Zollege is here for to help you!!
Need Counselling
KMAT KERALA logo

KMAT Kerala 2026 Question Paper PDF - Session 1

Nidhi Bamnawat's profile photo

Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Feb 23, 2026

The KMAT Kerala 2026 Session 1 Question Paper PDF is now available for download to assist MBA aspirants in their exam preparation. This comprehensive resource includes the solved question paper, official answer keys, and a detailed section-wise analysis to help students master the exam pattern and identifying high-weightage topics.

By practicing with the KMAT Kerala 2026 solved paper, candidates can refine their speed and accuracy in Quantitative Aptitude, English Usage, and Logical Reasoning. Utilizing the latest marking scheme and expert solutions ensures a strategic approach to time management, helping students secure a high percentile for admission into top management institutes across Kerala.

KMAT Kerala 2026 Session 1 Question Paper PDF

KMAT Kerala 2026 Session 1 Question Paper PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

KMAT Kerala 2026 Session 1 Question Paper PDF

Question 1:

The word “Obfuscate” means

  • (A) To clarify something
  • (B) To deliberately make something unclear
  • (C) To exaggerate facts
  • (D) To summarize briefly
Correct Answer: (B) To deliberately make something unclear
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question focuses on vocabulary related to communication and clarity. Identifying the meaning requires distinguishing between making something clear and making something confusing.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The word "obfuscate" is often used in technical or political contexts to describe the act of intentionally making information difficult to understand. For instance, using complex jargon to hide simple facts is a form of obfuscation.

- Option (A) is the antonym (opposite).

- Option (C) refers to "hyperbole."

- Option (D) refers to "brevity" or "summarization."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct meaning is (B) To deliberately make something unclear. Quick Tip: Think of "Obfuscate" as related to "Fog." When you obfuscate a point, you are surrounding it with a mental fog that makes it hard to see.


Question 2:

The word “Pernicious” means

  • (A) Harmless but noticeable
  • (B) Gradually harmful or destructive
  • (C) Openly aggressive
  • (D) Extremely confusing
Correct Answer: (B) Gradually harmful or destructive
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"Pernicious" is an adjective that describes a specific type of danger. It implies that the harm is not immediate or obvious, but rather builds up over time.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Something that is pernicious causes great harm, but it does so in a way that is subtle or hidden. It is often used to describe social influences or medical conditions (like pernicious anemia) that weaken something or someone slowly.

- Option (A) is incorrect as the word implies high danger.

- Option (C) refers to "overt" or "blatant" harm, whereas pernicious is "covert."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct meaning is (B) Gradually harmful or destructive. Quick Tip: Associate "Pernicious" with "Poison." Some poisons act slowly and quietly, much like a pernicious influence.


Question 3:

The word “Recalcitrant” means

  • (A) Easily persuaded
  • (B) Unwilling to obey authority
  • (C) Extremely intelligent
  • (D) Careless and forgetful
Correct Answer: (B) Unwilling to obey authority
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This term describes a behavioral response to rules, leadership, or requests. It is a trait of non-compliance.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

A "recalcitrant" person is stubbornly uncooperative. They do not just disagree; they actively resist being managed or governed by those in power. It comes from the Latin word for "kicking back."

- Option (A) is the antonym (submissive or pliable).

- Options (C) and (D) are unrelated to the concept of defiance or obedience.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct meaning is (B) Unwilling to obey authority. Quick Tip: Visualize a stubborn mule that refuses to move when pulled. That "kicking back" attitude is the essence of being recalcitrant.


Question 4:

The word “Equivocal” means

  • (A) Clearly expressed
  • (B) Emotionally intense
  • (C) Open to more than one interpretation
  • (D) Completely false
Correct Answer: (C) Open to more than one interpretation
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"Equivocal" relates to the clarity of a statement. It describes language that can be understood in different ways, often intentionally.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The word is built from "equi-" (equal) and "-vocal" (voice). It suggests that multiple "voices" or meanings are being given at the same time, making the true meaning uncertain or ambiguous.

- Option (A) is the antonym (unequivocal).

- Option (D) describes a lie; an equivocal statement isn't always a lie, just unclear.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct meaning is (C) Open to more than one interpretation. Quick Tip: To "equivocate" is to avoid committing to a single answer by being vague. If someone's answer is "equivocal," it's a "maybe" that sounds like a "yes" and "no" at the same time.


Question 5:

The word “treacherous” means

  • (A) loyal
  • (B) responsible
  • (C) unreliable
  • (D) true
Correct Answer: (C) unreliable
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"Treacherous" is an adjective used to describe something or someone that cannot be trusted because they pose a hidden threat.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

A treacherous person is disloyal and likely to betray trust. A treacherous environment (like a thin sheet of ice) is dangerous because it looks safe but is actually hazardous. In both cases, the core idea is being "unreliable" or "deceptive."

- Options (A), (B), and (D) represent qualities of trust and dependability, which are the opposites of treacherous.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct meaning is (C) unreliable. Quick Tip: "Treacherous" = "Treachery." If you know treachery means betrayal, you can identify that a treacherous person is one who is unreliable.


Question 6:

Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?

  • (A) consanguineous
  • (B) consenguineous
  • (C) consanguinous
  • (D) consanguneous
Correct Answer: (A) consanguineous
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Spelling questions require identifying the correct sequence of vowels and consonants in complex words, often derived from Latin or Greek roots.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The word "consanguineous" comes from the Latin {con- (together) and {sanguineus (of blood).

- The root for blood is "sanguine," which contains the "ui" vowel cluster.

- The suffix used for adjectives of this type is "-eous."

- Combining these correctly results in "consanguineous," meaning relating to or denoting people descended from the same ancestor.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correctly spelled word is (A) consanguineous. Quick Tip: Remember the word "Sanguine" (meaning optimistic or blood-red). If you can spell "sanguine," just add the prefix "con-" and the suffix "-ous" to get the base of the word.


Question 7:

Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?

  • (A) garulous
  • (B) garruloes
  • (C) garrulues
  • (D) garrulous
Correct Answer: (D) garrulous
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests the ability to identify the correct doubling of consonants and the appropriate suffix for an adjective meaning "talkative."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The word "garrulous" is derived from the Latin {garrulus.

- It requires a double 'r'.

- It ends with the standard adjective suffix "-ous."

- Options (A), (B), and (C) fail either by missing the double consonant or using an incorrect vowel ending.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correctly spelled word is (D) garrulous. Quick Tip: "Garrulous" and "Loquacious" are synonyms. While "garrulous" has a double 'r', remember that it only has one 'l'.


Question 8:

Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?

  • (A) polyphiloprogenitive
  • (B) polyphilopregenitive
  • (C) polyphilopragenitive
  • (D) polyphiloprogeunitive
Correct Answer: (A) polyphiloprogenitive
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a long, compound word. Breaking it down into its Greek and Latin roots helps in identifying the correct spelling of each segment.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Break the word into parts:

1. Poly: (Greek) many.

2. Philo: (Greek) loving.

3. Progenitive: (Latin) relating to the production of offspring (from "progeny").

- The "progenitive" part is the most common place for errors. It must have "o" after "pr" and "e" after "gen".

- Combining them: Poly + philo + progenitive = polyphiloprogenitive.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correctly spelled word is (A) polyphiloprogenitive. Quick Tip: When faced with very long words, break them into smaller, recognizable chunks (roots/prefixes). It makes checking the spelling much less overwhelming.


Question 9:

Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?

  • (A) surreptiotious
  • (B) sureptitious
  • (C) surreptious
  • (D) surreptitious
Correct Answer: (D) surreptitious
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This word tests the knowledge of double consonants and the "-tious" vs "-cious" suffix endings.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The word means "kept secret, especially because it would not be approved of."

- It starts with the prefix "sub-" (becoming "sur-" before "r").

- It requires a double 'r'.

- It requires a double 'p'.

- It ends with "-titious" (like "fictitious").


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correctly spelled word is (D) surreptitious. Quick Tip: Think of "Surreptitious" as "Super-Rep-Titious." While that's not the actual root, it helps you remember the double 'r' and the double 'p'.


Question 10:

Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?

  • (A) viscissitude
  • (B) vicsissitude
  • (C) vicisitude
  • (D) vicissitude
Correct Answer: (D) vicissitude
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This word often causes confusion due to the "c" and "s" sounds appearing early in the word.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

"Vicissitude" refers to a change of circumstances or fortune, typically one that is unwelcome or unpleasant.

- It begins with "vi-".

- Then comes "ci".

- Followed by a double "ss".

- Ends with "itude".

- Option (A) incorrectly adds an 's' before 'c'; (C) misses the double 's'.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correctly spelled word is (D) vicissitude. Quick Tip: Think of the word "Vice." It starts with "vi-c-e." Vicissitude follows that same "vi-c" start, then adds the "ssitude."


Question 11:

Which one of the following is an antonym to the word “timid”?

  • (A) afraid
  • (B) fearless
  • (C) mousy
  • (D) skittish
Correct Answer: (B) fearless
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

An antonym is a word that has the opposite meaning of another word. "Timid" describes someone who lacks courage or confidence and is easily frightened.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

To find the antonym, we look for a word that describes having high confidence or a lack of fear.

- Option (A) "afraid" is a synonym.

- Option (C) "mousy" is a synonym (meaning shy or timid).

- Option (D) "skittish" is a synonym (meaning easily scared or nervous).

- Option (B) "fearless" directly opposes the idea of being easily frightened.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct antonym is (B) fearless. Quick Tip: When looking for antonyms, first identify if the target word is positive or negative. "Timid" is generally negative/weak, so look for a "strong" positive word as its opposite.


Question 12:

Which one of the following is an antonym to the word “wane”?

  • (A) remit
  • (B) vanish
  • (C) grow
  • (D) shrink
Correct Answer: (C) grow
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The word "wane" means to decrease in vigor, power, or size. It is most commonly used to describe the phases of the moon as it appears to get smaller.




[Image of phases of the moon showing waxing and waning]


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

We are looking for a word that signifies an increase or expansion.

- Option (A) "remit" means to diminish or cancel (often related to debt or pain).

- Option (B) "vanish" means to disappear completely.

- Option (D) "shrink" is a synonym for wane.

- Option (C) "grow" is the direct opposite of decreasing in size or intensity.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct antonym is (C) grow. Quick Tip: A common pair of antonyms in English is "Wax and Wane." "Wax" means to increase, while "Wane" means to decrease.


Question 13:

Which one of the following is an antonym to the word “reverence”?

  • (A) praise
  • (B) respect
  • (C) dignify
  • (D) ridicule
Correct Answer: (D) ridicule
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"Reverence" is a deep respect or admiration for someone or something, often bordering on worship.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The opposite of showing deep respect is to mock, belittle, or show contempt.

- Option (A) "praise" is a synonym.

- Option (B) "respect" is a direct synonym.

- Option (C) "dignify" means to make something seem worthy of respect.

- Option (D) "ridicule" means to subject someone to mockery or derision, which is the opposite of reverence.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct antonym is (D) ridicule. Quick Tip: "Reverence" comes from the same root as "Reverend." It implies a high level of sacred respect, making "ridicule" its harsh opposite.


Question 14:

Which one of the following is an antonym to the word “daunt”?

  • (A) bother
  • (B) scare
  • (C) encourage
  • (D) frighten
Correct Answer: (C) encourage
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The verb "daunt" means to make someone feel intimidated or apprehensive. If a task is "daunting," it makes you want to give up before you start.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The antonym must be a word that builds confidence or inspires someone to take action.

- Option (A) "bother" means to annoy.

- Option (B) "scare" is a synonym.

- Option (D) "frighten" is a synonym.

- Option (C) "encourage" means to give support, confidence, or hope to someone, which is the functional opposite of daunting them.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct antonym is (C) encourage. Quick Tip: You might know the word "undaunted," which means not discouraged. This confirms that "daunt" is about being discouraged or intimidated.


Question 15:

Which one of the following is an antonym to the word “ferocious”?

  • (A) dreadful
  • (B) soft
  • (C) fierce
  • (D) violent
Correct Answer: (B) soft
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"Ferocious" describes something savaging, fierce, cruel, or violently aggressive.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

We need a word that describes a gentle, mild, or non-aggressive nature.

- Option (A) "dreadful" is a negative adjective often associated with frightening things.

- Option (C) "fierce" is a synonym.

- Option (D) "violent" is a synonym.

- Option (B) "soft" (in this context meaning mild, gentle, or tender) serves as the best antonym among the choices provided to contrast with the aggression of "ferocious."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct antonym is (B) soft. Quick Tip: While "tame" or "gentle" might be more precise antonyms for "ferocious," "soft" is the closest choice among the options provided to represent a lack of ferocity.


Question 16:

Change the present simple sentence “She boils water for tea” into past simple sentence.

  • (A) She boil water for tea
  • (B) She is boiling water for tea
  • (C) She has boiled water for tea
  • (D) She boiled water for tea
Correct Answer: (D) She boiled water for tea
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To change a sentence from Present Simple to Past Simple, the base form of the verb (V1) must be changed to its past form (V2). For regular verbs, this usually involves adding "-ed".


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The verb in the original sentence is "boils" (V1 + s).

- The past form (V2) of "boil" is "boiled".

- Option (A) uses an incorrect base form.

- Option (B) is Present Continuous.

- Option (C) is Present Perfect.

- Option (D) correctly uses the V2 form "boiled".


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sentence is (D) She boiled water for tea. Quick Tip: The Past Simple tense indicates a completed action in the past. Always check if the verb is regular (adds -ed) or irregular (changes completely, e.g., "go" becomes "went").


Question 17:

Change the present simple sentence “The students enter the hall without making noise” into past simple sentence.

  • (A) The students enters the hall without making noise
  • (B) The students have entered the hall without making noise
  • (C) The students entered the hall without making noise
  • (D) The students have entered the hall without made noise
Correct Answer: (C) The students entered the hall without making noise
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Past Simple tense requires the V2 form of the verb. The rest of the sentence (the object and phrases like "without making noise") remains unchanged unless it contains another verb that needs to show time.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The main verb is "enter".

- The past form (V2) of "enter" is "entered".

- Option (A) uses "enters," which is still Present Simple (singular form, incorrect subject-verb agreement).

- Options (B) and (D) use "have entered," which is Present Perfect.

- Option (C) uses "entered," which is the correct Past Simple form.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sentence is (C) The students entered the hall without making noise. Quick Tip: Words ending in "-ing" used after prepositions (like "without making") are gerunds and do not change when you change the tense of the main verb.


Question 18:

Which one of the following sentences is correct?

  • (A) She ate her lunch, take a walk and went back to work
  • (B) She ate her lunch, took a walk and go back to work
  • (C) She ate her lunch, takes a walk and went back to work
  • (D) She ate her lunch, took a walk and went back to work
Correct Answer: (D) She ate her lunch, took a walk and went back to work
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests "Parallel Structure" or "Tense Consistency." When a sentence lists multiple actions performed by the same subject in the past, all verbs must be in the same tense.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The sentence describes a sequence of events in the past.

1. Action 1: ate (Past)

2. Action 2: took (Past)

3. Action 3: went (Past)

- Options (A), (B), and (C) mix past verbs with present verbs ("take", "go", "takes"), which breaks the logic of the timeline.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sentence is (D). Quick Tip: Check for "verb harmony." If the first verb in a sequence is in the past, the following verbs in that list should almost always be in the past too.


Question 19:

Which one of the following sentences is correct?

  • (A) If he got the job, he would have to travel 25 km to work, so he decides the job was not worth it
  • (B) If he get the job, he would have to travel 25 km to work, so he decided the job was not worth it
  • (C) If he got the job, he would have to travel 25 km to work, so he decided the job is not worth it
  • (D) If he got the job, he would have to travel 25 km to work, so he decided the job was not worth it
Correct Answer: (D) If he got the job, he would have to travel 25 km to work, so he decided the job was not worth it
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This involves "Sequence of Tenses." If a story or hypothetical situation is being told in the past tense ("got", "would have"), subsequent clauses should maintain that past context ("decided", "was").


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The sentence uses a Second Conditional structure: "If he got... he would...".

- This sets a past/hypothetical tone.

- Therefore, his decision must also be in the past: "decided".

- The reason for his decision must also be in the past: the job "was" not worth it.

- Option (D) maintains this consistency perfectly.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sentence is (D). Quick Tip: In complex sentences, once you establish a past time frame, stay in it unless there is a specific reason to shift to the present.


Question 20:

Which one of the following sentences is correct?

  • (A) He went to movie even though he was sick
  • (B) He go to movie even though he was sick
  • (C) He went to movie even though he has sick
  • (D) He goes to movie even though he had sick.
Correct Answer: (A) He went to movie even though he was sick
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a test of tense agreement and proper usage of the verb "to be" with adjectives.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Action 1: "went" (Past tense).

- Condition: "he was sick" (Past tense).

- Option (A) is correct because both verbs are in the past tense and the adjective "sick" is correctly used with the linking verb "was".

- Option (B) uses "go" (Present) with "was" (Past).

- Option (C) uses "has sick," which is grammatically incorrect; "has" requires a noun (e.g., "has a sickness").

- Option (D) is incorrect for similar reasons ("had sick" is wrong).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sentence is (A) He went to movie even though he was sick. Quick Tip: Use "was/is" with adjectives (I was sick) and "had/has" with nouns (I had a fever).


Question 21:

Find out the correct preposition: He was looking -------- all the different possibilities.

  • (A) with
  • (B) of
  • (C) in
  • (D) for
Correct Answer: (D) for
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question involves "phrasal verbs," where a verb combined with a preposition creates a specific meaning. The verb "look" changes meaning significantly depending on the preposition that follows it.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The sentence implies a search or an examination of options.

Look for: To search for something or someone.
Look with: To use an instrument (e.g., look with a telescope).
Look in: To check inside a place.

In the context of "possibilities," one "looks for" them as part of a search or investigation.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct preposition is (D) for. Quick Tip: Common "Look" phrasal verbs: - Look {for} (Search) - Look {after} (Take care of) - Look {into} (Investigate) - Look {forward to} (Anticipate)


Question 22:

Find out the correct preposition: He arrived early, so he had to wait _____ his friend.

  • (A) of
  • (B) for
  • (C) with
  • (D) to
Correct Answer: (B) for
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Certain verbs are followed by specific prepositions. This is known as "dependent prepositions." The verb "wait" almost always takes a specific preposition when referring to a person or an event.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The standard English construction is to "wait for" someone or something.
- "Wait with" would mean the friend is already there and they are waiting together for someone else.
- "Wait of" and "Wait to" are grammatically incorrect in this context.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct preposition is (B) for. Quick Tip: Don't confuse "wait for" with "await." You {wait for} a person, but you {await} a person (no preposition).


Question 23:

Find out the correct preposition: She has been working on it ------ last week.

  • (A) since
  • (B) on
  • (C) for
  • (D) from
Correct Answer: (A) since
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests the difference between "since" and "for" when used with the Present Perfect Continuous tense.



Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Since: Used to refer to a specific {point in time when an action started (e.g., Monday, 2010, last week).
- For: Used to refer to a {duration or period of time (e.g., three hours, two weeks).
Since "last week" is a specific starting point, "since" is the correct choice.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct preposition is (A) since. Quick Tip: Use "since" if you can answer the question "When did it start?" Use "for" if you can answer "How long has it been happening?"


Question 24:

Find out the correct preposition: He will qualify -------- a year of entering the campus.

  • (A) from
  • (B) since
  • (C) with
  • (D) within
Correct Answer: (D) within
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Prepositions of time like "within" are used to indicate that something will happen before a specific period has passed.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The sentence expresses a time limit.
- "Within a year" means at some point during that year, before it ends.
- "From a year" or "Since a year" would not fit the grammatical structure or the intended meaning of a deadline or duration limit.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct preposition is (D) within. Quick Tip: "Within" refers to the inside limits of time or distance. "He lives within 5 miles" or "Finish within an hour."


Question 25:

Find out the correct preposition: I will complete all my assignments -------- Saturday.

  • (A) in
  • (B) from
  • (C) on
  • (D) during
Correct Answer: (C) on
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Specific days of the week require specific prepositions of time.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In English, the standard prepositions for time units are:
- In: For months, years, and long periods (In January).
- At: For specific clock times (At 5 PM).
- On: For days and dates (On Saturday, On Christmas Day).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct preposition is (C) on. Quick Tip: Remember the "In-On-At" triangle: {In} (General/Big), {On} (Specific/Middle), {At} (Very Specific/Small).


Question 26:

Change the sentence “He enjoys reading historical novels” into an interrogative sentence.

  • (A) Is he enjoy reading historical novels?
  • (B) Do he enjoy reading historical novels?
  • (C) Does he enjoys reading historical novels?
  • (D) Does he enjoy reading historical novels?
Correct Answer: (D) Does he enjoy reading historical novels?
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To convert a Present Simple statement into a question (interrogative), we use the auxiliary verb "do" or "does" at the beginning of the sentence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- For third-person singular subjects (He, She, It), we use "Does".

- When "does" is used, the main verb must return to its base form (infinitive without 'to').

- Original verb: "enjoys" (V1+s).

- Question form: Does + he + enjoy (base form).

- Option (C) is incorrect because it keeps the 's' on "enjoys."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct interrogative sentence is (D) Does he enjoy reading historical novels? Quick Tip: Remember the rule: Does + Base Form. Once the "Does" carries the third-person 's', the main verb doesn't need it anymore!


Question 27:

Change the sentence “They have completed the work” into an interrogative sentence.

  • (A) Do they completed the work?
  • (B) Have they completed the work?
  • (C) Did they completes the work?
  • (D) Did they completed the work?
Correct Answer: (B) Have they completed the work?
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When a sentence uses an auxiliary verb (like "have", "has", "is", "was"), we form a question by simply moving that auxiliary verb to the front of the subject. This is called subject-auxiliary inversion.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Original sentence: They (Subject) + have (Auxiliary) + completed (Main Verb).

- Interrogative: Have (Auxiliary) + they (Subject) + completed (Main Verb)?

- Options (A), (C), and (D) incorrectly try to use "Do" or "Did" when an auxiliary "have" is already present.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sentence is (B) Have they completed the work? Quick Tip: If a sentence already has "have," "has," or "had," just swap the position of the subject and that word to make a question.


Question 28:

Convert the sentence into DIRECT SPEECH: He said that he would meet me in the library.

  • (A) He said, “He will meet you in the library”
  • (B) He said, “He will meet me in the library”
  • (C) He said, “I will meet you in the library”
  • (D) He said, “I will meet him in the library”
Correct Answer: (C) He said, “I will meet you in the library”
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To convert Indirect Speech back to Direct Speech, we reverse the tense shifts and pronoun changes. "Would" usually reverts to "will," and third-person pronouns referring to the speaker revert to "I."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The reporter says "He said that he..." which means in direct speech, the person said "I..."

- The reported "would meet" becomes the direct "will meet."

- The reported "me" (the listener) becomes "you" in direct speech.

- Option (C) correctly captures the perspective: "I (the speaker) will meet you (the listener)."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct direct speech is (C) He said, “I will meet you in the library”. Quick Tip: When converting to direct speech, put yourself in the speaker's shoes. How would they say it at that exact moment? They would use "I" for themselves and "will" for future intent.


Question 29:

Convert the sentence into DIRECT SPEECH: They told us they were going to the theatre.

  • (A) They said, “we are going to the theatre”
  • (B) They said, “they are going to the theatre”
  • (C) They said, “we went to the theatre”
  • (D) They said, “we were going to the theatre”
Correct Answer: (A) They said, “we are going to the theatre”
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In indirect speech, the Past Continuous ("were going") often comes from the Present Continuous ("are going") in direct speech. Also, "they" becomes "we" when the speakers are referring to themselves.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Pronoun change: "They" (the ones speaking) would say "We."

- Tense change: "were going" (Indirect) shifts back to "are going" (Direct).

- Option (A) correctly identifies both the pronoun and tense reversion.

- Option (D) is incorrect because it keeps the past tense inside the quotes.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sentence is (A) They said, “we are going to the theatre”. Quick Tip: Direct speech is like a "time capsule." It must contain the exact words and tense used at the time of speaking, which is usually the present tense for ongoing actions.


Question 30:

Convert the sentence into DIRECT SPEECH: He said he had been working.

  • (A) He said “I have been working”
  • (B) He said “he has been working”
  • (C) He said “He had been working”
  • (D) He said “I have worked”
Correct Answer: (A) He said “I have been working”
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Past Perfect Continuous ("had been working") in indirect speech typically originates from the Present Perfect Continuous ("have been working") or the Past Continuous in direct speech.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Pronoun: "He" in indirect speech becomes "I" in direct speech.

- Tense: "had been" (Past Perfect) reverts to "have been" (Present Perfect).

- Option (A) is the standard conversion: I (Speaker) + have been working.

- Option (D) changes the aspect of the verb to Simple Perfect, which is incorrect.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sentence is (A) He said “I have been working”. Quick Tip: Check the table for Narration: - Direct "Present Perfect Continuous" \(\rightarrow\) Indirect "Past Perfect Continuous." - Direct "I" \(\rightarrow\) Indirect "He/She."


Question 31:

Convert the sentence into Passive Voice: She lights the lamp.

  • (A) The lamp was lighted by her
  • (B) The lamp is lighted by her
  • (C) The lamp has lighted by her
  • (D) The lamp is lighted by him
Correct Answer: (B) The lamp is lighted by her
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To convert a sentence from Active to Passive voice, the object of the active sentence becomes the subject of the passive sentence. The verb form changes to a "be" verb + past participle (V3).


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

For Present Simple (Active: \(S + V1 + O\)): \[ Passive: Object + is/am/are + V3 + by + Subject \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

- Subject: She

- Verb: lights (Present Simple)

- Object: the lamp

In Passive:
- The subject "She" becomes the object "her."
- The object "The lamp" becomes the new subject.
- Since "The lamp" is singular and the tense is present, we use "is."
- The V3 of "light" is "lighted" (or "lit").
- Result: "The lamp is lighted by her."


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct passive form is (B) The lamp is lighted by her. Quick Tip: Always identify the tense of the active sentence first. "Lights" is present tense, so the passive must use "is/am/are," never "was" or "had."


Question 32:

Convert the sentence into Passive Voice: He is not driving a car.

  • (A) A car is not being driven by him
  • (B) A car is not driven by him
  • (C) A car was not being driven by him
  • (D) A car was not been driven by him
Correct Answer: (A) A car is not being driven by him
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This sentence is in the Present Continuous tense. In passive voice, continuous tenses require the addition of the word "being" to maintain the sense of ongoing action.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

For Present Continuous (Active: \(S + is/am/are + V-ing + O\)): \[ Passive: Object + is/am/are + being + V3 + by + Subject \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

- Subject: He (becomes "him")

- Object: A car

- Verb: is not driving

In Passive:
- "A car" + "is not" + "being" + "driven" (V3 of drive) + "by him."
- Option (B) lacks "being" (Simple Present passive).
- Options (C) and (D) incorrectly use past tense ("was").


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct passive form is (A) A car is not being driven by him. Quick Tip: Whenever you see an "-ing" verb in the active voice, look for "being" in the passive voice options.


Question 33:

Convert the sentence into Active Voice: The assignment had been completed by her.

  • (A) She had been completed the assignment
  • (B) She had been completing the assignment
  • (C) She completed the assignment
  • (D) She had completed the assignment
Correct Answer: (D) She had completed the assignment
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Converting from Passive to Active involves identifying the tense and reversing the roles of the subject and object. The word "been" in a "had been + V3" structure indicates that the original active sentence was in the Past Perfect tense.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

Passive Past Perfect: \(Obj + had been + V3 + by + Sub\) \[ Active Past Perfect: Subject + had + V3 + Object \]


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

- "By her" tells us the active subject is "She."
- "Had been completed" indicates Past Perfect.
- Removing "been" and placing the subject at the start gives: "She had completed the assignment."
- Option (C) is Simple Past, which is incorrect.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct active form is (D) She had completed the assignment. Quick Tip: To go from Passive to Active: "had been" becomes "had," "is being" becomes "is/am/are + -ing," and "is" becomes the base verb.


Question 34:

Convert the sentence into Active Voice: Our home-work shall have been completed by us.

  • (A) We shall have been completed our home-work
  • (B) We shall have completed their home-work
  • (C) We shall have completed our home-work
  • (D) They shall have completed our home-work
Correct Answer: (C) We shall have completed our home-work
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The sentence "shall have been completed" is in the Future Perfect tense (Passive). To convert to active, we remove "been" and restore the subject-verb-object order.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- "By us" indicates the subject is "We."
- Tense: Future Perfect.
- Construction: Subject (We) + shall have + V3 (completed) + Object (our home-work).
- Option (B) changes "our" to "their," which changes the meaning.
- Option (D) changes "We" to "They," which is incorrect.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct active form is (C) We shall have completed our home-work. Quick Tip: Pay close attention to pronouns and possessive adjectives (like 'our'). They must remain consistent with the original meaning of the sentence.


Question 35:

Choose the words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole: Seventy two year old man ------- half his time in India and the ----- in the US.

  • (A) spend, rests
  • (B) spends, rest
  • (C) reside, live
  • (D) live, remaining
Correct Answer: (B) spends, rest
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests Subject-Verb Agreement and the idiomatic use of "the rest" to mean the remaining part of a whole.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. The Subject: "Seventy two year old man" is a singular third-person subject.
2. The Verb: In Present Simple, a singular subject requires a verb ending in 's'. Therefore, "spends" is correct. This eliminates (A), (C), and (D).
3. The Second Blank: The phrase "the rest" is a standard English idiom meaning the remaining portion of time. "The rests" (plural) or "the live" are grammatically incorrect here.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct pair is (B) spends, rest. Quick Tip: For Subject-Verb agreement, always identify the core noun. Here it is "man" (singular), so "spends" is the only logical choice for the first blank.


Question 36:

Choose the words for each blank that best fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole: The new programme would enhance the ------- of the professionals and deepen the ------ of safety protocols.

  • (A) income, issue
  • (B) spread, darkness
  • (C) expenditure, problems
  • (D) skill, understanding
Correct Answer: (D) skill, understanding
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires identifying words that maintain a logical and positive "collocation" (words that naturally go together) within a professional and educational context.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The sentence discusses a "programme" (like training).
- We "enhance" something positive like "skill" or "ability."
- We "deepen" abstract concepts like "understanding" or "knowledge."
- Option (A) is incorrect because "deepen the issue" has a negative connotation.
- Option (B) and (C) make no sense in the context of professional development.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct pair is (D) skill, understanding. Quick Tip: When solving fill-in-the-blanks, look for "trigger" verbs. "Enhance" and "Deepen" are almost always paired with positive growth metrics like skills, knowledge, or insight.


Question 37:

The 160-metre long skywalk will ----- public to move safely between bus stand and railway station.

  • (A) give
  • (B) enable
  • (C) sanction
  • (D) improve
Correct Answer: (B) enable
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The sentence describes the function of a piece of infrastructure. We need a verb that indicates making an action possible for a group of people.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Enable: To make someone able to do something or to make something possible. It is the perfect fit for infrastructure providing a new capability.
- Give: Requires an object (e.g., "give the public a way").
- Sanction: Means to give official permission or to penalize; it doesn't fit the physical act of moving.
- Improve: You improve the "movement," you don't "improve public to move."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct word is (B) enable. Quick Tip: The structure "Verb + Object + to + Infinitive" (e.g., enable the public to move) is a major clue. "Enable" and "Allow" are common verbs for this pattern.


Question 38:

The armed forces used air defence mechanisms to ------ armed drone and missile attacks from another country.

  • (A) discourage
  • (B) foster
  • (C) avoid
  • (D) thwart
Correct Answer: (D) thwart
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests vocabulary related to security and defense. The verb must describe the successful prevention of an attack.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Thwart: To prevent someone from accomplishing something or to stop an effort from succeeding. It is the standard term for stopping an attack.
- Discourage: To persuade against an action; air defenses physically stop attacks, they don't just "talk them out of it."
- Foster: To encourage or promote (the opposite of what is needed).
- Avoid: To stay away from; a country cannot simply "avoid" an incoming missile; it must intercept it.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct word is (D) thwart. Quick Tip: In news and military contexts, "thwart," "foil," and "intercept" are the most common verbs used when an intended plan or attack is stopped.


Question 39:

Security measures have been intensified at the airport ------- an order from the Bureau of Civil Aviation Security.

  • (A) following
  • (B) preceding
  • (C) earlier
  • (D) before
Correct Answer: (A) following
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This sentence establishes a cause-and-effect relationship in time. The security increased {after the order was given.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Following: Used here as a preposition meaning "as a result of" or "after." It shows that the order was the reason for the intensification.
- Preceding/Before: These would mean security was increased {before the order existed, which is illogical in a regulatory context.
- Earlier: This is an adverb and does not function correctly as a connector here.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct word is (A) following. Quick Tip: "Following" is frequently used in formal reporting to indicate that one event happened as a direct response to another.


Question 40:

Choose the meaning of the idiom: a blessing in disguise

  • (A) a bad thing that seemed good at first
  • (B) a good thing that seemed bad at first
  • (C) to ignore bad thing
  • (D) to welcome a good move
Correct Answer: (B) a good thing that seemed bad at first
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Idioms are phrases where the meaning cannot be understood literally. A "disguise" hides the true nature of something.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The idiom "a blessing in disguise" refers to a situation that initially appears to be a misfortune or a problem, but ultimately results in a beneficial outcome.
- Example: Losing a job (bad at first) but then finding a much better one (the blessing).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct meaning is (B) a good thing that seemed bad at first. Quick Tip: If you see the word "disguise," it means the true nature (the "blessing") was hidden behind an ugly or negative exterior initially.


Question 41:

Choose the meaning of the idiom: call it a day

  • (A) stop working on something
  • (B) start working on something
  • (C) take rest on the day
  • (D) go out on the day
Correct Answer: (A) stop working on something
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Idioms are expressions where the collective meaning of the words differs from their individual literal definitions. "Call it a day" is a common workplace idiom.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The phrase "call it a day" is used to decide that one has done enough work for the time being and should stop.
- It originates from the idea of "calling" the workday finished.
- Example: "We've been troubleshooting this code for six hours; let's call it a day and finish tomorrow."
- Options (B), (C), and (D) do not capture the specific nuance of stopping a task or shift.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct meaning is (A) stop working on something. Quick Tip: If you decide to stop working even later than usual, you might "call it a night." Both phrases mean the same thing: finishing a task for the current session.


Question 42:

Choose the meaning of the idiom: give someone the cold shoulder

  • (A) arrest someone
  • (B) beat someone
  • (C) ignore someone
  • (D) respect someone
Correct Answer: (C) ignore someone
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This idiom uses a physical metaphor (a cold part of the body turned away) to describe a social behavior.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

To "give someone the cold shoulder" means to intentionally ignore them or treat them in an unfriendly, distant manner.
- It often happens when someone is angry or wants to avoid a conversation.
- Option (A) refers to legal action.
- Option (B) refers to physical violence.
- Option (D) is the opposite of the idiom's meaning.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct meaning is (C) ignore someone. Quick Tip: Think of the word "cold" as "unfriendly." When you turn your shoulder to someone and act cold, you are ignoring them.


Question 43:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:

P: inducted into the

Q: 300 Home Guards were

R: police force on Friday

S: a total of

  • (A) QRPS
  • (B) SQPR
  • (C) RPQS
  • (D) QPRS
Correct Answer: (B) SQPR
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Sentence rearrangement requires identifying the subject, the verb, and the object/complement while ensuring the logic of the sentence flows correctly.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Step A: Find the start. "a total of" (S) naturally precedes a number.
- Step B: Connect S to Q. "a total of 300 Home Guards were" (S+Q). This provides a complete subject.
- Step C: Find the verb action. "inducted into the" (P) follows the auxiliary "were."
- Step D: Find the ending. "police force on Friday" (R) completes the location and time.
- Sequence: (S) a total of (Q) 300 Home Guards were (P) inducted into the (R) police force on Friday.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence is (B) SQPR. Quick Tip: In news-style sentences, look for quantitative phrases like "a total of" or "as many as" to identify the beginning of the subject phrase.


Question 44:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:

P: consultations with all

Q: stakeholders on the terms of reference

R: there should be wider

S: and other issues

  • (A) RPQS
  • (B) QSRP
  • (C) PQRS
  • (D) RPSQ
Correct Answer: (A) RPQS
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Look for logical links between adjectives and nouns, and prepositions and their objects.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Step A: "there should be wider" (R) is an introductory clause that needs a noun.
- Step B: "consultations with all" (P) fits perfectly after "wider."
- Step C: "consultations with all" (P) requires a group of people, which is "stakeholders on the terms of reference" (Q).
- Step D: "and other issues" (S) is a concluding additive phrase.
- Sequence: (R) there should be wider (P) consultations with all (Q) stakeholders on the terms of reference (S) and other issues.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence is (A) RPQS. Quick Tip: The word "wider" is an adjective that strongly signals an upcoming noun like "consultations" or "participation."


Question 45:

Rearrange the parts to form a meaningful and coherent sentence:

P: is the bedrock of a

Q: equitable society

R: a nourished population

S: resilient and

  • (A) QSPR
  • (B) QPSR
  • (C) RPQS
  • (D) RPSQ
Correct Answer: (D) RPSQ
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Identify the subject (the thing being discussed) and the predicate (what is being said about it).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Step A: "a nourished population" (R) is a strong subject.
- Step B: "is the bedrock of a" (P) is the verb phrase that connects the subject to its definition.
- Step C: "a bedrock of a" (P) needs an adjective-noun phrase.
- Step D: "resilient and" (S) is an adjective that naturally leads into another adjective like "equitable society" (Q).
- Sequence: (R) a nourished population (P) is the bedrock of a (S) resilient and (Q) equitable society.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence is (D) RPSQ. Quick Tip: The word "and" in part (S) is a connector. It usually joins two words of the same type (like the adjectives "resilient" and "equitable").


Question 46:

Choose the correct word from the options which is similar to the word given in capitals in the sentence: The officer was known for his INCORRUPTIBLE character.

  • (A) Venal
  • (B) Upright
  • (C) Dubious
  • (D) Expedient
Correct Answer: (B) Upright
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The word "INCORRUPTIBLE" refers to someone who is honest and cannot be bribed or morally corrupted. To find a similar word, we look for a synonym that describes high moral integrity.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Upright: This means strictly honorable or honest, which is a direct synonym for incorruptible.

- Venal: This is the antonym; it describes someone who is open to bribery or corruption.

- Dubious: This means hesitating, doubting, or not to be relied upon (suspicious).

- Expedient: This refers to something that is convenient or practical, often ignoring what is morally right.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct synonym is (B) Upright. Quick Tip: To remember "Incorruptible," look at the root "corrupt" and the prefix "in-" (not). It literally means "not able to be corrupted."


Question 47:

Choose the correct word from the options which is similar to the word given in capitals in the sentence: The committee rejected the proposal as UNTENABLE after careful scrutiny.

  • (A) Defensible
  • (B) Plausible
  • (C) Indefensible
  • (D) Ambiguous
Correct Answer: (C) Indefensible
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"UNTENABLE" describes an argument, theory, or position that cannot be maintained or defended against objection or criticism.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Indefensible: This is the direct synonym. If a proposal is untenable, it is impossible to defend.

- Defensible: This is the antonym; something that can be justified.

- Plausible: This means seeming reasonable or probable (often used for excuses).

- Ambiguous: This means open to more than one interpretation (unclear).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct synonym is (C) Indefensible. Quick Tip: The root "ten" in "untenable" comes from the Latin tenere, meaning "to hold." So, untenable means it cannot be "held" or maintained.


Question 48:

He is one of those scholars whom the committee has always looked __ as a potential successor to the chair.

  • (A) up to
  • (B) forward to
  • (C) into
  • (D) onto
Correct Answer: (A) up to
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question tests the knowledge of "phrasal verbs" involving the word "look." The correct choice must fit the context of viewing someone with respect or as a worthy candidate.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Look up to: To admire or respect someone. In the context of a "potential successor," it implies the committee holds him in high regard.

- Look forward to: To anticipate something with pleasure (usually followed by an event or gerund, not a person in this sense).

- Look into: To investigate something (like a crime or a problem).

- Look onto: To have a view of a specific place (like a window looking onto a garden).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct prepositional phrase is (A) up to. Quick Tip: "Look up to" = Respect. "Look down on" = Disrespect. These are useful opposites to remember for character-based sentences.


Question 49:

Which one of the following is a correctly spelled word?

  • (A) connoissuer
  • (B) connoisseur
  • (C) connoiseur
  • (D) connoissieur
Correct Answer: (B) connoisseur
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This word is of French origin, which often leads to spelling errors in English due to the unusual vowel and consonant combinations.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The word "connoisseur" (meaning an expert judge in matters of taste) follows a specific pattern:
- Double 'n' (conno-).
- Double 's' (-sseur).
- The vowel ending is '-eur'.
- Option (B) is the only one that correctly includes the double 'n', double 's', and the correct vowel placement 'oi' and 'eur'.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correctly spelled word is (B) connoisseur. Quick Tip: Break it down: Con-nois-seur. Remember it has two 'n's and two 's's. It's one of the most frequently asked words in spelling exams!


Question 50:

Identify the linking verb in the sentence: Though he appeared confident during the interview, he remained uncertain about the final outcome.

  • (A) appeared
  • (B) remained
  • (C) uncertain
  • (D) interview
Correct Answer: (A) and (B)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A linking verb does not express an action. Instead, it connects the subject of the sentence to an adjective or noun (subject complement) that describes or identifies the subject.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In this sentence, there are two clauses, each with its own linking verb:
1. "he appeared confident": "Appeared" links the subject "he" to the state of being "confident."
2. "he remained uncertain": "Remained" links the subject "he" to the state of being "uncertain."
- Option (C) "uncertain" is an adjective, not a verb.
- Option (D) "interview" is a noun.
Note: While the question asks to identify "the" linking verb, both (A) and (B) function as linking verbs here. In many test formats, "appeared" is the primary one being tested.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Both (A) appeared and (B) remained are linking verbs; however, based on standard single-choice logic, (A) is often the intended primary answer. Quick Tip: To test if a verb is a linking verb, try replacing it with "is" or "was." (He {was} confident; He {was} uncertain). If the sentence still makes sense, it's a linking verb!


Question 51:

A wall of 60 m long can be built by 36 men in 21 days. Number of men required to build the same wall in 14 days, is

  • (A) 50
  • (B) 52
  • (C) 54
  • (D) 56
Correct Answer: (C) 54
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem is based on the concept of "Time and Work." Specifically, it uses the inverse relationship between the number of workers and the time taken to complete a constant amount of work. If the work remains the same, more men will take fewer days, and vice versa.


Step 2: Mathematical Formula:

Since the work (the 60 m wall) is constant, we use the Chain Rule formula: \(\)M_1 \times D_1 = M_2 \times D_2\(\)
Where:
- \(M_1 = 36\) (Initial number of men)
- \(D_1 = 21\) (Initial number of days)
- \(D_2 = 14\) (New number of days)
- \(M_2 = \) Number of men required for the new duration.


Step 3: Calculation:

Plug the given values into the formula: \(\)36 \times 21 = M_2 \times 14\(\) \(\)M_2 = {36 \times 21{14\(\)
Simplify by dividing 21 and 14 by 7: \(\)M_2 = {36 \times 3{2\(\) \(\)M_2 = 18 \times 3 = 54\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The number of men required to build the wall in 14 days is 54. Quick Tip: Always remember: \(M \times D = Work\). If the work is the same, simply equate the products of men and days. If the work changes, use the formula \({M_1 D_1}{W_1} = {M_2 D_2}{W_2}\).


Question 52:

A typing work is done by two persons A and B. A and B together can type a booklet in 4 hours, but A alone takes 12 hours to type the booklet. How many hours required for B to type the booklet?

  • (A) 3 hours
  • (B) 4 hours
  • (C) 5 hours
  • (D) 6 hours
Correct Answer: (D) 6 hours
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To solve this, we determine the "rate of work" for each person. The rate is the reciprocal of the time taken. The combined rate of A and B is equal to the sum of their individual rates.


Step 2: Mathematical Formula:

Let the time taken by B be \(x\) hours. \(\)Rate of (A + B) = {Rate of A + {Rate of B\(\) \(\){1{T_{total = {1{T_A + {1{T_B\(\)
Given: \(T_{total = 4\) hours, \(T_A = 12\) hours.


Step 3: Calculation:

Substitute the values into the equation: \(\){1{4 = {1{12 + {1{x\(\) \(\){1{x = {1{4 - {1{12\(\)
Find a common denominator (12): \(\){1{x = {3 - 1{12 = {2{12 = {1{6\(\)
Therefore, \(x = 6\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

B requires 6 hours to type the booklet alone. Quick Tip: For two people, if you know the combined time (\(T\)) and one individual's time (\(A\)), the other's time (\(B\)) is always: \(B = {A \times T}{A - T}\). Here: \({12 \times 4}{12 - 4} = {48}{8} = 6\).


Question 53:

A pipe fills a tank in 4 hours; another empties it in 8 hours. If both are opened, how long will it take to fill the tank?

  • (A) 4 hours
  • (B) 6 hours
  • (C) 8 hours
  • (D) 10 hours
Correct Answer: (C) 8 hours
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a "Pipes and Cisterns" problem. Filling is considered positive work, and emptying (leakage) is considered negative work. We calculate the net rate of the tank being filled per hour.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Filling rate of Pipe 1 = \({1}{4}\) tank per hour.
- Emptying rate of Pipe 2 = \({1}{8}\) tank per hour.
- When both are open, the net rate = (Filling rate) \(-\) (Emptying rate).


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)Net Rate = {1{4 - {1{8\(\) \(\){Net Rate = {2 - 1{8 = {1{8 { tank per hour\(\)
The time taken to fill the tank is the reciprocal of the net rate: \(\){Time = {1{1/8 = 8 { hours\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

It will take 8 hours to fill the tank. Quick Tip: If one pipe fills in \(x\) and another empties in \(y\), the time to fill is \({xy{y - x}\). Here: \({4 \times 8}{8 - 4} = {32}{4} = 8\) hours.


Question 54:

A is twice as efficient as B. If A and B together finish a job in 12 days, then number of days required for B to finish the job, is

  • (A) 18 days
  • (B) 24 days
  • (C) 30 days
  • (D) 36 days
Correct Answer: (D) 36 days
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken. If A is twice as efficient as B, A will do twice as much work as B in the same amount of time.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the efficiency (work per day) of B be \(1\) unit/day.
Since A is twice as efficient, A's efficiency is \(2\) units/day.
- Combined efficiency of (A + B) = \(2 + 1 = 3\) units/day.
- They finish the job in 12 days.
- Total Work = Combined Efficiency \(\times\) Days = \(3 \times 12 = 36\) units.


Step 3: Calculation:

Now, we find the time taken by B alone to complete these 36 units: \(\){Time for B = {{Total Work{{B's Efficiency\(\) \(\){Time for B = {36{1 = 36 { days\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

B will take 36 days to finish the job alone. Quick Tip: Ratio of efficiency \(A:B = 2:1\). Total parts = 3. Total work = \(3 \times 12 = 36\). Since B's part is 1, B takes \(36/1 = 36\) days. If you needed A's time, it would be \(36/2 = 18\) days.


Question 55:

Two men A and B complete a task in 8 days and earn Rs.8000. If A does 60% of the work, then A gets

  • (A) Rs.4800
  • (B) Rs.6000
  • (C) Rs.4200
  • (D) Rs.4000
Correct Answer: (A) Rs.4800
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In "Work and Wages" problems, money is distributed in the same ratio as the amount of work done by each individual. Time taken (8 days) is irrelevant here because the percentage of work done is already provided.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Total Earnings = Rs. 8000.
- Percentage of work done by A = \(60%\).
- Since wages are proportional to the work done, A's share is simply \(60%\) of the total earnings.


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\){A's share = 60% { of 8000\(\) \(\){A's share = {60{100 \times 8000\(\) \(\){A's share = 60 \times 80 = 4800\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The amount A gets is Rs. 4800. Quick Tip: Wages are ALWAYS based on work done, not time spent, unless everyone works at the exact same rate. If A did \(60%\), B automatically did \(40%\), getting Rs. 3200.


Question 56:

An amount invested at 12% simple interest amounts to Rs. 6200 in 2 years. The principal amount is

  • (A) Rs. 5000
  • (B) Rs. 5200
  • (C) Rs. 5400
  • (D) Rs. 5600
Correct Answer: (A) Rs. 5000
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In simple interest, the "Amount" (\(A\)) is the sum of the Principal (\(P\)) and the Simple Interest (\(SI\)). The interest is calculated only on the principal amount for the given duration.


Step 2: Mathematical Formula:
\(\)SI = {P \times R \times T{100\(\) \(\)A = P + SI = P + {P \times R \times T{100 = P\left(1 + {RT{100\right)\(\)
Given: \(A = 6200\), \(R = 12%\), \(T = 2\) years.


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)6200 = P\left(1 + {12 \times 2{100\right)\(\) \(\)6200 = P\left(1 + {24{100\right) = P\left({124{100\right)\(\) \(\)P = {6200 \times 100{124\(\)
Dividing 6200 by 124 (\(124 \times 5 = 620\), so \(124 \times 50 = 6200\)): \(\)P = 50 \times 100 = 5000\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The principal amount is Rs. 5000. Quick Tip: To solve faster, think in percentages: Interest for 2 years at 12% is 24%. So, 124% of Principal = 6200. Principal = \(6200 / 1.24 = 5000\).


Question 57:

Let x and y be positive integers such that \(x^2 + y^2 + xy = 61\). If \(x = 4\), then the value of y is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 7
Correct Answer: (B) 5
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is an algebraic substitution problem. Given an equation with two variables and the value of one variable, we can solve for the other by creating a quadratic equation or using simple arithmetic.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Substitute \(x = 4\) into the equation \(x^2 + y^2 + xy = 61\): \(\)4^2 + y^2 + 4y = 61\(\) \(\)16 + y^2 + 4y = 61\(\)


Step 3: Calculation:

Rearrange the equation to form a standard quadratic equation: \(\)y^2 + 4y + 16 - 61 = 0\(\) \(\)y^2 + 4y - 45 = 0\(\)
Factor the quadratic equation (find two numbers that multiply to -45 and add to 4): \(\)(y + 9)(y - 5) = 0\(\)
This gives \(y = -9\) or \(y = 5\). Since the question states \(y\) is a positive integer, we choose \(y = 5\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The value of \(y\) is 5. Quick Tip: If you don't want to factor the quadratic, simply plug the options into \(y^2 + 4y = 45\). For \(y=5\): \(25 + 20 = 45\). It fits perfectly!


Question 58:

A sum of money invested at compound interest amounts to Rs.15,000 in one year and Rs.16,500 in two years. Then the rate of interest is

  • (A) 8%
  • (B) 10%
  • (C) 12%
  • (D) 15%
Correct Answer: (B) 10%
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In Compound Interest (CI), the amount at the end of the first year becomes the principal for the second year. Therefore, the interest earned in the second year is simply the interest on the first year's amount.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Amount after 1 year (\(A_1\)) = Rs. 15,000
- Amount after 2 years (\(A_2\)) = Rs. 16,500
- Interest earned in the 2nd year = \(A_2 - A_1 = 16,500 - 15,000 = 1,500\).


Step 3: Calculation:

Since this interest was earned on the principal of Rs. 15,000 (the amount from year 1): \(\)Rate = \left({{Interest earned{{Amount at end of Year 1\right) \times 100\(\) \(\){Rate = \left({1,500{15,000\right) \times 100\(\) \(\){Rate = {1{10 \times 100 = 10%\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The rate of interest is 10%. Quick Tip: For consecutive years in CI, Rate = \({{Difference in Amounts}{Earlier Amount} \times 100\). This makes solving year-to-year compound interest problems very simple.


Question 59:

In how many years will Rs.15,000 become Rs.19,500 at 5% simple interest per annum?

  • (A) 4 years
  • (B) 8 years
  • (C) 5 years
  • (D) 6 years
Correct Answer: (D) 6 years
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to find the time (\(T\)) using the Simple Interest formula. First, determine the total interest (\(SI\)) by subtracting the principal (\(P\)) from the total amount (\(A\)).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- \(P = 15,000\)
- \(A = 19,500\)
- \(SI = A - P = 19,500 - 15,000 = 4,500\)
- \(R = 5%\)


Step 3: Calculation:

Using \(SI = {P \times R \times T}{100}\): \(\)4500 = {15000 \times 5 \times T{100\(\) \(\)4500 = 150 \times 5 \times T\(\) \(\)4500 = 750 \times T\(\) \(\)T = {4500{750 = {450{75 = 6\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The time required is 6 years. Quick Tip: 5% of 15,000 is 750. This is the interest for {one} year. To get 4,500 total interest, just divide: \(4500 / 750 = 6\) years.


Question 60:

If the compound interest for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs.1050, then the principal amount is

  • (A) Rs.5000
  • (B) Rs.5500
  • (C) Rs.6000
  • (D) Rs.6500
Correct Answer: (A) Rs.5000
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Compound interest (\(CI\)) is the difference between the final amount (\(A\)) and the principal (\(P\)). For 2 years, we can use the specific CI formula or the "effective rate" method.


Step 2: Mathematical Formula:
\(\)CI = P \left[\left(1 + {R{100\right)^T - 1\right]\(\)
Given: \(CI = 1050\), \(R = 10\), \(T = 2\).


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)1050 = P \left[\left(1 + {10{100\right)^2 - 1\right]\(\) \(\)1050 = P [(1.1)^2 - 1]\(\) \(\)1050 = P [1.21 - 1]\(\) \(\)1050 = P \times 0.21\(\) \(\)P = {1050{0.21 = {105000{21 = 5000\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The principal amount is Rs. 5000. Quick Tip: The effective CI rate for 2 years at 10% is \(10 + 10 + {10 \times 10}{100} = 21%\). Since 21% of Principal = 1050, then 1% = 50, and 100% (Principal) = 5000.


Question 61:

The ratio of boys to girls in a school is 3:5. If there are 240 girls, then number of boys in the school is

  • (A) 120
  • (B) 132
  • (C) 148
  • (D) 144
Correct Answer: (D) 144
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A ratio represents the relative sizes of two or more values. If the ratio of boys to girls is \(3:5\), it means for every 5 girls, there are 3 boys.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the number of boys be \(3x\) and the number of girls be \(5x\).
We are given that the number of girls (\(5x\)) is 240.


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)5x = 240\(\) \(\)x = {240{5 = 48\(\)
Now, find the number of boys (\(3x\)): \(\){Boys = 3 \times 48 = 144\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The number of boys in the school is 144. Quick Tip: To solve ratio problems quickly, divide the known value by its ratio part (\(240 / 5 = 48\)) and multiply the result by the required ratio part (\(48 \times 3 = 144\)).


Question 62:

If 5 : x = 60 : 48, then x is equal to

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When two ratios are equal (\(a:b = c:d\)), they are said to be in proportion. This can be written as a fraction: \({a}{b} = {c}{d}\). In any proportion, the product of the means equals the product of the extremes (\(ad = bc\)).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Write the proportion as an equation: \(\){5{x = {60{48\(\)


Step 3: Calculation:

Cross-multiply to solve for \(x\): \(\)5 \times 48 = 60 \times x\(\) \(\)240 = 60x\(\) \(\)x = {240{60 = 4\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The value of \(x\) is 4. Quick Tip: Simplify the known ratio first! \(60:48\) simplifies to \(5:4\) (dividing both by 12). So, \(5:x = 5:4\) makes it obvious that \(x = 4\).


Question 63:

A sweet item contains sugar and flour in the ratio 3 : 4. If 400g of flour is used in the sweet item, then the quantity of sugar used in the sweet item is

  • (A) 300g
  • (B) 350g
  • (C) 400g
  • (D) 450g
Correct Answer: (A) 300g
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a direct application of ratios. The relationship between sugar and flour is fixed at \(3/4\).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the amount of sugar be \(S\).
The ratio is \({Sugar}{Flour} = {3}{4}\).
Given: \(Flour = 400g\).


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\){S{400 = {3{4\(\) \(\)S = {3 \times 400{4\(\) \(\)S = 3 \times 100 = 300\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The quantity of sugar used is 300g. Quick Tip: If 4 parts = 400g, then 1 part = 100g. Therefore, 3 parts (sugar) must be 300g.


Question 64:

The monthly salaries of three employees A, B and C are in the ratio 3:4:5. If the total monthly salary of the three employees is Rs.7200, then the salaries of A, B and C are respectively

  • (A) Rs.2400, Rs.2800 and Rs.3200
  • (B) Rs.1800, Rs.2400 and Rs.3000
  • (C) Rs.1600, Rs.2400 and Rs.3200
  • (D) Rs.1800, Rs.2200 and Rs.3000
Correct Answer: (B) Rs.1800, Rs.2400 and Rs.3000
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To divide a total amount into a given ratio, you must first find the sum of the ratio parts.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Ratio = \(3:4:5\)
- Sum of parts = \(3 + 4 + 5 = 12\)
- Total salary = Rs. 7200
- Value of 1 part = \({7200}{12} = 600\)


Step 3: Calculation:

- Salary of A (\(3 parts\)) = \(3 \times 600 = 1800\)
- Salary of B (\(4 parts\)) = \(4 \times 600 = 2400\)
- Salary of C (\(5 parts\)) = \(5 \times 600 = 3000\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The salaries are Rs. 1800, Rs. 2400, and Rs. 3000. Quick Tip: Check the options! Only option (B) starts with 1800 and has values that follow the \(3:4:5\) relationship (\(18:24:30\) reduces to \(3:4:5\)).


Question 65:

A runner can complete a 750 m race in two and a half minutes. The speed of the runner is

  • (A) 18 km/hr
  • (B) 16 km/hr
  • (C) 20 km/hr
  • (D) 22 km/hr
Correct Answer: (A) 18 km/hr
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Speed is defined as \(Distance / Time\). To get the answer in km/hr, we must convert the distance from meters to kilometers and the time from minutes to hours.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Distance = \(750 m = 0.75 km\)
- Time = \(2.5 minutes = {2.5}{60} hours = {1}{24} hours\)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)Speed = {{Distance{{Time = {0.75{1/24\(\) \(\){Speed = 0.75 \times 24\(\) \(\){Speed = {3{4 \times 24 = 3 \times 6 = 18 { km/hr\(\)
Alternatively, calculate in m/s first: \(750 / 150{s = 5 m/s\). To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by \(18/5\): \(5 \times (18/5) = 18\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The speed of the runner is 18 km/hr. Quick Tip: To convert \(m/s\) to \(km/hr\), multiply by {18/5}. To convert \(km/hr\) to \(m/s\), multiply by {5/18}.


Question 66:

The 20th term of the sequence 1, 4, 7, 10, ... is equal to

  • (A) 56
  • (B) 66
  • (C) 68
  • (D) 58
Correct Answer: (D) 58
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This sequence is an Arithmetic Progression (AP) because the difference between any two consecutive terms is constant. This constant difference is called the "common difference" (\(d\)).


Step 2: Mathematical Formula:

The \(n\)-th term of an AP (\(a_n\)) is given by: \(\)a_n = a + (n - 1)d\(\)
Where:
- \(a = 1\) (the first term)
- \(d = 4 - 1 = 3\) (the common difference)
- \(n = 20\) (the term we want to find)


Step 3: Calculation:

Substitute the values into the formula: \(\)a_{20 = 1 + (20 - 1) \times 3\(\) \(\)a_{20 = 1 + (19 \times 3)\(\) \(\)a_{20 = 1 + 57 = 58\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The 20th term of the sequence is 58. Quick Tip: To find any term in an AP, just multiply the common difference by one less than the term number, and then add the first term.


Question 67:

A bacterium doubles every hour. There are 5 bacteria initially. How many will there be after 6 hours?

  • (A) 160 bacteria
  • (B) 320 bacteria
  • (C) 640 bacteria
  • (D) 460 bacteria
Correct Answer: (B) 320 bacteria
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem follows a Geometric Progression (GP) where each term is multiplied by a constant factor (2) every hour. This is representative of exponential growth.




Step 2: Mathematical Formula:

The number of bacteria (\(N\)) after \(t\) hours is: \(\)N = N_0 \times 2^t\(\)
Where:
- \(N_0 = 5\) (Initial count)
- \(t = 6\) (Time in hours)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)N = 5 \times 2^6\(\)
Calculate \(2^6\): \(2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 2 = 64\). \(\)N = 5 \times 64 = 320\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

After 6 hours, there will be 320 bacteria. Quick Tip: Doubling sequence: 1 hour (10), 2 hours (20), 3 hours (40), 4 hours (80), 5 hours (160), 6 hours (320). When the numbers are small, you can simply double the total mentally.


Question 68:

A ball bounces back to half of its previous height each time. If it is dropped from 256 meters, what is the height after the 6th bounce?

  • (A) 16 m
  • (B) 8 m
  • (C) 4 m
  • (D) 2 m
Correct Answer: (C) 4 m
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a decaying Geometric Progression. Every bounce reduces the height by a factor of \(1/2\).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let \(H\) be the initial height.
- After 1st bounce: \(H \times (1/2)\)
- After 2nd bounce: \(H \times (1/2)^2\)
- After \(n\)th bounce: \(H \times (1/2)^n\)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)H = 256 \times (1/2)^6\(\) \(\)H = 256 \times {1{64\(\) \(\)H = {256{64 = 4 meters\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The height after the 6th bounce is 4 meters. Quick Tip: Powers of 2 are very helpful here: \(256 = 2^8\). Dividing by \(2^6\) (the 6th bounce) leaves \(2^{(8-6) = 2^2 = 4\).


Question 69:

The 20th term in the triangular numbers 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, . . . is

  • (A) 190
  • (B) 195
  • (C) 200
  • (D) 210
Correct Answer: (D) 210
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A triangular number is the sum of the natural numbers from 1 to \(n\). They are called "triangular" because they can be arranged in an equilateral triangle.




Step 2: Mathematical Formula:

The \(n\)-th triangular number (\(T_n\)) is given by: \(\)T_n = {n(n + 1){2\(\)


Step 3: Calculation:

For \(n = 20\): \(\)T_{20 = {20(20 + 1){2\(\) \(\)T_{20 = {20 \times 21{2\(\) \(\)T_{20 = 10 \times 21 = 210\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The 20th triangular number is 210. Quick Tip: To find the \(n\)-th triangular number, multiply \(n\) by the next number and cut it in half!


Question 70:

How many numbers between 1 and 200 are divisible by 13?

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 17
  • (D) 15
Correct Answer: (B) 15
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To find how many numbers in a range from 1 to \(N\) are divisible by a number \(x\), you simply perform a floor division of \(N\) by \(x\). This gives you the total count of multiples.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

We are looking for the largest integer \(n\) such that: \(\)13n \leq 200\(\)


Step 3: Calculation:

Divide 200 by 13: \(\)200 \div 13 = 15.384...\(\)
The greatest integer less than or equal to 15.384 is 15.
Let's verify: \(13 \times 15 = 195\). (The next multiple is \(195 + 13 = 208\), which is outside the range).


Step 4: Final Answer:

There are 15 numbers between 1 and 200 divisible by 13. Quick Tip: Think of it as finding the "quotient." Ignore the remainder; the whole number part of your division is your answer.


Question 71:

The arithmetic mean of 20 numbers is 16. If each number is multiplied by 3, then the new mean is

  • (A) 60
  • (B) 48
  • (C) 23
  • (D) 19
Correct Answer: (B) 48
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The arithmetic mean is affected by the same mathematical operations applied to every number in the data set. If every value in a data set is multiplied by a constant \(k\), the mean of the data set is also multiplied by \(k\).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the numbers be \(x_1, x_2, \dots, x_{20}\).
The original mean (\(\bar{x}\)) is 16.
New numbers are \(3x_1, 3x_2, \dots, 3x_{20}\).
The new mean (\(\bar{x}_{new}\)) = \({3x_1 + 3x_2 + \dots + 3x_{20}}{20} = 3 \times \left({x_1 + x_2 + \dots + x_{20}}{20}\right)\).


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)\bar{x_{new = 3 \times {Original Mean\(\) \(\)\bar{x_{new = 3 \times 16 = 48\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The new mean is 48. Quick Tip: Properties of Mean: - If each observation is increased by \(a\), mean increases by \(a\). - If each observation is decreased by \(a\), mean decreases by \(a\). - If each observation is multiplied by \(a\), mean is multiplied by \(a\).


Question 72:

The mean of four numbers is 300. If the mean of two of the four numbers is 310, then the mean of the other two numbers is

  • (A) 290
  • (B) 295
  • (C) 300
  • (D) 305
Correct Answer: (A) 290
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Mean is defined as \(Total Sum / Number of items\). Therefore, \(Total Sum = Mean \times Number of items\). We can solve this by finding the sum of all numbers and subtracting the sum of the known subset.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Sum of 4 numbers = \(300 \times 4 = 1200\)
- Sum of first 2 numbers = \(310 \times 2 = 620\)


Step 3: Calculation:

- Sum of the other 2 numbers = \(1200 - 620 = 580\)
- Mean of the other 2 numbers = \({580}{2} = 290\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The mean of the other two numbers is 290. Quick Tip: Use the "Balance" method: The first two numbers are \(+10\) over the mean each (total \(+20\)). To balance, the other two must be \(-10\) under the mean each (total \(-20\)). \(300 - 10 = 290\).


Question 73:

If one-fourth of a number exceeds 20% of the number by 10, then the number is

  • (A) 150
  • (B) 180
  • (C) 200
  • (D) 250
Correct Answer: (C) 200
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is an algebraic word problem. "One-fourth" can be written as \(1/4\) or \(25%\), and "exceeds" implies a subtraction resulting in a specific difference.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the number be \(x\).
- One-fourth of the number = \({1}{4}x\) (or \(0.25x\))
- 20% of the number = \({20}{100}x\) (or \(0.20x\))
The equation is: \({1}{4}x - {1}{5}x = 10\)


Step 3: Calculation:

Using decimals: \(\)0.25x - 0.20x = 10\(\) \(\)0.05x = 10\(\) \(\)x = {10{0.05 = {1000{5 = 200\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The number is 200. Quick Tip: Think in percentages: \(25%\) of a number \(-\) \(20%\) of a number = \(10\). So, \(5%\) of the number = \(10\). If \(5% = 10\), then \(100% = 10 \times 20 = 200\).


Question 74:

The arithmetic mean of the numbers 7, 14, 21, . . . , 63 is

  • (A) 38
  • (B) 37
  • (C) 36
  • (D) 35
Correct Answer: (D) 35
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

For any set of numbers in an Arithmetic Progression (AP), the mean is simply the average of the first and last terms. This is because the terms are symmetrically distributed.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The sequence is 7, 14, 21, ..., 63.
- This is an AP with first term (\(a\)) = 7.
- Last term (\(l\)) = 63.
- Common difference (\(d\)) = 7.


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\){Mean = {a + l{2\(\) \(\){Mean = {7 + 63{2\(\) \(\){Mean = {70{2 = 35\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The arithmetic mean is 35. Quick Tip: This trick only works if the gaps between the numbers are equal (like the 7-times table). In such cases, the middle term is the mean!


Question 75:

The mean of 9 numbers is 50. One of the numbers is wrongly recorded as 63 instead of 36. What is the correct mean?

  • (A) 47
  • (B) 48
  • (C) 49
  • (D) 50
Correct Answer: (C) 49
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When a value is misrecorded, we must find the difference between the wrong value and the correct value, then distribute that difference across the total number of items to adjust the mean.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Total Sum (incorrect) = \(50 \times 9 = 450\)
- Error = Correct Value \(-\) Wrong Value
- Error = \(36 - 63 = -27\) (This means the total sum should be 27 less).


Step 3: Calculation:

- Correct Total Sum = \(450 - 27 = 423\)
- Correct Mean = \({423}{9} = 47\)
Wait, let's re-calculate: \(423 \div 9\): \(9 \times 40 = 360\) \(423 - 360 = 63\) \(9 \times 7 = 63\) \(40 + 7 = 47\).


Self-Correction on provided options: Based on the calculation \(423/9\), the result is exactly 47.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct mean is (A) 47. Quick Tip: Shortcut: \(New Mean = Old Mean + {Correct Value - Wrong Value{Number of items}\) \(New Mean = 50 + {36 - 63}{9} = 50 - {27}{9} = 50 - 3 = 47\).


Question 76:

A television is sold for Rs.44,000 at a profit of 10%. What is the cost price?

  • (A) Rs. 42,000
  • (B) Rs. 40,000
  • (C) Rs. 41,000
  • (D) Rs. 41,500
Correct Answer: (B) Rs. 40,000
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Selling Price (SP) is the Cost Price (CP) plus the profit. When profit is given as a percentage, SP represents \((100 + Profit% of CP)\).




Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\(\)CP = {SP \times 100{100 + Profit%\(\)
Given: \(SP = 44,000\) and \({Profit = 10%\).


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:
\(\)CP = {44000 \times 100{100 + 10\(\) \(\)CP = {44000 \times 100{110\(\)
Divide 44,000 by 110: \(\)CP = 400 \times 100 = 40,000\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The cost price is Rs. 40,000. Quick Tip: If profit is 10%, then 110% of CP = 44,000. Simply divide 44,000 by 1.1 to get the CP instantly.


Question 77:

A shopkeeper buys an item for Rs. 2800 and sells it at a 15% profit. What is the selling price?

  • (A) Rs. 3120
  • (B) Rs. 3140
  • (C) Rs. 3220
  • (D) Rs. 3240
Correct Answer: (C) Rs. 3220
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To find the Selling Price, we calculate the profit amount based on the Cost Price and add it to the Cost Price.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- \(CP = 2800\)
- \(Profit = 15% of 2800\)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\){Profit Amount = {15{100 \times 2800 = 15 \times 28 = 420\(\) \(\){Selling Price = CP + {Profit Amount\(\) \(\){Selling Price = 2800 + 420 = 3220\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The selling price is Rs. 3220. Quick Tip: To calculate 15% quickly: 10% of 2800 is 280. 5% is half of that (140). \(280 + 140 = 420\). Add 420 to the original price.


Question 78:

A man buys 100 apples for Rs. 3000 and sells 80 apples for Rs. 3000. What is the percentage of profit?

  • (A) 20%
  • (B) 22%
  • (C) 24%
  • (D) 25%
Correct Answer: (D) 25%
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When the total CP and total SP are the same for different quantities, the profit is made because goods remain in stock. The profit % is based on the items sold.


Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:

When CP of \(x\) items = SP of \(y\) items: \(\)Profit% = {{Goods Left Over{{Goods Sold \times 100\(\)


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

- Number of apples bought (\(x\)) = 100
- Number of apples sold (\(y\)) = 80
- Profit in terms of apples = \(100 - 80 = 20\) apples. \(\){Profit% = {20{80 \times 100\(\) \(\){Profit% = {1{4 \times 100 = 25%\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The percentage of profit is 25%. Quick Tip: Avoid calculating the price per apple. Just use: \(({Quantity Difference / Sold Quantity) \times 100\).


Question 79:

A trader offers a discount of 20% on a product but still makes a profit of 10%. What is the marked price of the product if the cost price is Rs.8000?

  • (A) Rs.11000
  • (B) Rs.10000
  • (C) Rs.10500
  • (D) Rs.9000
Correct Answer: (A) Rs.11000
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem connects Cost Price (CP), Selling Price (SP), and Marked Price (MP). Profit is always calculated on CP, and Discount is always calculated on MP.




Step 2: Key Formula or Approach:
\(\){MP{CP = {100 + Profit%{100 - {Discount%\(\)


Step 3: Detailed Explanation:

- \(CP = 8000\)
- \({Profit = 10%\)
- \(Discount = 20%\) \(\){MP{8000 = {100 + 10{100 - 20\(\) \(\){MP{8000 = {110{80\(\) \(\)MP = {110{80 \times 8000\(\) \(\)MP = 110 \times 100 = 11000\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The marked price is Rs. 11,000. Quick Tip: Remember this ratio: \(MP:CP = (100 + P%):(100 - D%)\). It is the fastest way to solve "Discount vs. Profit" problems.


Question 80:

The length and breadth of a rectangular field are 165m and 120m. If the field is to be paved with identical square tiles of maximum size, then the length of the side of the tiles is

  • (A) 10m
  • (B) 11m
  • (C) 16m
  • (D) 15m
Correct Answer: (D) 15m
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To find the "maximum size" of identical square tiles that fit perfectly into a rectangular area, we need to find the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of the length and the breadth.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The side of the square tile must be a factor of both 165 and 120. To maximize the tile size, we find the HCF of \((165, 120)\).


Step 3: Calculation:

Find factors using prime factorization:
- \(165 = 3 \times 5 \times 11\)
- \(120 = 2 \times 2 \times 2 \times 3 \times 5\)
The common factors are 3 and 5. \(\)HCF = 3 \times 5 = 15\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The length of the side of the maximum-sized square tile is 15m. Quick Tip: Whenever a problem asks for "maximum size" to fit dimensions, it is almost always asking for the HCF. If it asks for the "minimum time" to meet again, it's asking for the LCM.


Question 81:

The sum of two numbers is 6000. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we get 2 as quotient and 600 as remainder. What is the larger number?

  • (A) 4000
  • (B) 4100
  • (C) 4200
  • (D) 4300
Correct Answer: (C) 4200
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to use the Division Algorithm: \(Dividend = (Divisor \times Quotient) + Remainder\). Let the larger number be \(L\) and the smaller be \(S\).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

We have two equations based on the problem:
1. \(L + S = 6000\)
2. \(L = 2S + 600\) (using the division algorithm)


Step 3: Calculation:

Substitute equation (2) into equation (1): \(\)(2S + 600) + S = 6000\(\) \(\)3S + 600 = 6000\(\) \(\)3S = 5400\(\) \(\)S = 1800\(\)
Now find \(L\): \(\)L = 6000 - 1800 = 4200\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The larger number is 4200. Quick Tip: Check your answer: \(4200 + 1800 = 6000\). Also, \(4200 \div 1800\): \(1800 \times 2 = 3600\). Remainder is \(4200 - 3600 = 600\). It matches!


Question 82:

Which one of the following numbers is divisible by 3?

  • (A) 4678
  • (B) 5687
  • (C) 6988
  • (D) 6987
Correct Answer: (D) 6987
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A number is divisible by 3 if and only if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3. This is one of the most fundamental divisibility rules in mathematics.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's test each option by summing the digits:
- (A) \(4+6+7+8 = 25\) (Not divisible by 3)
- (B) \(5+6+8+7 = 26\) (Not divisible by 3)
- (C) \(6+9+8+8 = 31\) (Not divisible by 3)
- (D) \(6+9+8+7 = 30\) (\(30 \div 3 = 10\). Divisible by 3)


Step 3: Calculation:

Since the sum of the digits of 6987 is 30, and 30 is a multiple of 3, the entire number is divisible by 3.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (D) 6987. Quick Tip: When summing digits for divisibility by 3, you can "cast out 3s." In 6987, ignore the 6 and 9 (already divisible). Just check \(8+7 = 15\). Since 15 is divisible by 3, the whole number is too.


Question 83:

In a class there are 30 girls and 20 boys and their average height is 160 cm. If the average height of girls is 150 cm, then the average height of boys is

  • (A) 175cm
  • (B) 172cm
  • (C) 170cm
  • (D) 165cm
Correct Answer: (C) 175cm
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The total sum of heights for the whole class is the sum of the heights of the girls plus the sum of the heights of the boys. Total Sum = Average \(\times\) Number of Students.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Total students = \(30 + 20 = 50\)
- Total height of class = \(50 \times 160 = 8000 cm\)
- Total height of girls = \(30 \times 150 = 4500 cm\)


Step 3: Calculation:

- Total height of boys = \(Class Total - Girls' Total\)
- Total height of boys = \(8000 - 4500 = 3500 cm\)
- Average height of boys = \(3500 \div 20 = 175 cm\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The average height of the boys is 175cm. Quick Tip: Use the deviation method! Girls are 10cm below the mean. For 30 girls, that is a total "deficit" of 300cm. To balance, the 20 boys must provide a "surplus" of 300cm. \(300 \div 20 = 15\). So, \(160 + 15 = 175\).


Question 84:

In a survey of 80 people, 35 like tea, 40 like coffee and 15 like both. The number of people who like tea only, is

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 25
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 10
Correct Answer: (A) 20
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem is best visualized using a Venn Diagram. The set of people who "like tea" includes those who like {only tea and those who like {both tea and coffee.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Total liking Tea \(n(T) = 35\)
- Liking Both \(n(T \cap C) = 15\)
- To find "Tea only," we subtract those who like both from the total tea-drinkers.


Step 3: Calculation:
\(Tea Only = n(T) - n(T \cap C)\) \(Tea Only = 35 - 15 = 20\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The number of people who like tea only is 20. Quick Tip: Always subtract the "both" category from individual categories to find the "only" segments. For coffee only, it would be \(40 - 15 = 25\).


Question 85:

Sum of two numbers is 20 and their product is 75. Then sum of their squares is

  • (A) 225
  • (B) 240
  • (C) 250
  • (D) 260
Correct Answer: (C) 250
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem utilizes the algebraic identity: \((a+b)^2 = a^2 + b^2 + 2ab\). We are given \((a+b)\) and \((ab)\), and we need to find \((a^2 + b^2)\).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Given:
- \(a + b = 20\)
- \(ab = 75\)


Step 3: Calculation:

Squaring both sides of the sum: \(\)(a + b)^2 = 20^2\(\) \(\)a^2 + b^2 + 2ab = 400\(\)
Substitute the product (\(ab = 75\)): \(\)a^2 + b^2 + 2(75) = 400\(\) \(\)a^2 + b^2 + 150 = 400\(\) \(\)a^2 + b^2 = 400 - 150 = 250\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The sum of their squares is 250. Quick Tip: You can also find the numbers by logic: What two numbers add to 20 and multiply to 75? 15 and 5. Then, \(15^2 + 5^2 = 225 + 25 = 250\).


Question 86:

The LCM of two numbers is 1360 and their HCF is 20. If one of the numbers is 80, then the other number is

  • (A) 380
  • (B) 360
  • (C) 320
  • (D) 340
Correct Answer: (D) 340
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

There is a fundamental relationship between the Least Common Multiple (LCM) and the Highest Common Factor (HCF) of two numbers: the product of the two numbers is equal to the product of their LCM and HCF.


Step 2: Mathematical Formula:

Let the two numbers be \(a\) and \(b\). \(\)a \times b = LCM(a, b) \times {HCF(a, b)\(\)
Given: \({LCM = 1360\), \(HCF = 20\), and \(a = 80\).


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)80 \times b = 1360 \times 20\(\) \(\)b = {1360 \times 20{80\(\)
Simplify by dividing 20 and 80: \(\)b = {1360{4\(\) \(\)b = 340\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The other number is 340. Quick Tip: To simplify faster, notice that \(80 = 20 \times 4\). If you divide the LCM by that remaining 4, you get your answer instantly.


Question 87:

The value of the sum 8+16+24+32+ . . . +80 is

  • (A) 420
  • (B) 440
  • (C) 400
  • (D) 450
Correct Answer: (B) 440
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is the sum of an Arithmetic Progression (AP) where each term increases by 8. It is also simply the sum of the first 10 multiples of 8.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Factor out the common number 8: \(\)Sum = 8(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + \dots + 10)\(\)
The sum of the first \(n\) natural numbers is \({n(n+1){2}\).


Step 3: Calculation:

For \(n = 10\): \(\)Sum of 1 to 10 = {10 \times 11{2 = 55\(\)
Now, multiply by the factored 8: \(\){Total Sum = 8 \times 55 = 440\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The value of the sum is 440. Quick Tip: For an AP sum, you can also use: \({Average of first and last \times Number of terms\). Average \(= (8+80)/2 = 44\). Total \(= 44 \times 10 = 440\).


Question 88:

The difference of two numbers is 780 and their sum is 1120. Then the larger number is

  • (A) 880
  • (B) 900
  • (C) 950
  • (D) 975
Correct Answer: (C) 950
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a system of two linear equations with two variables. Let \(x\) be the larger number and \(y\) be the smaller number.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. \(x + y = 1120\)
2. \(x - y = 780\)


Step 3: Calculation:

To find the larger number (\(x\)), add the two equations together: \(\)(x + y) + (x - y) = 1120 + 780\(\) \(\)2x = 1900\(\) \(\)x = {1900{2 = 950\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The larger number is 950. Quick Tip: To find the {larger} number: \((Sum + Difference) / 2\). To find the {smaller} number: \((Sum - Difference) / 2\).


Question 89:

A positive integer m is increased by 20% and the resulting number is 1080. Then the integer m is

  • (A) 900
  • (B) 880
  • (C) 920
  • (D) 890
Correct Answer: (A) 900
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Increasing a number by 20% is the same as calculating 120% of that number. We can set up a simple percentage equation to solve for \(m\).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
\(\)m + 20% { of m = 1080\(\) \(\)1.20 \times m = 1080\(\)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)m = {1080{1.20\(\) \(\)m = {10800{12\(\)
Divide 1080 by 12: \(\)12 \times 9 = 108\(\) \(\)m = 900\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The integer \(m\) is 900. Quick Tip: Think of 20% as the fraction \(1/5\). If you add \(1/5\) to a number, you get \(6/5\) of that number. \(1080 \times (5/6) = 180 \times 5 = 900\).


Question 90:

The digits of the number 235 are permutated to form 6 numbers (including 235). What is the sum of the resulting 6 numbers?

  • (A) 2320
  • (B) 2120
  • (C) 2220
  • (D) 2310
Correct Answer: (C) 2220
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

When we form all possible numbers from a set of digits, each digit appears in the units, tens, and hundreds place an equal number of times. For 3 digits, each digit appears \(2! = 2\) times in each place.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The sum of the digits is \(2 + 3 + 5 = 10\).
Since there are 3 digits, each digit will appear \(2\) times in each position (Hundreds, Tens, Units).
- Sum of Units place: \(2 \times 10 = 20\)
- Sum of Tens place: \(2 \times 10 = 20\) (value 200)
- Sum of Hundreds place: \(2 \times 10 = 20\) (value 2000)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)Total Sum = (Sum \times 100) + (Sum \times 10) + (Sum \times 1)\(\) \(\){Total Sum = 2000 + 200 + 20 = 2220\(\)
Alternatively, use the formula: \(({Sum of digits) \times (n-1)! \times (111 \dots n times)\) \(\)10 \times 2 \times 111 = 2220\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The sum of the resulting 6 numbers is 2220. Quick Tip: For 3 distinct digits, the sum of all permutations is always \((Sum of digits) \times 222\). Here: \(10 \times 222 = 2220\).


Question 91:

What is the missing digit in the number 432_687 if the number is divisible by 9?

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 8
Correct Answer: (B) 6
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 9. This is similar to the rule for divisibility by 3.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the missing digit be \(x\). Sum the known digits: \(\)4 + 3 + 2 + x + 6 + 8 + 7 = 30 + x\(\)


Step 3: Calculation:

We need \(30 + x\) to be a multiple of 9. The next multiple of 9 after 30 is 36. \(\)30 + x = 36\(\) \(\)x = 6\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The missing digit is 6. Quick Tip: To sum digits faster, use "casting out nines." In 432\_687, notice \(4+3+2=9\) (ignore). \(6+8+7=21\). Sum of digits of 21 is 3. To get to 9, you need 6 more.


Question 92:

On dividing a number by 35, we get 29 as remainder. If the same number is divided by 7, then the remainder is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (A) 1
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

If a number \(N\) leaves a remainder \(R\) when divided by \(D\), and we divide \(N\) by a factor of \(D\), the new remainder is simply the remainder of \(R\) divided by the new divisor.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The number can be written as: \(N = 35k + 29\).
We want to divide this by 7. Since 7 is a factor of 35, the part \(35k\) will always be divisible by 7 (remainder 0). We only need to find the remainder when 29 is divided by 7.


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)29 \div 7 = 4 { with a remainder of 1\(\) \(\)(7 \times 4 = 28; 29 - 28 = 1)\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The remainder is 1. Quick Tip: Whenever the first divisor is a multiple of the second divisor, ignore the original number and just divide the first remainder by the second divisor.


Question 93:

The number of integers between 25 and 125, which are divisible by 6, is

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 16
  • (D) 18
Correct Answer: (C) 16
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is an Arithmetic Progression (AP) where the first term is the first multiple of 6 after 25, and the last term is the last multiple of 6 before 125.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- First multiple after 25 (\(a\)) = 30
- Last multiple before 125 (\(l\)) = 120 (since \(126\) is just over)
- Common difference (\(d\)) = 6


Step 3: Calculation:

Use the formula for the number of terms: \(n = {l - a}{d} + 1\) \(\)n = {120 - 30{6 + 1\(\) \(\)n = {90{6 + 1\(\) \(\)n = 15 + 1 = 16\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The number of integers is 16. Quick Tip: Alternatively: Multiples of 6 up to 125 is \(\lfloor 125/6 \rfloor = 20\). Multiples of 6 up to 25 is \(\lfloor 25/6 \rfloor = 4\). \(20 - 4 = 16\).


Question 94:

If 9859 – 7924 = 8765 – x, then the value of x is

  • (A) 6820
  • (B) 6832
  • (C) 6823
  • (D) 6830
Correct Answer: (D) 6830
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a basic linear equation in one variable. Solve the left-hand side first, then rearrange the equation to isolate \(x\).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Subtract the numbers on the left: \(\)9859 - 7924 = 1935\(\)
Now the equation is: \(1935 = 8765 - x\)


Step 3: Calculation:

Rearrange to solve for \(x\): \(\)x = 8765 - 1935\(\) \(\)x = 6830\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The value of \(x\) is 6830. Quick Tip: Check the last digits: \(9 - 4 = 5\). So the left side ends in 5. \(5 - x\) must end in 5, meaning \(x\) must end in 0. Only options (A) and (D) remain.


Question 95:

The smallest number x such that 4456 + x is divisible by 7 is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (A) 3
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To make a number divisible by 7, the addition \(x\) must be the difference between 7 and the remainder of the original number divided by 7.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

First, divide 4456 by 7 to find the remainder: \(44 \div 7 = 6\) (remainder 2) \(25 \div 7 = 3\) (remainder 4) \(46 \div 7 = 6\) (remainder 4)


Step 3: Calculation:

The remainder is 4.
To reach the next multiple of 7, we need to add: \(\)7 - 4 = 3\(\)
Check: \(4456 + 3 = 4459\). \(4459 \div 7 = 637\) (exactly).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The smallest number \(x\) is 3. Quick Tip: If a question asks what to {subtract}, it's the remainder. If it asks what to {add}, it's (Divisor - Remainder).


Question 96:

If we have the same remainder (non-zero) when dividing the numbers 863 and 814 by a number x, then the value of x is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 7
  • (D) 9
Correct Answer: (C) 7
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

If two numbers leave the same remainder when divided by a number \(x\), then the difference between those two numbers must be exactly divisible by \(x\). This is a fundamental property used in HCF-related problems.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the remainder be \(r\). \(863 = xq_1 + r\) \(814 = xq_2 + r\)
Subtracting the equations: \(863 - 814 = x(q_1 - q_2)\).
This shows that \(x\) must be a factor of the difference.


Step 3: Calculation:

Difference \(= 863 - 814 = 49\).
The factors of 49 are 1, 7, and 49.
Looking at the options, 7 is the only factor present.
Verification: \(863 \div 7 \rightarrow 123\) with remainder \(2\). \(814 \div 7 \rightarrow 116\) with remainder \(2\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The value of \(x\) is 7. Quick Tip: Whenever you see "same remainder," immediately find the difference between the numbers. The divisor you're looking for will always be a factor of that difference.


Question 97:

A letter is chosen at random from the word “PROBABILITY”. What is the probability that the letter is a consonant?

  • (A) 4/11
  • (B) 5/11
  • (C) 7/10
  • (D) 7/11
Correct Answer: (D) 7/11
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Probability is defined as the number of favorable outcomes divided by the total number of possible outcomes.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Word: P R O B A B I L I T Y
- Total letters (Total outcomes) = 11
- Vowels in the word: O, A, I, I (Total = 4)
- Consonants in the word: P, R, B, B, L, T, Y (Total = 7)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\){Probability = {{Number of Consonants{{Total Letters\(\) \(\){Probability = {7{11\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The probability is 7/11. Quick Tip: Be careful with duplicate letters! In probability, every position in the word counts as a distinct outcome, even if the letters are the same (like 'B' or 'I').


Question 98:

A bag contains 4 yellow marbles and 6 red marbles. What is the probability of drawing a red marble at random?

  • (A) 0.4
  • (B) 0.6
  • (C) 0.3
  • (D) 0.5
Correct Answer: (B) 0.6
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To find the probability of a single event, determine the total sample space (sum of all marbles) and the count of the specific event (red marbles).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Number of yellow marbles = 4
- Number of red marbles = 6
- Total marbles in bag = \(4 + 6 = 10\)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\){Probability of Red = {{Number of Red Marbles{{Total Marbles\(\) \(\){Probability of Red = {6{10\(\)
Convert to decimal: \(0.6\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The probability of drawing a red marble is 0.6. Quick Tip: Probabilities always range between 0 and 1. If you ever get a number larger than 1, check your division!


Question 99:

The probability of drawing a face card (Jack, Queen, King) from a standard deck of cards is

  • (A) 1/13
  • (B) 3/13
  • (C) 1/26
  • (D) 3/52
Correct Answer: (B) 3/13
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A standard deck contains 52 cards divided into 4 suits (Hearts, Diamonds, Clubs, Spades). Each suit has 3 "face cards" (Jack, Queen, King).




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Total number of cards = 52
- Face cards per suit = 3
- Total face cards in deck = \(3 \times 4 = 12\)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\){Probability = {12{52\(\)
Divide both numerator and denominator by 4: \(\){Probability = {3{13\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The probability of drawing a face card is 3/13. Quick Tip: Alternatively, since the proportion of face cards is the same in every suit, you can just look at one suit: 3 face cards out of 13 total cards in that suit.


Question 100:

An integer is chosen at random from 1 to 20. What is the probability that it is a prime number?

  • (A) 0.4
  • (B) 0.5
  • (C) 0.2
  • (D) 0.3
Correct Answer: (A) 0.4
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that has no positive divisors other than 1 and itself.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

List all prime numbers between 1 and 20:
2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19.
- Count of prime numbers = 8
- Total numbers (1 to 20) = 20


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\)Probability = {{Count of Primes{{Total Numbers\(\) \(\){Probability = {8{20\(\)
Simplify the fraction: \({2{5}\)
Convert to decimal: \(0.4\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The probability is 0.4. Quick Tip: Remember: 1 is NOT a prime number. 2 is the only even prime number. Forgetting these two facts is the most common mistake in prime number problems!


Question 101:

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?

  • (A) Adjective
  • (B) Verb
  • (C) Semicolon
  • (D) Noun
Correct Answer: (C) Semicolon
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is an odd-one-out classification problem. We must identify the shared characteristic of three items and find the one that lacks it.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Adjective, Verb, and Noun are all "Parts of Speech" in grammar. They represent categories of words.
- Semicolon is a "Punctuation Mark." It represents a symbol used to organize writing.


Step 3: Calculation:

Since Adjective, Verb, and Noun belong to the group of lexical categories (Parts of Speech) and Semicolon does not, Semicolon is the odd one out.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The item that does not belong to the group is (C) Semicolon. Quick Tip: In classification questions, always try to name the category the majority belongs to. If you can name the group (e.g., "Parts of Speech"), the outlier becomes obvious.


Question 102:

What is the sum of the heights of three brothers A, B, and C?

Statement I: B is the tallest and his height is 163 cm.

Statement II: A is the shortest and his height is 154 cm.

To answer the question

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient
  • (C) Both statement I and statement II together are sufficient
  • (D) Both statement I and statement II even together are not sufficient
Correct Answer: (D) Both statement I and statement II even together are not sufficient
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Data Sufficiency requires us to determine if the provided information is enough to calculate a specific unique value—in this case, the sum \((A + B + C)\).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- From Statement I, we know \(B = 163\) (Max).
- From Statement II, we know \(A = 154\) (Min).
- We know that brother \(C\) must have a height between 154 cm and 163 cm (inclusive or exclusive depending on if they can be equal, but the specific value is not given).


Step 3: Calculation:

The sum is \(154 + 163 + C = 317 + C\).
Since the height of \(C\) is not provided and cannot be determined from the other statements, we cannot find a single unique sum.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (D) because the height of the third brother remains unknown. Quick Tip: In Data Sufficiency, don't try to solve for the answer. Just check if all variables in your "sum" equation have assigned values. Here, \(C\) is a missing variable.


Question 103:

The Tennis players participating in a tournament are ranked according to their previous record. A player ranks 46th from the top and 58th from the bottom. How many Tennis Players are participating in the tournament?

  • (A) 102
  • (B) 103
  • (C) 104
  • (D) 105
Correct Answer: (B) 103
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In ranking problems, when the position of one person is given from both ends (top and bottom), adding the two ranks counts that specific person twice.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The total number of people in a row is given by the formula: \(\)Total = ({Rank from Top + {Rank from Bottom) - 1\(\)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\){Total = (46 + 58) - 1\(\) \(\){Total = 104 - 1 = 103\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

There are 103 Tennis players participating in the tournament. Quick Tip: A quick logical check: If there are 45 people above him and 57 people {below him, then Total \(= 45 + 57 + himself = 103\).


Question 104:

B is brother of S; S is sister of F and D is daughter of F. How is D related to B?

  • (A) Daughter
  • (B) Sister
  • (C) Niece
  • (D) Daughter-in-law
Correct Answer: (C) Niece
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Blood relation problems are solved by mapping out generations. Siblings are on the same level, while parents and children are on different vertical levels.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- B and S are siblings (B is male).
- S and F are siblings (S is female).
- Therefore, B, S, and F are all siblings (they share the same parents).
- D is the daughter of F.


Step 3: Calculation:

Since D is the child of B's sibling (F), the relationship of D to B is that of a Niece. (B is the uncle of D).


Step 4: Final Answer:

D is the niece of B. Quick Tip: Use "+" for male and "\(-\)" for female to keep track: \(B(+)\) --- \(S(-)\) --- \(F\). Since \(D\) is below \(F\), \(D\) must be a niece or nephew. Since \(D\) is a daughter, she is a niece.


Question 105:

The next number in the sequence of numbers 5, 8, 6, 9, 7, 10, 8, __ is

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 11
  • (D) 12
Correct Answer: (A) 9
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Number series often follow an alternating pattern or a "step-up, step-down" logic. We need to identify the mathematical rule governing the transitions.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's look at the transitions:
- \(5 \rightarrow 8\) (+3)
- \(8 \rightarrow 6\) (-2)
- \(6 \rightarrow 9\) (+3)
- \(9 \rightarrow 7\) (-2)
- \(7 \rightarrow 10\) (+3)
- \(10 \rightarrow 8\) (-2)


Step 3: Calculation:

The pattern is clearly an alternating \(+3\) and \(-2\). The last operation was \(-2\) (\(10 - 2 = 8\)). The next operation must be \(+3\): \(\)8 + 3 = 11\(\)

{Wait, let's re-examine the sequence: 5, 8, 6, 9, 7, 10, 8...
Alternating series 1: 5, 6, 7, 8... (Next is 9)
Alternating series 2: 8, 9, 10... (Next is 11)
Since the number we need follows 8 (from the first series), the next number in the alternating sequence should be from the second series.

Wait, let's look at the positions:
- Pos 1: 5
- Pos 3: 6
- Pos 5: 7
- Pos 7: 8
- Pos 2: 8
- Pos 4: 9
- Pos 6: 10
- Pos 8: ?
The 8th position belongs to the "even" sequence: 8, 9, 10... so the next is 11.

{Correction based on common logic: If we follow the \(+3, -2\) rule, \(8 + 3 = 11\). If we follow alternating strings, the next in the \(8, 9, 10\) series is 11.
However, if the question meant 9, the sequence would be looking for the next number in the other alternate series. Let's look at the options. 11 is (C).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The next number is 11. Quick Tip: For long sequences, always check for "Alternating Series." Split the sequence into two: \((5, 6, 7, 8)\) and \((8, 9, 10, 11)\). It makes the pattern much easier to see.


Question 106:

Lizard : Reptile :: Frog : ?

  • (A) Fish
  • (B) Mammal
  • (C) Amphibian
  • (D) Invertebrate
Correct Answer: (C) Amphibian
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is an analogy question based on biological classification. The first pair establishes a relationship between an animal and its biological class.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- A Lizard belongs to the class of Reptiles.
- We must identify which class a Frog belongs to.
- Frogs are characterized by their ability to live both on land and in water, which defines the class of Amphibians.


Step 3: Calculation:

The relationship is: [Animal] : [Class].
Therefore: Frog : Amphibian.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (C) Amphibian. Quick Tip: Common biological classes in analogies include: - Mammals (Humans, Whales, Bats) - Reptiles (Snakes, Lizards, Turtles) - Amphibians (Frogs, Toads, Salamanders)


Question 107:

The average height of 70 students in a class is 166 cm. There are 4 students in the class whose height is equal to the average height of 166 cm. If the height of 32 students is greater than 166 cm, then the number of students in the class whose height is less than 166 cm is

  • (A) 33
  • (B) 32
  • (C) 35
  • (D) 34
Correct Answer: (D) 34
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In this problem, we are categorizing a fixed population (70 students) into three mutually exclusive groups based on their height relative to the average: (1) Greater than average, (2) Equal to average, and (3) Less than average.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Total Students = 70
- Group 1 (Equal to 166 cm) = 4
- Group 2 (Greater than 166 cm) = 32
- Group 3 (Less than 166 cm) = Total - (Group 1 + Group 2)


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\){Group 3 = 70 - (4 + 32)\(\) \(\){Group 3 = 70 - 36\(\) \(\){Group 3 = 34\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The number of students whose height is less than 166 cm is 34. Quick Tip: Don't let the "average" value distract you. The actual value of the average (166 cm) is irrelevant to the count; only the number of students in each category matters.


Question 108:

In the following pairs of words, identify the pair of words that has same or similar relationship as Teacher : School

  • (A) Doctor : Hospital
  • (B) Chef : Food
  • (C) Driver : Car
  • (D) Researcher : Journal
Correct Answer: (A) Doctor : Hospital
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The relationship in "Teacher : School" is [Professional] : [Workplace]. We need to find the pair that follows the same logic.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- (A) Doctor : Hospital \(\rightarrow\) A Doctor works in a Hospital (Professional : Workplace). Match.
- (B) Chef : Food \(\rightarrow\) A Chef makes Food (Professional : Product).
- (C) Driver : Car \(\rightarrow\) A Driver operates a Car (Professional : Tool).
- (D) Researcher : Journal \(\rightarrow\) A Researcher publishes in a Journal (Professional : Output).


Step 3: Calculation:

Only option (A) correctly identifies the standard workplace for the given professional, mirroring the Teacher/School relationship.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The similar relationship is Doctor : Hospital. Quick Tip: To test an analogy, create a sentence: "A [First Word] works in a [Second Word]." Then see which option fits the sentence perfectly.


Question 109:

A software company lays off 40% of its employees. Among the lay-off employees 20% are developers. The percentage of lay-off developers from the total employees of the company is

  • (A) 5%
  • (B) 8%
  • (C) 10%
  • (D) 4%
Correct Answer: (B) 8%
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a problem involving "percentage of a percentage." We are calculating a sub-group's percentage relative to the original whole.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let the total number of employees be 100.
- Number of lay-off employees = 40% of 100 = 40.
- Number of lay-off developers = 20% of the lay-off group (40).


Step 3: Calculation:
\(\){Developers = {20{100 \times 40\(\) \(\){Developers = 0.20 \times 40 = 8\(\)
Since the original total was 100, the count 8 is equal to 8%.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The percentage of lay-off developers from the total employees is 8%. Quick Tip: For successive percentages, just multiply them: \(0.40 \times 0.20 = 0.08\) (which is 8%).


Question 110:

Everyone with good reading habit visits Book Exhibition and every book buyer has a good reading habit. Can we infer that all who visit Book Exhibition are book buyers?

  • (A) Yes
  • (B) No
  • (C) May be
  • (D) Insufficient information
Correct Answer: (B) No
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a Syllogism/Deductive Reasoning problem. We must determine if the logic flows "both ways" or only in one direction.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Premise 1: Book Buyer \(\rightarrow\) Good Reading Habit. (All buyers have the habit).
- Premise 2: Good Reading Habit \(\rightarrow\) Visits Book Exhibition. (All with the habit visit).
- Logical flow: Book Buyer \(\rightarrow\) Visits Book Exhibition.
- This tells us all book buyers are visitors. However, it does not tell us that all visitors are book buyers. There could be visitors who have a "good reading habit" but never buy books.


Step 3: Calculation:

The statement "All A are B" does not mean "All B are A."
In this case: Book Buyers \(\subset\) Good Reading Habit \(\subset\) Exhibition Visitors.
While all Buyers are Visitors, the outer circle (Visitors) is larger and contains people who are not in the inner circle (Buyers).


Step 4: Final Answer:

No, we cannot infer that all visitors are book buyers. Quick Tip: Think of it like this: "All dogs are animals." You cannot infer that "All animals are dogs." Logical inclusion only works in the direction stated in the premises.


Question 111:

Hardworking : Determined :: Happy : ?

  • (A) Beautiful
  • (B) Lovely
  • (C) Upbeat
  • (D) Sad
Correct Answer: (C) Upbeat
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a synonym-based analogy. The first pair of words are adjectives that share a similar intensity or nature. Being hardworking is synonymous with being determined in many contexts.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- "Hardworking" and "Determined" are synonyms (words with similar meanings).
- We need to find a synonym for "Happy."
- "Beautiful" and "Lovely" relate more to appearance or general pleasantness. "Sad" is an antonym. "Upbeat" directly describes a state of being happy and optimistic.


Step 3: Calculation:

The relationship is: [Word] : [Synonym].
Happy : Upbeat.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (C) Upbeat. Quick Tip: When solving verbal analogies, always identify if the relationship is Synonyms, Antonyms, Part-to-Whole, or Cause-and-Effect first.


Question 112:

‘A is the only son of B’ and ‘C is grand daughter of B’. How is C related to A?

  • (A) Daughter
  • (B) Sister
  • (C) Niece
  • (D) Daughter-in-law
Correct Answer: (A) Daughter
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem requires mapping generations. A "granddaughter" is the child of a person's child.



Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- B is the top generation.
- A is the only son of B. This is the crucial piece of information.
- C is the granddaughter of B.


Step 3: Calculation:

Since A is the only son of B, any child of B's son must be A's child. If B had multiple sons, C could be a niece, but since A is the only son, C must be A's daughter.


Step 4: Final Answer:

C is the daughter of A. Quick Tip: Pay close attention to words like "only," "sole," or "exclusive." They usually eliminate alternative branches in a family tree (like siblings or cousins).


Question 113:

If in a certain language, ARGENTINA is coded as CTIGPVKPC, how is GERMANY coded in that language?

  • (A) IGTOCPA
  • (B) IHTOCPA
  • (C) IGTNCPA
  • (D) IGTOBPA
Correct Answer: (A) IGTOCPA
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Coding-decoding usually follows a shift in the alphabet (Caesar Cipher). We compare the original word to the code to find the numerical shift for each letter.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's compare ARGENTINA and CTIGPVKPC:
- A \(\rightarrow\) C (+2)
- R \(\rightarrow\) T (+2)
- G \(\rightarrow\) I (+2)
- E \(\rightarrow\) G (+2)
The pattern is a constant +2 shift for every letter.


Step 3: Calculation:

Apply +2 shift to GERMANY:
- G + 2 = I
- E + 2 = G
- R + 2 = T
- M + 2 = O
- A + 2 = C
- N + 2 = P
- Y + 2 = A (Z is followed by A)


Step 4: Final Answer:

GERMANY is coded as IGTOCPA. Quick Tip: Quickly write down a small part of the alphabet with numbers (A=1, B=2...) if the shift is larger than 2 or 3 to avoid mental counting errors.


Question 114:

Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence. 1. Admission 2. Application 3. Entrance Exam 4. Advertisement

  • (A) 4, 2, 1, 3
  • (B) 2, 3, 1, 4
  • (C) 4, 2, 3, 1
  • (D) 2, 1, 3, 4
Correct Answer: (C) 4, 2, 3, 1
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This task requires arranging steps in a logical, chronological order based on a real-world process (college/job entry).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- First, the institution must announce the opportunity: Advertisement (4).
- Next, interested candidates provide their details: Application (2).
- After applying, candidates are tested: Entrance Exam (3).
- Finally, based on the results, the candidate is accepted: Admission (1).


Step 3: Calculation:

The logical sequence is 4 \(\rightarrow\) 2 \(\rightarrow\) 3 \(\rightarrow\) 1.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct sequence is (C) 4, 2, 3, 1. Quick Tip: In sequence problems, identify the first and last steps first. Usually, this eliminates 2 or 3 options immediately.


Question 115:

Twenty girls are sitting in a row. A girl is shifted by four places towards the left, then she became 8th from the left end. The earlier position of that girl from the right end of the row is

  • (A) 9th
  • (B) 10th
  • (C) 11th
  • (D) 12th
Correct Answer: (A) 9th
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To find a position from the right, use the formula: \(Right Position = (Total - Left Position) + 1\).




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Current position (after shift) = 8th from left.
- She was shifted four places to the left to get here.
- Therefore, her earlier position was \(8 + 4 = 12\)th from the left.


Step 3: Calculation:

- Total girls = 20
- Earlier left position = 12
- Earlier right position = \((20 - 12) + 1\)
- Earlier right position = \(8 + 1 = 9\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

Her earlier position from the right end was 9th. Quick Tip: Remember to always add 1 when converting a position from "Left to Right" or vice versa. If you don't, you are calculating how many people are behind her, not her rank.


Question 116:

The next number in the sequence of numbers 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, __ is

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 38
  • (D) 40
Correct Answer: (C) 38
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In a number series, we look for a pattern in the differences between consecutive terms. This is often called a "common difference" or a "second-order difference" sequence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's find the difference between each term:
- \(6 - 3 = 3\)
- \(11 - 6 = 5\)
- \(18 - 11 = 7\)
- \(27 - 18 = 9\)
The differences are 3, 5, 7, 9... which are consecutive odd numbers.


Step 3: Calculation:

The next odd number after 9 is 11.
To find the next term in the sequence, add 11 to the last term (27): \(\)27 + 11 = 38\(\)


Step 4: Final Answer:

The next number in the sequence is 38. Quick Tip: This sequence also follows the pattern \(n^2 + 2\): \(1^2+2=3, 2^2+2=6, 3^2+2=11, 4^2+2=18, 5^2+2=27\). The next is \(6^2+2 = 36+2 = 38\).


Question 117:

If today is Sunday, then the day which is three days before the day after tomorrow is

  • (A) Sunday
  • (B) Saturday
  • (C) Monday
  • (D) Friday
Correct Answer: (B) Saturday
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To solve calendar logic problems, it is helpful to treat "today" as a reference point (day 0) and use positive or negative integers to represent future and past days.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's break the phrase down step-by-step:
1. Today = Sunday
2. "Day after tomorrow" = Sunday + 2 days = Tuesday.


Step 3: Calculation:

3. "Three days before" the day after tomorrow:
Tuesday - 3 days:
- 1 day before: Monday
- 2 days before: Sunday
- 3 days before: Saturday


Step 4: Final Answer:

The day is Saturday. Quick Tip: "3 days before the day after tomorrow" can be simplified: \((-3) + (+2) = -1\). So the question is just asking for "1 day before today." Since today is Sunday, 1 day before is Saturday.


Question 118:

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?

  • (A) Daisy
  • (B) Iris
  • (C) Hibiscus
  • (D) Petals
Correct Answer: (D) Petals
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a classification problem. We must distinguish between "specific examples of a category" and a "part of a structure."




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Daisy, Iris, and Hibiscus are all names of specific types of flowers.
- Petals are a component or part of a flower, not a type of flower itself.


Step 3: Calculation:

(A), (B), and (C) are entities; (D) is a constituent part. Therefore, (D) is the odd one out.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The word that does not belong is (D) Petals. Quick Tip: This is a "Whole vs. Part" relationship. Always check if one option is a feature of the others.


Question 119:

Question: What is the total mark in the examination?

Statements:

I. A student secures 36% but fails by 6 marks.

II. The pass mark is 60.

  • (A) Statement I alone is sufficient
  • (B) Statement II alone is sufficient
  • (C) Both the statements I and II are needed
  • (D) Data in both together are not sufficient
Correct Answer: (C) Both the statements I and II are needed
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To find the total marks, we need to establish an equation where a specific percentage relates to a specific number of marks.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Statement I: Gives us a relationship (\(36% of Total + 6 = Passing Mark\)). We have two unknowns: Total and Passing Mark. Not sufficient.
- Statement II: Gives us the Passing Mark (60). Not sufficient on its own.


Step 3: Calculation:

Combining both: \(36% of Total + 6 = 60\) \(0.36 \times Total = 54\) \(Total = 54 / 0.36 = 150\).
We need both statements to build and solve this equation.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Both statements I and II are needed to determine the answer. Quick Tip: If you have one equation with two variables (Total and Pass mark), you need exactly two independent pieces of information to solve it.


Question 120:

A box contains 16 red, 12 white and 15 yellow identical marbles. A man picks one marble at a time not looking at the marbles and without replacement. How many times he has to pick a marble to make 100% certain that he picked out at least 3 white marbles?

  • (A) 33
  • (B) 34
  • (C) 31
  • (D) 32
Correct Answer: (B) 34
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a "Worst-Case Scenario" problem (Pigeonhole Principle). To be "100% certain," you must assume the unluckiest possible outcome occurs first.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The worst-case scenario is that the man picks every single marble that is not white before he gets the required number of white marbles.
- Red marbles = 16
- Yellow marbles = 15
- Total non-white marbles = \(16 + 15 = 31\)


Step 3: Calculation:

- Step 1: He picks all 31 non-white marbles. (Still zero white marbles).
- Step 2: To ensure he has 3 white marbles, he must pick 3 more marbles.
- Total picks \(= 31 + 3 = 34\).


Step 4: Final Answer:

He has to pick 34 marbles to be 100% certain. Quick Tip: Formula for "Certainty": (Sum of all items NOT wanted) + (Number of items wanted).


Question 121:

A man walks 4 km West and turns right to walk 3 km. Where is he now from the starting point?

  • (A) 4 km North
  • (B) 5 km North-West
  • (C) 5 km North-East
  • (D) 3 km East
Correct Answer: (B) 5 km North-West
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a direction sense problem that forms a right-angled triangle. We need to find the displacement (shortest distance) using the Pythagorean theorem and determine the directional quadrant.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. The man starts at point \(O\).
2. He moves 4 km West to point \(A\).
3. He turns right (which is North) and walks 3 km to point \(B\).
4. The distance from the starting point is the hypotenuse \(OB\).


Step 3: Calculation:

Using \(a^2 + b^2 = c^2\): \(\)OB = \sqrt{4^2 + 3^2\(\) \(\)OB = \sqrt{16 + 9 = \sqrt{25 = 5 { km\(\)
Direction: He moved West then North, so he is in the North-West direction relative to the start.


Step 4: Final Answer:

He is 5 km North-West from the starting point. Quick Tip: Remember the common Pythagorean triplets: (3, 4, 5), (5, 12, 13), and (8, 15, 17). If you see 3 and 4 as legs of a right triangle, the hypotenuse is always 5.


Question 122:

Horse : Foal :: Kangaroo : ?

  • (A) Fawn
  • (B) Joey
  • (C) Cub
  • (D) Lamb
Correct Answer: (B) Joey
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This analogy is based on the relationship between an animal and its young one (offspring).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- A "Foal" is the term used for a young horse.
- We need to identify the term for a young kangaroo.
- Fawn (Deer), Cub (Lion/Bear), Lamb (Sheep).
- A young kangaroo is called a "Joey."


Step 3: Calculation:

Relationship: [Animal] : [Offspring].
Horse : Foal \(\rightarrow\) Kangaroo : Joey.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (B) Joey. Quick Tip: Common animal-offspring pairs: - Cat : Kitten - Dog : Puppy - Cow : Calf - Duck : Duckling - Swan : Cygnet


Question 123:

Statements: I. Mohan did not water his plants. II. Mohan’s plants were withered

  • (A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
  • (B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
  • (C) Both the statements are effects of independent causes
  • (D) Both the statements are independent causes
Correct Answer: (A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In "Cause and Effect" reasoning, we look for a logical sequence where one event (the cause) leads to the occurrence of the other (the effect).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Statement I: Lack of water (Action/Inaction).
- Statement II: Withered state (Result/Condition).
- Plants wither when they do not receive water. Therefore, the inaction in Statement I directly leads to the condition in Statement II.


Step 3: Calculation:

Since I \(\rightarrow\) II, Statement I is the cause and Statement II is the effect.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect. Quick Tip: To test this, use the "Because" check: "Mohan's plants were withered {because} he did not water them." If the sentence makes sense, you've identified the cause-effect relationship correctly.


Question 124:

Statement: The average age of girls in a class is 17 and the average age of boys in that class is 18.

Conclusions: I. Every girl is younger to all the boys in the class. II. Every boy is elder to all the girls in the class.

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Both conclusions I and II follow
  • (D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Correct Answer: (D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"Average" is a representative value for a whole group. It does not provide specific information about individual members of that group.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Average girl's age = 17. This could mean some girls are 16 and some are 18.
- Average boy's age = 18. This could mean some boys are 17 and some are 19.
- It is entirely possible for a specific girl (e.g., age 19) to be older than a specific boy (e.g., age 17).


Step 3: Calculation:

The statements "Every girl is younger..." and "Every boy is elder..." are absolute generalizations. Averages do not support absolute conclusions about every individual member.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows. Quick Tip: In logical reasoning, avoid conclusions that use words like "Every," "All," or "None" if the premise only provides an "Average" or "Many." Averages always allow for individual outliers.


Question 125:

Statement: All eligible unemployed youths above 18 years of age will be given unemployment allowance. – An announcement from the government.

Assumptions: I. All unemployed youths above 18 years of age are in need of financial support. II. There are some unemployed youths above 18 years of age who need financial support.

  • (A) Only assumption I is implicit
  • (B) Only assumption II is implicit
  • (C) Both assumptions I and II are implicit
  • (D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
Correct Answer: (B) Only assumption II is implicit
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

An assumption is something "taken for granted" or accepted as true by the person making the statement. For a government to offer an allowance, they must assume there is a need for it.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Assumption I: Uses the word "All." The government announcement doesn't necessarily assume every single unemployed person needs it (some may have wealthy families), but they offer it to those who are "eligible."
- Assumption II: The existence of the policy implies that at least some people need this support. If no one needed it, the policy wouldn't be announced.


Step 3: Calculation:

Assumption II is a necessary prerequisite for the statement. Assumption I is too broad and extreme to be "implicit" in a simple administrative announcement.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Only assumption II is implicit. Quick Tip: In assumption questions, be wary of "All" or "Always." Usually, a statement only assumes the existence of a problem or a need, not that it applies to 100% of the population.


Question 126:

Statement: In a village there are 1200 voters. The number of female voters is more than 50%.

Conclusions: I. The village has 600 female voters. II. Female voters are the majority in the village.

  • (A) Only conclusion I follows
  • (B) Only conclusion II follows
  • (C) Both conclusions I and II follow
  • (D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
Correct Answer: (B) Only conclusion II follows
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In logical deduction, "more than 50%" means any value strictly greater than half. A "majority" is defined as any group that accounts for more than half of the total.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Total voters = 1200.
- 50% of 1200 = 600.
- The statement says female voters are {more than 50%, meaning the number of female voters is \(> 600\).


Step 3: Calculation:

- Conclusion I: Says there are exactly 600. This contradicts "more than 50%." So, I does not follow.
- Conclusion II: Since female voters are \(> 50%\), they constitute a majority (the largest group over half). So, II follows.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Only conclusion II follows. Quick Tip: In logic, "more than X" never means "exactly X." If you see a conclusion stating the exact threshold value when the premise uses "more than" or "less than," it is almost always incorrect.


Question 127:

Statements: I. The quantum of edible oil imported this year is increased by the government. II. The production of oil seeds has declined sharply this year.

  • (A) Both statements are effects of some common cause
  • (B) Statement II is the cause, and statement I is its effect
  • (C) Statement I is the cause, and statement II is its effect
  • (D) Both statements are effects of independent cause
Correct Answer: (B) Statement II is the cause, and statement I is its effect
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a "Cause and Effect" problem. We look for a situation where a change in one variable (production) necessitates a reaction in another (imports) to maintain balance.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Statement II describes a shortage of raw material (oil seeds) within the country.
- Statement I describes an increase in bringing in the finished product (edible oil) from outside the country.


Step 3: Calculation:

When domestic production of a staple like oil declines, the government must increase imports to prevent a shortage and price hike. Therefore, the decline in production (Statement II) is the reason/cause for the increase in imports (Statement I).


Step 4: Final Answer:

Statement II is the cause, and statement I is its effect. Quick Tip: Ask yourself: "Did A happen because of B, or did B happen because of A?" Usually, the physical/natural event (production drop) is the cause for the administrative/policy event (import increase).


Question 128:

Statement: The Indian Railways has decided to appoint four thousand additional station masters.

Assumptions: I. In Indian Railways there is enough railway stations to accommodate four thousand additional station masters. II. Indian railways has sufficient number of station masters.

  • (A) Only assumption I is implicit
  • (B) Only assumption II is implicit
  • (C) Both assumptions I and II are implicit
  • (D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
Correct Answer: (A) Only assumption I is implicit
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

An assumption is an underlying premise required for a decision to make sense. If an organization decides to hire more staff, they must assume there is space/work for them.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Assumption I: If the railways are hiring 4,000 people, they must have the infrastructure (stations) for them to work. Otherwise, the hiring would be useless. This is implicit.
- Assumption II: If they already had a "sufficient" number, they would not be looking to hire 4,000 {additional people. Hiring more implies there is currently a shortage. This contradicts the statement.


Step 3: Calculation:

Since hiring implies a need for more and a place to put them, only the assumption regarding infrastructure/capacity (I) is implicit.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Only assumption I is implicit. Quick Tip: To test an assumption, use "Negation": If there were NOT enough stations, would the decision to hire 4,000 masters make sense? No. Therefore, it is a valid assumption.


Question 129:

Paw : Cat :: Hoof : ?

  • (A) Tiger
  • (B) Horse
  • (C) Bear
  • (D) Eagle
Correct Answer: (B) Horse
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This analogy relates an animal to the specific anatomical term for its foot or terminal part of its limb.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- A Cat has "Paws" (soft, padded feet often with claws).
- Tigers and Bears also have paws.
- Eagles have talons/claws.
- Animals like horses, cows, and deer have hard, keratinized "Hooves."


Step 3: Calculation:

Relationship: [Foot Type] : [Animal].
Paw : Cat \(\rightarrow\) Hoof : Horse.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (B) Horse. Quick Tip: Remember: - Paws: Felines, Canines, Bears. - Hooves: Equines (Horses), Bovines (Cows), Swine (Pigs). - Talons: Birds of prey.


Question 130:

What is the essential part of (that is strongly connected to) ‘Knowledge’?

  • (A) Library
  • (B) School
  • (C) Teacher
  • (D) Learning
Correct Answer: (D) Learning
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"Essential part" questions look for the internal requirement or the process that defines the word, rather than external tools or environments.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Library, School, and Teacher are all {external sources or environments where one might find or gain knowledge.
- However, knowledge cannot exist without the {process of acquiring it.
- Learning is the core process that results in knowledge. You can have a school without knowledge, but you cannot have knowledge without learning.


Step 3: Calculation:

While A, B, and C are common associates, (D) Learning is the fundamental necessity that constitutes the existence of Knowledge.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The essential part of Knowledge is (D) Learning. Quick Tip: Think of it this way: "Can Knowledge exist without X?" - Without a Library? Yes (oral traditions). - Without a Teacher? Yes (self-study). - Without Learning? No.


Question 131:

From the following four words choose the word which is different from the other three words.

  • (A) Cap
  • (B) Hat
  • (C) Veil
  • (D) Helmet
Correct Answer: (C) Veil
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a classification (Odd One Out) problem. We look for a common physical or functional characteristic shared by three items that the fourth does not possess.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Cap, Hat, and Helmet are all types of headgear specifically designed to cover the top of the head for protection or shade.
- A Veil is a piece of fabric used to cover the face or head for religious, social, or decorative reasons, rather than a structured headpiece for protection.


Step 3: Calculation:

(A), (B), and (D) are structured coverings for the skull. (C) is a facial/head covering primarily made of thin material with a different primary purpose.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The word which is different is (C) Veil. Quick Tip: When classifying items of clothing, think about the specific part of the body they cover or protect. Helmet, Hat, and Cap all provide a "roof" for the head.


Question 132:

M S Dhoni : Cricket :: Cristiano Ronaldo : ?

  • (A) Tennis
  • (B) Basket Ball
  • (C) Athlete
  • (D) Football
Correct Answer: (D) Football
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This analogy relates a famous sportsperson to the sport they are primarily known for playing professionally.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- M S Dhoni is a legendary player and former captain associated with the sport of Cricket.
- We need to identify the sport associated with Cristiano Ronaldo.
- Cristiano Ronaldo is globally recognized as one of the greatest players in the history of Football (Soccer).


Step 3: Calculation:

Relationship: [Player] : [Sport].
Dhoni : Cricket \(\rightarrow\) Ronaldo : Football.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (D) Football. Quick Tip: In sports analogies, ensure you match the person with their primary sport, not just the general category like "Athlete."


Question 133:

Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?

  • (A) Trivial
  • (B) Unimportant
  • (C) Important
  • (D) Insignificant
Correct Answer: (C) Important
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a vocabulary-based odd-one-out problem. We are looking for synonyms and one antonym.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Trivial means of little value or importance.
- Unimportant means lacking significance.
- Insignificant means too small or unimportant to be worth consideration.
- Important means of great significance or value.


Step 3: Calculation:

(A), (B), and (D) are synonyms indicating a lack of value. (C) is the direct antonym of the other three.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The word that does not belong is (C) Important. Quick Tip: If three words mean "not much" and one word means "a lot," the "a lot" word is your answer.


Question 134:

Given the sequence of numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23,…. What are the next two numbers?

  • (A) 29, 31
  • (B) 27, 31
  • (C) 29, 33
  • (D) 27, 33
Correct Answer: (A) 29, 31
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A prime number is a natural number greater than 1 that cannot be formed by multiplying two smaller natural numbers. The given sequence consists of consecutive Prime Numbers.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The sequence is: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.
- These are all primes in ascending order.
- We must find the next two numbers that have no factors other than 1 and themselves.


Step 3: Calculation:

- Check 24: Divisible by 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12.
- Check 25: Divisible by 5.
- Check 26: Divisible by 2, 13.
- Check 27: Divisible by 3, 9.
- Check 28: Divisible by 2, 4, 7, 14.
- 29: Prime.
- Check 30: Divisible by 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15.
- 31: Prime.
- Check 33: Divisible by 3, 11.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The next two prime numbers are 29 and 31. Quick Tip: Memorize the primes up to 50: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47. This saves a lot of time in sequence questions!


Question 135:

Statements: I. The private school student’s performance is excellent in the final exam of class 10. II. Many teachers left private schools and joined in the government schools.

  • (A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
  • (B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
  • (C) Both the statements are effects of independent causes
  • (D) Both the statements are independent causes
Correct Answer: (C) Both the statements are effects of independent causes
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In "Cause and Effect" logic, we determine if one event directly triggered the other, or if they are separate outcomes of different, unrelated factors.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Statement I: Good performance in private schools (Positive outcome).
- Statement II: Teachers moving from private to government schools (Labor shift/Movement).
- Does the excellent performance of students {cause teachers to leave? No.
- Does teachers leaving {cause students to perform excellently? Usually, a mass exodus of teachers would negatively impact performance, not make it excellent.


Step 3: Calculation:

There is no logical link where one statement explains the other. Excellent results (I) might be due to hard-working students or better facilities. Teachers leaving (II) might be due to better pay or job security in government sectors. These are independent causes.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Both the statements are effects of independent causes. Quick Tip: If two statements describe opposite "vibes" (e.g., one is a success and one is a problem) and they don't directly reference each other, they are almost always independent.


Question 136:

A man walks 2 km in East from his house and then he turns to his left and walks 3 km. Further he turns to his left and walks 2 km. Now, how far is he from his house?

  • (A) 2 km
  • (B) 3 km
  • (C) 4 km
  • (D) 5 km
Correct Answer: (B) 3 km
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This problem involves tracking movement in a 2D plane. Left turns from an Eastward direction lead North, and a subsequent left turn leads West.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

1. Start at House (0,0). Move 2 km East.
2. Turn Left (North) and walk 3 km.
3. Turn Left (West) and walk 2 km.


Step 3: Calculation:

The path forms three sides of a rectangle.
- The horizontal distance moved forward (2 km East) is canceled out by the horizontal distance moved back (2 km West).
- The only remaining displacement is the vertical distance moved during the second leg of the trip (3 km North).


Step 4: Final Answer:

He is 3 km away from his house. Quick Tip: If the first and third distances are equal and the turns are both in the same direction (two lefts or two rights), the distance from the start is always equal to the middle distance.


Question 137:

A and B are sisters. If S is son of A and M is the mother of B, then how is S related to M?

  • (A) Son
  • (B) Grand son
  • (C) Nephew
  • (D) Maternal uncle
Correct Answer: (B) Grand son
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

To find the relationship, we map the family tree across generations. "Mother" is one generation above, and "Son" is one generation below.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- A and B are sisters.
- M is the mother of B, which means M is also the mother of A.
- S is the son of A.


Step 3: Calculation:

Since M is the mother of A, and S is the child of A, S is the grandchild of M. Specifically, since S is male, he is the grandson.


Step 4: Final Answer:

S is the grandson of M. Quick Tip: Count the generation gaps: Mother to daughter (-1), Daughter to son (-1). Total of -2 generations usually indicates a "Grand" relationship.


Question 138:

Question: What is the total weight of 12 metal discs having equal weight?

Statements:

I. Half of the weight of a metal disc is 8 kg.

II. The total weight of 4 discs is 32 kg more than the total weight of two discs.

  • (A) Statement I is sufficient but statement II is not sufficient
  • (B) Statement II is sufficient but statement I is not sufficient
  • (C) Either statements I or II is sufficient
  • (D) Both the statements together are not sufficient
Correct Answer: (C) Either statements I or II is sufficient
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In Data Sufficiency, we check if each statement provides enough information independently to find the weight of one disc (\(w\)), which allows us to find the total (\(12w\)).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Statement I: \(0.5w = 8 \implies w = 16\). This allows us to calculate \(12 \times 16\). (Sufficient)
- Statement II: \(4w = 2w + 32 \implies 2w = 32 \implies w = 16\). This also allows us to calculate \(12 \times 16\). (Sufficient)


Step 3: Calculation:

Both statements independently lead to the exact same value for the weight of one disc (\(w = 16\) kg). Therefore, either one is enough to answer the question.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Either statement I or II is sufficient. Quick Tip: In exams, if Statement I gives you a clear answer, don't stop! Always check Statement II; if it also gives a clear answer, the choice is (C), not (A).


Question 139:

Pick the odd one out from the given pair of words.

  • (A) Author : Book
  • (B) Teacher : School
  • (C) Chef : Restaurant
  • (D) Nurse : Hospital
Correct Answer: (A) Author : Book
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We must identify the relationship in each pair. If three pairs share a logical structure (e.g., Person : Workplace) and the fourth does not, that fourth one is the odd one.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- (B) Teacher : School \(\rightarrow\) [Professional] : [Workplace]
- (C) Chef : Restaurant \(\rightarrow\) [Professional] : [Workplace]
- (D) Nurse : Hospital \(\rightarrow\) [Professional] : [Workplace]
- (A) Author : Book \(\rightarrow\) [Professional] : [Product]


Step 3: Calculation:

Pairs B, C, and D all describe where a person works. Pair A describes what a person creates.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The odd one out is (A) Author : Book. Quick Tip: If an author's workplace was needed to match the group, the pair would have been something like "Author : Library" or "Author : Publishing House."


Question 140:

The digits of the number 2365643879 are arranged in ascending order from left to right. What is the difference between the two digits where the one digit is 3rd from the right and the other digit is 4th from the left?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Ascending order means arranging numbers from smallest to largest. After rearranging, we simply identify the positions requested and subtract the smaller value from the larger one.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Original Number: 2, 3, 6, 5, 6, 4, 3, 8, 7, 9
Ascending Order: 2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6, 7, 8, 9


Step 3: Calculation:

- 4th digit from the left: (2, 3, 3, 4, ...) \(\rightarrow\) Digit is 4.
- 3rd digit from the right: (..., 7, 8, 9) \(\rightarrow\) Digit is 7.
- Difference \(= 7 - 4 = 3\).

{Wait, let's re-count carefully: Sorted list: 2(1st), 3(2nd), 3(3rd), 4(4th)... 6(8th), 7(9th), 8(10th).
Positions:
4th from left = 4.
3rd from right = 7.
Difference = \(7 - 4 = 3\).
Looking at the options, if the answer is (D) 4, let's check the positions again.
3rd from right in (2, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6, 7, 8, 9) is 7.
4th from left is 4. \(7-4=3\) (Option C).
If the question intended the 3rd distinct digit or a different position, the answer might vary, but based on strict position: 3.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The difference is 3. (Option C) Quick Tip: Write the sorted digits out clearly and number them 1 to 10. Counting visually prevents "off-by-one" errors which are common in position-based questions.


Question 141:

The Chief of the Defence Staff is

  • (A) Admiral Dinesh K.Tripathy
  • (B) General Upendra Dwivedi
  • (C) Lieutenant General N.S. Raja Subramani
  • (D) General Anil Chauhan
Correct Answer: (D) General Anil Chauhan
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is the professional head of the Indian Armed Forces and the senior-most uniformed military adviser to the Government of India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- General Anil Chauhan assumed office as the second CDS on September 30, 2022.
- In September 2025, the Government of India extended his tenure up to May 30, 2026.
- The other names listed are current heads or senior officers of specific branches: Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathy (Navy) and General Upendra Dwivedi (Army).


Step 3: Calculation:

Based on current official records for 2026, the position is held by General Anil Chauhan.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Chief of the Defence Staff is (D) General Anil Chauhan. Quick Tip: The CDS acts as the "first among equals" among the service chiefs and heads the Department of Military Affairs (DMA).


Question 142:

The present Indian Union Minister of Defence is

  • (A) Rajnath Singh
  • (B) Sanjay Seth
  • (C) Nitin Jairam Gadkari
  • (D) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
Correct Answer: (A) Rajnath Singh
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Minister of Defence (Raksha Mantri) is the head of the Ministry of Defence, responsible for the cabinet-level management of the country's national security and armed forces.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Rajnath Singh has served as the Union Minister of Defence since May 2019.
- Following the 2024 General Elections, he continued in this role for his second consecutive term.
- Sanjay Seth is currently the Minister of State for Defence.


Step 3: Calculation:

As of February 2026, Rajnath Singh remains the incumbent Union Minister of Defence.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The present Indian Union Minister of Defence is (A) Rajnath Singh. Quick Tip: The Defence Minister is a member of the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS), which is the highest decision-making body on security matters in India.


Question 143:

The DDR&D deals with research and development of defence technologies, systems and equipments. DDR&D stands for

  • (A) Department of Defence Research and Development
  • (B) Department of Defence Regional Development
  • (C) Department of Defence Research and Regional Development
  • (D) Development of Defence Research and Department
Correct Answer: (A) Department of Defence Research and Development
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Ministry of Defence is divided into several departments. One specific department is dedicated to scientific research and the design of indigenous military hardware.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The Department of Defence Research and Development (DDR&D) advises the government on scientific aspects of military equipment.
- It is the administrative department that oversees the DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation).


Step 3: Calculation:

Matching the acronym: D (Department) D (Defence) R (Research) & D (Development).


Step 4: Final Answer:

DDR&D stands for (A) Department of Defence Research and Development. Quick Tip: The Secretary of DDR&D also serves as the Chairman of DRDO.


Question 144:

Pakistani drones and missiles have been intercepted and destroyed by India’s defence Systems successfully. Drone is an aircraft or small

  • (A) flying device that has only two pilots
  • (B) helicopter that does not have a pilot
  • (C) flying device that does not have a pilot
  • (D) flying device that has only one pilot
Correct Answer: (C) flying device that does not have a pilot
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Drones are formally known as Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs). The defining characteristic of a UAV is the absence of a human pilot on board the craft.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Options A, B, and D mention "pilots" on board or specific shapes like "helicopter."
- A drone can be a fixed-wing aircraft, a multi-rotor (like a quadcopter), or other designs.
- The key factor is that it is unmanned; it is either controlled remotely from the ground or flies autonomously using onboard computers.


Step 3: Calculation:

By definition, a drone is a "flying device that does not have a pilot" (on board).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (C) flying device that does not have a pilot. Quick Tip: Drones are often part of a larger UAS (Unmanned Aircraft System), which includes the aircraft, the ground control station, and the communication link.


Question 145:

The Indian Armed Forces launched ‘OPERATION SINDOOR’ hitting terrorist infrastructure in Pakistan and Pakistan occupied Jammu and Kashmir on

  • (A) 09 May, 2025
  • (B) 07 May, 2025
  • (C) 10 May, 2025
  • (D) 11 May, 2025
Correct Answer: (B) 07 May, 2025
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Operation Sindoor was a targeted military campaign launched in 2025 following a major terror attack in Pahalgam. It involved coordinated missile and air strikes.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Following the Pahalgam attack on April 22, 2025, India planned a "focused and measured" response.
- The kinetic phase of the operation—the actual strikes on terror infrastructure across the Line of Control and in Punjab, Pakistan—began on the intervening night of May 6 and 7.
- Official government briefings on May 8, 2025, confirmed that the operation was initiated on May 7.


Step 3: Calculation:

The primary date for the launch of the strikes under Operation Sindoor is May 7, 2025.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The operation was launched on (B) 07 May, 2025. Quick Tip: Operation Sindoor is noted by analysts for the first-time combat use of the air-launched BrahMos missile integrated with Su-30MKI fighter jets.


Question 146:

The National Song Vande Mataram was composed in Sanskrit by

  • (A) Rabindranath Tagore
  • (B) Bankimchandra Chatterji
  • (C) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
  • (D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Correct Answer: (B) Bankimchandra Chatterji
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The National Song of India, "Vande Mataram," is a poem written in a mix of Sanskrit and Bengali. It played a vital role in the Indian independence movement.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- It was written by Bankimchandra Chatterji in the 1870s and later included in his 1882 novel {Anandamath.
- Rabindranath Tagore (Option A) composed the National Anthem, "Jana Gana Mana."
- The song was first sung in a political context by Rabindranath Tagore at the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress.


Step 3: Calculation:

The authorship is attributed to Bankimchandra Chatterji.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The National Song was composed by (B) Bankimchandra Chatterji. Quick Tip: Don't confuse the National Anthem (Tagore) with the National Song (Chatterji). A simple way to remember: Bankim wrote the Blessing to the Mother (Vande Mataram).


Question 147:

The Indian Institute of Foreign Trade was established in 1963 as an autonomous body under the Ministry of

  • (A) External Affairs
  • (B) Home Affairs
  • (C) Commerce and Industry
  • (D) Corporate Affairs
Correct Answer: (C) Commerce and Industry
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT) is a premier business school and research institution focused on international trade and civil services.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- IIFT was set up by the Government of India to professionalize the country's foreign trade management.
- Since "Foreign Trade" is a commercial activity, it falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
- It helps in data collection and research to help the Ministry formulate trade policies.


Step 3: Calculation:

The relevant ministry for trade and commerce is Option C.


Step 4: Final Answer:

IIFT is under the Ministry of (C) Commerce and Industry. Quick Tip: While it sounds like "Foreign Affairs," remember that if it involves "Trade" or "Business," it almost always falls under the Ministry of Commerce.


Question 148:

National Stock Exchange was the first exchange in India to implement electronic or screen based trading which began its operations in the year

  • (A) 1998
  • (B) 2012
  • (C) 2000
  • (D) 1994
Correct Answer: (D) 1994
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The National Stock Exchange (NSE) was established to bring transparency to the Indian equity market, moving away from the old "open outcry" system used by the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- NSE was incorporated in 1992 and recognized as a stock exchange in 1993.
- It launched its operations in the Wholesale Debt Market in June 1994.
- Screen-based trading for the Capital Market segment started in November 1994.


Step 3: Calculation:

The year operations commenced with electronic trading is 1994.


Step 4: Final Answer:

NSE began operations in (D) 1994. Quick Tip: The NSE was the first exchange in the world to use satellite communication for trading, which revolutionized the Indian stock market in the mid-90s.


Question 149:

The Chairman of Securities and Exchange Board of India is

  • (A) Amarjeet Singh
  • (B) Ananth Narayan
  • (C) Ashwani Bhatia
  • (D) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
Correct Answer: (D) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory body for the securities and commodity market in India. Its Chairman is appointed by the Government of India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Madhabi Puri Buch served as the Chairperson until early 2026.
- In January 2026, the government appointed Tuhin Kanta Pandey (a 1987-batch IAS officer) as the new Chairman of SEBI.
- The other names listed (Amarjeet Singh, Ananth Narayan, Ashwani Bhatia) are Whole-Time Members of SEBI, but not the Chairman.


Step 3: Calculation:

As of the current date in 2026, the incumbent is Tuhin Kanta Pandey.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Chairman of SEBI is (D) Tuhin Kanta Pandey. Quick Tip: SEBI was established as a non-statutory body in 1988 but was given statutory powers on January 30, 1992, through the SEBI Act.


Question 150:

The 193 Member States of the United Nations officially adopted a new sustainable development agenda entitled ‘Transforming Our World. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development’ in

  • (A) New York in September 2015
  • (B) London in September 2015
  • (C) Paris in September 2015
  • (D) New Delhi in September 2015
Correct Answer: (A) New York in September 2015
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are a collection of 17 interlinked global goals designed to be a "blueprint to achieve a better and more sustainable future for all."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The 2030 Agenda was adopted during the United Nations Sustainable Development Summit.
- This summit took place at the UN Headquarters, which is located in New York City.
- The adoption happened on September 25, 2015.


Step 3: Calculation:

The location of the UN Headquarters where such major agendas are adopted is New York.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The agenda was adopted in (A) New York in September 2015. Quick Tip: There are exactly 17 Goals and 169 Targets in the 2030 Agenda. They replaced the previous Millennium Development Goals (MDGs).


Question 151:

The International Monetary Fund was established in the year

  • (A) 1954 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1940s
  • (B) 1944 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1930s
  • (C) 1964 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1950s
  • (D) 1984 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1970s
Correct Answer: (B) 1944 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1930s
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is a global organization that works to foster global monetary cooperation and secure financial stability. It was born out of a desire to avoid the economic mistakes of the previous decade.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The IMF was conceived in July 1944 at the United Nations Bretton Woods Conference in the United States.
- Its primary goal was to build a framework for economic cooperation to avoid a repetition of the competitive devaluations that had contributed to the Great Depression of the 1930s.


Step 3: Calculation:

Looking at the timelines: The Great Depression was in the 1930s, and the Bretton Woods conference was in 1944. Option B is the only historical match.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The IMF was established in (B) 1944 in the aftermath of the Great Depression of the 1930s. Quick Tip: Always associate the "Bretton Woods Twins" (IMF and World Bank) with the year 1944. They were created simultaneously to rebuild the post-WWII global economy.


Question 152:

Which one of the following is true in respect of United Nations?

  • (A) Financial aid is available to individuals through the UN
  • (B) UN offers financial, logistical or legal assistance for projects to the students
  • (C) UN does not consider proposals from individuals from the Member countries
  • (D) There is no way for NGOs to collaborate with the UN on its activities
Correct Answer: (C) UN does not consider proposals from individuals from the Member countries
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The United Nations (UN) is an intergovernmental organization. Its primary "customers" and decision-makers are sovereign states (countries), not individual citizens.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The UN works with governments, other intergovernmental organizations, and recognized NGOs.
- It does not provide direct financial aid, grants, or project support to private individuals or students.
- Consequently, individuals cannot submit personal business or project proposals directly to the UN for funding.


Step 3: Calculation:

- A and B are false (UN is not a charity for individuals).
- D is false (NGOs actually have "Consultative Status" with the UN).
- C is the correct functional truth about UN operations.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The true statement is (C) UN does not consider proposals from individuals from the Member countries. Quick Tip: The UN is a "Club of Nations." If an individual wants to influence the UN, they generally have to do so through their own country's government or a recognized international NGO.


Question 153:

The Nobel Peace Prize 2020 was awarded to

  • (A) the United Nations and its Secretary General
  • (B) the United Nations Peacekeeping Force
  • (C) the United Nations World Food Programme
  • (D) the Office of the UNs High Commissioner for Refugees
Correct Answer: (C) the United Nations World Food Programme
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Nobel Peace Prize is often awarded to organizations that address global crises. In 2020, the focus was on the link between hunger and conflict.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The Norwegian Nobel Committee awarded the 2020 prize to the World Food Programme (WFP).
- It was recognized for its efforts to combat hunger and for its contribution to bettering conditions for peace in conflict-affected areas.
- The WFP acted as a driving force in efforts to prevent the use of hunger as a weapon of war and conflict.


Step 3: Calculation:

The WFP is the food-assistance branch of the United Nations, making (C) the correct choice.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Nobel Peace Prize 2020 was awarded to (C) the United Nations World Food Programme. Quick Tip: The WFP is the world's largest humanitarian organization. In recent years, Nobel prizes have favored UN bodies (like the WFP) that provide essential logistics during global emergencies.


Question 154:

In GST, only value addition will be taxed and burden of tax is to be borne by the

  • (A) producer of the goods
  • (B) final consumer
  • (C) trader of the goods
  • (D) dealer
Correct Answer: (B) final consumer
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax. A key feature of indirect taxes is that the person who pays the tax to the government (the business) is not the person who ultimately carries the cost of the tax.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- GST is a multi-stage tax collected at every step of value addition.
- However, businesses get "Input Tax Credit" (ITC) for the tax they paid on purchases.
- This means the tax "flows through" the supply chain without sticking to the businesses.
- Since the final consumer cannot claim ITC, the entire accumulated tax burden stops at them.


Step 3: Calculation:

The structure of a consumption tax ensures that the final user pays for the entire tax levied across the production chain.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The burden of tax is borne by the (B) final consumer. Quick Tip: GST is a "Destination-based tax." This means it is collected where the goods are finally consumed, reinforcing that the consumer pays the bill.


Question 155:

Which one of the following is not true in respect of Goods and Services Tax (GST)?

  • (A) The transaction in securities shall not be liable to GST
  • (B) The purchase of edible oils is liable to GST
  • (C) The purchase of vehicles is liable to GST
  • (D) The purchase of gift items from a shop is liable to GST
Correct Answer: (A) The transaction in securities shall not be liable to GST
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

GST applies to "Goods" and "Services." To understand what is NOT liable, we must look at the legal definitions of these terms in the GST Act.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Under the GST Act, the definition of "Goods" specifically excludes money and securities.
- "Securities" (shares, stocks, bonds) are neither considered goods nor services for the purpose of the tax levy.
- Edible oils, vehicles, and gift items are all tangible "goods" and are thus liable to GST at various rates.


Step 3: Calculation:

Wait—if the statement (A) says they are not liable, and they are indeed not liable, then (A) is a true statement.
Let's re-read the question: "Which... is not true."
Actually, all four statements are technically true facts about GST.
Self-Correction: In many competitive exams, this specific question is used to test the definition of securities. Since securities are outside the ambit of GST, statement (A) is a true fact. If the question asks for what is "not true," there may be a typo in the question paper or options. However, as per standard GST law, (A), (B), (C), and (D) are all factually correct.
Standard Exam Logic: If one must be "less true," check if any of these are "exempt" rather than "not liable." But all listed items are taxable except securities.


Step 4: Final Answer:

All options provided are actually true statements. However, if forced to choose the "odd" technicality often highlighted in textbooks, (A) is the most common point of discussion regarding the "scope" of GST. Quick Tip: Memorize the "Exclusion List": Money, Securities, and Salaries (Employment) are the big three items that are NOT liable to GST.


Question 156:

The study of how genes and traits of human are passed from one generation to the next is known as

  • (A) Anthropology
  • (B) Ethnology
  • (C) Organology
  • (D) Genetics
Correct Answer: (D) Genetics
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Biological science is divided into various branches based on the subject of study. The transmission of physical or mental characteristics from parents to offspring is called heredity.



Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Genetics is the branch of biology concerned with the study of genes, genetic variation, and heredity in organisms.
- Anthropology is the study of human societies and cultures.
- Ethnology is a branch of anthropology that compares and analyzes the characteristics of different peoples.
- Organology is the study of musical instruments or, in biology, the study of organs.


Step 3: Calculation:

The definition provided matches only with Genetics.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (D) Genetics. Quick Tip: Gregor Mendel is known as the "Father of Genetics" for his pioneering work with pea plants in the 19th century.


Question 157:

The Victoria Memorial, a brain child of Lord Curzon, was inaugurated by the Prince of Wales in the year 1921. The Victoria Memorial is located in

  • (A) Kolkata
  • (B) Lucknow
  • (C) Hyderabad
  • (D) Chennai
Correct Answer: (A) Kolkata
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Victoria Memorial is a large marble building built between 1906 and 1921. It is dedicated to the memory of Queen Victoria, who was then Empress of India.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Lord Curzon, the Viceroy of India, proposed the memorial after the death of Queen Victoria in 1901.
- It was designed by Sir William Emerson in the Indo-Saracenic revivalist style.
- It is one of the most famous landmarks of West Bengal's capital city.


Step 3: Calculation:

Geographically, the monument is situated on the Maidan in Kolkata.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Victoria Memorial is located in (A) Kolkata. Quick Tip: The Victoria Memorial is often referred to as the "Taj of the Raj" because it is constructed from the same Makrana marble used for the Taj Mahal.


Question 158:

Kabaddi is basically a combative sport, with -------- players on each side, played for a period of 40 minutes with a 5 minutes break

  • (A) seven
  • (B) six
  • (C) eight
  • (D) five
Correct Answer: (A) seven
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Kabaddi is a contact team sport. To solve this, one must be familiar with the standard international rules of the game.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- In the standard style of Kabaddi, each team consists of 12 players, but only 7 players take the field at one time.
- The match duration for men is 40 minutes (two halves of 20 minutes each).
- The objective is for a "raider" to run into the opposing team's half, tag out as many of their defenders as possible, and return to their own half, all without being tackled and in a single breath.


Step 3: Calculation:

The standard rule for active players on each side is 7.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (A) seven. Quick Tip: While 7 players play, a team is allowed 5 substitutes, making the total squad size 12.


Question 159:

In human, the deficiency of vitamin E causes

  • (A) rickets
  • (B) muscles weakness, nerve damage and a weakened immune system
  • (C) osteoporosis
  • (D) night blindness
Correct Answer: (B) muscles weakness, nerve damage and a weakened immune system
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Vitamins are essential micronutrients. Each vitamin has a specific function, and its absence leads to distinct deficiency diseases.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Night Blindness is caused by Vitamin A deficiency.
- Rickets is caused by Vitamin D deficiency.
- Osteoporosis is often linked to Calcium and Vitamin D deficiency.
- Vitamin E acts as an antioxidant. Its deficiency is rare but leads to oxidative stress that affects the nervous system and muscles.


Step 3: Calculation:

Vitamin E deficiency manifests as peripheral neuropathy, ataxia, and skeletal myopathy (muscle weakness).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (B) muscles weakness, nerve damage and a weakened immune system. Quick Tip: Vitamin E is also associated with fertility; its chemical name is Tocopherol, which comes from the Greek words for "childbirth" and "to bear."


Question 160:

Who nominates the Members of Rajya Sabha?

  • (A) Vice President of India
  • (B) Prime Minister of India
  • (C) President of India
  • (D) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
Correct Answer: (C) President of India
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is the upper house of India's Parliament. While most members are elected by State Legislative Assemblies, a small portion is nominated.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Under Article 80 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha shall consist of not more than 250 members.
- Out of these, 12 members are nominated by the President of India.
- These 12 members are persons having special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as Literature, Science, Art, and Social Service.


Step 3: Calculation:

The constitutional power of nomination lies with the President.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the (C) President of India. Quick Tip: Don't confuse "Nominate" with "Ex-officio Chairman." The Vice President of India is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha but does not nominate its members.


Question 161:

The Bihu dance is an indigenous folk dance from the Indian State of

  • (A) Meghalaya
  • (B) Manipur
  • (C) Bihar
  • (D) Assam
Correct Answer: (D) Assam
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Folk dances are traditional dances of a particular people or area. Bihu is the most popular folk dance of Assam, performed during the Bihu festival.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The Bihu dance is characterized by brisk steps and rapid hand movements.
- It is performed by both young men and women.
- The dancers usually wear traditional Assamese clothes like the Gamosa and Mekhela Chador.


Step 3: Calculation:

Bihu is culturally synonymous with the state of Assam.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Bihu dance is from (D) Assam. Quick Tip: There are three types of Bihu festivals in Assam: Bohag Bihu (Spring), Kati Bihu (Autumn), and Magh Bihu (Winter).


Question 162:

The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is located in

  • (A) Pune, Maharashtra
  • (B) Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu
  • (C) Bengaluru, Karnataka
  • (D) Trombay, Maharashtra
Correct Answer: (D) Trombay, Maharashtra
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is India's premier nuclear research facility. It was founded by Dr. Homi J. Bhabha in 1954.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- BARC is a multi-disciplinary research centre with extensive infrastructure for advanced research and development.
- While Pune and Bengaluru are major tech hubs, and Kalpakkam (Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research) is another nuclear site, the headquarters of BARC is in Mumbai.


Step 3: Calculation:

Specifically, BARC is situated in the suburb of Trombay in Mumbai, Maharashtra.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (D) Trombay, Maharashtra. Quick Tip: BARC's first nuclear reactor was "Apsara," which was also the first nuclear research reactor in Asia.


Question 163:

The author of the Book ‘Broken Wings’ is

  • (A) S. Radhakrishnan
  • (B) Sarojini Naidu
  • (C) Mulk Raj Anand
  • (D) Kuldip Nayyar
Correct Answer: (B) Sarojini Naidu
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

"Broken Wings" is a famous collection of poems. Identifying the author requires knowledge of classic Indian English literature.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Sarojini Naidu, known as the "Nightingale of India," wrote the collection titled {The Broken Wing: Songs of Love, Death, and the Spring.
- Khalil Gibran also wrote a famous poetic novel titled {The Broken Wings, but in the context of Indian authors, the title is associated with Sarojini Naidu.


Step 3: Calculation:

Among the provided options, Sarojini Naidu is the celebrated poet known for this work.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The author is (B) Sarojini Naidu. Quick Tip: Sarojini Naidu was also the first Indian woman to become the President of the Indian National Congress and the first woman to be appointed as a Governor in India.


Question 164:

ASEAN was established in 1967 in Bangkok. ASEAN stands for

  • (A) Association of Southeast African Nations
  • (B) Association of Southern Asian Nations
  • (C) Association of Southeast Asian Nations
  • (D) Association of Southwest Asian Nations
Correct Answer: (C) Association of Southeast Asian Nations
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

ASEAN is a regional intergovernmental organization comprising ten countries in Southeast Asia. It was created to promote intergovernmental cooperation.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The organization was established on 8 August 1967 with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration).
- It focuses on economic, political, security, military, educational, and sociocultural integration.


Step 3: Calculation:

The full form is: A (Association) of SE (Southeast) A (Asian) N (Nations).


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (C) Association of Southeast Asian Nations. Quick Tip: The ten member states are Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.


Question 165:

The India Brand Equity Foundation is a trust established by the

  • (A) Ministry of Finance
  • (B) Ministry of Railways
  • (C) Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  • (D) Ministry of Mines
Correct Answer: (C) Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The India Brand Equity Foundation (IBEF) is an export promotion agency. Its primary objective is to promote and create international awareness of the "Made in India" label.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Since the focus is on international trade, branding of Indian products, and exports, it falls under the purview of trade and commerce.
- It was established by the Department of Commerce under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.


Step 3: Calculation:

IBEF works as a knowledge center for global investors and policymakers, managed by the Ministry of Commerce.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (C) Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Quick Tip: IBEF is a great resource for up-to-date economic data and sector-wise reports on the Indian economy.


Question 166:

The campuses of Tata Institute of Social Sciences are located in

  • (A) Mumbai, Tuljapur, Hyderabad and Guwahati
  • (B) New Delhi and Kolkata
  • (C) Bengaluru and Chennai
  • (D) Jaipur and Bhopal
Correct Answer: (A) Mumbai, Tuljapur, Hyderabad and Guwahati
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS) is a multi-campus public research university. It is one of the oldest and most prestigious institutes for social work and social sciences in Asia.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The main campus is located in Mumbai (Deonar).
- The rural campus is in Tuljapur (Maharashtra).
- Two other major campuses were established later in Hyderabad and Guwahati.
- It does not have main campuses in the cities listed in options B, C, or D.


Step 3: Calculation:

Matching the official institutional layout, Option A covers all four major recognized campuses.


Step 4: Final Answer:

TISS campuses are in (A) Mumbai, Tuljapur, Hyderabad and Guwahati. Quick Tip: TISS was established in 1936 as the Sir Dorabji Tata Graduate School of Social Work before being renamed in 1944.


Question 167:

In finance and accounting, par value means

  • (A) sale value of a financial instrument
  • (B) stated value or face value of a financial instrument
  • (C) purchase value of a financial instrument
  • (D) Profit value of a financial instrument
Correct Answer: (B) stated value or face value of a financial instrument
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Par value is a technical term used for stocks and bonds. It represents the value determined by the issuing company at the time of issuance.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Par value is also known as Face Value.
- For a share, it is the original cost of the share as listed on the certificate.
- For a bond, it is the amount that will be paid back to the lender at maturity.
- It is different from "Market Value," which is the price at which the instrument is currently being sold.


Step 3: Calculation:

By definition, par value refers to the "stated" or "nominal" value.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (B) stated value or face value of a financial instrument. Quick Tip: When a financial instrument is sold for more than its par value, it is sold at a "premium." If sold for less, it is sold at a "discount."


Question 168:

In the Financial Year 2026-27, the maximum total income for which tax liability for individual tax payers is NIL is

  • (A) Rs. 10 Lakhs
  • (B) Rs. 15 Lakhs
  • (C) Rs. 14 Lakhs
  • (D) Rs. 12 Lakhs
Correct Answer: (D) Rs. 12 Lakhs
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Tax liability is calculated based on the tax slabs and rebates announced in the Union Budget. A "NIL" liability means that after applying available rebates, the tax payable is zero.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Following the reforms in the Union Budget 2025-26 and continued into the 2026-27 cycle, the New Tax Regime increased the tax-free threshold.
- Under the New Tax Regime, the standard rebate (Section 87A) was adjusted so that individuals earning up to a certain limit pay no tax.
- As of the current 2026 fiscal cycle, an individual with a total income up to Rs. 12 Lakhs has NIL tax liability under the New Tax Regime.


Step 3: Calculation:

The limit for zero tax liability was officially pushed to 12 Lakhs to provide relief to the middle class in recent budget updates.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (D) Rs. 12 Lakhs. Quick Tip: This NIL liability usually applies only to the New Tax Regime. If you opt for the Old Tax Regime, the exemptions and slabs follow a different structure.


Question 169:

NITI Aayog was established in which year?

  • (A) 2012
  • (B) 2014
  • (C) 2015
  • (D) 2016
Correct Answer: (C) 2015
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs. It replaced the Planning Commission.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The decision to replace the Planning Commission was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2014.
- However, the official formation and establishment of NITI Aayog occurred on January 1, 2015.


Step 3: Calculation:

The institution officially started its journey at the beginning of the year 2015.


Step 4: Final Answer:

NITI Aayog was established in (C) 2015. Quick Tip: The Prime Minister of India serves as the Ex-officio Chairman of NITI Aayog.


Question 170:

In Kerala, KeSCPCR is responsible for protecting the rights of

  • (A) all senior citizen who reside in the districts of Kerala
  • (B) all women who reside in the districts of Kerala
  • (C) all children who reside in the districts of Kerala
  • (D) all disabled persons who reside in the districts of Kerala
Correct Answer: (C) all children who reside in the districts of Kerala
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Government acronyms often reveal the department's focus. We need to decode "KeSCPCR" to understand its mandate.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Ke stands for Kerala.
- S stands for State.
- C stands for Commission.
- P stands for Protection.
- C stands for Child.
- R stands for Rights.
The Kerala State Commission for Protection of Child Rights was established under the CPCR Act, 2005.


Step 3: Calculation:

The central focus of this commission is "Child Rights."


Step 4: Final Answer:

KeSCPCR is responsible for protecting the rights of (C) all children who reside in the districts of Kerala. Quick Tip: The commission specifically monitors the implementation of the POCSO Act (2012) and the Right to Education (RTE) Act (2009) within the state.


Question 171:

Information Kerala Mission is an autonomous institution under the

  • (A) Finance Department, Government of Kerala
  • (B) Law Department, Government of Kerala
  • (C) Education Department, Government of Kerala
  • (D) Local self Government Department, Government of Kerala
Correct Answer: (D) Local self Government Department, Government of Kerala
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Information Kerala Mission (IKM) is a flagship e-governance project focused on digitizing and automating the functions of local administrative bodies in Kerala.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- IKM was established to strengthen the Local Self-Government Institutions (LSGIs) such as Panchayats and Municipalities through Information and Communication Technology (ICT).
- Since its primary work involves local administration software (like Sulekha, Sanchaya, and Sevana), it naturally falls under the Local Self Government Department (LSGD).


Step 3: Calculation:

The administrative link is directly with the department overseeing local bodies.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The institution is under the (D) Local self Government Department. Quick Tip: IKM is the organization behind the computerization of birth, death, and marriage registrations in Kerala, making these services available online through the "Sevana" portal.


Question 172:

The Institute of Management in Kerala is one of the teaching and research departments of the

  • (A) University of Kerala
  • (B) University of Calicut
  • (C) Central University of Kerala
  • (D) Kannur University
Correct Answer: (A) University of Kerala
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Institute of Management in Kerala (IMK) is a premier management institution located in Thiruvananthapuram. It functions as a department within a larger university structure.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- IMK was established in 1991.
- It is located within the Kariavattom campus in Thiruvananthapuram.
- Thiruvananthapuram is the primary seat of the University of Kerala.


Step 3: Calculation:

Based on geographical location and administrative history, IMK is a part of the University of Kerala.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (A) University of Kerala. Quick Tip: The University of Kerala was formerly known as the University of Travancore and was established in 1937.


Question 173:

Kumarrakom bird sanctuary in Kerala is located on the banks of

  • (A) Vembanad Lake
  • (B) Ashtamudi Lake
  • (C) Vellayani Lake
  • (D) Sasthamcotta Lake
Correct Answer: (A) Vembanad Lake
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary (also known as Vembanad Bird Sanctuary) is a major tourist attraction and haven for migratory birds.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The sanctuary is situated in the Kottayam district.
- It is spread across 14 acres on the southern bank of the Vembanad Lake, which is the longest lake in India.
- The lake provides the necessary ecosystem for various bird species like Siberian Cranes, Herons, and Teals.


Step 3: Calculation:

Geographically, Kumarakom is synonymous with the backwaters of Vembanad.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The sanctuary is on the banks of (A) Vembanad Lake. Quick Tip: Vembanad Lake is also the venue for the famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race, although that specific event is held in the Punnamada Lake portion of the water body.


Question 174:

Livelihood Inclusion Financial Empowerment (LIFE) scheme is the Kerala Government’S mission to

  • (A) give free power supply to all houses in villages in Kerala
  • (B) provide drinking water supply connections to all houses in villages in Kerala
  • (C) build free houses for all homeless people in the State
  • (D) provide financial assistance to all unemployed women in Kerala
Correct Answer: (C) build free houses for all homeless people in the State
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The LIFE Mission is a comprehensive housing scheme designed by the Kerala Government to ensure "housing for all."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The mission aims to provide safe and secure housing to landless and homeless people.
- It also focuses on the livelihood and financial empowerment of these families by integrating other social welfare schemes.
- It follows a phased approach, starting with unfinished houses, then landless-homeless, and finally homeless with land.


Step 3: Calculation:

The core objective of the LIFE acronym in the context of Kerala's specific social policy is housing.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The LIFE scheme is to (C) build free houses for all homeless people in the State. Quick Tip: The LIFE Mission is one of the four flagship missions under the "Nava Kerala Mission," along with Haritha Keralam, Aardhram, and Education Protection Mission.


Question 175:

The Operation Black Thunder was conducted by the National Security Guard in April 1986 to flush out extremists in

  • (A) Ludhiana, Punjab
  • (B) Amritsar, Punjab
  • (C) Patiala, Punjab
  • (D) Jalandhar, Punjab
Correct Answer: (B) Amritsar, Punjab
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Operation Black Thunder refers to two separate operations (Black Thunder I in 1986 and Black Thunder II in 1988) carried out to clear militants from a specific religious site.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The operation took place at the Golden Temple (Harmandir Sahib) complex.
- The Golden Temple is located in the city of Amritsar.
- Unlike Operation Blue Star (1984), Operation Black Thunder involved much less damage to the holy shrine and was considered a tactical success for the NSG.


Step 3: Calculation:

The location of the Golden Temple defines the location of the operation as Amritsar.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The correct option is (B) Amritsar, Punjab. Quick Tip: Operation Black Thunder II (1988) was notable for being one of the first major televised military operations in India, showcasing the precision of the NSG snipers.


Question 176:

Pokhran II (Operation Shakthi) was a series of five nuclear weapon tests conducted by India in the year

  • (A) 1988
  • (B) 1990
  • (C) 1998
  • (D) 2000
Correct Answer: (C) 1998
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Pokhran-II refers to the second set of nuclear tests conducted by India at the Indian Army's Pokhran Test Range. It marked India's emergence as a full nuclear weapons state.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The tests were conducted under the leadership of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
- The scientific team was led by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam and Dr. R. Chidambaram.
- These tests followed India's first nuclear test, "Smiling Buddha," which took place in 1974.


Step 3: Calculation:

The series of five explosions (three on May 11 and two on May 13) occurred in 1998.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Pokhran II was conducted in (C) 1998. Quick Tip: May 11 is celebrated as National Technology Day in India to commemorate the success of the Pokhran-II tests.


Question 177:

The author of the Book, India 2020: A Vision for the New Millennium is

  • (A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
  • (B) Amitav Ghosh
  • (C) Jhumpa Lahiri
  • (D) Shashi Tharoor
Correct Answer: (A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This book outlines a plan to transform India into a developed nation by the year 2020 through technological and economic growth.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The book was co-authored by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam and Y.S. Rajan.
- It emphasizes the importance of education, infrastructure, and self-reliance in critical technologies.
- Dr. Kalam was famously known for his vision of "Developed India."


Step 3: Calculation:

Among the literary figures listed, Dr. Kalam is the one associated with this specific vision and title.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The author is (A) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam. Quick Tip: Other famous books by Dr. Kalam include Wings of Fire (autobiography) and Ignited Minds.


Question 178:

The Ajanta Caves, the Buddhist cave monuments, are located in the

  • (A) Karnataka State
  • (B) Gujarat State
  • (C) Odisha State
  • (D) Maharashtra State
Correct Answer: (D) Maharashtra State
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Ajanta Caves are a UNESCO World Heritage site featuring rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments that include paintings and sculptures described as masterpieces of Buddhist religious art.




Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- The caves are located in the Aurangabad district (now Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar) of Maharashtra.
- They were built in two phases, starting from the 2nd century BCE to about 480 CE.
- The site consists of 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments.


Step 3: Calculation:

Geographically, the Waghur River valley where these caves reside is in Maharashtra.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The Ajanta Caves are in (D) Maharashtra State. Quick Tip: While Ajanta Caves are purely Buddhist, the nearby Ellora Caves are a mix of Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain monuments.


Question 179:

The Jag Mandir Island palace built in the Lake Pichola is located in

  • (A) Chandigarh, Haryana
  • (B) Udaipur, Rajasthan
  • (C) Bihar, Patna
  • (D) Bhuvaneshwar, Odisha
Correct Answer: (B) Udaipur, Rajasthan
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Jag Mandir is a palace built on an island in Lake Pichola. It is also known as the "Lake Garden Palace."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Construction began in 1551 by Maharana Amar Singh and was completed in the 17th century.
- Lake Pichola is one of the most famous artificial fresh water lakes in Udaipur, often called the "City of Lakes."
- The palace was used as a summer resort and pleasure palace for the royal family of Mewar.


Step 3: Calculation:

The association of Lake Pichola and the Mewar dynasty confirms the location as Udaipur.


Step 4: Final Answer:

The palace is located in (B) Udaipur, Rajasthan. Quick Tip: Legend has it that Shah Jahan (Prince Khurram) stayed here and drew inspiration from its architecture for the Taj Mahal.


Question 180:

The second longest urban beach in the world, Marina Beach is located in

  • (A) Howrah
  • (B) Mumbai
  • (C) Chennai
  • (D) Kanyakumari
Correct Answer: (C) Chennai
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Marina Beach is a natural urban beach along the Bay of Bengal. It is a major landmark of its city and is famous for its wide sandy shoreline.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

- Marina Beach runs from near Fort St. George in the north to Besant Nagar in the south.
- It is the longest natural urban beach in India and the second longest in the world (after Cox's Bazar Beach in Bangladesh).
- It is the heart of Chennai, the capital of Tamil Nadu.


Step 3: Calculation:

Among the coastal cities listed, Marina Beach is the iconic beach of Chennai.


Step 4: Final Answer:

Marina Beach is located in (C) Chennai. Quick Tip: Be careful: Marina Beach is in Chennai, while Marine Drive is the famous promenade in Mumbai. Don't mix up the names!

KMAT Kerala 2026 Preparation

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

Ask your question

Subscribe To Our News Letter

Get Latest Notification Of Colleges, Exams and News

© 2026 Patronum Web Private Limited