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AIIMS BSc Nursing 2026 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions PDF (Available)

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Zollege Team

Content Curator | Updated On - Jul 3, 2026

AIIMS Delhi conducted the B.Sc Nursing Exam on June 27 in shift 1 from 9.30 AM to 11.30 AM.

TheAIIMS B.Sc Nursing 2026 Question Paper consisted of 4 sections: Physics, Chemistry, Biology and General Knowledge/General Awareness with 100 Questions carrying a total of 100 Marks, as per the AIIMS B.Sc Nursing Marking Scheme, +1 Marks for every correct answer, and -1/3 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.

AIIMS B.Sc Nursing 2026 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download.

AIIMS B.Sc. Nursing 2026 Question Paper Shift 1 with Solutions PDF

AIIMS B.Sc. Nursing 2026 Question Paper Shift 1 Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

One mole of glucose molecules contains approximately:

  • (A) \( 3.01 \times 10^{23} \) molecules
  • (B) \( 6.02 \times 10^{23} \) molecules
  • (C) \( 1.204 \times 10^{24} \) molecules
  • (D) \( 9.03 \times 10^{23} \) molecules

Question 2:

Benzaldehyde on treatment with concentrated NaOH undergoes Cannizzaro reaction to form:

  • (A) Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate
  • (B) Benzoic acid and ethanol
  • (C) Benzyl chloride and sodium benzoate
  • (D) Benzene and sodium formate

Question 3:

At equilibrium for the reaction \( N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3(g) \), the concentrations are [N\(_2\)] = 0.20 M, [H\(_2\)] = 0.60 M and [NH\(_3\)] = 0.80 M. The value of K\(_p\) is:

  • (A) 7.4
  • (B) 14.8
  • (C) 22.2
  • (D) 44.4

Question 4:

A solution is prepared by dissolving 5.85 g of NaCl (Molar mass = 58.5 g mol⁻¹) in water to make 500 mL of solution. The molarity of the solution is:

  • (A) 0.1 M
  • (B) 0.2 M
  • (C) 0.5 M
  • (D) 1.0 M

Question 5:

According to Valence Bond Theory, the hybridization of the central metal ion in [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is:

  • (A) sp³
  • (B) dsp²
  • (C) d²sp³
  • (D) sp²

Question 6:

According to Molecular Orbital Theory, the bond order of O₂ is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 1.5
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3

Question 7:

100 mL of 2 M HCl is diluted to 500 mL. The molarity of the diluted solution is:

  • (A) 0.2 M
  • (B) 0.4 M
  • (C) 0.5 M
  • (D) 1.0 M

Question 8:

The IUPAC name of CH₃CH(OH)CH₂CH₃ is:

  • (A) Butan-1-ol
  • (B) Butan-2-ol
  • (C) Propan-2-ol
  • (D) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol

Question 9:

The coordination number of cobalt in [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃ is:

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 10:

Which reagent converts ethanol into bromoethane?

  • (A) KMnO₄
  • (B) PBr₃
  • (C) NaOH
  • (D) H₂SO₄

Question 11:

A diode is forward biased by 0.7 V. If the forward resistance is 10 Ω, the current through the diode is:

  • (A) 0.007 A
  • (B) 0.07 A
  • (C) 0.7 A
  • (D) 7 A

Question 12:

In Young’s double-slit experiment, the slit separation is 0.4 mm and the screen is 2 m away. If light of wavelength 600 nm is used, the fringe width is:

  • (A) 2 mm
  • (B) 3 mm
  • (C) 4 mm
  • (D) 5 mm

Question 13:

The entropy change when 400 J of heat is absorbed reversibly at 400 K is:

  • (A) 0.5 J K⁻¹
  • (B) 1 J K⁻¹
  • (C) 2 J K⁻¹
  • (D) 4 J K⁻¹

Question 14:

In Young’s double-slit experiment, the wavelength of light is doubled while all other parameters remain unchanged. The fringe width becomes:

  • (A) Half of the original
  • (B) Unchanged
  • (C) Double the original
  • (D) Four times the original

Question 15:

The resistance of a semiconductor decreases when its temperature increases because:

  • (A) the number of free charge carriers increases
  • (B) electron mass decreases
  • (C) atomic spacing increases
  • (D) mobility becomes zero

Question 16:

An electromagnetic wave has a frequency of 150 MHz. Its wavelength in air is approximately:

  • (A) 0.5 m
  • (B) 1 m
  • (C) 2 m
  • (D) 4 m

Question 17:

A radioactive substance has a half-life of 5 days. If its initial mass is 80 g, the mass remaining after 15 days is:

  • (A) 40 g
  • (B) 20 g
  • (C) 10 g
  • (D) 5 g

Question 18:

A coil of 100 turns experiences a change in magnetic flux from 0.05 Wb to 0.01 Wb in 0.2 s. The induced emf is:

  • (A) 10 V
  • (B) 15 V
  • (C) 20 V
  • (D) 25 V

Question 19:

A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 has radii of curvature +20 cm and −20 cm. The focal length of the lens is:

  • (A) 10 cm
  • (B) 20 cm
  • (C) 40 cm
  • (D) 80 cm

Question 20:

The measured length of a rod is (20.0 ± 0.2) cm. The percentage error in the measurement is:

  • (A) 0.5%
  • (B) 1%
  • (C) 2%
  • (D) 5%

Question 21:

Who among the following is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

  • (A) Leader of Opposition
  • (B) President of India
  • (C) Vice-President of India
  • (D) Senior Member of Rajya Sabha

Question 22:

The Strait of Hormuz is located between which countries?

  • (A) Iran and Saudi Arabia
  • (B) Iran and Oman, and the UAE
  • (C) Oman and Saudi Arabia
  • (D) Iraq and Iran

Question 23:

Chilika Lake, the largest salt water lake in India in the state of Odisha, lies to the south of the:

  • (A) Baitarani delta
  • (B) Brahmani delta
  • (C) Budhabalanga delta
  • (D) Mahanadi delta

Question 24:

Who was the Union Home Minister of India as of June 2025, following the general elections?

  • (A) Nirmala Sitharaman
  • (B) Rajnath Singh
  • (C) Amit Shah
  • (D) Piyush Goyal

Question 25:

Which Indian Ocean island country uses the "Rufiyaa" as its official currency for domestic and international transactions?

  • (A) Sri Lanka
  • (B) Maldives
  • (C) Mauritius
  • (D) Seychelles

Question 26:

Which condition is characterised by reduced clotting ability of blood?

  • (A) Leukaemia
  • (B) Haemophilia
  • (C) Polycythemia
  • (D) Atherosclerosis

Question 27:

Match the following:

  • (A) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (iii); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (iv); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (i); (D) \(\rightarrow\) (ii)
  • (B) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (ii); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (i); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (iv); (D) \(\rightarrow\) (iii)
  • (C) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (iii); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (iv); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (i); (D) \(\rightarrow\) (ii)
  • (D) (A) \(\rightarrow\) (i); (B) \(\rightarrow\) (ii); (C) \(\rightarrow\) (iii); (D) \(\rightarrow\) (iv)

Question 28:

Analysis of the species-area relationships indicate the value of Z to be in the range of:

  • (A) 0.1 to 0.5
  • (B) 0.5 - 1.1
  • (C) 0.6 - 1.2
  • (D) 1.2 - 2.0

Question 29:

A permanent cure for ADA deficiency could be through:

  • (A) Bone marrow transplantation
  • (B) Modified lymphocyte transfusion
  • (C) Gene therapy at early embryonic stages
  • (D) Enzyme replacement therapy

Question 30:

Filiform apparatus is found in:

  • (A) Antipodal cell
  • (B) Egg cell
  • (C) Secondary nucleus
  • (D) Synergids

Question 31:

Match the following:

  • (A) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
  • (B) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  • (C) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  • (D) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Question 32:

Common in Darwin’s finches and Australian marsupials is:

  • (A) They are all extinct.
  • (B) They show adaptive radiation.
  • (C) They have homologous organs.
  • (D) They are all found in South America.

Question 33:

Which of the following belongs to the Solanaceae family?

  • (A) Potato, Tomato, Brinjal
  • (B) Wheat, Rice, Maize
  • (C) Rose, Apple, Pear
  • (D) Pea, Gram, Soybean

Question 34:

Which disease is caused by Plasmodium?

  • (A) Dengue
  • (B) Typhoid
  • (C) Malaria
  • (D) Filariasis

Question 35:

Which growth regulator promotes fruit ripening?

  • (A) Auxin
  • (B) Gibberellin
  • (C) Cytokinin
  • (D) Ethylene

Question 36:

Which hormone-based contraceptive prevents ovulation?

  • (A) Copper-T
  • (B) Condoms
  • (C) Oral pills
  • (D) Diaphragm

Question 37:

Below given are two statements:
Statement I: MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester
Statement II: Government of India legalised MTP in 1971
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both statement I and II are correct
  • (B) Both statement I and II are incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

Question 38:

Which of the following hormones control(s) the menstrual cycle in human beings?

  • (A) FSH
  • (B) LH
  • (C) FSH, LH, estrogen
  • (D) Oxytocin

Question 39:

Which of the following is the correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchy?

  • (A) Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species
  • (B) Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom
  • (C) Kingdom → Class → Phylum → Order → Family → Genus → Species
  • (D) Phylum → Kingdom → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species

Question 40:

Which statements correctly describe Mycoplasma?
1. They lack a cell wall.
2. They can survive without oxygen.
3. They are the smallest known free-living organisms.
4. Their cell membrane contains sterols.

  • (A) 1, 3, 4
  • (B) 2 and 4
  • (C) 1, 2, 3
  • (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

AIIMS B.Sc Nursing 2026 Exam Pattern

Particulars Details
Exam Level Undergraduate
Exam Frequency Once a year
Exam duration 120 minutes (2 Hours)
Mode of exam Computer-based test(CBT)/Online
Language of the Exam English
Type of questions Multiple-choice questions (MCQs)
Total Marks 100
Total Questions 100
Sections Physics
Chemistry
Biology
General knowledge
Marking Scheme +1 for each correct answer
-1/3 for each incorrect answer
0 for Not answered
Total marks 100

AIIMS B.Sc Nursing 2026 Paper Analysis

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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