social Responsibility.
In India, CSR is a legal mandate under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013.
Companies having a net worth of ₹500 crore or more, or a turnover of ₹1000 crore or more, or a net profit of ₹5 crore or more during any financial year are required to spend at least 2% of their average net profits made during the three immediately preceding financial years on CSR activities.
These activities include eradicating hunger/poverty, promoting education, gender equality, environmental sustainability, etc.
Step 3: Final Answer:
CSR means Corporate Social Responsibility.
Quick Tip: India was the first country in the world to make CSR a mandatory legal requirement for companies.
Who among the following is competent to prescribe conditions for the acquisition of Citizenship?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Constitution of India (Articles 5-11) only defines who became a citizen at the commencement of the Constitution (Jan 26, 1950).
It leaves the task of regulating citizenship in the future to a specific legislative body.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Under Article 11 of the Constitution, the Parliament is empowered to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.
Pursuant to this power, the Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which provides for the acquisition of citizenship by birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and incorporation of territory.
The State Legislatures have absolutely no power to make laws concerning citizenship.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Parliament is competent to prescribe conditions for citizenship.
Quick Tip: Citizenship is a matter in the \textbf{Union List} (Entry 17), meaning only the Central Parliament can legislate on it.
Who wrote the book 'Judicial Review or Confrontation'?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question pertains to legal literature authored by prominent figures in the Indian judiciary.
Such books often reflect on the relationship between the different branches of government.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The book 'Judicial Review or Confrontation' was written by Justice Hans Raj Khanna (commonly known as H.R. Khanna).
Justice H.R. Khanna is highly regarded in Indian legal history for his courageous lone dissent in the ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (Habeas Corpus) case during the Emergency.
In this book, he explores the delicate balance of power between the Judiciary and the Executive/Legislature.
He discusses the role of judicial review in a democracy and whether it leads to a necessary check or an unnecessary confrontation between the organs of the State.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The author of the book is Justice H.R. Khanna.
Quick Tip: Justice H.R. Khanna is also famous for his role in the \textbf{Kesavananda Bharati} case, where he provided the crucial vote that established the 'Basic Structure Doctrine'.
Free Legal Aid for needy under Indian Constitution is discussed as part of ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Free legal aid is a constitutional mandate aimed at ensuring that justice is accessible to all, regardless of their economic or social status.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The provision for Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid is contained in Article 39A of the Indian Constitution.
Article 39A is a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV).
This article was added to the Constitution by the \(42^{nd}\) Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
It directs the State to provide free legal aid by suitable legislation or schemes to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
This led to the enactment of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, which established NALSA (National Legal Services Authority).
Step 3: Final Answer:
Free Legal Aid is discussed under the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Quick Tip: Remember that while Article 39A (DPSP) mandates the state to provide aid, the Supreme Court has ruled that the right to free legal aid is also a fundamental right under \textbf{Article 21}.
The three legislative lists are mentioned in ______ of the Indian Constitution.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Indian Constitution follows a federal structure where powers are divided between the Union and the States through specific lists.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Seventh Schedule (Article 246) of the Indian Constitution contains the three legislative lists:
1. Union List (List I): Subjects on which the Central Parliament has exclusive power to make laws (e.g., Defence, Foreign Affairs, Banking).
2. State List (List II): Subjects on which the State Legislatures normally have exclusive power to make laws (e.g., Public Order, Police, Public Health).
3. Concurrent List (List III): Subjects on which both the Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws (e.g., Education, Forests, Marriage and Divorce).
In case of a conflict on a concurrent subject, the Union law generally prevails.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The three legislative lists are mentioned in the VII Schedule.
Quick Tip: Mnemonic for Schedules: \textbf{TEARS OF OLD PM}.
The '\(S\)' in TEARS stands for \textbf{S}even (7th Schedule) which deals with the \textbf{S}eparation of powers through lists.
The \(105^{th}\) Amendment of the Indian Constitution was made in which year?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Constitutional Amendments are made to update the laws according to contemporary needs and judicial interpretations.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The \(105^{th}\) Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in the year 2021.
It received the President's assent on August 18, 2021.
The primary objective of this amendment was to restore the power of State Governments and Union Territories to identify and notify their own lists of Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), commonly known as OBCs.
This amendment clarified the interpretation of the \(102^{nd}\) Amendment Act (2018) following a Supreme Court judgment in the Maratha reservation case, which had earlier restricted this power to the President only.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The \(105^{th}\) Amendment was made in 2021.
Quick Tip: Recent amendments are very important for exams.
103rd: EWS Reservation (2019).
104th: Extension of SC/ST seats in LS/Assembly (2020).
105th: State power for OBC lists (2021).
Which Section of I.P.C. deals with dowry death?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Indian Penal Code (IPC) contains specific provisions to address crimes against women, particularly those related to marriage and dowry.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Section 304-B of the IPC specifically deals with Dowry Death.
A death is treated as a "dowry death" if a woman dies of burns or bodily injury or occurs otherwise than under normal circumstances within seven years of her marriage, and it is shown that soon before her death she was subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or his relatives for any demand for dowry.
Other options explained:
1. Section 498-A: Deals with cruelty by husband or relatives of husband.
2. Section 304-A: Deals with causing death by negligence (e.g., road accidents).
3. Section 489-A: Deals with counterfeiting currency notes or bank notes.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Section 304-B of the IPC deals with dowry death.
Quick Tip: For 304-B, the death must occur within 7 years of marriage. Section 113B of the Indian Evidence Act provides for a presumption as to dowry death in such cases.
Instantaneous triple talaq was invalidated by the Supreme Court in which case?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question refers to a landmark judicial decision regarding personal laws and their compatibility with fundamental rights.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In the case of Shayara Bano vs Union of India (2017), a 5-judge bench of the Supreme Court, by a 3:2 majority, declared the practice of 'Talaq-e-biddat' (instantaneous triple talaq) to be unconstitutional.
The court held that the practice was arbitrary and violated Article 14 (Right to Equality) of the Constitution.
Brief note on other cases:
1. Shah Bano case (1985): Dealt with the right of a divorced Muslim woman to claim maintenance under Section 125 of CrPC.
2. Hussainara Khatoon case: Known as the first major Public Interest Litigation (PIL) case, dealing with the rights of undertrials.
3. Danial Latifi case: Upheld the constitutional validity of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct case is Shayara Bano vs Union of India.
Quick Tip: Following this judgment, the Parliament enacted the \textbf{Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019}, which made the practice of triple talaq a criminal offence.
Ordinance promulgated by the President remains valid for ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
An ordinance is a temporary law promulgated by the President under Article 123 when the Parliament is not in session.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Under Article 123, an ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but is temporary.
An ordinance must be laid before both Houses of Parliament when they reassemble.
It ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament.
However, the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot exceed six months.
Therefore, the maximum life of an ordinance, if not approved by Parliament, is six months and six weeks.
In typical MCQ options, if "six months" is the highest relevant duration provided representing the time between sessions, it is selected as the standard answer for its general validity period before mandatory review.
Step 3: Final Answer:
An ordinance remains valid for six months (effectively until the next session reassembles).
Quick Tip: Remember Article 123 for the President and Article 213 for the Governor for ordinance-making powers.
Special provision with respect to the State of Goa is contained in which Article of the Indian Constitution?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Part XXI of the Constitution contains 'Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions' for certain states to meet their unique historical or cultural requirements.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Article 371-I contains special provisions with respect to the State of Goa.
It specifically provides that the Legislative Assembly of the State of Goa shall consist of not less than 30 members.
Other Articles in the 371 series:
1. 371-B: Special provisions for Assam.
2. 371-F: Special provisions for Sikkim.
3. 371-D: Special provisions for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
4. 371-A: Special provisions for Nagaland.
5. 371-G: Special provisions for Mizoram.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Article 371-I contains special provisions for Goa.
Quick Tip: Goa was liberated from Portuguese rule in 1961 and became the \(25^{th}\) State of the Indian Union in 1987.
Nefarious intention of criminals means ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question tests contextual vocabulary. Understanding the adjective "nefarious" helps clarify the nature of the criminals' plans as perceived by the victims.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The word "nefarious" is an adjective used to describe something that is extremely wicked, villainous, or criminal.
In the passage, the teenagers, Geeta and Sanjay, realized that the criminals had "nefarious intentions."
This realization is what prompted them to fight back and scream for help.
Since the subjects are "hardened criminals" involved in a kidnapping, their intentions are by definition malicious or "evil."
Options (A) and (B) suggest positive outcomes, which contradicts the context.
Option (C) is too vague; "evil intention" provides a precise synonym for nefarious.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Nefarious intention refers to the evil intention of the criminal.
Quick Tip: If you encounter an unfamiliar adjective in a negative context (like a crime scene), assume it has a negative meaning. "Nefarious" is a high-frequency GRE/SAT word meaning wicked.
From which jail did the criminals release?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a factual retrieval question. It requires the reader to identify a specific proper noun (the name of the prison) mentioned in the text.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The text introduces Billa and Ranga as "two hardened criminals who had just been released from Arthur Road Jail in Mumbai on the day the crime occurred."
The mention of the jail serves to establish their criminal background and their immediate presence in the city of Mumbai.
While Rajahmundry, Yerwada, and Tihar are famous Indian prisons, they do not appear in this specific narrative.
The correct answer is directly stated in the first sentence of the passage.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The criminals were released from Arthur Road Jail in Mumbai.
Quick Tip: When searching for specific locations, scan the text for capital letters (Proper Nouns). Identifying "Arthur Road Jail" takes only a few seconds using this technique.
According to the passage, what do you mean by jurisdiction?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
"Jurisdiction" is a legal term referring to the authority given by law to a court, tribunal, or police station to entertain and decide on a matter within a specific geographic area or subject matter.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage mentions that a citizen tried to report the crime, but the "police refused to take the report citing jurisdictional issues."
In law enforcement, a police officer can only officially "register" or investigate a case if it falls within the boundaries of their station's authority.
By citing "jurisdiction," the police were effectively saying they lacked the legal power or authority to act on that specific report at that location.
Options (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect because victims or citizens have the right to complain, but they do not possess the "jurisdictional power" to officially open a case in the legal system; that power belongs solely to the authorities (Police/Judiciary).
Step 3: Final Answer:
Jurisdiction refers to the power of the police to register and investigate the case within their legal boundaries.
Quick Tip: In legal contexts, "Jurisdiction" always links to "Authority." Think: Jury (Law) + Dictio (Speaking) = Speaking with the authority of the law.
'Car sped away' means ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The phrase "sped away" uses the past tense of the verb "speed," which denotes moving at a high velocity, often one that is unsafe or illegal.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage notes that bystanders realized something was wrong specifically "as the car sped away."
In a typical city environment (Mumbai), driving "away" normally would not attract attention.
However, because the car was moving at an excessive speed (beyond the normal traffic limit), it signaled that the drivers were in a state of urgency or panic, which is a hallmark of a criminal getaway.
Option (A) is the opposite of speeding.
Option (B) implies a halt, which "sped away" contradicts.
Option (D) best captures the meaning of "speeding" as exceeding the standard or legal speed limit.
Step 3: Final Answer:
'Car sped away' implies the vehicle was moving at an excessive speed, beyond the normal limit.
Quick Tip: Verb analysis: "Speed" (Base) \(\rightarrow\) "Sped" (Past). It always implies high velocity. In comprehension, look for how an action alerts others to understand its intensity.
What is the full form of ICCW?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question requires identifying the full name of an organization mentioned in the text through an acronym or a specific proper noun phrase.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
According to the passage, after the tragic events involving the Chopra children, specific bravery awards were established.
The text states: ``In 1978, the Indian Council for Child Welfare instituted two annual bravery awards...''.
The abbreviation ICCW corresponds directly to this organization, which is a premier national-level voluntary organization in India dedicated to the welfare of children.
Options (A), (B), and (D) are incorrect as they either change the level from national to international or alter the specific designation from "Council" to "Commission," which contradicts the provided text.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The full form of ICCW is the Indian Council for Child Welfare.
Quick Tip: In Reading Comprehension, names of organizations are almost always mentioned in full before an acronym is used or expected. Scanning for keywords like "instituted" or "award" helps locate the name quickly.
What was the opinion of the public regarding the police behaviour?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question asks for a critical evaluation of the role of an institution (the police) in the narrative as described by the author or public sentiment.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The narrative describes how citizens tried to intervene and report the suspicious behavior of the car.
The text concludes with a strong evaluative statement regarding the outcome of the case.
It states: ``Yet the point remains that had the police gotten into prompt action, this murder could have been prevented.''
This implies that the delay in reaction or jurisdictional hurdles faced during the reporting stage directly contributed to the tragic fate of the teenagers.
While the other options mention aspects of arrest or car control, the primary theme emphasized in the text is the prevention of the crime itself.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The consensus is that if the police had reacted promptly, the murder could have been prevented.
Quick Tip: The concluding sentence of a paragraph often summarizes the central moral or critical point of the passage. Always pay close attention to the final lines for questions regarding opinions or takeaways.
Which award was given by the Government of India?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question requires the reader to distinguish between the various honors mentioned in the text and identify which one was conferred directly by the Central Government.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage mentions two distinct sets of honors:
1. The bravery awards (Sanjay Chopra and Geeta Chopra awards) instituted by the Indian Council for Child Welfare (ICCW), which is a voluntary body.
2. The Kirti Chakra, which is an official Indian military decoration awarded for valor, courageous action or self-sacrifice away from the field of battle.
The text states: ``The Indian government bestowed the Kirti Chakra gallantry award on Geeta and Sanjay Chopra...''.
This confirms that while the ICCW named their awards after the children, the Government of India recognized them with a national gallantry award.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Kirti Chakra gallantry award was the one given by the Government of India.
Quick Tip: Look for the subject of the sentence. "The Indian Government" is the subject for the Kirti Chakra, whereas "The Indian Council for Child Welfare" is the subject for the Sanjay/Geeta Chopra awards.
The accused had a ______ plan of a cold-blooded, cruel murder.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a vocabulary-based fill-in-the-blank question that requires selecting the exact adjective used by the author to characterize the criminals' actions.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage uses strong, descriptive language to convey the gravity of the crime.
In the section discussing the judiciary's view, the text says: ``The High Court observed that the accused had a diabolical plan...''.
The word "diabolical" refers to something so evil as to recall the Devil. It is used here to underscore the premeditated and heartless nature of the murders.
While "cruel" is also used in the sentence, it follows later in the description (``...cruel murder...'') and does not fit the blank as the primary adjective for the "plan" as per the text's specific phrasing.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The accused had a diabolical plan.
Quick Tip: When multiple adjectives in the options appear in the text, check the structure of the sentence in the passage. The word that immediately precedes "plan" is the required answer.
Which court awarded the death sentence for the criminals?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question asks to identify the specific level of the judiciary that handed down the primary punishment in this case based on the narrative flow.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage outlines the legal outcome following the investigation.
It notes: ``The High Court observed that the accused... deserved no mercy. Thus, the death penalty was awarded and the Supreme Court also upheld the verdict.''
In the legal process, the court that "awards" the sentence is the one that makes the decision first. The Supreme Court's role, as mentioned in the text, was to "uphold" or confirm that already existing decision.
Therefore, the source of the death sentence award, according to the passage, is the High Court.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The High Court awarded the death sentence.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between the verbs "awarded" and "upheld." "Awarded" implies the original decree, while "upheld" refers to a higher court agreeing with a lower court's decision upon appeal.
*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.