
TS LAWCET 2023 LLB 3 Years Question Paper for May 25 Shift 2 is available here for download. TS LAWCET 2023 LLB 3 Years Question Paper consists of 120 questions carrying 1 mark each.TS LAWCET 2023 LLB 3 Years includes three subjects, General Knowledge and Mental Ability, Current Affairs and Aptitude for study of Law . The General Knowledge and Mental Ability and Current Affairs section of the paper includes 30 questions each while the Aptitude for study of Law section includes a total of 60 questions. Download TS LAWCET 2023 Question Paper May 25 Shift 2 with Solution PDF from link below.
| TS LAWCET 2023 LLB 3 Years Question Paper for May 25 Shift 2 | Download PDF | Check Solutions |

The International Solar Alliance was jointly launched by India and France during ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is a treaty-based intergovernmental organization launched to promote solar energy and reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The ISA was conceptualized as a collaborative effort between India and France.
It was officially launched by the Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi, and the then President of France, François Hollande, on 30 November 2015.
The launch took place at the \(21^{st}\) session of the Conference of the Parties (COP-21) to the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Paris, France.
The primary goal is to provide a platform for solar-resource-rich countries to address their energy security needs.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The ISA was launched during COP-21.
Quick Tip: Remember that the ISA is headquartered in Gurugram, India, making it one of the few international organizations with a global headquarters in India.
Which of the following satellite channels was launched on 26 January 2003 for the spread of technical growth and development of distance education in India?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The government of India utilizes satellite-based educational media to enhance the reach and quality of technical education across the country.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Eklavya Technology Channel is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Ministry of Education), the IITs, and IGNOU.
It was inaugurated on 26 January 2003, specifically to broadcast high-quality technical lectures from the IITs to students nationwide.
While Gyan Darshan is a 24-hour educational TV channel and Gyan Vani is an educational FM radio network, Eklavya is specifically dedicated to technical and engineering education.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct channel is Eklavya.
Quick Tip: Associate "Eklavya" with "Technical Education" and "Gyan Darshan" with "General Higher Education" to distinguish between different educational broadcasting channels in India.
Which of the following documents is termed as Magna Carta of English Education in India?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Historical educational reforms under British rule laid the structural foundation of the formal education system in India.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In 1854, Sir Charles Wood, the President of the Board of Control of the East India Company, sent a despatch to Lord Dalhousie.
Known as Wood's Despatch, it suggested that primary schools must adopt vernacular languages, high schools must use Anglo-vernacular medium, and college-level education should be in English.
It is referred to as the "Magna Carta of English Education in India" because it was the first comprehensive plan to spread education throughout India, leading to the creation of the Department of Public Instruction in each province and the establishment of universities in Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct document is Charles Wood's Despatch.
Quick Tip: While Macaulay's Minutes (1835) introduced English, Wood's Despatch (1854) provided the first comprehensive "blueprint" for the entire system, hence the title "Magna Carta."
National Education Policy, 2020 aims to raise the Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in higher education to ______ by 2035.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) is a statistical measure used to determine the number of students enrolled in school or higher education at a specific level as a percentage of the population of the official age for that level.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 has set ambitious targets to transform the Indian education landscape.
The policy aims to increase the GER in higher education, including vocational education, from 26.3% (recorded in 2018) to 50% by the year 2035.
This goal is supported by the proposal to add 3.5 crore new seats to higher education institutions and implement flexible entry/exit options.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The target GER for higher education by 2035 is 50%.
Quick Tip: Note the distinction: NEP 2020 aims for 100% GER in School Education by 2030 and 50% GER in Higher Education by 2035.
In agricultural regions, groundwater can have a significant concentration of which pollutant?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Agricultural practices involve the use of various chemical inputs that can leach through the soil and contaminate underground water sources.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In farming regions, the intensive use of nitrogen-based fertilizers (such as urea) and manure from livestock is common.
Nitrogen in the soil is converted to nitrate (\(NO_3^-\)) through microbial action.
Nitrate is highly soluble in water and does not easily bind to soil particles; therefore, it percolates down with rainwater or irrigation into the groundwater.
Excessive nitrate in drinking water is hazardous, particularly for infants, as it can cause methemoglobinemia, also known as "Blue Baby Syndrome."
Step 3: Final Answer:
The significant pollutant found in agricultural groundwater is Nitrate.
Quick Tip: Remember: Fertilizers \(\rightarrow\) Nitrogen \(\rightarrow\) Nitrate Leaching \(\rightarrow\) Groundwater Pollution.
Goal 1 of Sustainable Development is ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were adopted by all UN Member States in 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The goals are prioritized based on fundamental human needs and global sustainability.
1. SDG 1: No Poverty - End poverty in all its forms everywhere.
2. SDG 2: Zero Hunger - End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition.
3. SDG 4: Quality Education - Ensure inclusive and equitable quality education.
4. SDG 6: Clean Water and Sanitation - Ensure availability and sustainable management of water.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Sustainable Development Goal 1 is "No Poverty".
Quick Tip: Try remembering the first three SDGs in order: 1. No Poverty \(\rightarrow\) 2. No Hunger \(\rightarrow\) 3. Good Health. This sequence represents the basic hierarchy of survival.
Which Country is hosting the \(18^{th}\) G20 Summit- 2023?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The G20 (Group of Twenty) is the premier forum for international economic cooperation, and the presidency rotates annually among member nations.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
India held the G20 Presidency from 1 December 2022 to 30 November 2023.
The \(18^{th}\) G20 Summit was hosted in New Delhi, India, on 9-10 September 2023 at the Bharat Mandapam International Exhibition-Convention Centre.
The theme of the Indian presidency was "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" (One Earth, One Family, One Future).
Step 3: Final Answer:
India is the host country for the \(18^{th}\) G20 Summit in 2023.
Quick Tip: Keep track of the "Troika" (Past, Present, and Future presidencies). For 2023, the Troika consisted of Indonesia, India, and Brazil.
What is the theme of the 'World Intellectual Property Day 2023'?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
World Intellectual Property Day is celebrated annually on April 26 to raise awareness of how patents, copyright, trademarks, and designs impact daily life and celebrate the contribution made by creators.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Every year, the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) designates a specific theme to highlight a particular facet of innovation.
For the year 2023, the theme was "Women and IP: Accelerating Innovation and Creativity."
The objective was to celebrate the "can-do" attitude of women inventors, creators, and entrepreneurs around the world and their groundbreaking work.
Option (A) was the theme for 2022.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct theme for 2023 is "Women and IP: Accelerating Innovation and Creativity."
Quick Tip: International days observed by UN organizations like WIPO are frequent topics in competitive exams; always check the specific theme for the current year.
The time of remembrance and reconciliation for those who lost their lives during the second world war is observed in which month?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The United Nations General Assembly established a period of remembrance to honor all victims of the Second World War.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
By resolution 59/26, the UN General Assembly declared 8–9 May as a time of remembrance and reconciliation.
While the UN acknowledges that Member States may have their own individual days of victory or liberation, it invites all to observe these two days as a tribute to those who perished.
This period coincides with the anniversary of the end of World War II in Europe (Victory in Europe Day).
Step 3: Final Answer:
The observance is held in the month of May.
Quick Tip: May 8th and 9th are significant because they mark the unconditional surrender of Nazi Germany in 1945.
Which sect of Buddhism does not believe in idol worship?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Buddhism evolved into several major sects with differing views on the nature of the Buddha and the methods of achieving enlightenment.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Hinayana (Lesser Vehicle) sect is characterized by its orthodox adherence to the original teachings of the Buddha.
Followers of Hinayana view the Buddha as a great human teacher who attained nirvana and do not regard him as a deity.
Consequently, they do not practice idol worship; instead, they represent the Buddha through symbols like an empty throne, the Bodhi tree, or footprints.
In contrast, the Mahayana (Greater Vehicle) sect deified the Buddha and introduced widespread idol worship.
Vajrayana also involves iconography. Digambara is a sect of Jainism.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Hinayana sect does not believe in idol worship.
Quick Tip: Remember: Hinayana = Symbolic/Orthodox; Mahayana = Idol/Deity focused.
Who among the following is the writer of Kavyadarsha and Dasakumaracharita?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Sanskrit literature during the classical period was marked by significant contributions to prose, drama, and literary criticism.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Dandin was a renowned \(6^{th}-7^{th}\) century Sanskrit author and grammarian.
His major works include:
1. Dasakumaracharita: A prose romance detailing the adventures of ten young men.
2. Kavyadarsha: A foundational work on poetics and literary theory.
Comparing other authors:
- Kalidasa is famous for \textit{Abhijnanashakuntalam and \textit{Meghaduta.
- Vishakhadatta wrote the political drama \textit{Mudrarakshasa.
- Bharavi is known for the epic \textit{Kiratarjuniya.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The author of Kavyadarsha and Dasakumaracharita is Dandin.
Quick Tip: Dandin, Subandhu, and Banabhatta are considered the "Grand Trio" of classical Sanskrit prose.
Indravati, Hydroelectric project belongs to which State?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Major river valley projects in India are crucial for irrigation and power generation, and they are typically associated with the states through which the rivers flow.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Upper Indravati Hydro-Electric Project is one of the largest multipurpose projects in India.
It is located in the Kalahandi district of Odisha.
The project involves the diversion of water from the Indravati River (a tributary of the Godavari) to the Mahanadi basin to generate electricity and provide irrigation to drought-prone areas.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The project belongs to the state of Odisha.
Quick Tip: The Indravati River starts in Odisha and flows through Chhattisgarh. Do not confuse it with Chhattisgarh just because the river flows there; the major power project is in Odisha.
The pilgrims of Kailash Manasarovar yatra go through which of the following Passes?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
High-altitude mountain passes in the Himalayas serve as traditional trade and pilgrimage routes between India and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Kailash Manasarovar Yatra is conducted through two main routes managed by the Ministry of External Affairs.
1. Lipulekh Pass: This is the most traditional and frequently used route, located in the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand.
2. Nathu La Pass: This alternative route is located in Sikkim.
Among the choices provided, Lipulekh Pass is the correct answer.
Niti Pass and Muling La are also in the Himalayan range but are not the standard routes for this specific yatra.
Jelep La is in Sikkim but is not used for the official Kailash yatra.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Pilgrims use the Lipulekh pass for the yatra.
Quick Tip: Lipulekh pass is located at the tri-junction of India, Nepal, and China.
Which State/Union Territory launched 'Mo Bus Service' which was recently recognized by the United Nations Public Service Awards?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The United Nations Public Service Awards recognize institutions that contribute to the effectiveness and responsiveness of public administration.
'Mo Bus' (My Bus) is a public transport initiative aimed at providing a modern, sustainable, and inclusive urban transit system.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The 'Mo Bus' service was launched by the Capital Region Urban Transport (CRUT), which is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) formed by the Government of Odisha.
The service operates primarily in the capital city, Bhubaneswar, and surrounding regions like Cuttack and Puri.
In 2022, it received the prestigious United Nations Public Service Award for its role in "promoting gender-responsive public services to achieve the SDGs."
The initiative was lauded for promoting gender equality by employing women as conductors and drivers and ensuring safety for female commuters.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The 'Mo Bus Service' was launched by the state of Odisha. Quick Tip: Terms starting with 'Mo' (meaning 'My' in Odia) such as Mo Sarkar, Mo Bus, and Mo School are generally flagship initiatives of the Odisha government.
SCALE App, which was launched recently provides skill-development solutions for _______ employees.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Government-led mobile applications often focus on sector-specific skill enhancement to boost productivity and provide certification for workers in the unorganized sector.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The SCALE App stands for Skill Certification Assessment for Leather Employees.
It was launched by the Leather Sector Skill Council (LSSC) during a visit to the Central Leather Research Institute (CLRI) in Chennai.
The app provides a one-stop solution for the learning, assessment, and certification needs of workers in the leather industry.
It helps in standardizing skills across various job roles like stitching, lasting, and finishing in the leather goods manufacturing process.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The SCALE App is designed for employees in the Leather sector. Quick Tip: The acronym itself helps you identify the sector: SCALE \(\rightarrow\) Skill Certification Assessment for \textbf{Leather} Employees.
Find the missing number in the following series: 3, 5, 13, 43, 177, ......?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In number series questions, we look for a mathematical pattern (addition, multiplication, squares, etc.) that relates each term to the next.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Analyze the growth of the numbers. Since the numbers increase rapidly, a pattern involving multiplication and addition is likely.
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Let's test the relationship between consecutive terms:
1st term to 2nd term: \( (3 \times 1) + 2 = 5 \)
2nd term to 3rd term: \( (5 \times 2) + 3 = 13 \)
3rd term to 4th term: \( (13 \times 3) + 4 = 43 \)
4th term to 5th term: \( (43 \times 4) + 5 = 172 + 5 = 177 \)
Following this logic, the pattern is:
\[ Current Term \times n + (n+1) = Next Term \]
where \( n \) starts from 1 and increases by 1 for each step.
For the missing number (\( n = 5 \)):
\[ 177 \times 5 + 6 = 885 + 6 = 891 \]
Step 4: Final Answer:
The missing number is 891. Quick Tip: If the differences between terms are increasing significantly, always check for patterns involving multiplication combined with a constant or increasing additive factor.
Find the missing letters in the following series: ELFT, GLHT, ILJT, ____, MLNT
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
For letter series, we examine the progression of each character position independently (1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th letters) to find consistent patterns.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Let's break down the 4-letter clusters:
1st Letter: E, G, I, ?, M
Numerical positions: 5, 7, 9, ?, 13.
Pattern: \( +2 \) jump. \( 9 + 2 = 11 \), which corresponds to K.
2nd Letter: L, L, L, ?, L
Pattern: Constant. The 2nd letter remains L.
3rd Letter: F, H, J, ?, N
Numerical positions: 6, 8, 10, ?, 14.
Pattern: \( +2 \) jump. \( 10 + 2 = 12 \), which corresponds to L.
4th Letter: T, T, T, ?, T
Pattern: Constant. The 4th letter remains T.
Combining these, we get: K L L T.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The missing cluster is KLLT. Quick Tip: Quickly writing down the numerical values of the alphabet (A=1, ..., Z=26) during the start of the exam helps solve these questions in seconds.
If 'EGHJKMKM' is coded as 'FILL' then how will you code 'EGDFDFKM'?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Coding-decoding questions require mapping the input string to the output string by identifying how the letters are grouped or transformed.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Observe the code for EGHJKMKM \(\rightarrow\) FILL:
The input has 8 letters, and the output has 4. This suggests that pairs of letters in the input represent one letter in the output.
Pair 1: EG \(\rightarrow\) The letter between E and G is F.
Pair 2: HJ \(\rightarrow\) The letter between H and J is I.
Pair 3: KM \(\rightarrow\) The letter between K and M is L.
Pair 4: KM \(\rightarrow\) The letter between K and M is L.
Resulting in FILL.
Now, apply this logic to EGDFDFKM:
Pair 1: EG \(\rightarrow\) Letter between E and G is F.
Pair 2: DF \(\rightarrow\) Letter between D and F is E.
Pair 3: DF \(\rightarrow\) Letter between D and F is E.
Pair 4: KM \(\rightarrow\) Letter between K and M is L.
The resulting code is FEEL.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The code for 'EGDFDFKM' is FEEL. Quick Tip: When the length of the code is half the length of the original word, look for properties like the middle letter of pairs or the sum of positions.
In a certain code, 15789 is written as XTZAL and 2346 is written as NPSU. How is 23549 written in that code?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a direct substitution code where each digit corresponds uniquely to a specific letter.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
From the given information, we extract the map:
1 \(\rightarrow\) X
5 \(\rightarrow\) T
7 \(\rightarrow\) Z
8 \(\rightarrow\) A
9 \(\rightarrow\) L
And from the second set:
2 \(\rightarrow\) N
3 \(\rightarrow\) P
4 \(\rightarrow\) S
6 \(\rightarrow\) U
Now, substitute the digits in 23549:
2 \(\rightarrow\) N
3 \(\rightarrow\) P
5 \(\rightarrow\) T
4 \(\rightarrow\) S
9 \(\rightarrow\) L
Combined: NPTSL.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The code for 23549 is NPTSL. Quick Tip: Check if the digits in the target number are present in the provided examples. If they are, it's a simple direct substitution case.
Taxonomy is related to classification in the same way as Pedology is related to?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is an analogy question based on the relationship between branches of science and their respective subjects of study.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Taxonomy is the branch of science specifically concerned with the classification of organisms.
Similarly, we need to find what Pedology studies.
Pedology is the branch of science that focuses on the study of soils in their natural environment. It deals with soil formation (pedogenesis), soil morphology, and soil classification.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Pedology is related to Soil. Quick Tip: Scientific study terminologies are common in exams. Remember:
Pedology = Soil
Ornithology = Birds
Entomology = Insects
If B is the only child of C's grandfather's only daughter, then how is C's father related to B?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Blood relation problems are best solved by breaking the statement into smaller segments and identifying the standard relationship for each.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Let's break down the relation "C's grandfather's only daughter":
1. C's grandfather \(\rightarrow\) The father of C's father.
2. Grandfather's only daughter \(\rightarrow\) The sister of C's father. This person is C's Paternal Aunt.
3. B is the only child of this Aunt \(\rightarrow\) B's mother is the sister of C's father.
Now, determine the relation of C's father to B:
- C's father is the brother of B's mother.
- A mother's brother is known as a Maternal Uncle.
Step 3: Final Answer:
C's father is B's Maternal uncle. Quick Tip: Drawing a quick family tree helps visualize generations and gender, making it easier to solve complex relations.
Kumar walked 5m towards the North, took a left turn and walked for 10m. He then took a right turn and walked for 20m, and again took a right turn and walked 10m. How far is he from the starting point and in which direction?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Direction sense questions track movement on a Cartesian plane (North/South = Y-axis, East/West = X-axis).
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Let the starting point be \( (0, 0) \).
1. Walk 5m North: New position is \( (0, 5) \).
2. Turn Left (facing West) and walk 10m: New position is \( (-10, 5) \).
3. Turn Right (now facing North again) and walk 20m: New position is \( (-10, 25) \).
4. Turn Right (now facing East) and walk 10m: New position is \( (0, 25) \).
Analyzing the final position \( (0, 25) \) relative to the start \( (0, 0) \):
- The distance is along the y-axis: \( 25 - 0 = 25m \).
- Since the y-coordinate is positive and the x-coordinate is 0, the direction is due North.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Kumar is 25m North from the starting point. Quick Tip: Notice that the two 10m horizontal walks (one left, one right) cancel each other out, leaving only the vertical (North) movement to be summed up: \( 5m + 20m = 25m \).
A reasoning where we start with a particular statement and conclude with a universal statement is called a _______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Logic and reasoning are categorized based on the flow of the argument—either moving from the general to the specific or from the specific to the general.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Inductive Reasoning involves taking specific observations (particular statements) and using them to make broader generalizations or theories (universal statements). For example, "Every swan I have seen is white, therefore all swans are white."
Deductive Reasoning is the opposite: it starts with a universal premise and concludes with a specific instance. For example, "All men are mortal; Socrates is a man; therefore Socrates is mortal."
Step 3: Final Answer:
Reasoning from particular to universal is Inductive reasoning. Quick Tip: Remember the acronyms:
\textbf{P-U-I}: \textbf{P}articular to \textbf{U}niversal is \textbf{I}nductive.
\textbf{G-S-D}: \textbf{G}eneral to \textbf{S}pecific is \textbf{D}eductive.
If the minutes and seconds' hand of a clock are 25 minutes apart. What will be the angle formed between them?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The face of a clock is a circle of \( 360^\circ \), which is divided into 60 minutes. We can determine the angle per minute and then multiply it by the given duration.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ Angle for 60 minutes = 360^\circ \]
\[ Angle for 1 minute = \frac{360^\circ}{60} = 6^\circ \]
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The question states that the hands are 25 minutes apart.
Since 1 minute of space on the clock dial corresponds to \( 6^\circ \), the angle for 25 minutes of space is:
\[ 25 \times 6^\circ = 150^\circ \]
Step 4: Final Answer:
The angle formed between them is \( 150^\circ \). Quick Tip: Every 5-minute gap on a clock dial represents \( 30^\circ \). So, \( 25 minutes = 5 \times 30^\circ = 150^\circ \).
A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B; C is sitting next to D, and D is not sitting with E who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and E. A and C are sitting together. In which position is A sitting?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Seating arrangement problems require placing individuals in fixed spots based on the constraints provided until a unique order is established.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
There are 5 seats. Let's number them 1 to 5 from left to right.
1. Constraint 1: E is at the left end. So, E is at Position 1.
2. Constraint 2: C is second from the right. So, C is at Position 4.
3. Constraint 3: A and C are sitting together. Since C is at 4, A must be at 3 or 5.
4. Constraint 4: A is sitting next to B. If A is at 3, B could be at 2. If A is at 5, B could be at 4 (but C is already at 4). So A is at Position 3 and B is at Position 2.
5. Constraint 5: C is sitting next to D. Since C is at 4 and position 3 is occupied by A, D must be at Position 5.
Let's check the remaining constraints:
- D not sitting with E: D is at 5, E is at 1. Correct.
- A to the right of B and E: 3 is right of 2 and 1. Correct.
Final Arrangement: E (1), B (2), A (3), C (4), D (5).
Looking at the position of A (Position 3): it is between B (Position 2) and C (Position 4).
Step 3: Final Answer:
A is sitting between B and C. Quick Tip: Always start with the "fixed" positions (like left end or second from right) to anchor your diagram before processing relative positions like "next to".
The cost price of 100 pencils is equal to the selling price of 60 pencils. The gain percentage or loss percentage is ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This problem is based on the relationship between Cost Price (CP) and Selling Price (SP).
When the quantity of items for CP and SP are given, we can find the ratio of SP to CP to determine the profit or loss percentage.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Let the Cost Price of 1 pencil be \( CP \) and the Selling Price of 1 pencil be \( SP \).
According to the question:
\[ 100 \times CP = 60 \times SP \]
The formula for gain percentage is:
\[ Gain % = \left( \frac{SP - CP}{CP} \right) \times 100 \]
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
From the given condition:
\[ \frac{SP}{CP} = \frac{100}{60} = \frac{5}{3} \]
This implies that for every 3 units of investment (CP), the return (SP) is 5 units.
Since \( SP > CP \), there is a gain.
\[ Gain = SP - CP = 5 - 3 = 2 units \]
Now, calculate the gain percentage:
\[ Gain % = \left( \frac{2}{3} \right) \times 100 \]
\[ Gain % = \frac{200}{3} = 66\frac{2}{3}% \]
Step 4: Final Answer:
The gain percentage is \( 66.2/3% \).
Quick Tip: In such questions, simply swap the values: the number with SP becomes the CP and the number with CP becomes the SP.
Here, \( CP = 60 \) and \( SP = 100 \).
Gain = 40. Gain % = \( (40/60) \times 100 = 66.66% \).
The product of two numbers is 9375 and the quotient, when the larger one is divided by the smaller, is 15. The sum of the numbers is ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This problem involves two variables representing two numbers. We are given their product and the ratio (quotient) when one is divided by the other.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Let the larger number be \( x \) and the smaller number be \( y \).
The given conditions are:
1) \( x \times y = 9375 \)
2) \( \frac{x}{y} = 15 \implies x = 15y \)
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Substitute the value of \( x \) from the second equation into the first equation:
\[ (15y) \times y = 9375 \]
\[ 15y^2 = 9375 \]
Divide both sides by 15:
\[ y^2 = \frac{9375}{15} = 625 \]
Taking the square root of both sides:
\[ y = \sqrt{625} = 25 \]
Now, find the value of \( x \):
\[ x = 15 \times y = 15 \times 25 = 375 \]
Finally, find the sum of the numbers:
\[ Sum = x + y = 375 + 25 = 400 \]
Step 4: Final Answer:
The sum of the numbers is 400.
Quick Tip: To find the smaller number directly in such cases, use the formula:
\( y = \sqrt{\frac{Product}{Quotient}} \).
\( y = \sqrt{9375/15} = \sqrt{625} = 25 \).
Then \( x = 25 \times 15 = 375 \). Sum = 400.
If it is Sunday today, then what will be the day after 60 days?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Calendar problems are solved using the concept of 'odd days'. A week repeats every 7 days, so we find the remainder when the total number of days is divided by 7.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\[ Number of odd days = Total days \pmod 7 \]
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
The given number of days is 60.
Divide 60 by 7 to find the remainder:
\[ 60 = (7 \times 8) + 4 \]
The remainder is 4, which means there are 4 odd days.
Since today is Sunday, we count 4 days ahead from Sunday:
1st day \(\rightarrow\) Monday
2nd day \(\rightarrow\) Tuesday
3rd day \(\rightarrow\) Wednesday
4th day \(\rightarrow\) Thursday
Step 4: Final Answer:
The day after 60 days will be Thursday.
Quick Tip: Always remember: \( 7, 14, 21, \dots, 56 \) days later will be the same day (Sunday).
So, 60 days is just \( 56 + 4 \) days. Sunday + 4 days = Thursday.
A, B, C and D are four consecutive odd numbers and their average is 42. What is the product of B and D?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Consecutive odd numbers differ by 2. For an even number of consecutive terms, the average lies exactly at the center of the series.
Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
Let the four consecutive odd numbers be \( x, x+2, x+4, and x+6 \).
Average = \( \frac{Sum of terms}{Number of terms} \)
Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
Given, Average = 42.
For four consecutive odd numbers, the average lies between the middle two numbers (B and C).
So, the numbers are centered around 42.
The two odd numbers immediately surrounding 42 are 41 and 43.
Therefore:
B = 41
C = 43
Since they are consecutive odd numbers:
A = 39 (which is \( 41 - 2 \))
D = 45 (which is \( 43 + 2 \))
The sequence is 39, 41, 43, 45.
We need to find the product of B and D:
\[ Product = B \times D = 41 \times 45 \]
\[ Product = 41 \times (40 + 5) = 1640 + 205 = 1845 \]
Step 4: Final Answer:
The product of B and D is 1845.
Quick Tip: For consecutive numbers, Average = Middle Value.
Since 42 is the average of 4 numbers, the numbers are \( (42-3), (42-1), (42+1), (42+3) \), which are 39, 41, 43, 45.
Product \( 41 \times 45 = (43-2)(43+2) = 43^2 - 4 = 1849 - 4 = 1845 \).
Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched 100-day reading campaign called ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The campaign is part of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the NIPUN Bharat mission, focusing on foundational literacy and numeracy.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan launched the 100-day reading campaign titled 'Padhe Bharat' on January 1, 2022.
The campaign aims to improve the learning levels of students from Balvatika to Grade 8 by encouraging them to read books other than their textbooks.
It emphasizes the joy of reading and encourages the involvement of schools, teachers, parents, and the community to foster a reading culture.
The 100-day timeline (14 weeks) was designed to provide ample time for students to develop a sustainable reading habit.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The 100-day reading campaign is called Padhe Bharat.
Quick Tip: Remember that "Padhe Bharat" focuses on "Foundational Literacy," which is a core pillar of NEP 2020.
Who has become the Prime Minister of Fiji in December 2022?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question pertains to international current affairs and leadership changes in the year 2022.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In December 2022, Sitiveni Rabuka was elected as the Prime Minister of Fiji, heading a three-party coalition government.
He succeeded Frank Bainimarama, who had held power for 16 years.
For context, the other options are leaders of different nations:
- Rishi Sunak is the former Prime Minister of the UK.
- Fumio Kishida is the former Prime Minister of Japan.
- Pedro Sánchez is the Prime Minister of Spain.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Sitiveni Rabuka became the Prime Minister of Fiji in December 2022.
Quick Tip: Fiji is an important Pacific island nation with a significant Indian diaspora; keeping track of its leadership is useful for exams involving international relations.
Which Bollywood actress has been named PETA India's 2022 Person of the Year?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
PETA (People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals) India honors individuals who have made significant contributions to animal welfare and rights.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Bollywood actress Sonakshi Sinha was named PETA India's 2022 Person of the Year.
She was awarded for her strong advocacy against the use of leather in the fashion industry and for encouraging the use of vegan materials.
She had also appeared in a PETA campaign advocating for the protection of animals killed for their skin.
Previous recipients of this title include Alia Bhatt, John Abraham, and Virat Kohli.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Sonakshi Sinha was named PETA India's 2022 Person of the Year.
Quick Tip: Awards given to celebrities for social causes (like animal rights or environment) are frequently asked in the Current Affairs section of competitive exams.
The World Day of Social Justice is observed on ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This day is designated by the United Nations to promote international efforts toward poverty eradication, gender equality, and access to justice.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The World Day of Social Justice is observed every year on 20th February.
It was established by the UN General Assembly in 2007 to recognize that social development and social justice are indispensable for the achievement and maintenance of peace and security within and among nations.
The day aims to raise awareness about various social issues like unemployment, social exclusion, and poverty.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct date is 20th February.
Quick Tip: A useful mnemonic: February is often associated with themes of "unity" and "heart" (Valentine's Day), and shortly after, we focus on "Justice for all" on the 20th.
Who won the 2022 Booker Prize for "The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida"?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Booker Prize is one of the most prestigious literary awards in the world, given annually for the best novel written in English and published in the UK or Ireland.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Sri Lankan author Shehan Karunatilaka won the 2022 Booker Prize for his second novel, "The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida".
The book is a supernatural satire set during the Sri Lankan Civil War, revolving around a war photographer who wakes up dead and has seven moons to solve his own murder.
He became the second Sri Lankan author to win the prize, following Michael Ondaatje.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Shehan Karunatilaka won the 2022 Booker Prize.
Quick Tip: Note that the "International Booker Prize" is different from the "Booker Prize". The former is for books translated into English, while the latter is for original English works.
Who became the first Indian woman to clock sub-13 seconds in the 100m hurdles?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question focuses on significant milestones in Indian athletics and sports history.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Jyothi Yarraji made history in 2022 by becoming the first Indian woman to clock a sub-13 second time in the 100m hurdles.
She achieved this feat at the National Open Athletics Championships in Bengaluru, recording a time of 12.82 seconds.
She broke her own national record multiple times throughout the year.
The other names in the options are international athletes: Nia Ali and Kendra Harrison are world-class American hurdlers.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The athlete is Jyothi Yarraji.
Quick Tip: For sports-related GK, always keep an eye on "First Indian woman/man" records in athletics, as they are high-priority questions.
Which State will host the 37th edition of the National Games in 2023?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The National Games of India are a multi-sport event held between athletes from across the country, organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA).
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) confirmed that Goa would host the 37th edition of the National Games in October 2023.
Goa had originally been scheduled to host the Games in 2016 and then 2020, but the event was delayed multiple times due to various factors, including the pandemic.
The 36th edition was held in Gujarat in 2022.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Goa hosted the 37th National Games in 2023.
Quick Tip: Keep track of the "Next Host" sequence. For National Games: Gujarat (36th) \(\rightarrow\) Goa (37th) \(\rightarrow\) Uttarakhand (38th).
Which country passed a law on 13th December, 2022 banning cigarettes for future generations in the country?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This refers to landmark global public health legislation aimed at creating a smoke-free environment.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
On 13th December 2022, New Zealand passed a historic law banning cigarettes for anyone born on or after January 1, 2009.
The law, officially known as the Smokefree Environments and Regulated Products (Smokefree Environments) Amendment Bill, effectively meant that the minimum age for buying cigarettes would keep rising every year.
It was part of the country's goal to become smoke-free by 2025.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The country is New Zealand.
Quick Tip: Note: While the law was passed in 2022, a new government in New Zealand later proposed to repeal this legislation to fund tax cuts. However, as per the date in the question, the answer remains New Zealand.
Who was elected as the first woman president of the Indian Olympic Association?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Indian Olympic Association (IOA) is the body responsible for selecting athletes to represent India at the Olympic Games and other international athletic meets.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Legendary sprinter P.T. Usha was elected unopposed as the first woman president of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) in December 2022.
She is popularly known as the "Payyoli Express" and is one of India's most iconic Olympians.
This election marked a significant shift, as she also became the first Olympian and the first international medalist to lead the IOA.
Step 3: Final Answer:
P.T. Usha is the first woman president of the IOA.
Quick Tip: P.T. Usha's appointment is a triple first: First woman, first Olympian, and first international medalist to become IOA president.
Prasar Bharti signed an MoU with which institution to develop next-generation broadcast solution?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This relates to technological advancements in broadcasting, specifically Direct-to-Mobile (D2M) broadcasting.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Prasar Bharati (India's public broadcaster) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with IIT Kanpur to develop Next-Gen Broadcast solutions.
The focus of this collaboration is to develop and test "Direct-to-Mobile" (D2M) broadcasting technology, which allows consumers to watch live TV on their smartphones without an active internet connection or a SIM card.
It uses terrestrial towers to send TV signals directly to mobile devices.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The institution is IIT Kanpur.
Quick Tip: IIT Kanpur is at the forefront of D2M (Direct-to-Mobile) technology research in India.
The Chandigarh International Airport has been renamed recently. What is the new name?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The renaming of public infrastructure is often done to honor historical figures and national heroes.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Chandigarh International Airport was officially renamed as Shaheed Bhagat Singh Airport in September 2022.
The announcement was made by Prime Minister Narendra Modi as a tribute to the revolutionary freedom fighter on his birth anniversary.
The decision was reached after an agreement between the governments of Punjab and Haryana, both of which have a stake in the airport.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The new name is Shaheed Bhagat Singh Airport.
Quick Tip: Chandigarh is a Union Territory that serves as the shared capital of Punjab and Haryana; thus, the name honors a hero revered in both states.
Which National Park was selected to reintroduce Cheetahs in India?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The "Project Cheetah" is the world's first intercontinental large wild carnivore translocation project.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh was selected for the reintroduction of Cheetahs in India.
In September 2022, eight Cheetahs from Namibia were released into the park by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
Cheetahs had been declared extinct in India in 1952.
Kuno was chosen due to its favorable habitat, climate, and prey base, which are similar to the African savannas.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Kuno National Park is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember the location: Kuno National Park is situated in the Sheopur and Morena districts of Madhya Pradesh.
Who became the first Indian female wrestler to win two medals at the World Championship?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The World Wrestling Championships is an international competition organized by United World Wrestling.
This question identifies a significant milestone in Indian women's athletics regarding multiple podium finishes at this global event.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Vinesh Phogat became the first Indian woman wrestler to win two medals at the World Championships.
She won her first bronze medal in the 53 kg category at the 2019 World Championships held in Nur-Sultan, Kazakhstan.
She secured her second bronze medal in the same 53 kg category at the 2022 World Championships held in Belgrade, Serbia.
The Phogat sisters (including Geeta and Babita) have historically been pioneers in Indian wrestling, but Vinesh holds the distinction for this specific achievement of two World Championship medals.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct athlete is Vinesh Phogat.
Quick Tip: For sports awards and records, always note the year and location of the achievement, as these are often used as sub-questions in competitive exams.
Which Country hosted the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit 2022?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organization that hosts annual summits for the Heads of State of its member nations to discuss security, economy, and culture.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The \(22^{nd}\) Meeting of the Council of Heads of State of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) was held in 2022.
The summit took place in Samarkand, Uzbekistan on September 15-16, 2022.
This summit was particularly significant as it was the first in-person summit of the SCO since the COVID-19 pandemic began.
During this summit, India took over the rotating presidency of the SCO for the following year (2023).
Step 3: Final Answer:
Uzbekistan hosted the 2022 SCO summit.
Quick Tip: Keep track of rotating presidencies for major international bodies like G20, BRICS, and SCO, as the host country changes annually.
How many drugs are included in the 'National List of Essential Medicines?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) is a list released by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Essential medicines are those that satisfy the priority healthcare needs of the population and are intended to be available at all times in adequate amounts and at affordable prices.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Union Health Ministry released the National List of Essential Medicines (NLEM) 2022 in September 2022.
The updated list contains a total of 384 medicines.
In this update, 34 new drugs were added to the list, while 26 drugs from the previous list (2015) were deleted.
The medicines are categorized across 27 therapeutic categories, including anti-infectives, diabetes medications, and anti-cancer drugs.
Being on this list means these drugs are subject to price capping by the National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA).
Step 3: Final Answer:
There are 384 drugs in the current NLEM.
Quick Tip: NLEM is revised periodically to reflect changing public health priorities and new pharmaceutical developments.
Which city is to house the 'Vulture Gene Bank', for conservation of the critically-endangered species?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A Gene Bank is a type of biorepository which preserves genetic material.
Conservation efforts for critically endangered species like vultures often include ex-situ conservation methods like captive breeding and genetic preservation.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Karnataka Forest Department decided to set up a 'Vulture Gene Bank' at the Bannerghatta Biological Park (BBP).
Bannerghatta Biological Park is located in Bengaluru.
The facility focuses on the conservation of the long-billed vulture and the white-backed vulture, both of which have seen massive population declines in India.
The project aims to breed these vultures in captivity and preserve their genetic diversity to eventually reintroduce them into the wild.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Vulture Gene Bank is located in Bengaluru.
Quick Tip: Vulture populations in India declined largely due to the use of 'Diclofenac', a veterinary drug that causes kidney failure in vultures eating carcasses of treated cattle.
A 419-million-year-old Chinese Fossil recently proved the evolution of the Human Middle Ear from which creature?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Evolutionary biology uses fossil evidence to trace the development of complex physiological structures across millions of years.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
A study of 419-million-year-old fossils of a primitive fish named 'Shuyu' found in China provided critical evidence.
Researchers from the Institute of Vertebrate Paleontology and Paleoanthropology (IVPP) of the Chinese Academy of Sciences found that the human middle ear evolved from fish gills.
Specifically, the 'spiracle' in early fish (a hole behind the eye used for breathing) is the evolutionary precursor to the human ear canal and middle ear cavity.
This discovery bridges a significant gap in our understanding of how aquatic structures transitioned into terrestrial sensory organs.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The fossil proved evolution from Fish.
Quick Tip: Scientific discoveries like these often find their way into general awareness sections of exams; focus on the primary organism mentioned.
Khumbu Glacier, which was recently making news, is located at ___?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Khumbu Glacier is one of the most famous and highest glaciers in the world, closely associated with the ascent of Mount Everest.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Khumbu Glacier is located in the Khumbu region of northeastern Nepal.
It is situated between Mount Everest and the Lhotse-Nuptse ridge.
It recently made news due to climate change studies showing that it is thinning and retreating at an alarming rate.
The glacier is home to the famous 'Khumbu Icefall', which is one of the most dangerous stages on the South Col route to Everest's summit.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The glacier is located in Nepal.
Quick Tip: Nepal houses most of the world's highest peaks and their associated glaciers, making it a hotspot for glaciology and climate change research.
‘Euoplos dignitas’, which was seen in the news, belongs to which species?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
New biological discoveries are often named after their unique characteristics or locations. This question tests knowledge of recent taxonomic discoveries.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
'Euoplos dignitas' is a rare and giant species of trapdoor spider.
It was discovered in the semi-arid woodlands of the Brigalow Belt in central Queensland, Australia.
The name 'dignitas' is derived from Latin, meaning dignity or greatness, reflecting the impressive size of the spider.
The species lives in open woodland habitats and builds its burrows in the black soil of the region.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct species is Spider.
Quick Tip: When you see scientific names ending in "os" or similar suffixes, they often refer to invertebrates or small reptiles; 'Euoplos' specifically refers to a genus of spiders.
Who is the new President of the ‘Financial Action Task Force’ (FATF)?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an international organization that sets global standards to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In July 2022, T. Raja Kumar from Singapore took over as the President of the FATF.
He succeeded Marcus Pleyer of Germany.
He is the first person from Singapore to hold this position.
The FATF President is a senior official from a member country, and the term typically lasts for two years.
The other names listed (Urjit Patel, Viral Acharya) are associated with the Reserve Bank of India.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The new President is T. Raja Kumar.
Quick Tip: The FATF is headquartered in Paris at the OECD headquarters. It is best known for its "Grey List" and "Black List" for monitoring countries with weak anti-money laundering frameworks.
‘Experience Studio on Drones’, has been launched at which institution?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Promotion of drone technology in India is part of the 'Atmanirbhar Bharat' initiative, aimed at making India a global drone hub by 2030.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
An 'Experience Studio on Drones' was launched at NITI Aayog (New Delhi).
It was inaugurated by Union Minister Civil Aviation Jyotiraditya Scindia in May 2022.
The studio aims to foster innovation and adoption of drone technology across various sectors such as agriculture, health, and infrastructure.
It serves as a platform for drone startups and government departments to collaborate and showcase real-world applications of Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs).
Step 3: Final Answer:
The institution is NITI Aayog.
Quick Tip: NITI Aayog acts as the premier policy think tank of the Indian Government and often launches such "experience" or "incubation" studios to promote emerging technologies.
Which institution has developed an indigenous vaccine for Lumpy Skin Disease in cattle?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD) is a viral disease in cattle that causes fever and nodules on the skin. Outbreaks in India led to high mortality rates and economic losses in the dairy sector.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The indigenous vaccine for Lumpy Skin Disease, named Lumpi-ProVacInd, was developed by two institutes under the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).
The National Research Centre on Equines (NRCE) in Hisar, Haryana, and the Indian Veterinary Research Institute (IVRI) in Izatnagar, Uttar Pradesh, collaborated on this project.
The vaccine is a homologous live-attenuated LSD virus vaccine, providing effective protection against the Capripoxvirus that causes the disease.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The vaccine was developed by ICAR.
Quick Tip: ICAR is the apex body for coordinating, guiding, and managing research and education in agriculture including horticulture, fisheries and animal sciences in India.
Which social media platform company has announced a new facility named ‘Circles’?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Tech companies frequently introduce features to allow users more control over their privacy and the audience for their shared content.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Twitter (now known as X) announced and launched a feature named 'Twitter Circles' in 2022.
This feature allows users to send tweets to a smaller group of up to 150 people instead of everyone on the platform.
It is similar to Instagram's 'Close Friends' feature, enabling more private conversations within a larger public profile.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The platform is Twitter.
Quick Tip: Note that many features like 'Circles' or 'Fleets' were experimented with during Twitter's transition periods. Always check for current platform rebrands (like Twitter to X).
Which Indian institution along with NASA has studied the interactions between microbes in the International Space Station (ISS)?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Space biology research investigates how organisms adapt to microgravity and the unique environment of orbiting space stations.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Researchers from IIT Madras and NASA's Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) collaborated on a study involving microbes found on the International Space Station.
The study focused on a multidrug-resistant bacterium called \textit{Enterobacter bugandensis.
They analyzed the interactions between this bacterium and other microbes in the ISS environment, identifying how they evolve and persist in space compared to Earth.
This research is vital for the health and safety of astronauts on long-duration space missions.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The institution is IIT Madras.
Quick Tip: Collaborations between Indian premier institutes (IITs/IISc) and global bodies like NASA are high-priority topics for Science & Tech GK.
During the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny, who among the following was the Governor General of India?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Revolt of 1857 was a major uprising in India against the rule of the British East India Company. Identifying the key British administrative head during this period is fundamental to Indian history.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Lord Canning was the Governor-General of India during the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny.
He served as Governor-General from 1856 to 1862.
Following the suppression of the revolt, the Government of India Act 1858 was passed, which transferred the power from the East India Company to the British Crown.
Under this act, Lord Canning also became the first Viceroy of India.
Lord Dalhousie (Option 2) preceded him and is known for the 'Doctrine of Lapse', which was one of the underlying causes of the mutiny.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Lord Canning was the Governor-General during the mutiny.
Quick Tip: A common confusion: Dalhousie's policies caused the spark, but Canning had to face the actual fire of the Mutiny.
‘VAIBHAV Fellowship Scheme’ which was launched recently, is associated with which field?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The VAIBHAV scheme stands for Vaishwik Bhartiya Vaigyanik.
It is a fellowship program launched by the Government of India to foster collaboration between the Indian diaspora and Indian academic and research institutions.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The VAIBHAV Fellowship is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Ministry of Science and Technology.
It is specifically designed for outstanding scientists and technologists of Indian origin (NRI, OCI, or PIO) who are engaged in research activities in their respective countries.
The primary objective is to improve the research ecosystem of India’s Higher Educational and Scientific Institutions by facilitating the transfer of knowledge and expertise from abroad.
Fellows are expected to collaborate with Indian institutes for a certain period each year to undertake joint research projects in cutting-edge areas of science and technology.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The VAIBHAV Fellowship Scheme is associated with the field of Research.
Quick Tip: Remember the full form: Vaishwik Bhartiya \textbf{Vaigyanik} (Global Indian \textbf{Scientists}).
The keyword "Vaigyanik" directly points towards Science and Research.
What is the name of the form of artificial intelligence that can take actions using past data?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Artificial Intelligence is categorized into various types based on its capabilities and functionality.
The most prominent modern form that utilizes vast amounts of historical (past) data to generate new content or take specific informed actions is Generative AI.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Generative AI refers to models that can use existing data (past data) to learn patterns and then generate new, similar data or provide outputs like text, images, and code.
While technical classifications sometimes refer to "Limited Memory AI" as the type that stores past data to inform future decisions (like in self-driving cars), in general competitive exam contexts, Generative AI is the standard term for systems that synthesize past information into new actions or creations.
Options like Reformative, Memory, and Storage AI are not standard technical categories used in this specific context.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The form of AI is Generative AI.
Quick Tip: Generative AI is currently a high-priority topic in exams.
Think of examples like ChatGPT or DALL-E, which use huge datasets from the past to generate "actions" in the form of responses.
Who has been appointed as the new Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog in April 2022?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India.
The Vice Chairperson is the operational head of the organization, appointed by the Prime Minister.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In April 2022, the Government of India appointed renowned economist Suman K Bery as the Vice Chairperson of NITI Aayog.
He took over the charge from Dr. Rajiv Kumar, who resigned from the post.
Suman Bery has previously served as the Director-General of the National Council of Applied Economic Research (NCAER) and was a member of the Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council.
The structure of NITI Aayog includes the Prime Minister as Chairperson, followed by the Vice Chairperson, and then the CEO.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Suman K Bery was appointed as the Vice Chairperson.
Quick Tip: Always update your knowledge on NITI Aayog leadership.
Current Chairperson: Narendra Modi (Prime Minister).
Current CEO: B.V.R. Subrahmanyam (as of recent updates).
Which institution announces the ‘Class of Young Global Leaders’ (YGLs)?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Young Global Leaders (YGL) is a non-profit foundation and a community of high-achieving individuals under the age of 40 from various sectors.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The "Class of Young Global Leaders" is an annual list announced by the World Economic Forum (WEF).
The forum selects individuals who have demonstrated leadership, professional accomplishments, and a commitment to society.
The community includes entrepreneurs, activists, artists, and political leaders who participate in a five-year program to help them contribute to a more sustainable and inclusive world.
Notable Indians who have been part of this class in various years include athletes, startup founders, and politicians.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The institution is the World Economic Forum.
Quick Tip: The World Economic Forum (WEF) is also famous for its annual meeting in Davos, Switzerland.
It publishes various indices like the Global Gender Gap Report and Global Competitiveness Report.
Vaikom Muhammed Basheer was a famous writer in which language?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Regional literature in India features iconic writers who have shaped the cultural identity of their states.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Vaikom Muhammed Basheer was a legendary writer and freedom fighter from Kerala.
He wrote exclusively in the Malayalam language.
Fondly known as "Beypore Sultan," his works are celebrated for their simplicity, humor, and deep humanism.
Some of his most famous works include \textit{Balyakalasakhi (Childhood Companion), \textit{Shabdangal (Voices), \textit{Pathummayude Aadu (Pathumma's Goat), and \textit{Mathilukal (Walls).
He was a recipient of the Padma Shri and the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Vaikom Muhammed Basheer was a Malayalam writer.
Quick Tip: If you see the name "Vaikom," it is a famous town in the Kottayam district of Kerala, which helps link the author to the Malayalam language.
The Indian Constitution has borrowed the idea of Suspension of Fundamental Rights during an Emergency from the Constitution of which Country?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Indian Constitution is often described as a "bag of borrowings" as it incorporates several features from the constitutions of various other countries.
The provision relating to the suspension of Fundamental Rights during an emergency is one such feature.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The idea of the suspension of Fundamental Rights during an Emergency was borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany.
Under Article 359 of the Indian Constitution, the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
However, after the \(44^{th}\) Amendment Act (1978), the enforcement of rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during an emergency.
Other borrowings include Directive Principles from Ireland, Parliamentary form of government from Britain, and Fundamental Duties from the USSR.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The idea was borrowed from Germany.
Quick Tip: Mnemonic: During an emergency, "Germs" (Germany) attack our rights, so they are suspended.
Remember: Articles 20 and 21 are the only rights that can NEVER be suspended.
A candidate for office of the President of India must be proposed and seconded by ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
To prevent non-serious candidates from contesting the highest office in the country, the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952 (amended in 1997) sets specific requirements for nomination.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The nomination of a candidate for the election to the office of the President must be subscribed by at least 50 electors as proposers and 50 electors as seconders.
Electors here refer to the members of the Electoral College (elected members of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies).
Additionally, every candidate must make a security deposit of \( Rs. 15,000 \) in the Reserve Bank of India.
The security deposit is forfeited if the candidate fails to secure \( 1/6^{th} \) of the votes polled.
Before 1997, the number of proposers and seconders required was 10 each.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The candidate must be proposed by 50 and seconded by 50 electors.
Quick Tip: For the Vice-President, the requirement is lower: at least 20 proposers and 20 seconders.
President = 50 + 50; Vice-President = 20 + 20.
Which one of the following combinations is correct?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question tests the knowledge of significant historical personalities and the specific roles they played during the formation of the Indian Republic.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Let's analyze each combination:
1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: He was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, not the President of the Constituent Assembly.
2. G.V. Mavalankar: Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar served as the First Speaker of the Lok Sabha (1952–1956). This is the correct combination.
3. Dr. Rajendra Prasad: He was the President of the Constituent Assembly and later the first President of India. He was not the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
4. Dr. Sachidananda Sinha: He was the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly. The first recognized Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha was Ram Subhag Singh (1969).
Step 3: Final Answer:
Option (B) is the only correctly matched pair.
Quick Tip: Remember the "Drafting Duo": Ambedkar drafted the law (Chairman Drafting Committee), and Prasad presided over the assembly (President of Constituent Assembly).
Cheating a person with the help of computer resources is punished with ________ imprisonment under the Information Technology Act, of 2000.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Information Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act) provides a legal framework for electronic governance and sets out punishments for various cybercrimes in India.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
According to Section 66D of the Information Technology Act, 2000:
"Whoever, by means of any communication device or computer resource cheats by personation, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years and shall also be liable to fine which may extend to one lakh rupees."
This section specifically addresses "punishment for cheating by personation by using computer resource."
Other sections like 66C (identity theft) also carry a similar punishment of up to 3 years.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The punishment is up to 3 years of imprisonment.
Quick Tip: Most non-violent "intermediate" cybercrimes in the IT Act (like hacking under Sec 66, identity theft, or cheating by personation) carry a maximum sentence of 3 years.
The golden triangle in the Indian Constitution consists of ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The "Golden Triangle" is a judicial concept referring to three specific Articles of the Indian Constitution that are considered fundamental to the protection of individual liberty and democratic values.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Golden Triangle comprises:
1. Article 14: Right to Equality.
2. Article 19: Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.
3. Article 21: Protection of life and personal liberty.
The Supreme Court, in cases like \textit{Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, held that these three articles are interconnected.
Any law that deprives a person of their liberty must satisfy the test of being "reasonable, just, and fair," which effectively means it must not violate the combined spirit of Articles 14, 19, and 21.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Golden Triangle consists of Articles 14, 19, and 21.
Quick Tip: Think of it as the "Trinity" of the Constitution. If one part of the triangle is missing, the individual's protection from arbitrary state action collapses.
The reservation for Economically Weaker Sections provided under the Indian Constitution is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) was introduced to provide economic-based affirmative action in India.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The \(103^{rd}\) Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, introduced 10% reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) among the non-reserved (General) category.
This amendment inserted Article 15(6) and Article 16(6) into the Constitution.
It allows the State to make special provisions for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens, including reservation in educational institutions and government jobs.
This 10% is over and above the existing 49.5% reservation for SC, ST, and OBC.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The EWS reservation is 10%.
Quick Tip: Remember: 103rd Amendment = 10% EWS Reservation. The validity of this reservation was upheld by the Supreme Court in the Janhit Abhiyan case (2022).
Article 19(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of speech and expression to ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Constitution distinguishes between Fundamental Rights available to everyone (including foreigners) and those available exclusively to Indian citizens.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Article 19(1)(a) states that "All citizens shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression."
Fundamental Rights exclusive to citizens include Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30.
Rights available to everyone (citizens + foreigners) include Articles 14, 20, 21, 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, and 28.
Therefore, a foreigner cannot claim the right to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 in India.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Freedom of speech is guaranteed to all citizens of India.
Quick Tip: Mnemonic for rights ONLY for Citizens: "15, 16, 19, 29, 30".
Foreigners cannot speak (19) or work (16) in India by right!
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court of India decided that reservations should not exceed 50%?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Supreme Court has set limits on affirmative action to balance the right to equality with the need for social justice.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In the landmark Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (1992) case, also known as the Mandal Commission case, a 9-judge bench established several rules regarding reservation:
1. Total reservations should not exceed 50% of the total seats/posts except in extraordinary situations.
2. The concept of "creamy layer" was introduced to exclude the advanced members of OBCs from the benefits of reservation.
3. Reservation should be confined to initial appointments and not in promotions.
4. Caste can be a criterion for backwardness but cannot be the sole criterion.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The 50% limit was decided in the Indra Sawhney case.
Quick Tip: Indra Sawhney = 50% Cap on Reservation.
Champakam Dorairajan (1951) was the first case that led to the \(1^{st}\) Constitutional Amendment for reservations.
Write the correct order of the words as used in the Preamble of the Constitution.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Preamble is the introductory statement of the Constitution that outlines its core objectives and philosophy. The opening words define the nature of the Indian State.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Preamble declares India to be a:
1. Sovereign: India is an independent nation.
2. Socialist: Achieving social and economic equality (Added by \(42^{nd}\) Amendment).
3. Secular: Equal status to all religions (Added by \(42^{nd}\) Amendment).
4. Democratic: Rule of the people.
5. Republic: The head of the state is elected.
The correct sequential order as per the text is: "SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC".
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct order is Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.
Quick Tip: Use the acronym: \textbf{S-S-S-D-R}.
Order: Sovereign (external), Socialist (economy), Secular (religion), then Democratic Republic (government type).
An International Treaty becomes binding in India when ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
India follows a "dualist" system regarding international law. Signing a treaty and making it binding as part of domestic law are two different stages.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
While the executive (President/Prime Minister) has the power to sign and ratify international treaties, they do not automatically become part of Indian domestic law.
Under Article 253 of the Constitution, the Parliament has the power to make any law for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country.
Without an enabling act of Parliament, an international treaty cannot override existing domestic laws or create new obligations that affect the rights of citizens.
This ensures parliamentary oversight on international commitments.
Step 3: Final Answer:
It becomes binding when Parliament makes special legislation to give it effect.
Quick Tip: Remember: Parliament is the supreme law-making body. Even if the PM signs something, it needs a "Seal of Approval" from the Parliament to become law in India.
Who was the Chairman of the First Law Commission of independent India?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Government of India from time to time to recommend legal reforms.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The First Law Commission of Independent India was established in 1955.
The Chairman was M. C. Setalvad, who was also the first Attorney General of India.
The term of this commission was three years, and it submitted its final report in 1958.
(Note: The first Law Commission of British India was established in 1834 under Lord Macaulay).
M. C. Setalvad played a crucial role in shaping the post-independence legal landscape of the country.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Chairman was M. C. Setalvad.
Quick Tip: M. C. Setalvad = First AG of India + First Chairman of independent Law Commission.
Lord Macaulay = First Chairman of pre-independence Law Commission.
Necessitas facit licitum quod alias non est licitum (Latin) means
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Latin maxim \textit{'Necessitas facit licitum quod alias non est licitum' is a fundamental legal principle used as a defense in both criminal and civil law.
It deals with the doctrine of 'Necessity', where an act that would normally be considered a legal violation is excused because it was performed to prevent a greater evil.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The literal translation of the phrase is: \textit{'Necessity makes that lawful which otherwise is not lawful.'
In legal practice, this maxim justifies actions taken in emergency situations where a person has no other choice but to break a law to save a life or prevent significant harm.
For example, breaking into a burning house to save someone trapped inside would technically be trespassing, but under this maxim, the act is deemed lawful due to the necessity of the situation.
In the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Section 81 incorporates this principle, stating that nothing is an offense merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to person or property.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The maxim means that necessity makes that lawful which otherwise is unlawful.
Quick Tip: Remember that for the defense of necessity to apply, the harm prevented must be significantly greater than the harm caused.
'Actio Personalis Moritur Cum Persona' means ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The maxim \textit{'Actio personalis moritur cum persona' is a common law rule relating to the survivability of legal actions after the death of the parties involved.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The phrase translates to \textit{'A personal right of action dies with the person.'
Historically, this meant that if either the plaintiff (the person suing) or the defendant (the person being sued) died, the legal action was terminated and could not be continued by or against their legal heirs.
This rule primarily applies to torts involving personal injury, libel, slander, and other personal wrongs where the injury is peculiar to the individual.
However, in modern law, this maxim has been significantly curtailed by statutes. For example, in many jurisdictions, actions for breach of contract or damage to property do survive the death of a party.
In India, the Succession Act and various judicial interpretations have limited the scope of this maxim, though it still applies to purely personal actions like defamation or assault.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The maxim means that a personal right of action dies with the person.
Quick Tip: Common exams often test this maxim in the context of Torts. Keep in mind that 'Personal' refers to rights that are not related to property or contracts.
Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Fundamental Rights are a group of rights that have been recognized by the Supreme Court of India as requiring a high degree of protection from government encroachment. These are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution (Articles 12 to 35).
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Let's analyze the options based on the Indian Constitution:
1. Right to Education: This is an explicit Fundamental Right under Article 21A, which mandates the state to provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years.
2. Right to Livelihood: The Supreme Court in the \textit{Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation case interpreted the 'Right to Life' under Article 21 to include the right to livelihood.
3. Right to Health: Similarly, the Judiciary has expanded Article 21 to include the right to health and medical care as an integral part of a dignified life.
4. Right to Strike: While workers have a legal right to form unions and collectively bargain, the Supreme Court in \textit{T.K. Rangarajan v. Government of Tamil Nadu clearly stated that there is no fundamental, statutory, or equitable right for government employees to go on strike. It is a legal/statutory right under labor laws (like the Industrial Disputes Act) but not a Fundamental Right under the Constitution.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The 'Right to strike' is not a fundamental right.
Quick Tip: Always distinguish between 'Fundamental Rights' (Constitutional) and 'Statutory Rights' (created by specific Acts of Parliament).
When goods are delivered by one person to another for some purpose upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned according to the direction of the person delivering them, the transaction is called ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question pertains to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, specifically the section dealing with special contracts. The definition provided is the standard legal definition of a 'Bailment'.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Section 148 of the Indian Contract Act defines Bailment as the delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose, upon a contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or otherwise disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them.
Key elements include:
1. Bailor: The person delivering the goods.
2. Bailee: The person to whom they are delivered.
3. Delivery: Physical or constructive transfer of possession (not ownership).
4. Purpose: Goods must be delivered for a specific reason (e.g., repair, safe custody).
5. Return: Once the purpose is over, the same goods must be returned or disposed of.
Comparing other options:
- Pawn: A specific type of bailment where goods are delivered as security for a debt.
- Mortgage: Transfer of an interest in specific immovable property as security.
- Custody: Mere physical control without a formal contract of bailment.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The transaction described is called Bailment.
Quick Tip: Remember: Bailment = Delivery of Goods + Specific Purpose + Return of Goods.
An insane person enters into a contract with another during the period of sanity. The contract so entered is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act requires parties to be of 'sound mind' to enter into a contract. Section 12 further clarifies what constitutes a sound mind for the purpose of contracting.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
According to Section 12 of the Indian Contract Act:
1. A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.
2. A person who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally of sound mind, may make a contract when he is of sound mind.
3. Conversely, a person who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind, may not make a contract when he is of unsound mind.
Since the question specifies the contract was made during a 'period of sanity' (a lucid interval), the person was legally capable of giving free consent and understanding the terms at that specific moment.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The contract is a valid contract.
Quick Tip: In contract law, the mental state \textbf{at the time of entering the contract} is the only relevant factor for validity regarding sanity.
A curative petition can be filed in ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A curative petition is the final legal resort available to a litigant after a review petition has been dismissed by the court. It is an extraordinary remedy.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The concept of the curative petition was evolved by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark case of \textit{Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra (2002).
The court ruled that in order to prevent abuse of its process and to cure a gross miscarriage of justice, it may reconsider its judgements in exercise of its inherent powers.
The key characteristics are:
1. It is filed only in the Supreme Court.
2. It can only be entertained after the dismissal of a Review Petition.
3. It must be certified by a Senior Advocate regarding the fulfillment of specific grounds (e.g., violation of principles of natural justice).
High Courts do not have the power to entertain curative petitions; they only handle Writ Petitions and Review Petitions.
Step 3: Final Answer:
A curative petition can be filed in the Supreme Court only.
Quick Tip: Hierarchy of petitions in SC: SLP/Writ \(\rightarrow\) Review Petition \(\rightarrow\) Curative Petition.
A child below the age of seven years cannot be brought even before the Juvenile Justice Board because ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question relates to the principle of \textit{'Doli Incapax' (incapable of doing harm/wrong), which is a common law principle recognized globally and in Indian criminal law.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) explicitly states: \textit{"Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age."
This creates an absolute immunity or a conclusive presumption of law that a child below 7 years lacks the \textit{mens rea (guilty mind) or the maturity of understanding necessary to commit a crime.
Because the law does not recognize the act as an 'offense' at all, the machinery of the criminal justice system—including the Juvenile Justice Board (which deals with children in conflict with the law)—cannot be triggered against such a child.
For children between 7 and 12 years (Section 83 IPC), the immunity is qualified; it depends on whether the child has attained sufficient maturity of understanding.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The child is exempted from criminal liability.
Quick Tip: Presumption for age \(< 7\): Conclusive (Doli Incapax).
Presumption for age \(7-12\): Rebuttable (depends on maturity).
X on receiving grave and sudden provocation from Z, intentionally causes the death of Y who is Z's brother. X has committed the offence of ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question tests the application of Exception 1 to Section 300 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which defines when 'Culpable Homicide' is not 'Murder' due to grave and sudden provocation.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Section 300, Exception 1 states: "Culpable homicide is not murder if the offender, whilst deprived of the power of self-control by grave and sudden provocation, causes the death of the person who gave the provocation or causes the death of any other person by mistake or accident."
In this scenario:
1. X received provocation from Z.
2. X intentionally causes the death of Y (Z's brother).
3. Y did not provide the provocation, and the death was not caused by 'mistake or accident' (it was intentional).
Because X targeted a third party (Y) intentionally, the benefit of the exception does not apply. The law requires the heat of passion to be directed at the provoker or result in an accidental death of another. Intentional killing of an innocent third party, even under provocation from someone else, remains Murder.
Step 3: Final Answer:
X has committed the offence of Murder.
Quick Tip: Provocation exception only applies if you kill the provoker or kill someone else \textbf{by accident/mistake. Intentional killing of anyone else is Murder.
Intellectual property right is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) are legal rights that protect creations of the mind. They are categorized based on the nature of the property they protect.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Property is generally divided into:
1. Tangible Property: Physical items you can touch, like land, cars, or jewelry.
2. Intangible Property: Non-physical assets that have value but no physical form.
IPR (Patents, Copyrights, Trademarks, Designs) protects the expression of ideas or inventions. While the medium (like a book or a machine) may be tangible, the 'right' to exclude others from reproducing that work or invention is an intangible right. It exists in law rather than in physical space.
IPR is not a Fundamental Right in India (it is a legal/statutory right).
Step 3: Final Answer:
Intellectual property right is an Intangible right.
Quick Tip: IPR = Mind-work. Since you can't 'touch' a thought or a right, it is always Intangible.
Z takes away a gold chain of his wife which was given by her father as Stridhan, without her consent. Z pledges it to raise money for domestic use, Z is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question tests the definition of 'Theft' under Section 378 of the IPC and the ownership of 'Stridhan' in Hindu Law.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
1. Stridhan: Under Hindu law, Stridhan is the absolute property of the wife. The husband has no ownership or joint right over it; he is merely a custodian if it is in his care.
2. Theft (Sec 378 IPC): Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person's consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
3. Application: Even though they are husband and wife, because the chain is her absolute property and Z took it out of her possession without consent with the intent to pledge it (causing wrongful gain to himself/wrongful loss to her), he has committed the ingredients of theft. The use of money for 'domestic use' does not negate the 'dishonest intention' of taking her property without consent.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Z is guilty of theft.
Quick Tip: Husband and wife \textbf{can} commit theft against each other if the property is separate (like Stridhan) and not joint property.
Volenti Non-Fit Injuria (Latin) maxim means ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The maxim 'Volenti non-fit injuria' is a classic defense in the law of Torts. It is based on the principle of 'Assumption of Risk'.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The literal translation is: \textit{'To one who is willing, no harm is done.'
In legal terms, it means that if a person voluntarily consents to an act that carries a risk of injury, knowing and understanding that risk, they cannot later sue for damages if that injury occurs.
Requirements for this defense:
1. The plaintiff knew the risk was there.
2. The plaintiff, knowing the risk, voluntarily agreed to take it.
Example: A spectator at a cricket match who is hit by a ball cannot sue the batsman, as they voluntarily took the risk of such an event by attending the game.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The maxim means that a consenting person cannot claim relief for the injury.
Quick Tip: Consent must be free and not obtained by fraud or force. Mere knowledge of the risk is not enough; there must be \textbf{consent to take the risk.
The outer limit of the Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Maritime zones are defined under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which establishes the jurisdiction of a coastal state over the surrounding waters and seabed.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea.
According to UNCLOS Part V, Article 57, the breadth of the exclusive economic zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.
Within the EEZ, the coastal state has sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring, exploiting, conserving, and managing natural resources, whether living or non-living, of the waters superjacent to the seabed and of the seabed and its subsoil.
Other zones for reference include:
1. Territorial Sea: Up to 12 nautical miles.
2. Contiguous Zone: Up to 24 nautical miles.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The limit for the EEZ is 200 nautical miles from the baseline.
Quick Tip: Remember the hierarchy: Territorial Sea (12nm) \(<\) Contiguous Zone (24nm) \(<\) Exclusive Economic Zone (200nm).
'A group of people fearing persecution leave the country of origin' is known as ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
International law distinguishes between different categories of people moving across borders based on their motivation and legal status.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
A Refugee is specifically defined under the 1951 Refugee Convention as someone who is unable or unwilling to return to their country of origin owing to a well-founded fear of being persecuted for reasons of race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group, or political opinion.
Differences between the other terms:
- Asylum seekers: People who have left their country and are seeking protection but have not yet been legally recognized as refugees.
- Migrants: Usually refers to people moving for economic opportunities or better living conditions, rather than direct fear of persecution.
- Internally Displaced Persons (IDPs): People forced to flee their homes but who remain within their own country's borders.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The correct term is Refugees.
Quick Tip: The key identifier for a "Refugee" in legal terms is the "well-founded fear of persecution" coupled with crossing an international border.
Which one of the following is not included in the term 'Hindu' as per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, defines its scope of application in Section 2, which includes various religious groups under the umbrella term "Hindu" for the purpose of the Act.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Section 2 of the Hindu Marriage Act states that the Act applies to:
1. Any person who is a Hindu by religion in any of its forms or developments.
2. Any person who is a Buddhist, Jain, or Sikh by religion.
3. Any other person domiciled in the territories to which this Act extends who is not a Muslim, Christian, Parsi, or Jew by religion.
Therefore, while Jains, Buddhists, and Sikhs are legally treated as "Hindus" under this specific family law, Parsis (along with Muslims, Christians, and Jews) are excluded and are governed by their own personal laws.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Parsis are not included in the term 'Hindu' under this Act.
Quick Tip: Remember "BJ-S" (Buddhists, Jains, Sikhs) are included under Hindu Law, while "MC-PJ" (Muslims, Christians, Parsis, Jews) are excluded.
The day on which the Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly is observed as ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November 1949 and came into full effect on 26th January 1950.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
November 26th is the date on which the Constituent Assembly of India formally adopted the Constitution.
This day is celebrated as National Law Day (also known as Constitution Day or Samvidhan Divas).
Other options explained:
- Republic Day: Observed on 26th January to mark the commencement of the Constitution.
- Flag Day: Armed Forces Flag Day is observed on 7th December.
- Voters Day: National Voters' Day is observed on 25th January.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The adoption day is observed as Law Day.
Quick Tip: Adoption = 26 Nov (Law Day/Constitution Day).
Commencement = 26 Jan (Republic Day).
A voluntary statement made by a person charged with the commission of a crime acknowledging his guilt is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In criminal law and the law of evidence, statements made by an accused person have specific legal designations based on their content and context.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
A Confession is an admission made at any time by a person charged with a crime, stating or suggesting the inference that he committed that crime.
Under the Indian Evidence Act, for a statement to be a confession, it must either admit in terms the offense or at any rate substantially all the facts which constitute the offense.
It must be voluntary and not made under threat, promise, or inducement.
An Admission is a broader term used for both civil and criminal cases, whereas a Confession is specifically used in criminal contexts for admitting guilt.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Such a statement is known as a Confession.
Quick Tip: All confessions are admissions, but not all admissions are confessions. Confessions are specifically for acknowledging guilt in crimes.
The term of copyright for Government work is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Copyright provides legal protection for original works of authorship. The duration of this protection varies depending on the nature of the work and the author.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
According to Section 28 of the Indian Copyright Act, 1957, in the case of a Government work, where the Government is the first owner of the copyright, copyright shall subsist until 60 years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the work is first published.
This 60-year term is standard for most types of works in India (published literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works) but the starting point varies (usually the death of the author for private works).
Step 3: Final Answer:
The term for Government work copyright is 60 years.
Quick Tip: In India, "60 years" is the magic number for most copyright durations, though the calculation triggers (post-mortem vs post-publication) differ.
International law is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
International law consists of the rules and principles that govern the relations and conduct of sovereign states and other international entities.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The most widely accepted definition of International Law (Public International Law) is that it is the body of rules which are legally binding on states in their intercourse with each other.
Option (B) represents the classical definition provided by legal scholars like J.L. Brierly.
It includes treaties (conventions), international customs, general principles of law recognized by civilized nations, and judicial decisions or teachings of highly qualified publicists.
Unlike domestic law, it relies on the consent of states rather than a central legislative authority.
Step 3: Final Answer:
International law is the body of rules and principles binding upon civilized States in their relations.
Quick Tip: Key phrase to look for: "binding upon States" in their "relations with each other".
What is the meaning of sub judice?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
\textit{Sub judice is a Latin legal term frequently used in procedural law to describe the status of a legal matter.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The term \textit{sub judice literally translates to "under a judge."
In legal practice, it means that a particular case is currently pending before a court or a judge for consideration.
When a matter is \textit{sub judice, there are often restrictions on public discussion or media reporting to avoid prejudicing the trial or influencing the court's decision.
In the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC), Section 10 deals with the principle of \textit{Res Sub Judice, which prevents a court from proceeding with the trial of any suit in which the matter in issue is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between the same parties.
Step 3: Final Answer:
\textit{Sub judice means a case pending before the court.
Quick Tip: Think: Sub (Under) + Judice (Judge) = Under the Judge's consideration/Pending.
Alibi means a plea by an accused person that ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The "Plea of Alibi" is a defense used in criminal proceedings where the accused claims it was physically impossible for them to have committed the crime.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The word \textit{Alibi is a Latin term meaning "elsewhere."
When an accused takes the plea of alibi, they are asserting that at the exact time and date the crime was committed, they were present at a different location far enough away that they could not have been at the scene of the crime.
In the Indian Evidence Act, this is covered under Section 11, which deal with facts that are inconsistent with any fact in issue.
Since the burden of proving the charge is on the prosecution, if the accused successfully proves they were elsewhere, the prosecution's case fails. However, the burden of proving the alibi itself lies on the accused.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Alibi means the accused was present elsewhere.
Quick Tip: Alibi = Elsewhere. It is a rule of evidence, not a substantive right.
Generally, within how many days the RTI application must be disposed of according to RTI Act?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, sets specific time limits for Public Information Officers (PIOs) to provide information to citizens.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Under Section 7(1) of the RTI Act:
1. The PIO shall provide the information or reject the request as expeditiously as possible, and in any case within 30 days of the receipt of the request.
2. If the information sought concerns the life or liberty of a person, it must be provided within 48 hours.
3. If the application is submitted through an Assistant PIO, a further 5 days is added to the 30-day limit.
Failure to provide information within these timelines is deemed a refusal.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Generally, an RTI application must be disposed of within 30 days.
Quick Tip: Standard RTI = 30 days.
Life/Liberty RTI = 48 hours.
Amendment to Criminal Law after the Nirbhaya incident is based on the report submitted by ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Following the 2012 Delhi gang-rape (Nirbhaya case), a high-level committee was formed to suggest amendments to criminal laws to provide quicker trials and enhanced punishment for sexual assault.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Justice J.S. Verma Committee was constituted in December 2012. It submitted its report in record time (29 days) in January 2013.
Based on its recommendations, the Government of India passed the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 (often called the Anti-Rape Act).
Key changes included:
1. Redefining "rape" to include non-penetrative acts.
2. Creating new offenses like acid attack, stalking, and voyeurism.
3. Introduction of capital punishment in cases where rape causes death or leaves the victim in a vegetative state.
The Malimath Committee (Option 3) focused on the overall criminal justice system but was much earlier (2003).
Step 3: Final Answer:
The amendments were based on the Justice Verma Committee report.
Quick Tip: Associate Justice J.S. Verma with "Criminal Law Reforms" and the "Criminal Law Amendment Act 2013".
Which one of the following is not a remedy for breach of contract?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In civil law, a breach of contract entitles the injured party to certain remedies to restore them to the position they would have been in had the contract been performed.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The standard remedies for breach of contract include:
1. Damages: Monetary compensation for the loss suffered (Sec 73 of Indian Contract Act).
2. Specific Performance: A court order directing the party to fulfill their actual contractual obligation (Specific Relief Act).
3. Injunction: A court order restraining a party from doing an act that breaches the contract (Negative covenants).
4. Rescission: Canceling the contract.
5. Quantum Meruit: Payment for the work already done.
Fine is a criminal punishment imposed by a court in criminal proceedings and is paid to the state. It is not a civil remedy provided to an aggrieved party for a breach of contract.
Step 3: Final Answer:
A 'Fine' is not a remedy for breach of contract.
Quick Tip: Civil law = Damages/Specific Performance (Compensation/Restoration).
Criminal law = Fine/Imprisonment (Punishment).
Benefit of doubt is given to whom?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The "Benefit of Doubt" is a fundamental principle of criminal jurisprudence based on the legal maxim \textit{ei incumbit probatio qui dicit, non qui negat (the burden of proof lies upon him who affirms, not him who denies).
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
In criminal law, the prosecution bears the burden of proving the guilt of the accused "beyond a reasonable doubt."
If the evidence presented by the prosecution leaves a reasonable doubt in the mind of the judge or jury regarding the guilt of the accused, that doubt must be resolved in favor of the accused.
This principle ensures that an innocent person is not wrongly convicted, upholding the concept that it is better that ten guilty persons escape than that one innocent suffer.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The benefit of doubt is always extended to the Accused during a criminal trial.
Quick Tip: Remember that while the prosecution must prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt, the accused only needs to show a "preponderance of probability" for their defense.
Ozone treaty is also considered as ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
International environmental treaties are designed to address specific ecological issues. The protection of the ozone layer is governed by a framework and a specific subsequent protocol.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a landmark international treaty designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production of numerous substances that are responsible for ozone depletion.
It was agreed upon on September 16, 1987, and entered into force on January 1, 1989.
The Stockholm Declaration (1972) focused on general environmental principles, the Brundtland Report (1987) introduced "Sustainable Development," and the Beijing Declaration (1995) focused on women's rights.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Ozone treaty is famously known as the Montreal Protocol.
Quick Tip: Mnemonic: "Ozone in Montreal" — Associate the 'O' in Montreal with the 'O' in Ozone to remember this specific environmental protocol.
Ombudsman refers to the person ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The concept of an Ombudsman originated in Sweden (1809) as a government official who investigates complaints from citizens against government agencies and officials.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
An Ombudsman acts as a watchdog of the administration and an independent authority to resolve grievances regarding maladministration, corruption, or delays by public bodies.
In India, the institution of the Ombudsman is manifested in the form of the Lokpal at the central level and the Lokayukta at the state level.
They provide a mechanism for individuals to seek redressal without the high costs and delays associated with formal litigation.
Step 3: Final Answer:
An Ombudsman is a person who looks into the complaints against public authorities.
Quick Tip: India's first Lokpal, appointed in 2019, was Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose. Administrative law questions often link "Ombudsman" to "maladministration."
Attempt to commit suicide at present is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Historically, attempting suicide was a punishable offense under Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). However, legal perspectives shifted significantly with the introduction of new legislation.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Section 115 of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017, provides that "Notwithstanding anything contained in section 309 of the Indian Penal Code, any person who attempts to commit suicide shall be presumed, unless proved otherwise, to have severe stress and shall not be tried and punished under the said section."
While Section 309 IPC has not been officially removed from the statute book, the Mental Healthcare Act effectively decriminalized the act by providing a mandatory presumption of stress, making it practically non-punishable for those suffering from mental health issues.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Under the current legal framework in India, an attempt to commit suicide is considered Non-punishable.
Quick Tip: Always look for the distinction: Suicide itself is not a crime (as the person is dead), but the "attempt" was traditionally a crime under IPC Section 309 until the 2017 Act neutralized it.
Who is the highest law officer in India?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Constitution of India provides for several law officers to assist the government in legal matters and represent it in courts.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Article 76 of the Indian Constitution provides for the office of the Attorney General for India.
The Attorney General is appointed by the President and is considered the highest law officer in the country.
The Solicitor General is the second-highest law officer, assisting the Attorney General. The Advocate General is the highest law officer at the State level (Article 165). The Chief Justice of India is the head of the Judiciary, not a government law officer.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Attorney General is the highest law officer in India.
Quick Tip: Attorney General = Center (Art 76).
Advocate General = State (Art 165).
Both have the right to speak in their respective legislatures but do not have the right to vote.
Where is National Judicial Academy located ________?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
National legal institutions are often distributed across different cities to facilitate training and research for the judiciary and legal professionals.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The National Judicial Academy (NJA) is an independent government-funded training institute for judges in India.
It was established in 1993 and is located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
The NJA provides education and training to judges of the High Courts and the subordinate judiciary to enhance the administration of justice and promote judicial excellence.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The National Judicial Academy is located in Bhopal.
Quick Tip: Do not confuse the National Judicial Academy (Bhopal) with the National Law University (various cities) or the Supreme Court (New Delhi).
The principle laid down in a judgment that becomes law is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Judicial precedents are an important source of law. A judgment typically consists of several parts, but only the core reasoning is binding as a precedent.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Ratio Decidendi (Latin for "reason for the decision") refers to the legal principle or rule on which a judicial decision is based. It is the binding part of a judgment that must be followed by lower courts under the doctrine of \textit{stare decisis.
\textit{Obiter dictum refers to incidental remarks or opinions made by a judge that are not essential to the decision and are not binding.
\textit{Sub Silentio means a case decided without any argument or discussion on the point.
\textit{Per Incuriam means a decision reached through carelessness or without referring to a relevant statute or precedent.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The principle that becomes binding law is the Ratio Decidendi.
Quick Tip: Binding = Ratio Decidendi.
Non-binding/Persuasive = Obiter dictum.
Always remember: "Ratio" means "Reason."
Who is authorized to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The structure and strength of the Supreme Court are governed by constitutional provisions, which specify the authority capable of making changes to its composition.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Under Article 124(1) of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court originally consisted of a Chief Justice and seven other judges.
The Constitution explicitly states that the Parliament has the power to prescribe a larger number of judges by passing a law.
Over the years, the Parliament has increased the number of judges through various acts like the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Acts (e.g., increased to 34 in 2019).
Step 3: Final Answer:
The authority to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court lies with the Parliament by Law.
Quick Tip: Contrast this with High Courts: The President fixes the number of judges for High Courts, but for the Supreme Court, it is strictly the Parliament.
If the Governor of a State dies who becomes the acting Governor?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Constitution provides for a hierarchy or a contingency plan for the discharge of the duties of a Governor in case of an unforeseen vacancy (death, resignation, or removal).
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Under Article 160 of the Constitution, the President may make such provision as he thinks fit for the discharge of the functions of the Governor of a State in any contingency not provided for in this Chapter.
By convention and established practice, when a Governor dies in office or the post falls vacant suddenly, the Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court is usually appointed by the President to discharge the functions of the Governor until a new regular Governor is appointed.
Step 3: Final Answer:
In the event of the Governor's death, the Chief Justice of the High Court usually becomes the acting Governor.
Quick Tip: Similarly, if the President dies, the Vice-President takes over. If both the President and Vice-President are unavailable, the Chief Justice of India acts as President.
Wrongful gain means ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Wrongful gain and wrongful loss are technical legal terms used in the Indian Penal Code (IPC) to define offenses involving property, such as theft, extortion, and cheating.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Section 23 of the Indian Penal Code defines "Wrongful gain" as gain by unlawful means of property to which the person gaining is not legally entitled.
A person is said to gain wrongfully when such person retains wrongfully, as well as when such person acquires wrongfully.
Conversely, "Wrongful loss" is the loss by unlawful means of property to which the person losing it is legally entitled.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Wrongful gain is defined as the gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled to.
Quick Tip: Keywords to remember Section 23 IPC: "Unlawful Means" + "Not Entitled." If the means are lawful, it is not a wrongful gain under IPC.
Liberhan Commission is associated with ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Government of India frequently appoints judicial commissions to investigate specific incidents of national significance or systemic issues.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The Liberhan Commission was an inquiry commission led by Justice M.S. Liberhan, appointed in December 1992, just days after the Babri Masjid demolition in Ayodhya.
It was tasked with investigating the sequence of events leading up to the destruction of the structure and identifying the individuals responsible for it.
The commission holds the record for being one of the longest-running commissions in India, submitting its report in 2009 after numerous extensions.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The Liberhan Commission is associated with the Babri Masjid demolition.
Quick Tip: Common commissions for exams:
1. Sarkaria Commission = Centre-State relations.
2. Nanavati Commission = 1984 Anti-Sikh riots / Godhra.
3. Raja Chelliah Committee = Tax Reforms.
Who is the current Secretary General of the United Nations?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The Secretary-General is the chief administrative officer of the United Nations and head of the UN Secretariat.
The position is appointed by the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Antonio Guterres, a Portuguese politician and diplomat, is the \(9^{th}\) Secretary-General of the United Nations.
He took office on January 1, 2017, and was later re-elected for a second term starting in 2022.
Regarding the other options:
1. Csaba Korosi served as the President of the \(77^{th}\) UN General Assembly.
2. Ban Ki-Moon was the \(8^{th}\) Secretary-General (2007–2016).
3. Kofi Annan was the \(7^{th}\) Secretary-General (1997–2006).
Step 3: Final Answer:
Antonio Guterres is the current Secretary General of the UN.
Quick Tip: United Nations leadership questions are common in exams.
Remember that the Secretary-General serves a 5-year term, which can be renewed once.
The verdict of a Labour court in an industrial dispute is called as ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Labour law has specific terminologies for the decisions passed by adjudicatory bodies like Labour Courts, Industrial Tribunals, or National Tribunals.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
According to Section 2(b) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, an "Award" means an interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute or of any question relating thereto by any Labour Court, Industrial Tribunal or National Industrial Tribunal.
It also includes an arbitration award made under section 10A.
The term "Decree" is typically used for a formal expression of an adjudication in a Civil Court.
While "Judgment" and "Order" are general legal terms, "Award" is the specific technical term used in the context of the Industrial Disputes Act.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The verdict of a Labour court is technically termed as an Award.
Quick Tip: In competitive exams for Law, pay close attention to Section 2 (Definitions) of major acts like the Industrial Disputes Act.
"Award" is unique to industrial and arbitration contexts.
An agreement in restraint of marriage is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, certain types of agreements are expressly declared to be void as they are against public policy.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, states: "Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void."
This means that if a person enters into an agreement where they promise not to marry at all, or not to marry a particular person, or not to marry for a certain period, such a contract is not enforceable by law.
The law aims to protect the fundamental right of an individual to choose their spouse and lead a married life.
Note the exception: A restraint on the marriage of a minor is considered valid to discourage child marriage.
Step 3: Final Answer:
An agreement in restraint of marriage is Void.
Quick Tip: Mnemonic for Void Agreements (Sections 24-30):
Unlawful consideration (24), No consideration (25), Restraint of Marriage (26), Trade (27), Legal Proceedings (28), Uncertain (29), Wager (30).
Abetment of an offence is ________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
In criminal law, "inchoate" or preliminary crimes are those where the perpetrator hasn't completed the primary crime but has taken steps toward it.
Abetment is one such substantive offense under the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Chapter V of the IPC (Sections 107 to 120) deals with Abetment.
Section 107 defines abetment as instigating a person, engaging in a conspiracy, or intentionally aiding the commission of an act.
Abetment is considered a separate, substantive offense.
Even if the abetted act is not committed, the abettor can still be punished for the act of abetment itself.
The law punishes the person who facilitates or encourages a crime just as it punishes the principal offender, though sometimes with different intensities.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Abetment of an offence is always an offence under the IPC.
Quick Tip: Abetment, Criminal Conspiracy, and Attempt are the three main "inchoate" crimes in Indian law.
They are punishable regardless of whether the final "big" crime happened or not.
Which of the following is not a tort?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A Tort is a civil wrong for which the legal remedy is an action for unliquidated damages.
It is distinct from a breach of contract or a crime.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Let's analyze the options:
1. Negligence: A common tort involving the breach of a duty of care resulting in damage.
2. Defamation: A tort (and sometimes a crime) involving harm to a person's reputation through false statements.
3. Homicide: This is a crime (specifically, the killing of one human by another). While it may give rise to a civil action for "wrongful death", the term "Homicide" itself refers to the criminal act of killing and is part of criminal law, not primarily the law of torts.
4. False Imprisonment: A tort involving the intentional restriction of a person's freedom of movement without legal justification.
Step 3: Final Answer:
Homicide is not classified as a tort; it is a crime.
Quick Tip: The primary distinction: Torts are usually private wrongs between individuals settled by money (damages), while Crimes are public wrongs against society prosecuted by the State.
What was the punishment for the accused?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question requires locating a specific factual detail regarding the legal outcome of the scam mentioned in the text.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage concludes by detailing the legal repercussions faced by the perpetrators.
According to the last few lines: "In 2015, the accused were sentenced to seven-year imprisonment."
The text also notes that heavy fines were imposed in addition to the custodial sentence.
The other options provided (Life, 10 years, or 5 years) are not mentioned in the passage.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The punishment was 7 years of imprisonment.
Quick Tip: In reading comprehension, answers for numerical data (years, amounts, dates) are usually stated explicitly. Scan the text for keywords like "sentenced" or "years" to find the answer quickly.
Who was the founder of the company?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a factual retrieval question focusing on identifying the specific name of the individual who founded the company.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage provides the name of the founder in the context of the confession.
It states: "Later in 2009, the company founder, Shyam confessed to the crime."
While the company is named "Sundaram Computer Services," the text explicitly identifies "Shyam" as the founder.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The founder of the company was Shyam.
Quick Tip: Do not assume a company name represents the founder. Always look for the specific noun linked to the word "founder" within the text.
When did founder of the company confess to the crime?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question asks for the specific year in which the confession of the fraudulent activities occurred.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage tracks the timeline of the scam and its subsequent legal proceedings.
The sentence stating the confession is: "Later in 2009, the company founder, Shyam confessed to the crime."
Note the distinction between the year of confession (2009) and the year of sentencing (2015).
Step 3: Final Answer:
The founder confessed to the crime in the year 2009.
Quick Tip: Chronological questions require careful reading. Match the "Action" (confessed) with the "Time" (2009) to avoid selecting the year of the final verdict (2015).
The case is predominantly related to ______.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question asks for the primary theme or mechanism of the fraudulent activity described in the passage.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage highlights the inflation of various metrics to mislead stakeholders.
It explicitly mentions that the "founders and directors falsified data, inflated stock prices...".
Further, it elaborates that "revenues, operating profits, interest liabilities and cash balances were grossly inflated to show the company was in good health."
While misappropriation (stealing amounts) and breach of trust are involved, the dominant mechanism described is "inflation" of stocks and financial data.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The case is predominantly related to fraud by inflation of stocks.
Quick Tip: Look for repetitive keywords. The word "inflated" or "inflation" appears multiple times in the passage, signaling it as the core nature of the fraud.
According to the passage ______ is one of the biggest scams.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question seeks to identify the categorization of the scam as presented by the author in the opening lines.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The very first sentence of the passage provides the classification.
It states: "This was one of the biggest corporate scams in the country."
The subsequent details about misrepresenting accounts, auditing practices, and deceiving investors confirm it as a corporate natured crime.
Step 3: Final Answer:
According to the passage, it is a corporate scam.
Quick Tip: The introductory sentence of a passage often sets the context and provides the classification of the subject matter.
What do you mean by asylum?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Asylum is a legal concept where a person persecuted by their own country may be protected by another sovereign authority, such as a foreign country.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
According to the passage, Vijay Kumar fled India and "sought asylum in the United Kingdom in 2016" after being accused of financial crimes.
In international law, seeking asylum refers to an individual leaving their home country to find safety and protection in a different nation due to fear of persecution or legal action.
Therefore, the term implies taking refuge or shelter in a foreign territory.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The term asylum means taking shelter in another country.
Quick Tip: Political asylum is specifically for individuals who are at risk in their home country. Always relate the word to the context of "fleeing" or "absconding" to a different nation.
With which airlines did Vijay Kumar want to merge his airlines?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This question requires identifying a specific business transaction mentioned in the text aimed at expanding the tycoon's airline operations.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage mentions that the Indian government refused to allow Vijay Kumar's airline to conduct foreign flights.
To bypass these constraints and enable international travel, the text states: "he used his parent business, to purchase Deccan Air, which was losing a lot of money at the time."
The purchase of a low-cost carrier like Deccan Air was a strategic move (often followed by a merger) to gain access to broader flight rights and infrastructure.
Step 3: Final Answer:
He wanted to merge/purchase Deccan airlines.
Quick Tip: Scan the text for proper nouns related to airlines. "Deccan Air" is the only specific airline name mentioned in the passage as an acquisition target.
What was the parent business of Vijay Kumar?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
A "parent business" or "holding company" is the main entity that owns or controls other subsidiary companies.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The passage states: "Vijay Kumar's desire to develop his liquor and airline businesses sparked the whole thing."
It further mentions that he used his "parent business" to purchase Deccan Air.
While the specific name "United Breweries" is not explicitly spelled out in the passage, it is the only option provided that represents a major liquor-based conglomerate.
In the real-world context on which this passage is based, United Breweries (UB Group) served as the primary business through which the expansion into the airline sector was funded.
Step 3: Final Answer:
The parent business was United Breweries.
Quick Tip: Contextual clues like "liquor business" help narrow down the options. United Breweries is a well-known leader in the liquor industry.
How many crores did he borrow from banks?
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
This is a factual retrieval question that requires finding the specific numerical value mentioned in the passage regarding bank debt.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The second paragraph of the text discusses the financial liability of the tycoon.
It explicitly states: "He is said to owe around Rs 9000 crores to multiple banks, which he took out as a loan to save his now-defunct Airlines."
This figure is cited as the primary reason for the legal action against him in India.
Step 3: Final Answer:
He borrowed around Rs. 9000 crores.
Quick Tip: Numerical data is usually found in the middle of a passage. Ensure you do not confuse "9000" with similar-looking numbers like "900" or "9090".
Vijay Kumar was accused of _________.
Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Accusations in a legal context refer to formal charges brought against an individual for criminal or financial wrongdoing.
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
The opening sentence of the passage identifies the reasons for Vijay Kumar's departure from India.
It states that he had to abscond "after being accused of fraud and money laundering in the country."
Money laundering involves disguising the origins of illegally obtained money, and fraud involves deceptive practices for financial gain.
Step 3: Final Answer:
He was accused of money laundering and fraud.
Quick Tip: The specific legal terms are usually mentioned in the introduction of a passage when describing a character's conflict. Scan the first two lines for "accused of".
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