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SNAP 2014 Question Paper With Solution PDF

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Dipanwita Pramanik

Content Writer | Updated On - Oct 9, 2025

SNAP 2014 Question Paper with Solutions PDF is available for download here. SNAP 2014 was conducted on December 21. The total marks for the theory paper is 150. SNAP 2014 Question Paper was divided into 4 sections- General English: Reading Comprehension, Verbal Reasoning, Verbal Ability, Quantitative Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency, General Awareness: General Knowledge, Current Affairs, Business Scenario, Analytical & Logical Reasoning.

SNAP 2014 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

SNAP 2014 Question Paper with Solutions Pdf Download PDF Check Solutions
SNAP 2014 Question Paper with Solution Pdf



Question 1:

How many different letter arrangements can be made from the letters of the word EXTRA in such a way that the vowels are always together?

  • (A) 48
  • (B) 60
  • (C) 40
  • (D) 30
Correct Answer: (A) 48
View Solution



The word EXTRA has 5 distinct letters: E, X, T, R, A.

The vowels are E and A. The consonants are X, T, R.

To keep the vowels together, treat them as a single block: (EA).

Now we arrange the 4 items: (EA), X, T, R.

The number of ways to arrange these 4 items is 4! = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 24.

The vowels within the block (E, A) can also be arranged in 2! = 2 ways (EA or AE).

Total arrangements =

(Arrangements of blocks) × (Arrangements within the block) = 24 × 2 = 48.
Quick Tip: In permutation problems where certain items must stay together, treat the group of items as a single unit first, and then multiply by the number of ways the items can be arranged within that unit.


Question 2:

The radius of the incircle in the given right triangle (legs AB = 6 cm, BC = 8 cm) will be:

  • (A) 1.8 cm
  • (B) 2 cm
  • (C) 2.5 cm
  • (D) 3.6 cm
Correct Answer: (B) 2 cm
View Solution



First, find the hypotenuse (AC) using the Pythagorean theorem.

AC² = AB² + BC² = 6² + 8² = 36 + 64 = 100.

AC = √100 = 10 cm.

The formula for the radius (r) of the incircle of a right-angled triangle is:

r = (Perpendicular + Base - Hypotenuse) / 2.

r = (6 + 8 - 10) / 2 = 4 / 2 = 2 cm.
Quick Tip: Memorize the specific formula for the inradius of a right triangle: r = (a + b - c) / 2. It is a very useful shortcut.


Question 3:

If tan θ + sin θ = m and tan θ – sin θ = n, then the value of m² – n² is equal to

  • (A) 4mn
  • (B) 2√(mn)
  • (C) 4√(mn)
  • (D) 2√(m/n)
Correct Answer: (C) 4√(mn)
View Solution



First, evaluate m² – n² using the difference of squares formula: (m+n)(m-n).

m + n = (tanθ + sinθ) + (tanθ - sinθ) = 2tanθ.

m - n = (tanθ + sinθ) - (tanθ - sinθ) = 2sinθ.

m² – n² = (2tanθ)(2sinθ) = 4tanθsinθ.

Next, evaluate mn:

mn = (tanθ + sinθ)(tanθ - sinθ) = tan²θ - sin²θ = (sin²θ/cos²θ) - sin²θ.

mn = sin²θ(1/cos²θ - 1) = sin²θ(sec²θ - 1) = sin²θtan²θ.

Now, take the square root: √(mn) = √(sin²θtan²θ) = sinθtanθ.

Comparing the two results, we see that m² – n² = 4√(mn).
Quick Tip: For trigonometric identities, always start by applying standard algebraic formulas like (a² - b²) = (a+b)(a-b) to simplify the expressions before dealing with the trig functions.


Question 4:

If A and B are two mutually exclusive and exhaustive events with P(B) = 3P(A), then what is the value of P(B̅)?

  • (A) 3/4
  • (B) 1/4
  • (C) 1/3
  • (D) 2/3
Correct Answer: (B) 1/4
View Solution



Mutually exclusive and exhaustive events mean that one of them must occur, and they cannot occur together.

This implies P(A) + P(B) = 1.

We are given P(B) = 3P(A).

Substitute the second equation into the first: P(A) + 3P(A) = 1.

4P(A) = 1 => P(A) = 1/4.

Then, P(B) = 3 (1/4) = 3/4.

The question asks for P(B̅), which is the probability of the complement of B.

P(B̅) = 1 - P(B) = 1 - 3/4 = 1/4.
Quick Tip: Remember the key properties: for mutually exclusive events, P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B). For exhaustive events, the sum of all probabilities is 1.


Question 5:

A and B entered into a partnership... The share of B exceeds that of C, out of a total profit of ₹26,400 after one year, by:

  • (A) 2400
  • (B) 3000
  • (C) 3600
  • (D) 4800
Correct Answer: (C) 3600
View Solution



The profit sharing ratio is based on the product of investment and time (equivalent monthly investment).

A's investment: (16000 × 3) + (11000 × 9) = 48000 + 99000 = 147000.

B's investment: (12000 × 3) + (17000 × 9) = 36000 + 153000 = 189000.

C's investment: (21000 × 6) = 126000.

Ratio of shares A:B:C = 147000 : 189000 : 126000. Simplify by dividing by 1000, then by 21.

Ratio = 147 : 189 : 126 = 7 : 9 : 6.

Total ratio parts = 7 + 9 + 6 = 22.

Share of B = (9/22) 26400 = 9 1200 = 10800.

Share of C = (6/22) 26400 = 6 1200 = 7200.

Difference (B's share - C's share) = 10800 - 7200 = ₹3600.
Quick Tip: In partnership problems with changing investments, calculate the "equivalent investment" for each partner by summing the products of each capital amount and the duration for which it was invested.


Question 6:

An aeroplane takes off 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and, to reach its destination 1500 km away on time, it increases its speed by 250 km/h over its usual speed. Find its usual speed.

  • (A) 1000 km/h
  • (B) 750 km/h
  • (C) 850 km/h
  • (D) 650 km/h
Correct Answer: (B) 750 km/h
View Solution



Let the usual speed be 's' km/h. Distance = 1500 km.

Usual time = 1500/s. New speed = s + 250. New time = 1500/(s+250).

The difference in time is 30 minutes = 0.5 hours.

(Usual time) - (New time) = 0.5.

1500/s - 1500/(s+250) = 0.5.

1500 ( (s+250 - s) / (s(s+250)) ) = 0.5.

1500 250 / (s² + 250s) = 0.5.

375000 = 0.5 (s² + 250s) => 750000 = s² + 250s.

s² + 250s - 750000 = 0. Factoring this gives (s - 750)(s + 1000) = 0.

Since speed must be positive, s = 750 km/h.
Quick Tip: An alternative to solving the quadratic equation is to test the options. For s=750, t=2 hrs. For s=1000, t=1.5 hrs. The difference is 0.5 hrs, which matches the condition.


Question 7:

What smallest number should be added to 4456 so that the sum is completely divisible by 6?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (C) 2
View Solution



For a number to be divisible by 6, it must be divisible by both 2 and 3.

1. The number 4456 is even, so it is already divisible by 2. The number we add must also be even to keep the sum even. This eliminates options (B) and (D).

2. For divisibility by 3, the sum of the digits must be a multiple of 3.

Sum of digits of 4456 = 4 + 4 + 5 + 6 = 19.

The next multiple of 3 after 19 is 21.

The difference is 21 - 19 = 2.

So, we need to add 2 to the number. The new number is 4458.

4458 is even and its digits sum to 21 (divisible by 3). Thus, 4458 is divisible by 6.
Quick Tip: Always use the divisibility rules. For divisibility by 6, check for divisibility by both 2 (the number is even) and 3 (the sum of digits is a multiple of 3).


Question 8:

If two tangents inclined at an angle 60° are drawn to a circle of radius 3 cm, then length of each tangent is equal to

  • (A) (3/2)√2 cm
  • (B) 6 cm
  • (C) 3 cm
  • (D) 3√3 cm
Correct Answer: (D) 3√3 cm
View Solution



Let the tangents be drawn from point T to the circle with center O. Let the points of contact be P and Q.

The line segment OT bisects the angle between the tangents, so ∠OTP = 60°/2 = 30°.

The radius OP is perpendicular to the tangent PT at the point of contact, so ∠OPT = 90°.

We have a right-angled triangle ΔOPT.

We know the side opposite to the 30° angle (radius OP = 3 cm) and we need to find the adjacent side (tangent PT).

Using trigonometry: tan(30°) = Opposite / Adjacent = OP / PT.

1/√3 = 3 / PT.

PT = 3√3 cm.
Quick Tip: In problems involving two tangents from an external point to a circle, drawing the line from the center to the external point creates two congruent right-angled triangles.


Question 9:

Find the value of log₃₂ 5⁴ × log₅₂ 3⁴.

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2
Correct Answer: (This question is unsolvable as written)
View Solution



The question as transcribed from the OCR, "log₃₂ 5⁴ × log₅₂ 3⁴", is mathematically ambiguous.

There is no standard notation for a double subscript like "log₃₂".

Assuming a likely typo and interpreting it as log₃(5⁴) × log₅(3⁴):

= (4 log₃ 5) × (4 log₅ 3)

= 16 (log₃ 5) (log₅ 3)

Using the change of base formula, log₅ 3 = 1 / log₃ 5.

= 16 (log₃ 5) (1 / log₃ 5) = 16.

Since 16 is not an option, the question is likely flawed or intended to be written differently. No common interpretation leads to the given options.
Quick Tip: When a question contains non-standard notation or if a logical calculation leads to an answer not present in the options, recognize that the question may be erroneous.


Question 10:

Find the value of 1% of 1% of 25% of 1000.

  • (A) 0.025
  • (B) 0.0025
  • (C) 0.25
  • (D) 0.000025
Correct Answer: (A) 0.025
View Solution



Convert the percentages to decimals or fractions and multiply.

1% = 0.01.

25% = 0.25.

The expression is: 0.01 × 0.01 × 0.25 × 1000.

= (0.0001) × 0.25 × 1000.

= 0.000025 × 1000.

= 0.025.
Quick Tip: For chained percentage calculations ("percent of a percent"), simply multiply the corresponding decimal or fractional values together.


Question 11:

C is the mid-point of PQ. If P = (4, x), C = (y, −1) and Q = (-2, 4), then x and y respectively are:

  • (A) -6 and 1
  • (B) -6 and 2
  • (C) 6 and -1
  • (D) 6 and -2
Correct Answer: (A) -6 and 1
View Solution



Using the midpoint formula: C = ( (x₁+x₂)/2 , (y₁+y₂)/2 ).

For the x-coordinate: y = (4 + (-2)) / 2 = 2 / 2 = 1.

For the y-coordinate: -1 = (x + 4) / 2.

Multiply by 2: -2 = x + 4.

Subtract 4: x = -6.

So, x = -6 and y = 1.
Quick Tip: Remember the midpoint formula applies to each coordinate independently. Set up separate equations for the x and y coordinates to solve for unknown values.


Question 12:

In a given race the odds in favour of three horses A, B, C are 1 : 3, 1:4, 1:5 respectively. Assuming that dead heat is impossible, the probability that one of them wins is

  • (A) 7/60
  • (B) 37/60
  • (C) 1/5
  • (D) 1/8
Correct Answer: (B) 37/60
View Solution



Convert the odds in favour to probabilities. Odds 'a : b' means probability is a / (a+b).

P(A wins) = 1 / (1 + 3) = 1/4.

P(B wins) = 1 / (1 + 4) = 1/5.

P(C wins) = 1 / (1 + 5) = 1/6.

Since a dead heat is impossible, these are mutually exclusive events.

The probability that one of them wins is the sum of their individual probabilities.

P(A or B or C) = P(A) + P(B) + P(C) = 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6.

The LCM of 4, 5, 6 is 60.

= (15/60) + (12/60) + (10/60) = 37/60.
Quick Tip: To convert "odds in favor" of a:b into probability, use the formula P = a / (a + b). To convert "odds against" a:b, use P = b / (a + b).


Question 13:

A and B rent a pasture for 10 months; A puts in 80 cows for 7 months. How many cows can B put in for the remaining 3 months, if he pays half as much again as A?

  • (A) 120
  • (B) 180
  • (C) 200
  • (D) 280
Correct Answer: (D) 280
View Solution



The rent paid is proportional to the number of cows multiplied by the time they graze.

A's contribution is proportional to 80 cows × 7 months = 560 cow-months.

Let B put in 'x' cows for 3 months. B's contribution is proportional to x × 3 = 3x cow-months.

B pays "half as much again as A," which means B pays 1.5 times A's rent (or Rent_B / Rent_A = 3/2).

The ratio of their contributions must equal the ratio of their payments.

(3x) / 560 = 3 / 2.

3x = (3/2) 560 => 3x = 840.

x = 280 cows.
Quick Tip: "Half as much again" means 1 + 1/2 = 1.5 times the original amount. This is a common phrase in older word problems.


Question 14:

A property dealer sells a house for ₹6,30,000 and in the bargain makes a profit of 5%. Had he sold it for ₹5,00,000, then what percentage of loss or gain would he have made?

  • (A) 2 1/2 % gain
  • (B) 10% loss
  • (C) 12 2/3 % loss
  • (D) 16 2/3 % loss
Correct Answer: (D) 16 2/3 % loss
View Solution



First, find the Cost Price (CP) of the house.

SP = 6,30,000 and Profit = 5%.

CP = SP / (1 + Profit%) = 6,30,000 / 1.05 = 6,00,000.

Now, calculate the loss for the new selling price.

New SP = 5,00,000.

Loss = CP - New SP = 6,00,000 - 5,00,000 = 1,00,000.

Loss Percentage = (Loss / CP) 100 = (100,000 / 600,000) 100.

= (1/6) 100 = 16.66...% = 16 2/3 % loss.
Quick Tip: To find the original cost price from a selling price and a profit percentage, use the formula: CP = SP / (1 + (Profit%/100)).


Question 15:

The average of 11 numbers is 10.9. If the average of the first six numbers is 10.5 and that of the last six numbers is 11.4, then the middle number is:

  • (A) 11.5
  • (B) 11.4
  • (C) 11.3
  • (D) 11.0
Correct Answer: (A) 11.5
View Solution



Sum of all 11 numbers = 11 × 10.9 = 119.9.

Sum of the first 6 numbers = 6 × 10.5 = 63.0.

Sum of the last 6 numbers = 6 × 11.4 = 68.4.

When we add the sum of the first six and the sum of the last six, the middle (6th) number is counted twice.

Sum of (first 6 + last 6) = 63.0 + 68.4 = 131.4.

The middle number = (Sum of first 6 + Sum of last 6) - (Sum of all 11).

Middle number = 131.4 - 119.9 = 11.5.
Quick Tip: In overlapping average problems, the value of the overlapping element is the sum of the parts minus the sum of the whole.


Question 16:

A can do a piece of work in 25 days and B in 20 days. They work together for 5 days and then A goes away. In how many days will B finish the remaining work?

  • (A) 17 days
  • (B) 11 days
  • (C) 10 days
  • (D) 15 days
Correct Answer: (B) 11 days
View Solution



Let the total work be the LCM of 25 and 20, which is 100 units.

A's rate of work = 100/25 = 4 units/day.

B's rate of work = 100/20 = 5 units/day.

Their combined rate = 4 + 5 = 9 units/day.

Work done together in 5 days = 9 units/day × 5 days = 45 units.

Remaining work = 100 - 45 = 55 units.

Time for B to finish the remaining work = Remaining Work / B's rate = 55 / 5 = 11 days.
Quick Tip: Using the LCM method for 'Work and Time' problems avoids dealing with fractions and simplifies calculations.


Question 17:

At simple interest, ₹800 becomes ₹956 in three years. If the interest rate is increased by 3%, how much would ₹800 become in three years?

  • (A) 1020.80
  • (B) 1004
  • (C) 1028
  • (D) Data inadequate
Correct Answer: (C) 1028
View Solution



The initial amount is ₹956. We need to find the additional interest due to the 3% rate increase.

The additional simple interest is calculated on the principal (₹800) at the extra rate (3%) for the given time (3 years).

Additional Interest = (P × R × T) / 100 = (800 × 3 × 3) / 100.

= 8 × 3 × 3 = 72.

The new final amount will be the old final amount plus this additional interest.

New Amount = 956 + 72 = ₹1028.
Quick Tip: When only the interest rate changes in a simple interest problem, you don't need to calculate the original rate. Simply calculate the extra interest earned from the rate increase and add it to the original amount.


Question 18:

The jogging track... is 726 metres in circumference. Pradeep and his wife start from the same point and walk in opposite directions at 4.5 km/h and 3.75 km/h, respectively. They will meet for the first time in:

  • (A) 5.5 min
  • (B) 6.0 min
  • (C) 5.28 min
  • (D) 4.9 min
Correct Answer: (C) 5.28 min
View Solution



When two objects move in opposite directions, their speeds are added to find the relative speed.

Relative speed = 4.5 km/h + 3.75 km/h = 8.25 km/h.

The distance they need to cover collectively to meet is the circumference of the track, 726 metres or 0.726 km.

Time = Distance / Speed.

Time (in hours) = 0.726 km / 8.25 km/h = 0.088 hours.

Convert hours to minutes: Time (in minutes) = 0.088 × 60 = 5.28 minutes.
Quick Tip: Ensure all units are consistent before calculating. In this problem, convert the track length to km or the speeds to m/min to get the correct answer.


Question 19:

What number must be added to the expression 16a² – 12a to make it a perfect square?

  • (A) 9/4
  • (B) 11/2
  • (C) 13/2
  • (D) 16
Correct Answer: (A) 9/4
View Solution



The expression is of the form x² - 2xy. To make it a perfect square (x-y)², we need to add y².

Here, x² = 16a², so x = 4a.

The middle term is -2xy = -12a.

-2 (4a) y = -12a.

-8ay = -12a.

y = 12/8 = 3/2.

The number that must be added is y² = (3/2)² = 9/4.

The perfect square would be (4a - 3/2)².
Quick Tip: To "complete the square" for an expression Ax² + Bx, the term to add is (B / 2√A)².


Question 20:

The monthly salaries of A and B together amount to ₹40,000. A spends 85% of his salary and B, 95% of his salary. If now their savings are the same, then the salary (in ₹) of A is:

  • (A) 10,000
  • (B) 12,000
  • (C) 16,000
  • (D) 18,000
Correct Answer: (A) 10,000
View Solution



Let the salaries be Sₐ and Sₑ. We know Sₐ + Sₑ = 40,000.

If A spends 85%, he saves 100% - 85% = 15% of his salary. Savingₐ = 0.15 Sₐ.

If B spends 95%, he saves 100% - 95% = 5% of his salary. Savingₑ = 0.05 Sₑ.

Their savings are the same: 0.15 Sₐ = 0.05 Sₑ.

Multiply by 100: 15Sₐ = 5Sₑ, which simplifies to 3Sₐ = Sₑ.

Substitute this into the first equation: Sₐ + 3Sₐ = 40,000.

4Sₐ = 40,000 => Sₐ = 10,000.
Quick Tip: When dealing with spending percentages, it's often easier to convert them to savings percentages to directly address the core of the problem.


Question 21:

The difference of two numbers is 1365. On dividing the larger number by the smaller, we get 6 as quotient and 15 as remainder. What is the smaller number?

  • (A) 240
  • (B) 270
  • (C) 295
  • (D) 360
Correct Answer: (B) 270
View Solution



Let the larger number be L and the smaller number be S.

From the first statement: L - S = 1365 (Eq 1).

From the division statement (Dividend = Divisor × Quotient + Remainder):

L = S × 6 + 15 (Eq 2).

Substitute the expression for L from Eq 2 into Eq 1:

(6S + 15) - S = 1365.

5S + 15 = 1365.

5S = 1350.

S = 1350 / 5 = 270.
Quick Tip: Translate word problems into a system of algebraic equations. Here, the "difference" and the "division" statements create two distinct equations to be solved simultaneously.


Question 22:

In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. If AB is a diameter, BC = CD and ∠ABD = 40°, find the measure of ∠DBC.

  • (A) 65°
  • (B) 25°
  • (C) 45°
  • (D) 60°
Correct Answer: (B) 25°
View Solution



Since AB is the diameter, the angle subtended by it at any point on the circumference is 90°.

Therefore, ∠ADB = 90°.

In triangle ABD, the sum of angles is 180°. So, ∠DAB = 180° - 90° - 40° = 50°.

In a circle, equal chords subtend equal angles at the circumference.

Since BC = CD, the angles they subtend from point A must be equal.

Thus, ∠BAC = ∠CAD.

We know that ∠DAB = ∠BAC + ∠CAD = 50°.

Since they are equal, 2 ∠BAC = 50°, which means ∠BAC = 25°.

In triangle ABC, since AB is a diameter, ∠ACB = 90°.

The sum of angles in ΔABC is 180°. ∠ABC + ∠BAC + ∠ACB = 180°.

∠ABC = ∠ABD + ∠DBC = 40° + ∠DBC.

(40° + ∠DBC) + 25° + 90° = 180° => 155° + ∠DBC = 180° => ∠DBC = 25°.
Quick Tip: Remember two key circle theorems: 1. Angle in a semicircle is 90°. 2. Equal chords subtend equal angles at the circumference.


Question 23:

A bag contains 5 white and 3 black balls, and 4 are successively drawn out without replacement. What is the chance of getting different colours alternatively?

  • (A) 1/6
  • (B) 1/8
  • (C) 1/4
  • (D) 1/7
Correct Answer: (This question's options are incorrect)
View Solution



There are two possible cases for alternating colors: WBWB or BWBW. Total balls = 8.

Case 1: P(WBWB) = P(W₁) × P(B₂|W₁) × P(W₃|W₁B₂) × P(B₄|W₁B₂W₃)

= (5/8) × (3/7) × (4/6) × (2/5) = 120 / 1680 = 1/14.

Case 2: P(BWBW) = P(B₁) × P(W₂|B₁) × P(B₃|B₁W₂) × P(W₄|B₁W₂B₃)

= (3/8) × (5/7) × (2/6) × (4/5) = 120 / 1680 = 1/14.

Total probability = P(WBWB) + P(BWBW) = 1/14 + 1/14 = 2/14 = 1/7.

The calculated correct answer of 1/7 is not present in the options provided.

Therefore, the question or the options are flawed.
Quick Tip: For sequential probability without replacement, remember to decrease both the number of favorable outcomes and the total number of outcomes with each draw.


Question 24:

What is the value of x in the following expression? x + log₁₀(1+2ˣ) = xlog₁₀5 + log₁₀6

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 0
  • (C) −1
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (A) 1
View Solution



Rearrange the equation to group terms with x: x - xlog₁₀5 + log₁₀(1+2ˣ) = log₁₀6.

Factor out x: x(1 - log₁₀5) + log₁₀(1+2ˣ) = log₁₀6.

Use log property log₁₀10 = 1: x(log₁₀10 - log₁₀5) + log₁₀(1+2ˣ) = log₁₀6.

Use log property log(a)-log(b)=log(a/b): x(log₁₀(10/5)) + log₁₀(1+2ˣ) = log₁₀6.

xlog₁₀2 + log₁₀(1+2ˣ) = log₁₀6.

Use log property nlog(a)=log(aⁿ): log₁₀(2ˣ) + log₁₀(1+2ˣ) = log₁₀6.

Use log property log(a)+log(b)=log(ab): log₁₀(2ˣ (1+2ˣ)) = log₁₀6.

Equate the arguments: 2ˣ(1+2ˣ) = 6.

Let y = 2ˣ. The equation becomes y(1+y) = 6 => y² + y - 6 = 0.

Factoring gives (y+3)(y-2) = 0. So y = -3 or y = 2.

Since y = 2ˣ must be positive, y = 2. Therefore, 2ˣ = 2, which means x = 1.
Quick Tip: The key to solving this logarithmic equation is to use log properties to combine terms and isolate the variable, then substitute (let y = 2ˣ) to solve the resulting quadratic equation.


Question 25:

Which of the following functions is an odd function?

  • (A) f(x) = 2⁻ˣ²
  • (B) f(x) = 2ˣ - x⁴
  • (C) Both (a) and (b)
  • (D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct Answer: (D) Neither (a) nor (b)
View Solution



A function f(x) is odd if f(-x) = -f(x). A function is even if f(-x) = f(x).

Let's check option (A): f(x) = 2⁻ˣ².

f(-x) = 2⁻⁽⁻ˣ⁾² = 2⁻ˣ². Since f(-x) = f(x), this is an even function.

Let's check option (B): f(x) = 2ˣ - x⁴.

f(-x) = 2⁻ˣ - (-x)⁴ = 2⁻ˣ - x⁴.

This is not equal to f(x) or -f(x). Therefore, this function is neither odd nor even.

Since neither function is odd, the correct choice is (D).
Quick Tip: To test if a function is odd or even, substitute '-x' for 'x' in the function and simplify. Compare the result with the original function f(x) and its negative -f(x).


Question 26:

The cost of the paint is ₹ 36.50 per kg. If 1 kg of paint covers 16 square feet, how much will it cost to paint the outside of a cube having side 8 feet?

  • (A) 692
  • (B) 768
  • (C) 876
  • (D) 972
Correct Answer: (C) 876
View Solution



First, calculate the total surface area (TSA) of the cube to be painted.

TSA of a cube = 6 × (side)².

TSA = 6 × (8)² = 6 × 64 = 384 square feet.

Next, calculate the amount of paint required in kg.

Paint required = Total Area / Coverage per kg = 384 sq ft / 16 sq ft/kg = 24 kg.

Finally, calculate the total cost.

Total Cost = Paint required (kg) × Cost per kg = 24 × 36.50 = ₹876.
Quick Tip: Break down mensuration word problems into clear steps: 1. Calculate the required area/volume. 2. Calculate the amount of material needed. 3. Calculate the total cost.


Question 27:

A horse takes 2 1/2 seconds to complete one round of a circular field. If its speed is 66 m/s, find the radius of the field. [Use π = 22/7]

  • (A) 25.62 m
  • (B) 26.52 m
  • (C) 25.26 m
  • (D) 26.25 m
Correct Answer: (D) 26.25 m
View Solution



First, find the distance covered, which is the circumference of the field.

Time = 2 1/2 = 2.5 seconds. Speed = 66 m/s.

Distance (Circumference) = Speed × Time = 66 × 2.5 = 165 metres.

The formula for circumference is C = 2πr.

165 = 2 × (22/7) × r.

165 = (44/7) × r.

r = (165 × 7) / 44.

Simplify by dividing 165 and 44 by 11: r = (15 × 7) / 4 = 105 / 4 = 26.25 metres.
Quick Tip: Remember the fundamental relationship: Distance = Speed × Time. This is the starting point for many problems involving motion.


Question 28:

One litre of water is evaporated from 6 litres of a solution containing 5% salt. The percentage of salt in the remaining solution is:

  • (A) 4 2/3 %
  • (B) 5 5/6 %
  • (C) 5%
  • (D) 6%
Correct Answer: (D) 6%
View Solution



First, find the absolute amount of salt, which does not change during evaporation.

Initial amount of salt = 5% of 6 litres = 0.05 × 6 = 0.3 litres.

After 1 litre of water is evaporated, the total volume of the solution decreases.

New volume of solution = 6 - 1 = 5 litres.

The amount of salt is still 0.3 litres.

New salt percentage = (Amount of Salt / New Volume) × 100.

= (0.3 / 5) × 100 = 0.06 × 100 = 6%.
Quick Tip: In mixture problems involving evaporation or addition of a solvent, the key is that the amount of the solute (the substance dissolved, like salt) remains constant.


Question 29:

The last two digits in the multiplication 122 × 123 × 125 × 127 × 129 will be

  • (A) 20
  • (B) 50
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 40
Correct Answer: (B) 50
View Solution



To find the last two digits, we look at the product modulo 100.

The product contains the number 125 (which is 5³).

It also contains an even number, 122.

Let's find the product of just these two numbers: 122 × 125.

122 × 125 = 122 × (1000/8) = 122000 / 8 = 15250.

The last two digits of this partial product are 50.

Now, we are multiplying a number ending in 50 by other odd numbers (123, 127, 129).

Any number ending in 50 multiplied by any odd number will result in a number ending in 50.

(e.g., 50 × 3 = 150, 150 × 7 = 1050).

Therefore, the last two digits of the entire product will be 50.
Quick Tip: When finding the last two digits of a product, look for factors of 25 and 4 (which make 100 and result in 00) or factors of 25 and 2 (which make 50).


Question 30:

If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 200%, then the resultant fraction is 2 4/5. What is the original fraction?

  • (A) 4/7
  • (B) 13/12
  • (C) 11/12
  • (D) None
Correct Answer: (D) None
View Solution



Let the original fraction be N/D.

An increase of 200% means the new value is the original value + 200% of the original value, which is 3 times the original.

New Numerator = N + 200% of N = N + 2N = 3N.

New Denominator = D + 200% of D = D + 2D = 3D.

The new fraction is (3N) / (3D) = N/D.

This means the fraction does not change.

So, the original fraction N/D must be equal to the resultant fraction 2 4/5.

2 4/5 = 14/5.

The original fraction is 14/5. Since this is not among options A, B, or C, the correct answer is (D) None.
Quick Tip: An "increase of X means the new value is (100+X) of the old value. So, an increase of 200 results in 300 of the original, which is 3 times the original value.


Question 31:

The value of the given expression is
% Expression: [1/2 divided by (1/2 of 1/2)] / [2 + (1/2 of 2)]

  • (A) 2/3
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4/3
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (A) 2/3
View Solution



We evaluate the numerator and the denominator separately, following the order of operations (BODMAS/PEMDAS).

Numerator: 1/2 ÷ (1/2 of 1/2) = 1/2 ÷ (1/4) = 1/2 × 4 = 2.

Denominator: 2 + (1/2 of 2) = 2 + 1 = 3.

The value of the expression is Numerator / Denominator = 2/3.



\begin{quicktipbox
In complex fractions, solve the parts within parentheses and the "of" operations first before performing division and addition.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In complex fractions, solve the parts within parentheses and the "of" operations first before performing division and addition.


Question 32:

On a journey across Kolkata, a taxi averages 40 kmph for 60% of the distance, 30 kmph for 20% of the distance, and 10 kmph for the remainder. The average speed of the whole journey is

  • (A) 25 kmph
  • (B) 26 kmph
  • (C) 24 kmph
  • (D) 30 kmph
Correct Answer: (C) 24 kmph
View Solution



Let the total distance be 100 km for simplicity. Average speed = Total Distance / Total Time.

Segment 1: Distance = 60 km, Speed = 40 kmph, Time₁ = 60/40 = 1.5 hours.

Segment 2: Distance = 20 km, Speed = 30 kmph, Time₂ = 20/30 = 2/3 hours.

Segment 3 (remainder): Distance = 100 - 60 - 20 = 20 km, Speed = 10 kmph, Time₃ = 20/10 = 2 hours.

Total Distance = 100 km.

Total Time = 1.5 + 2/3 + 2 = 3.5 + 2/3 = 7/2 + 2/3 = (21+4)/6 = 25/6 hours.

Average Speed = 100 / (25/6) = (100 × 6) / 25 = 4 × 6 = 24 kmph.



\begin{quicktipbox
For average speed calculations across different segments, it's often easiest to assume a convenient total distance (like 100 km for percentage problems) to simplify the numbers.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For average speed calculations across different segments, it's often easiest to assume a convenient total distance (like 100 km for percentage problems) to simplify the numbers.


Question 33:

Two numbers are such that the square of the greater number is 504 less than 8 times the square of the other. If the numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4, find the numbers.

  • (A) 15 and 20
  • (B) 6 and 8
  • (C) 12 and 16
  • (D) 9 and 12
Correct Answer: (D) 9 and 12
View Solution



Let the numbers be 3k and 4k. The greater number is 4k.

The square of the greater number is (4k)² = 16k².

8 times the square of the other number is 8 × (3k)² = 8 × 9k² = 72k².

According to the problem: 16k² = 72k² - 504.

504 = 72k² - 16k².

504 = 56k².

k² = 504 / 56 = 9.

k = 3.

The numbers are 3k = 3×3 = 9 and 4k = 4×3 = 12.



\begin{quicktipbox
When numbers are given in a ratio, represent them using a common multiplier (like 'k') to set up a single-variable algebraic equation.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When numbers are given in a ratio, represent them using a common multiplier (like 'k') to set up a single-variable algebraic equation.


Question 34:

A bag contains 100 tickets numbered 1, 2, 3, . . ., 100. If one ticket is drawn at random, what is the probability that the ticket drawn has the digit 2 appearing on it?

  • (A) 21/100
  • (B) 19/100
  • (C) 32/100
  • (D) 23/100
Correct Answer: (B) 19/100
View Solution



We need to count the number of tickets from 1 to 100 that contain the digit '2'.

Numbers with '2' in the units place: 2, 12, 22, 32, 42, 52, 62, 72, 82, 92 (10 numbers).

Numbers with '2' in the tens place: 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29 (10 numbers).

The number 22 is included in both lists, so we have counted it twice.

Total unique numbers with the digit '2' = 10 + 10 - 1 = 19.

The total number of tickets is 100.

Probability = Favorable Outcomes / Total Outcomes = 19/100.



\begin{quicktipbox
When counting items that fit multiple criteria (like having a '2' in the units or tens place), use the principle of inclusion-exclusion (A∪B = A + B - A∩B) to avoid double-counting.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When counting items that fit multiple criteria (like having a '2' in the units or tens place), use the principle of inclusion-exclusion (A∪B = A + B - A∩B) to avoid double-counting.


Question 35:

A train passes a station platform in 36 seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/h, then find the length of the platform.

  • (A) 225 m
  • (B) 235 m
  • (C) 230 m
  • (D) 240 m
Correct Answer: (D) 240 m
View Solution



First, convert the train's speed to meters per second.

Speed = 54 km/h = 54 × (5/18) m/s = 3 × 5 = 15 m/s.

The length of the train is the distance it covers when passing a stationary point (the man).

Length of Train = Speed × Time to pass man = 15 m/s × 20 s = 300 m.

When the train passes a platform, the total distance covered is the length of the train plus the length of the platform.

(Length of Train + Length of Platform) = Speed × Time to pass platform.

300 + Length of Platform = 15 m/s × 36 s = 540 m.

Length of Platform = 540 - 300 = 240 m.



\begin{quicktipbox
Remember that when a train passes a point object (pole, man), the distance covered is its own length. When it passes a length object (platform, bridge), the distance is its length plus the object's length.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember that when a train passes a point object (pole, man), the distance covered is its own length. When it passes a length object (platform, bridge), the distance is its length plus the object's length.


Question 36:

What is the number of women in the Accounts department?
Table 1: Ratio of men to women in different departments. Total number of employees = 4600.

  • (A) 86
  • (B) 102
  • (C) 80
  • (D) 92
Correct Answer: (D) 92
View Solution



Total number of employees = 4600.

From the pie chart, the percentage of employees in the Accounts department is 8%.

Number of employees in Accounts = 8% of 4600 = 0.08 × 4600 = 368.

From the table, the ratio of Men to Women in Accounts is 3 : 1.

Total ratio parts = 3 + 1 = 4.

Number of women = (1/4) × 368 = 92.



\begin{quicktipbox
In data interpretation with multiple sources (pie chart + table), combine the information step-by-step. First find the total for the subgroup, then apply the ratio.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In data interpretation with multiple sources (pie chart + table), combine the information step-by-step. First find the total for the subgroup, then apply the ratio.


Question 37:

What is the total number of employees working in the IT department and HR department together?

  • (A) 1628
  • (B) 1742
  • (C) 1766
  • (D) 1702
Correct Answer: (D) 1702
View Solution



Total number of employees = 4600.

From the pie chart, percentage in IT = 26% and percentage in HR = 11%.

Total percentage for both departments = 26% + 11% = 37%.

Total number of employees in IT and HR = 37% of 4600.

= 0.37 × 4600 = 1702.



\begin{quicktipbox
When finding a combined total from a pie chart, you can add the percentages first before performing the final calculation. This is often faster than calculating each part separately.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When finding a combined total from a pie chart, you can add the percentages first before performing the final calculation. This is often faster than calculating each part separately.


Question 38:

What is the ratio of the total number of men to the total number of women working in all the departments together?

  • (A) 63 : 41
  • (B) 41 : 27
  • (C) 53 : 47
  • (D) 27 : 19
Correct Answer: (C) 53 : 47
View Solution



Let's calculate the number of men and women for each department:

- HR(11%): 506 employees. Ratio 1:1 -> Men=253, Women=253.

- Accounts(8%): 368 employees. Ratio 3:1 -> Men=276, Women=92.

- Production(15%): 690 employees. Ratio 3:2 -> Men=414, Women=276.

- IT(26%): 1196 employees. Ratio 1:3 -> Men=299, Women=897.

- Marketing(22%): 1012 employees. Ratio 1:1 -> Men=506, Women=506.

- Merchandising(18%): 828 employees. Ratio 5:1 -> Men=690, Women=138.

Total Men = 253+276+414+299+506+690 = 2438.

Total Women = 253+92+276+897+506+138 = 2162.

Ratio M:W = 2438 : 2162. Let's check option C: 53:47.

Total employees = 4600. (53/100)4600 = 2438. (47/100)4600 = 2162. The numbers match.



\begin{quicktipbox
For lengthy ratio calculations, after finding the totals, check if they match any of the given option ratios with respect to the grand total. This can be faster than simplifying the fraction.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For lengthy ratio calculations, after finding the totals, check if they match any of the given option ratios with respect to the grand total. This can be faster than simplifying the fraction.


Question 39:

The number of women in the Merchandising department forms what percent of the total number of employees in the organization?

  • (A) 3%
  • (B) 6%
  • (C) 1%
  • (D) 12%
Correct Answer: (A) 3%
View Solution



From the calculation in Q38, the number of employees in Merchandising is 828.

The ratio of Men to Women is 5:1, so there are 6 parts.

Number of women = (1/6) × 828 = 138.

Total employees in the organization = 4600.

Percentage = (Number of women in Merchandising / Total employees) × 100.

= (138 / 4600) × 100 = 138 / 46 = 3%.



\begin{quicktipbox
Read percentage questions carefully to identify the 'part' and the 'whole' for the calculation. Here, the 'part' is a subgroup of a subgroup, and the 'whole' is the grand total.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Read percentage questions carefully to identify the 'part' and the 'whole' for the calculation. Here, the 'part' is a subgroup of a subgroup, and the 'whole' is the grand total.


Question 40:

What is the ratio of the number of men in the Production department to the number of men in the Marketing department?

  • (A) 7:3
  • (B) 9 : 11
  • (C) 13:7
  • (D) 11 : 9
Correct Answer: (B) 9 : 11
View Solution



From the calculation in Q38:

Number of men in Production = 414.

Number of men in Marketing = 506.

The required ratio is 414 : 506.

To simplify the ratio, find the greatest common divisor. Both are divisible by 2: 207 : 253.

By checking prime factors, 207 = 9 × 23 and 253 = 11 × 23.

Dividing both by 23 gives the simplified ratio 9 : 11.



\begin{quicktipbox
When simplifying large number ratios, check for divisibility by common small primes (2, 3, 5, 7, 11, etc.) or larger primes if the numbers seem related.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When simplifying large number ratios, check for divisibility by common small primes (2, 3, 5, 7, 11, etc.) or larger primes if the numbers seem related.


Question 41:

DRIVEN : EIDRVN :: BEGUM : ?

  • (A) EUBGM
  • (B) MGBEU
  • (C) BGMEU
  • (D) UEBGM
Correct Answer: (B) MGBEU
View Solution



The relationship is a positional rearrangement of the letters.

Let's number the positions of the letters in DRIVEN: D(1) R(2) I(3) V(4) E(5) N(6).

The new arrangement EIDRVN corresponds to the positions: 5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6.

Now we apply the same positional transformation to the word BEGUM.

B(1) E(2) G(3) U(4) M(5).

The pattern for a 5-letter word would logically be 5, 3, 1, 2, 4.

Applying this: M(5), G(3), B(1), E(2), U(4).

The resulting word is MGBEU.



\begin{quicktipbox
For jumbled letter analogies, the most reliable method is to map the original positions to the new positions and then apply that same mapping to the target word.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For jumbled letter analogies, the most reliable method is to map the original positions to the new positions and then apply that same mapping to the target word.


Question 42:

Shout : Whisper :: Run : ?

  • (A) Stay
  • (B) Stand
  • (C) Walk
  • (D) Hop
Correct Answer: (C) Walk
View Solution



The relationship between Shout and Whisper is one of intensity. A shout is a loud form of speaking, while a whisper is a quiet form. They are antonyms of intensity.

We need to find a word that has a similar relationship with Run.

Run is a fast-paced movement. The low-intensity equivalent of running is walking.

'Stay' and 'Stand' are opposites of motion itself, not variations in speed. 'Hop' is a different type of motion.

Therefore, Walk is the correct analogue.



\begin{quicktipbox
When analyzing analogies, be precise about the relationship. "Opposite" is too general; "opposite in intensity" or "opposite in speed" is more accurate and leads to the correct answer.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When analyzing analogies, be precise about the relationship. "Opposite" is too general; "opposite in intensity" or "opposite in speed" is more accurate and leads to the correct answer.


Question 43:

Statements: I. Some toys are pens. II. Some pens are papers. III. Some papers are black. Conclusions: ...

  • (A) None follows
  • (B) Either II or IV
  • (C) Either I or III and either II or IV
  • (D) Either I or IV
Correct Answer: (C) Either I or III and either II or IV
View Solution



All statements are of the "Some A are B" type. No definite conclusion can be drawn that connects the first term (toys) to the last (black), or pens to black.

Let's check the conclusions:

I. Some toys are black - Does not follow.

II. No pen is black - Does not follow (cannot get a negative from all positive statements).

III. No toy is black - Does not follow.

IV. Some pens are black - Does not follow.

Now we must check for complementary pairs (Either/Or cases).

Pair 1: Conclusions I and III ("Some toys are black" and "No toy is black"). These two statements cannot be false simultaneously. One must be true. This forms a valid "Either/Or" pair.

Pair 2: Conclusions II and IV ("No pen is black" and "Some pens are black"). This also forms a valid "Either/Or" pair.

Therefore, the correct logical derivation is that (Either I or III is true) AND (Either II or IV is true). This matches option (C).



\begin{quicktipbox
In syllogisms, if no conclusion follows directly, always check for complementary "Either/Or" pairs. A pair like "Some A are B" and "No A are B" is a classic example.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In syllogisms, if no conclusion follows directly, always check for complementary "Either/Or" pairs. A pair like "Some A are B" and "No A are B" is a classic example.


Question 44:

A fires 5 shots to B's 3, but A kills only once in 3 shots while B kills once in 2 shots. When B has missed 27 times, A has killed

  • (A) 30 birds
  • (B) 60 birds
  • (C) 72 birds
  • (D) 90 birds
Correct Answer: (A) 30 birds
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze B's performance. B kills once in 2 shots, which means B misses once in 2 shots.

To miss 27 times, B must have fired 27 × 2 = 54 shots.

Step 2: Find how many shots A fired in the same time. The ratio of shots is A:B = 5:3.

Shots_A / Shots_B = 5/3 => Shots_A / 54 = 5/3 => Shots_A = (5/3) × 54 = 90 shots.

Step 3: Calculate A's kills. A kills once in 3 shots.

Number of kills by A = Total shots by A / Shots per kill = 90 / 3 = 30 birds.



\begin{quicktipbox
Break down complex ratio problems into sequential steps. Use the information about one person (B) to find a baseline value (total shots fired), then use the ratio to find the corresponding value for the other person (A).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Break down complex ratio problems into sequential steps. Use the information about one person (B) to find a baseline value (total shots fired), then use the ratio to find the corresponding value for the other person (A).


Question 45:

At what time between 9PM and 10PM will the minute hand and the hour hand be opposite to each other?

  • (A) 9:15 4/11
  • (B) 9:16 4/11
  • (C) 9:12 4/11
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) 9:16 4/11
View Solution



At 9 PM, the hour hand is at 9 and the minute hand is at 12. The angle between them is 90°.

For the hands to be opposite, they must be 180° apart. This means the minute hand must point to the '3' on the clock face relative to the hour hand.

At 9 o'clock, the minute hand is 15 minute-spaces behind the position directly opposite the hour hand (which is at 3).

The minute hand gains 55 minute-spaces on the hour hand in 60 minutes.

To gain 15 minute-spaces, the time required is (60/55) × 15 = (12/11) × 15 = 180/11 minutes.

180/11 minutes = 16 and 4/11 minutes.

The time will be 16 4/11 minutes past 9.



\begin{quicktipbox
A formula for the time 'm' past 'h' o'clock is m = (2/11)(30h ± θ), where θ is the desired angle. For opposite hands, θ=180. m = (2/11)(309 - 180) = (2/11)(90) = 180/11.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: A formula for the time 'm' past 'h' o'clock is m = (2/11)(30h ± θ), where θ is the desired angle. For opposite hands, θ=180. m = (2/11)(309 - 180) = (2/11)(90) = 180/11.


Question 46:

If P × Q – S, which of the following is true? (‘A + B' means A is the daughter of B; ‘A × B' means A is the son of B; ‘A - B' means A is the wife of B.)

  • (A) S is wife of Q.
  • (B) S is father of P.
  • (C) P is daughter of Q.
  • (D) None of these.
Correct Answer: (B) S is father of P.
View Solution



Let's decode the expression P × Q – S.

'P × Q' means "P is the son of Q."

'Q – S' means "Q is the wife of S."

Combining these: P is the son of Q, and Q is the wife of S.

This makes Q the mother of P, and S the husband of Q.

Therefore, S is the father of P.



\begin{quicktipbox
In symbolic blood relation problems, decode each part of the expression step-by-step to build the family tree.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In symbolic blood relation problems, decode each part of the expression step-by-step to build the family tree.


Question 47:

In a school students... What is the minimum number of students who appeared in the Mock test?

  • (A) 105
  • (B) 110
  • (C) 115
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) 105
View Solution



Let's use a Venn diagram. Total Passed = Only1 + Only2 + Both + All3. Total Students = Total Passed + Failed All.

Given: |DI|=80, |VA|=70, |QA|=60, |All3|=40, |None|=10, |VA∩QA|=50, |OnlyQA|=5.

From |VA∩QA|=50 and |All3|=40, we find (VA&QA only) = 50 - 40 = 10.

From |QA|=60: |QA| = OnlyQA + (VA&QA only) + (DI&QA only) + All3 => 60 = 5 + 10 + (DI&QA only) + 40 => (DI&QA only) = 5.

From |VA|=70: |VA| = OnlyVA + (VA&QA only) + (DI&VA only) + All3 => 70 = OnlyVA + 10 + (DI&VA only) + 40 => OnlyVA + (DI&VA only) = 20.

From |DI|=80: |DI| = OnlyDI + (DI&QA only) + (DI&VA only) + All3 => 80 = OnlyDI + 5 + (DI&VA only) + 40 => OnlyDI + (DI&VA only) = 35.

Let (DI&VA only) = x. Then OnlyVA = 20-x and OnlyDI = 35-x. To be valid, x must be between 0 and 20.

Total Students = (OnlyDI+OnlyVA+OnlyQA) + (DI&VA only + VA&QA only + DI&QA only) + All3 + None.

Total = (35-x + 20-x + 5) + (x + 10 + 5) + 40 + 10 = 125 - x.

To find the MINIMUM total, we must MAXIMIZE x. The maximum value for x is 20.

Minimum Total Students = 125 - 20 = 105.



\begin{quicktipbox
For minimum/maximum Venn diagram problems, express the total in terms of one unknown variable region (x) and then find the valid range for x.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For minimum/maximum Venn diagram problems, express the total in terms of one unknown variable region (x) and then find the valid range for x.


Question 48:

What is the minimum number of students who did not clear the cut-off in exactly two subjects?

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 20
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) 20
View Solution



"Did not clear the cut-off in exactly two subjects" is the same as "cleared the cut-off in exactly ONE subject."

We need to find the minimum value of (Only DI + Only VA + Only QA).

From the solution for Q47, this sum is:

(35 - x) + (20 - x) + 5 = 60 - 2x.

To find the MINIMUM value of this expression, we must MAXIMIZE x.

The valid range for x is 0 ≤ x ≤ 20. The maximum value of x is 20.

Minimum number = 60 - 2(20) = 60 - 40 = 20.



\begin{quicktipbox
Translate complex logical statements into simpler Venn diagram terms. "Failed in exactly two subjects" means the same as "passed in exactly one subject."
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Translate complex logical statements into simpler Venn diagram terms. "Failed in exactly two subjects" means the same as "passed in exactly one subject."


Question 49:

What is the ratio of the number of students who didn't clear DI but cleared QA to the number of students who didn't clear only VA?

  • (A) 3:1
  • (B) 3:2
  • (C) 1:3
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (D) None of these
View Solution



This question is ambiguously worded. Let's try the most likely interpretations.

Part 1: "didn't clear DI but cleared QA" = Students in QA circle but not in DI circle = (Only QA) + (VA&QA only).

Value = 5 + 10 = 15.

Part 2: "didn't clear only VA" could mean (Total Students) - (Only VA).

Value = (125 - x) - (20 - x) = 105.

Ratio = 15 : 105 = 1 : 7. This is not an option.

Another interpretation of Part 2: "students who failed only VA". This means they passed DI and QA, but not VA. This is the (DI&QA only) region.

Value = 5. Ratio = 15 : 5 = 3 : 1. This matches option A. Given the ambiguity, this is the most likely intended meaning.

Let's re-verify: is it possible the question has no single answer because of x? The ratio would be 15:(125-x-(20-x)) = 15:105, which is constant. So ambiguity is in wording, not x.



\begin{quicktipbox
When a question's wording is unclear, try to rephrase it in multiple ways. Test which interpretation leads to one of the given answers.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When a question's wording is unclear, try to rephrase it in multiple ways. Test which interpretation leads to one of the given answers.


Question 50:

If the number of students who didn't clear the cut-off in at least two subjects is as large as possible, then how many students failed in exactly one subject?

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 20
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) 15
View Solution



"Didn't clear at least two subjects" = (Failed in 2 subjects) or (Failed in 3 subjects).

This is equivalent to: (Passed in 1 subject) or (Passed in 0 subjects).

Number of students = (Only DI + Only VA + Only QA) + (None).

From Q47, this is (60 - 2x) + 10 = 70 - 2x.

To make this number "as large as possible," we must MINIMIZE x. The minimum value of x is 0.

The question asks for "how many students failed in exactly one subject" under this condition.

"Failed in exactly one subject" is equivalent to "Passed in exactly TWO subjects."

Number of students = (DI&VA only) + (VA&QA only) + (DI&QA only).

From Q47, this is x + 10 + 5 = x + 15.

Since the condition required us to set x to its minimum value (0), the answer is 0 + 15 = 15.



\begin{quicktipbox
Carefully translate the conditions. "Make [expression] as large as possible" tells you whether to minimize or maximize your variable 'x'. Then use that value of x to find the final answer.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Carefully translate the conditions. "Make [expression] as large as possible" tells you whether to minimize or maximize your variable 'x'. Then use that value of x to find the final answer.


Question 51:

Five persons P, M, U, T and X live separately in any one of the following: a palace, a hut, a fort, a house or a hotel. Each one likes two different colors... M lives in a:

  • (A) Hut
  • (B) Palace
  • (C) Fort
  • (D) House
Correct Answer: (B) Palace
View Solution



Let's organize the clues:

- People: P, M, U, T, X. Places: Palace, Hut, Fort, House, Hotel.

- Clue 6: X lives in a hotel.

- Clue 2: T likes black. Clue 4: P likes blue. Clue 1: U likes blue.

- Clue 3: The person living in the palace does not like black or blue.

- From these, we can deduce that T, P, and U cannot live in the palace. X lives in the hotel.

- By elimination, the only person left who can live in the palace is M.



\begin{quicktipbox
In logic grid puzzles, use the process of elimination. Cross-reference negative constraints (like "does not like") against positive facts to narrow down the possibilities.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In logic grid puzzles, use the process of elimination. Cross-reference negative constraints (like "does not like") against positive facts to narrow down the possibilities.


Question 52:

Sangeeta remembers that her father's birthday was certainly after the eighth but before the thirteenth of December. Her sister Natasha remembers that it was definitely after the ninth but before the fourteenth of December. On which date of December was their father's birthday?

  • (A) 10th
  • (B) 11th
  • (C) 12th
  • (D) Data inadequate
Correct Answer: (D) Data inadequate
View Solution



Let's list the possible dates from each statement.

Sangeeta's memory: After 8th, before 13th. The possible dates are 9, 10, 11, 12.

Natasha's memory: After 9th, before 14th. The possible dates are 10, 11, 12, 13.

For both statements to be true, the actual date must be in the intersection of these two sets.

Intersection = {10, 11, 12.

Since there are three possible dates (10th, 11th, or 12th) and no further information to distinguish between them, a single specific date cannot be determined.



\begin{quicktipbox
When combining information from multiple sources, find the set of possibilities for each source and then find the intersection of those sets. If the intersection has more than one element, the data is inadequate.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When combining information from multiple sources, find the set of possibilities for each source and then find the intersection of those sets. If the intersection has more than one element, the data is inadequate.


Question 53:

Rohit walked 25 metres towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 metres. He then turned to his left and walked 25 metres. He again turned to his right and walked 15 metres. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction?

  • (A) 35 metres east
  • (B) 35 metres north
  • (C) 40 metres east
  • (D) 60 metres east
Correct Answer: (A) 35 metres east
View Solution



Let the starting point be the origin (0, 0).

1. Walks 25m South: New position is (0, -25).

2. Turns left (now facing East), walks 20m: New position is (20, -25).

3. Turns left (now facing North), walks 25m: New position is (20, 0).

4. Turns right (now facing East), walks 15m: New position is (35, 0).

The final position is (35, 0) relative to the start (0, 0).

The distance is 35 metres, and the direction is East.



\begin{quicktipbox
Use a simple coordinate system (x, y) to track movements in direction-based problems. South/West are negative directions, and North/East are positive.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use a simple coordinate system (x, y) to track movements in direction-based problems. South/West are negative directions, and North/East are positive.


Question 54:

Statement: The best way to escape from a problem is to solve it. Conclusions: I. Your life will be dull if you don't face problem. II. To escape from problem, you should always have some solutions with you.

  • (A) if only conclusion I follows;
  • (B) if only conclusion II follows;
  • (C) if either I or II follows;
  • (D) if neither I nor II follows;
Correct Answer: (B) if only conclusion II follows;
View Solution



The statement establishes a direct link: escaping a problem is achieved by solving it.

Conclusion I: "Your life will be dull if you don't face problem." The statement does not discuss the quality of life or the necessity of having problems. It only talks about how to deal with them once they exist. So, I does not follow.

Conclusion II: "To escape from problem, you should always have some solutions with you." This is a direct logical consequence of the statement. If solving is the method of escape, then having a solution is the means to do so. So, II follows.



\begin{quicktipbox
A valid conclusion must be a direct and necessary consequence of the given statement, without introducing outside information or making unrelated value judgments.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: A valid conclusion must be a direct and necessary consequence of the given statement, without introducing outside information or making unrelated value judgments.


Question 55:

Mr. Mansingh has five sons (Arun, Mahi, Rohit, Nilesh, Saurav) and three daughters
(Tamanna, Kuntala, Janki). Three sons were born first, followed by two daughters. Saurav is
the eldest child and Janki is the youngest. Three children study at Trinity School and three at
St. Stefan. Tamanna and Rohit study at St. Stefan. Kuntala (eldest daughter) plays chess.
Mansorover School offers only cricket; Trinity only chess; no other games in these two
schools. The children at Mansorover were born in succession. Mahi and Nilesh are
cricketers; Arun plays football. Rohit, born just before Janki, plays hockey.
Arun is the child of Mr. Mansingh.
Arun is the ___ child of Mr. Mansingh.

  • (A) 2nd
  • (B) 3rd
  • (C) 6th
  • (D) 5th
Correct Answer: (B) 3rd
View Solution



Let's establish the birth order of the 8 children (5 sons, 3 daughters).

- Saurav is the eldest (1st). Janki is the youngest (8th).

- Three sons were born first, followed by two daughters. This is a contradiction, as there are 3 daughters. The question likely means the birth order is S, S, S, D, D, S, S, D (or similar). Let's ignore this clue as it seems flawed.

- Rohit was born just before Janki. So, Rohit is 7th and Janki is 8th.

- The children at Mansorover school were born in succession. Mahi and Nilesh are cricketers, and Mansorover offers only cricket. So Mahi and Nilesh attend Mansorover and were born in succession.

- Saurav (1st, son), 2nd (son), 3rd (son), Kuntala (4th, eldest daughter), 5th, 6th, Rohit (7th, son), Janki (8th, daughter). This structure has issues.
- Let's re-evaluate based on a more logical interpretation: Eldest 3 are sons, youngest is a daughter. Saurav is 1st.
- Order: 1(Saurav,S), 2(S), 3(S), 4, 5, 6, 7, 8(Janki,D). This doesn't fit Rohit being 7th.
- The question's premises are contradictory. However, if we assume a common intended solution, the birth order is often deduced as: 1.Saurav(S), 2.Mahi(S), 3.Arun(S), 4.Nilesh(S), 5.Kuntala(D), 6.Tamanna(D), 7.Rohit(S), 8.Janki(D). In this interpretation, Arun is the 3rd child.



\begin{quicktipbox
Complex logic puzzles in exams can sometimes contain contradictions. Try to build a consistent model, and if that fails, identify the most likely intended structure that uses the most reliable clues.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Complex logic puzzles in exams can sometimes contain contradictions. Try to build a consistent model, and if that fails, identify the most likely intended structure that uses the most reliable clues.


Question 56:

Saurav is a student of which school?

  • (A) Trinity
  • (B) St. Stefan
  • (C) Mansorover
  • (D) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (D) Cannot be determined
View Solution



Let's analyze the school information.

- 3 at Trinity, 3 at St. Stefan. (This implies 2 children attend Mansorover).

- Tamanna and Rohit study at St. Stefan. (2/3 St. Stefan slots filled).

- Kuntala plays chess. Trinity offers only chess. So Kuntala is at Trinity. (1/3 Trinity slots filled).

- Mahi and Nilesh are cricketers. Mansorover offers only cricket. So Mahi and Nilesh are at Mansorover. (This fits the 2-student gap).

- We have placed 5 children: Tamanna(St.S), Rohit(St.S), Kuntala(Trinity), Mahi(Mans.), Nilesh(Mans.).

- We are left with Saurav, Arun, and Janki. We have 2 spots at Trinity and 1 at St. Stefan.

- There is no specific information to place Saurav, Arun, or Janki in any particular school. We only know they must fill the remaining slots at Trinity and St. Stefan. Thus, Saurav's school cannot be determined.



\begin{quicktipbox
In logic puzzles, keep a running tally of what is known and what remains unknown. If a question asks about an item that is still in the "unknown" list, the answer is "Cannot be determined."
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In logic puzzles, keep a running tally of what is known and what remains unknown. If a question asks about an item that is still in the "unknown" list, the answer is "Cannot be determined."


Question 57:

What game does Tamanna play?

  • (A) Cricket
  • (B) Hockey
  • (C) Football
  • (D) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (D) Cannot be determined
View Solution



From the clues, we know:

- Tamanna studies at St. Stefan school.

- The games offered by the three schools are Cricket (Mansorover only) and Chess (Trinity only).

- St. Stefan's game is not explicitly mentioned. It is stated "Beside, these schools offer no other games," implying St. Stefan offers either cricket or chess, but this contradicts the "only" statements.

- A more likely interpretation is that St. Stefan offers other games (Football, Hockey).

- Rohit (at St. Stefan) plays hockey. Arun plays football.

- There is no information given about the game Tamanna plays.



\begin{quicktipbox
Do not make assumptions beyond what is stated. If the text does not provide a piece of information, you cannot logically deduce it.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Do not make assumptions beyond what is stated. If the text does not provide a piece of information, you cannot logically deduce it.


Question 58:

Which of the following pairs was not born in succession (ignore the order)?

  • (A) Mahi and Nilesh
  • (B) Kuntala and Arun
  • (C) Rohit and Janki
  • (D) Arun and Rohit
Correct Answer: (D) Arun and Rohit
View Solution



Based on the most consistent (though flawed) birth order deduced in Q55:

1.Saurav, 2.Mahi, 3.Arun, 4.Nilesh, 5.Kuntala, 6.Tamanna, 7.Rohit, 8.Janki.

Let's check the pairs:

(A) Mahi (2nd) and Nilesh (4th): The clue "children at Mansorover were born in succession" implies Mahi and Nilesh (the cricketers) were born one after the other. This contradicts the wider birth order. The question's premises are flawed.

However, let's assume "born in succession" means they are a block, e.g., 2nd and 3rd.

Let's re-evaluate based only on the most solid clues:

- Rohit (7th) and Janki (8th) were born in succession. So (C) is a successive pair.

- Mahi and Nilesh must be a successive pair. So (A) is a successive pair.

- This leaves (B) and (D) as potential non-successive pairs. Without a definitive full birth order, we cannot be certain. The puzzle is broken.



\begin{quicktipbox
If a logic puzzle's premises contradict each other, it is impossible to solve definitively. This question is a prime example of a flawed problem.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: If a logic puzzle's premises contradict each other, it is impossible to solve definitively. This question is a prime example of a flawed problem.


Question 59:

Read this question based on the information given below: Wendy, a student, is an avid
backgammon player. All students play either chess or checkers, but some checkers players
do not play chess because they do not understand chess strategy. Backgammon players never
play checkers, because they do not find checkers challenging. Therefore, Wendy must
understand chess strategy.

Which of the following must be true for the conclusion drawn above to be logically correct?

  • (A) All chess players understand chess strategy
  • (B) Backgammon is more challenging than checkers
  • (C) Chess is more challenging than backgammon
  • (D) All students who find backgammon challenging play checkers
Correct Answer: (A) All chess players understand chess strategy
View Solution



Let's trace the argument:

1. Wendy is a student and plays Backgammon.

2. Backgammon players never play Checkers. Therefore, Wendy does not play Checkers.

3. All students play either Chess or Checkers. Since Wendy is a student and does not play Checkers, she must play Chess.

4. Conclusion: Therefore, Wendy must understand chess strategy.

The argument makes a logical leap from "plays Chess" to "understands chess strategy." This final step is only valid if there is a hidden premise linking the two.

The necessary hidden premise is that everyone who plays chess must understand chess strategy. This is option (A).



\begin{quicktipbox
In "find the assumption" questions, identify the logical gap in the argument. The correct answer will be a statement that bridges this gap, making the conclusion valid.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In "find the assumption" questions, identify the logical gap in the argument. The correct answer will be a statement that bridges this gap, making the conclusion valid.


Question 60:

In the following question, a statement is given followed by three assumptions I, II and
III. Decide which assumptions are implicit.

Statement: India’s economic growth has come at a terrible price of increased industrial and
vehicular pollution.

Assumptions:

I. Pollution is a part of industrial society.

II. Indian economic growth is based on only industrial growth.

III. A country desires economic growth with manageable side-effects..

  • (A) Only I is implicit
  • (B) Only II is implicit
  • (C) Only I and III are implicit
  • (D) Only III is implicit
Correct Answer: (C) Only I and III are implicit
View Solution



An assumption is something the speaker takes for granted.

Statement: Growth comes with the "price" of pollution.

I. "Pollution is a part of industrial society." The statement links industrialization (part of growth) to pollution as a "price," suggesting this is an expected, if undesirable, connection. This is implicit.

II. "Indian economic growth is based on only industrial growth." The word "only" is too extreme. The statement also mentions "vehicular pollution," which is related but not solely industrial. The statement does not exclude other sectors like services. This is not implicit.

III. "A country desires economic growth with manageable side-effects." The author calls the price "terrible," which implies a judgment that the current level is unacceptably high. This judgment is only meaningful if you assume that there is a desirable, "manageable" level of side-effects that one aims for. This is implicit.



\begin{quicktipbox
To test an assumption, ask, "Does the statement make sense without believing this?" If the statement becomes illogical or loses its meaning, the assumption is implicit.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To test an assumption, ask, "Does the statement make sense without believing this?" If the statement becomes illogical or loses its meaning, the assumption is implicit.


Question 61:

In a joint family, there are father, mother, 3 married sons and one unmarried daughter. Of the sons, two have 2 daughters each, and one has a son. How many female members are there in the family?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 9
Correct Answer: (D) 9
View Solution



Let's list and count all the female members of the family.

1. The mother (1 female).

2. The unmarried daughter (1 female).

3. The wives of the 3 married sons (3 females).

4. The daughters of the sons: two sons have 2 daughters each, so 2 × 2 = 4 granddaughters (4 females).

Total number of female members = 1 + 1 + 3 + 4 = 9.



\begin{quicktipbox
In family structure problems, break down the family into generations and subgroups, and count each group systematically to avoid missing anyone.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In family structure problems, break down the family into generations and subgroups, and count each group systematically to avoid missing anyone.


Question 62:

In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing (underscores). Choose the correct alternative to fill the blanks: D_F_DEE_D_EF_DE_F

  • (A) EFFDED
  • (B) EFFDDF
  • (C) EFFDFE
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) EFFDED
View Solution



The total length of the series is 18 characters. This suggests a repeating block of 6 characters.

Let's test this hypothesis. The series structure is: D _ F _ D E | E _ D _ E F | _ D E _ F

Let's assume the repeating block is `DEFFDE`.

1st block: D E F F D E. This fits the visible letters. The blanks are E, F.

2nd block: E _ D _ E F. This does not match `DEFFDE`. The hypothesis is wrong.

This is a non-repeating pattern. Let's re-examine: `D_F_DEE_D_EF_DE_F`

The question is likely flawed as no simple repeating pattern fits. However, if we must choose from the options, this type of question sometimes has a complex, non-obvious pattern. Without a clear logical rule, a definitive answer cannot be derived. Based on external sources for this specific paper, the intended answer is (A).



\begin{quicktipbox
For letter series problems, first look for simple repeating blocks. If that fails, look for alternating series or arithmetic progression of letter positions. If none apply, the question may be flawed.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For letter series problems, first look for simple repeating blocks. If that fails, look for alternating series or arithmetic progression of letter positions. If none apply, the question may be flawed.


Question 63:

If every 2 out of 3 ready-made shirts need alterations in the sleeves, 3 out of 4 need alterations in the collar, and every 4 out of 5 need it in the body, how many alterations will be required for 60 shirts?

  • (A) 88
  • (B) 123
  • (C) 133
  • (D) 143
Correct Answer: (C) 133
View Solution



The question asks for the total number of alterations, not the number of shirts altered.

1. Sleeve alterations: (2/3) of 60 shirts = 40 alterations.

2. Collar alterations: (3/4) of 60 shirts = 45 alterations.

3. Body alterations: (4/5) of 60 shirts = 48 alterations.

Total number of alterations = 40 + 45 + 48 = 133.



\begin{quicktipbox
Read the question carefully to distinguish between the number of items affected and the total number of actions performed. Here, we sum the total actions (alterations).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Read the question carefully to distinguish between the number of items affected and the total number of actions performed. Here, we sum the total actions (alterations).


Question 64:

In the following question, a statement is given followed by three assumptions
numbered I, II and III.

Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide
which of the assumptions is implicit.

Statement: “Smoking is injurious to health” — a warning printed on cigarette packets.

Assumptions:

I. People read printed matter on the cigarette packet.

II. People take careful note of the warning.

III. Non-smoking promotes health.

  • (A) Only I is implicit
  • (B) Only I and II are implicit
  • (C) Only II is implicit
  • (D) All are implicit
Correct Answer: (B) Only I and II are implicit
View Solution



An assumption is a belief the speaker must hold for their statement to be meaningful.

I. People read printed matter: Yes. The warning is printed with the assumption that it will be read. Otherwise, the act of printing it is pointless. This is implicit.

II. People take careful note of the warning: Yes. The purpose of a "warning" is to be heeded. The issuer assumes that the warning has the potential to be effective, which means people will take note of it. This is implicit.

III. Non-smoking promotes health: This is not an assumption, but the factual basis or reason for the warning. The statement "smoking is injurious" is made because non-smoking promotes health. The speaker assumes the audience agrees with this fact, but the fact itself is the premise, not the assumption of the communication act.



\begin{quicktipbox
Distinguish between the assumption behind an action and the reason for the action. The reason is the 'why' (smoking is bad). The assumption is about the 'how' (people will read the warning and understand it).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Distinguish between the assumption behind an action and the reason for the action. The reason is the 'why' (smoking is bad). The assumption is about the 'how' (people will read the warning and understand it).


Question 65:

Some people enter a conference room and are seated around a circular table.

The following are known:

(i) The first to enter sits opposite to the one who belongs to Durgapur, and that Durgapur
person is to the right of the person from Ranchi.

(ii) The Teacher belongs to Kolkata and sits to the right of the IT professional.

(iii) The person from Durgapur is adjacent to the Teacher and the Architect and is opposite
to the Doctor.

(iv) The person from Ranchi is opposite to the Architect (and the Architect is not from
Dharbhanga).

(v) The Doctor belongs to Chennai and is adjacent to the persons who came at the 3rd and 6th positions.

(vi) The person from Burdwan is adjacent to the persons who came at the 3rd and 5th positions.

(vii) The Professor (not 5th) is equidistant from the persons from Ranchi and Durgapur.

Who is opposite to the Professor?

  • (A) Teacher
  • (B) IT professional
  • (C) Dancer
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (This question is unsolvable)
View Solution



The premises of this logic puzzle contain a direct contradiction.

- Clue (iv) states: "The person from Ranchi is opposite to the Architect."

- Clue (i) states: "...that Durgapur person is to the right of the person from Ranchi."

- Clue (iii) states: "The person from Durgapur is adjacent to the Teacher and the Architect."

If Ranchi is opposite the Architect, they must have (number of seats / 2) - 1 people between them. Durgapur is adjacent to the Architect, so Durgapur is next to the person opposite Ranchi. This makes it impossible for Durgapur to be to the right of Ranchi in a standard circular arrangement.

Because the clues are contradictory, a valid seating arrangement cannot be constructed.



\begin{quicktipbox
When setting up a circular arrangement, if you find that two clues cannot be true at the same time, the puzzle is flawed and cannot be solved.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When setting up a circular arrangement, if you find that two clues cannot be true at the same time, the puzzle is flawed and cannot be solved.


Question 66:

With reference to the same arrangement, the guy from Burdwan is adjacent to which of the following?

(1) Professor and Architect (2) Guys from Dharbhanga and Durgapur (3) Architect and IT professional

  • (A) Only 1
  • (B) Only 2
  • (C) Only 2 and 3
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (This question is unsolvable)
View Solution



This question is dependent on the flawed arrangement from question 65.

Since the premises in Q65 are contradictory, no unique or valid seating arrangement can be determined.

Therefore, it is impossible to answer any question about the positions of the people at the table.



\begin{quicktipbox
Questions that rely on a previous, unsolvable problem cannot be answered themselves.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Questions that rely on a previous, unsolvable problem cannot be answered themselves.


Question 67:

The guy from Burdwan (who sits opposite to the guy from Ranchi) came at which position?

  • (A) 2nd
  • (B) 4th
  • (C) 5th
  • (D) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (D) Cannot be determined
View Solution



This question is also dependent on the flawed arrangement from question 65.

Furthermore, it introduces a new piece of information ("who sits opposite to the guy from Ranchi") that contradicts clue (iv) from the original problem (which states the Architect sits opposite Ranchi).

Due to multiple contradictions, no logical conclusion is possible.



\begin{quicktipbox
Be aware of questions that introduce new information that contradicts the original setup. This is a strong indicator of a poorly constructed problem set.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Be aware of questions that introduce new information that contradicts the original setup. This is a strong indicator of a poorly constructed problem set.


Question 68:

The dancer is from—

  • (A) Ranchi
  • (B) Dharbhanga
  • (C) Durgapur
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (D) None of these
View Solution



This question is dependent on the flawed arrangement from question 65.

There is also no mention of a "Dancer" in the original set of clues.

The professions mentioned are Teacher, IT professional, Architect, Doctor, and Professor.

Since the profession "Dancer" is not part of the problem setup, its location cannot be determined.



\begin{quicktipbox
Always base your answers only on the information provided. If a question introduces a new entity not present in the original data, the answer is likely "Cannot be determined" or "None."
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Always base your answers only on the information provided. If a question introduces a new entity not present in the original data, the answer is likely "Cannot be determined" or "None."


Question 69:

In a queue, A is eighteenth from the front while B is sixteenth from the back. If C is twenty-fifth from the front and is exactly in the middle of A and B, then how many persons are there in the queue?

  • (A) 45
  • (B) 46
  • (C) 47
  • (D) 48
Correct Answer: (C) 47
View Solution



1. A's position from front = 18. C's position from front = 25.

2. Number of people between A and C = (25 - 18) - 1 = 6 people.

3. Since C is exactly in the middle of A and B, there must also be 6 people between C and B.

4. Therefore, B's position from the front is C's position + 6 people + B himself = 25 + 6 + 1 = 32nd.

5. We have two facts for B: he is 32nd from the front and 16th from the back.

6. Total number of people = (B's rank from front + B's rank from back) - 1.

7. Total = (32 + 16) - 1 = 48 - 1 = 47.



\begin{quicktipbox
To find the total number of items in a line given one item's rank from both ends, use the formula: Total = (Rank from Front) + (Rank from Back) - 1.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To find the total number of items in a line given one item's rank from both ends, use the formula: Total = (Rank from Front) + (Rank from Back) - 1.


Question 70:

Efficiency is all right in its place, in the shop, the factory, the store. The trouble with efficiency is that it wants to rule our play as well as our work; it won’t be content to reign in the shop, it follows us home.

It can be inferred from the above passage that:"

  • (A) Efficiency can become all-pervading
  • (B) Efficiency does not always pay
  • (C) Efficiency can be more of a torture than a blessing
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Efficiency can become all-pervading
View Solution



The main point of the passage is that efficiency, while good for work ("shop, factory, store"), becomes a "trouble" because it doesn't stay in its place.

The author states that it "wants to rule our play as well as our work" and "it follows us home."

This directly means that it tends to spread into all aspects of life.

Therefore, the most accurate inference is that efficiency can become "all-pervading."

Options B and C are possible consequences of this, but A is the primary phenomenon the author describes.



\begin{quicktipbox
An inference should be a conclusion that is directly and logically supported by the statements in the text, rather than a subjective interpretation.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: An inference should be a conclusion that is directly and logically supported by the statements in the text, rather than a subjective interpretation.


Question 71:

Choose the correct antonym of the word: Native.

  • (A) Endemic
  • (B) Indigenous
  • (C) Genuine
  • (D) Foreign
Correct Answer: (D) Foreign
View Solution



The word "Native" means originating from or characteristic of a particular region or country.

"Endemic" and "Indigenous" are synonyms for native.

"Genuine" means authentic and is not related to origin.

"Foreign" means from, characteristic of, or situated in a country other than one's own. It is the direct opposite of native.



\begin{quicktipbox
Antonyms are words with opposite meanings. Synonyms are words with similar meanings.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Antonyms are words with opposite meanings. Synonyms are words with similar meanings.


Question 72:

Choose the correct antonym of the word: Attenuate.

  • (A) Contract
  • (B) Expand
  • (C) Mitigate
  • (D) Disable
Correct Answer: (B) Expand
View Solution



"Attenuate" means to reduce the force, effect, or value of; to weaken or make thin.

The opposite would be to strengthen, increase, or enlarge.

"Contract" means to become smaller.

"Expand" means to become larger or more extensive, which is an opposite concept.

"Mitigate" and "Disable" are closer to synonyms than antonyms.

Therefore, "Expand" is the best antonym among the choices.



\begin{quicktipbox
Understanding the root of a word can help. 'Tenu' is from Latin 'tenuis' meaning thin. To attenuate is to make thin. The opposite is to make larger or thicker.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Understanding the root of a word can help. 'Tenu' is from Latin 'tenuis' meaning thin. To attenuate is to make thin. The opposite is to make larger or thicker.


Question 73:

Choose the correct antonym for the word: Cajole.

  • (A) Deceive
  • (B) Mislead
  • (C) Build up
  • (D) Bully
Correct Answer: (D) Bully
View Solution



"Cajole" means to persuade someone gently using coaxing or flattery. It is a 'soft' form of persuasion.

The opposite would be a 'hard' or forceful method of making someone do something.

"Deceive" and "Mislead" are forms of dishonest persuasion, not direct antonyms of method.

"Bully" means to use superior strength or influence to intimidate someone, typically to force them to do what one wants. This is a direct antonym of the method of persuasion.



\begin{quicktipbox
Antonyms can be based on different aspects of meaning. Here, the opposition is between gentle persuasion (cajole) and forceful coercion (bully).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Antonyms can be based on different aspects of meaning. Here, the opposition is between gentle persuasion (cajole) and forceful coercion (bully).


Question 74:

Choose the correct synonym for the word: consanguinity.

  • (A) Illegitimate
  • (B) Adoptive
  • (C) Nonbiological
  • (D) Kin
Correct Answer: (D) Kin
View Solution



"Consanguinity" means a relationship by blood or a close relationship or connection. The Latin roots are 'con' (with) and 'sanguis' (blood).

We are looking for a synonym.

"Kin" refers to one's family and relations. It is the best synonym provided.

The other options refer to relationships that are explicitly not by blood.



\begin{quicktipbox
Breaking down a word into its Latin or Greek roots can often reveal its meaning. 'Sanguine' means blood, so 'consanguinity' is related to shared blood.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Breaking down a word into its Latin or Greek roots can often reveal its meaning. 'Sanguine' means blood, so 'consanguinity' is related to shared blood.


Question 75:

Choose the word spelt correctly:

  • (A) Demurrage
  • (B) Dimurrage
  • (C) Demurage
  • (D) Demerage
Correct Answer: (A) Demurrage
View Solution



The correct spelling for the charge payable for a delay in loading or unloading a vessel is "demurrage."

It has a double 'r'. Option (A) is the correct spelling.



\begin{quicktipbox
For difficult spellings, especially with double consonants, try to create a mnemonic or associate the word with a visual image to help remember it.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For difficult spellings, especially with double consonants, try to create a mnemonic or associate the word with a visual image to help remember it.


Question 76:

From the options below, choose the word with the incorrect spelling:

  • (A) Allotted
  • (B) Generous
  • (C) Deprive
  • (D) Prenicious
Correct Answer: (D) Prenicious
View Solution



Let's check each word's spelling.

(A) Allotted is the correct spelling.

(B) Generous is the correct spelling.

(C) Deprive is the correct spelling.

(D) Prenicious is incorrect. The correct spelling is Pernicious, meaning having a harmful effect in a gradual or subtle way.



\begin{quicktipbox
When checking for spelling errors, read each word carefully, syllable by syllable. Be wary of common mistakes like substituting 'e' for 'i' or 'a'.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When checking for spelling errors, read each word carefully, syllable by syllable. Be wary of common mistakes like substituting 'e' for 'i' or 'a'.


Question 77:

The long or short of it is that I do not want to deal with that new firm. Which phrase should replace the bold part to make the sentence grammatically and idiomatically correct?.

  • (A) The long and short of it
  • (B) The long and short for it
  • (C) The long or short for it
  • (D) No correction required
Correct Answer: (A) The long and short of it
View Solution



The correct idiom is "the long and short of it."

It means "the essential point" or "the summary" of a matter.

The original sentence uses "or" instead of "and," which is idiomatically incorrect.

Therefore, the phrase should be replaced with option (A).



\begin{quicktipbox
Idioms are fixed expressions. Their wording cannot be changed without losing the intended meaning.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Idioms are fixed expressions. Their wording cannot be changed without losing the intended meaning.


Question 78:

Most of the Indian workers are as healthy as, if not healthier than, British workers.

  • (A) as if healthy as not healthier
  • (B) healthier but not as healthy
  • (C) as healthy, if not healthier
  • (D) No correction required
Correct Answer: (D) No correction required
View Solution



The sentence structure "as [adjective] as, if not [comparative adjective] than," is a standard, correct, and formal way to make a nuanced comparison.

It means the Indian workers are at least as healthy as the British workers, and possibly even healthier.

The grammar and punctuation are correct as written.



\begin{quicktipbox
Recognize standard comparative structures. The "as...as, if not...than" form is a useful and grammatically correct construction.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Recognize standard comparative structures. The "as...as, if not...than" form is a useful and grammatically correct construction.


Question 79:

You would __________ surprised to get this letter.

  • (A) doubtless be somewhat
  • (B) doubtlessly be somewhat
  • (C) somewhat doubtlessly be
  • (D) doubtlessly somewhat be
Correct Answer: (A) doubtless be somewhat
View Solution



The standard word order is `[modal verb] [adverb of certainty] [verb] [adverb of degree] [adjective]`.

"You would doubtless be somewhat surprised."

"Doubtless" is the correct and more common adverb of certainty than "doubtlessly." "Somewhat" is an adverb of degree modifying "surprised."

Option (A) follows the correct grammatical structure and usage.



\begin{quicktipbox
Adverbs often follow a certain order. Adverbs of certainty (like doubtless, probably) usually come before the main verb, while adverbs of degree (like somewhat, very) come just before the adjective they modify.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Adverbs often follow a certain order. Adverbs of certainty (like doubtless, probably) usually come before the main verb, while adverbs of degree (like somewhat, very) come just before the adjective they modify.


Question 80:

If you had been a little more proactive, this golden opportunity would not have __________.

  • (A) Escaped your fingers
  • (B) Slipped through your fingers
  • (C) Slipped through your head
  • (D) Escaped your hands
Correct Answer: (B) Slipped through your fingers
View Solution



The correct idiom for narrowly missing an opportunity that one was close to grasping is that it "slipped through your fingers."

This phrase creates a vivid image of trying to hold onto something that gets away.

The other options are not standard idioms for this context.



\begin{quicktipbox
When choosing an idiom, consider the imagery it evokes. "Slipped through your fingers" perfectly captures the sense of a near-miss with an opportunity.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When choosing an idiom, consider the imagery it evokes. "Slipped through your fingers" perfectly captures the sense of a near-miss with an opportunity.


Question 81:

Although the rival cricket team was quite competitive it did not __________ against our team of veterans.

  • (A) Stand a ground
  • (B) Stand a chance
  • (C) Stand a stead
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Stand a chance
View Solution



The idiom "to stand a chance" means to have a possibility of success.

The sentence implies that despite being competitive, the rival team had no real possibility of winning against the experienced veterans.

"Stand a ground" (the correct idiom is 'stand one's ground') means to not retreat, which doesn't fit the context.

"Stand a stead" is not a standard idiom.



\begin{quicktipbox
Context is key for idioms. The phrase "against our team" suggests a competition, making "stand a chance" the most logical choice.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Context is key for idioms. The phrase "against our team" suggests a competition, making "stand a chance" the most logical choice.


Question 82:

I told him that I could invest some money in a joint venture with him, but as I was busy with my own projects I could only be a __________.

  • (A) Visiting partner
  • (B) Half partner
  • (C) Sleeping partner
  • (D) Inactive partner
Correct Answer: (C) Sleeping partner
View Solution



The context describes a partner who invests capital but is not involved in the daily operations of the business because they are busy elsewhere.

The standard business term for such a partner is a "sleeping partner" or "silent partner."

"Inactive partner" is also used and means the same thing, but "sleeping partner" is a very common and established idiomatic term.



\begin{quicktipbox
Knowing specific business terminology is important. A "sleeping partner" provides capital but not labor or management.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Knowing specific business terminology is important. A "sleeping partner" provides capital but not labor or management.


Question 83:

We must always __________ people who indulge in anti-social activities.

  • (A) Steer clear of
  • (B) Stay away
  • (C) Stick out of
  • (D) Steer clear
Correct Answer: (A) Steer clear of
View Solution



The phrasal verb meaning "to avoid someone or something" is "steer clear of."

Option (B) "Stay away" would need the preposition "from" ("stay away from people").

Option (D) is incomplete; the phrasal verb requires "of."

Therefore, (A) is the only grammatically and idiomatically correct choice.



\begin{quicktipbox
Pay attention to the prepositions required by phrasal verbs. The correct preposition is essential for grammatical accuracy.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Pay attention to the prepositions required by phrasal verbs. The correct preposition is essential for grammatical accuracy.


Question 84:

Are you telling the truth or just __________?

  • (A) Spinning a tale
  • (B) Spinning a yarn
  • (C) Spinning a story
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Spinning a yarn
View Solution



The specific idiom for telling a long and elaborate, often unbelievable, story is "spinning a yarn."

While "spinning a tale" or "spinning a story" are understandable, "spinning a yarn" is the fixed, traditional idiom.



\begin{quicktipbox
Many idioms have a specific, fixed wording. While variations might exist, exams usually test for the most common and established form of the idiom.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Many idioms have a specific, fixed wording. While variations might exist, exams usually test for the most common and established form of the idiom.


Question 85:

There is a __________ amount of fatty acids and carbohydrates in some of the imported chocolates.

  • (A) neglecting
  • (B) negligent
  • (C) negligible
  • (D) neglected
Correct Answer: (C) negligible
View Solution



The sentence requires an adjective to describe the "amount" as being very small or insignificant.

"Negligible" is the correct adjective, meaning "so small or unimportant as to be not worth considering."

"Negligent" means failing to take proper care.

"Neglecting" and "neglected" are verb forms and do not fit the grammatical context.



\begin{quicktipbox
Differentiate between similar-sounding words. 'Negligible' refers to quantity, while 'negligent' refers to behavior.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Differentiate between similar-sounding words. 'Negligible' refers to quantity, while 'negligent' refers to behavior.


Question 86:

Some people __________ themselves into believing that they are indispensable to the organisation they work for.

  • (A) force
  • (B) denigrate
  • (C) delude
  • (D) fool
Correct Answer: (C) delude
View Solution



The sentence describes a form of self-deception.

The verb "delude" specifically means to make someone believe something that is not true. "To delude oneself" is a standard phrase for self-deception.

"Fool" is a close synonym, but "delude" is often considered more formal and a better fit for the context of believing one is indispensable.



\begin{quicktipbox
While 'fool' and 'delude' are similar, 'delude' often implies a more serious or internally generated deception, making it a strong choice in psychological contexts.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: While 'fool' and 'delude' are similar, 'delude' often implies a more serious or internally generated deception, making it a strong choice in psychological contexts.


Question 87:

Many Tamil speaking Sri Lankans __________ from the island to escape the military and its atrocities.

  • (A) flown
  • (B) flee
  • (C) fled
  • (D) flew
Correct Answer: (C) fled
View Solution



The sentence describes an action in the past. We need the simple past tense of the verb "to flee" (to run away from a place or situation of danger).

The principal parts of the verb are: Flee (present), Fled (past), Fled (past participle).

"Flew" is the past tense of "fly."

The correct past tense is "fled."



\begin{quicktipbox
Do not confuse the verbs 'flee' (to escape) and 'fly' (to move through the air). Their past tenses are 'fled' and 'flew' respectively.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Do not confuse the verbs 'flee' (to escape) and 'fly' (to move through the air). Their past tenses are 'fled' and 'flew' respectively.


Question 88:

These essays are intellectually __________ and represent various levels of complexity.

  • (A) revealing
  • (B) modern
  • (C) demanding
  • (D) superior
Correct Answer: (C) demanding
View Solution



The phrase "and represent various levels of complexity" provides the context. It suggests the essays are challenging and require significant mental effort.

The adjective "demanding" means requiring much skill or effort.

The collocation "intellectually demanding" is a standard phrase used to describe complex or challenging material.



\begin{quicktipbox
Use context clues from the rest of the sentence to determine the best word for the blank. Here, "complexity" points directly to "demanding."
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use context clues from the rest of the sentence to determine the best word for the blank. Here, "complexity" points directly to "demanding."


Question 89:

How do you expect that country to progress when her government is corrupt, __________ and still largely feudal?

  • (A) devalued
  • (B) dwindling
  • (C) despotic
  • (D) demeaning
Correct Answer: (C) despotic
View Solution



The sentence lists negative characteristics of a government that hinder progress. "Corrupt" and "feudal" are listed.

We need another adjective that fits this theme of oppressive or bad governance.

"Despotic" means tyrannical or authoritarian, characteristic of a despot. This fits perfectly with the other descriptors.

The other words do not describe a quality of government in the same way.



\begin{quicktipbox
In sentences with a list of descriptors, look for a word that belongs to the same semantic category as the others in the list. Here, the category is 'forms of bad government'.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In sentences with a list of descriptors, look for a word that belongs to the same semantic category as the others in the list. Here, the category is 'forms of bad government'.


Question 90:

The teacher must __________ the unique style of a learner in order to __________ it to desired knowledge.

  • (A) advocate, direct
  • (B) perpetuate, develop
  • (C) appreciate, focus
  • (D) absorb, maintain
Correct Answer: (C) appreciate, focus
View Solution



The sentence describes a pedagogical process. A good teacher must first understand or recognize the value of a student's learning style, and then guide or apply that style towards the learning goal.

Let's analyze the verb pairs:

(A) "advocate" and "direct" does not make sense.

(B) "perpetuate" and "develop" is illogical.

(C) "appreciate" (to recognize the full worth of) and "focus" (to direct towards a particular point) fits the context perfectly. The teacher appreciates the style and then focuses it on the desired knowledge.

(D) "absorb" and "maintain" does not fit the context of guiding a student.



\begin{quicktipbox
In double-blank questions, test both words in the sentence to ensure that they create a logical and coherent meaning together.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In double-blank questions, test both words in the sentence to ensure that they create a logical and coherent meaning together.


Question 91:

He was an __________ musician, had been awarded the George medal during the Second World War and __________ with the title of Rai Bahadur.

  • (A) outstanding, popularise
  • (B) underestimate, declared
  • (C) accomplished, honoured
  • (D) impressive, assigned
Correct Answer: (C) accomplished, honoured
View Solution



Let's analyze the blanks.

Blank 1 needs a positive adjective to describe a musician who has won awards. "Accomplished" (highly skilled) is a perfect fit. "Outstanding" and "impressive" are also possible.

Blank 2 needs a verb to describe what was done with a title. A title is bestowed upon someone as a mark of respect. The verb "honoured" fits this context perfectly.

The pair "accomplished, honoured" creates the most logical and grammatically sound sentence: "He was an accomplished musician...and honoured with the title..."



\begin{quicktipbox
In double-blank questions, ensure both words fit their respective contexts and also work together to create a coherent overall meaning.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In double-blank questions, ensure both words fit their respective contexts and also work together to create a coherent overall meaning.


Question 92:

Management can be defined as the process of __________ organizational goals by working with and through human and non-human resources to __________ improve value added to the world.

  • (A) getting, deliberately
  • (B) managing, purposefully
  • (C) targeting, critically
  • (D) reaching, continuously
Correct Answer: (D) reaching, continuously
View Solution



This sentence is a formal definition of management.

Blank 1 needs a verb describing the achievement of goals. "Reaching" organizational goals is a standard and appropriate phrase.

Blank 2 needs an adverb describing how value is improved. The process of management aims for ongoing improvement. The adverb "continuously" fits this concept of an ongoing process perfectly.

The pair "reaching, continuously" creates the most accurate and standard definition of management.



\begin{quicktipbox
For questions based on formal definitions (e.g., from business or science), choose the words that are most commonly used in that specific academic or professional context.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For questions based on formal definitions (e.g., from business or science), choose the words that are most commonly used in that specific academic or professional context.


Question 93:

What could be the closest reason why the WTO was not formed in the 1970s?

  • (A) The US government did not like it.
  • (B) Important players did not find it in their best interest to do so.
  • (C) Lawyers did not work for the dispute settlement system.
  • (D) The Tokyo Round negotiations was an attempt at constitutional reform.
Correct Answer: (B) Important players did not find it in their best interest to do so.
View Solution



The passage states that the WTO "could have been negotiated as part of the Tokyo Round of the 1970's... Or it could have been put off... as the US government wanted."

It then explains that the WTO was a "product of a series of trade-offs between principal actors and groups" that only developed later in the Uruguay Round.

This implies that in the 1970s, the necessary trade-offs and alignments of interest among the key players (like the US and Europeans) had not yet occurred.

Option (B) is the best summary of this situation.



\begin{quicktipbox
In reading comprehension, a "why" question is often answered by synthesizing information from several sentences that describe the context and motivations of the actors involved.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In reading comprehension, a "why" question is often answered by synthesizing information from several sentences that describe the context and motivations of the actors involved.


Question 94:

The most likely reason for the acceptance of the WTO package by nations was that

  • (A) it had the means to prevent the US from taking unilateral measures.
  • (B) they recognized the need for a rules-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade.
  • (C) it settles disputes more legally and more effectively.
  • (D) its rules-based system leads to export gains.
Correct Answer: (B) they recognized the need for a rules-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade.
View Solution



The passage lists several reasons for acceptance but concludes with a summary statement from U.S. Ambassador Kantor's defense of the WTO.

This reasoning, "replicated in many countries," was a "recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rules-based environment."

This is a direct and comprehensive match with option (B). The other options are components of this larger reason but are not the overarching motivation.



\begin{quicktipbox
Look for summary statements or conclusions within the passage that synthesize several preceding points. These often represent the "most likely" or "main" reason.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Look for summary statements or conclusions within the passage that synthesize several preceding points. These often represent the "most likely" or "main" reason.


Question 95:

According to the passage, WTO promoted the technical legal values partly through

  • (A) integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT.
  • (B) rules that create their own incentive for fulfillment.
  • (C) grandfather-rights exceptions and defects in dispute settlement procedures.
  • (D) ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions.
Correct Answer: (A) integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT.
View Solution



The passage defines "legal development" as promoting values of consistency, clarity, and effectiveness.

It then gives a specific example of how this played out in the WTO: "...consistency meant integrating under one roof the whole lot of separate agreements signed under GATT auspices..."

This directly matches option (A). Options (C) and (D) describe problems that were resolved, not the method of promotion.



\begin{quicktipbox
When a passage defines a concept and then gives examples starting with phrases like "As it played out...", the examples are direct answers to questions about how that concept was applied.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When a passage defines a concept and then gives examples starting with phrases like "As it played out...", the examples are direct answers to questions about how that concept was applied.


Question 96:

In the method of interpretation of the European Court of Justice

  • (A) current policies needed to be consistent with stated goals
  • (B) contracting party trade practices needed to be consistent with stated rules
  • (C) enunciation of the most elementary community goals needed to be emphasized
  • (D) actions of member states needed to be evaluated against the stated community goals
Correct Answer: (D) actions of member states needed to be evaluated against the stated community goals
View Solution



The passage describes the ECJ's "teleological method of interpretation."

It defines this method as one "whereby the actions of member states were evaluated against 'the accomplishment of the most elementary community goals...'"

This is a direct and precise match with option (D).

Option (A) is subtly different; the method evaluates actions against goals, not just current policies against goals.



\begin{quicktipbox
For questions about specific methods or definitions, find the exact sentence in the passage where the term is defined and match it closely to the options.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For questions about specific methods or definitions, find the exact sentence in the passage where the term is defined and match it closely to the options.


Question 97:

In the statement “... it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rules-based environment ”, 'it' refers to

  • (A) Ambassador Kantor's defence of the WTO
  • (B) the higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay Round
  • (C) the export gains many countries came to associate with a rules-based system
  • (D) the provision of a rules-based system by the WTO.
Correct Answer: (B) the higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay Round
View Solution



To find what 'it' refers to, we must look at the preceding part of the sentence or the previous sentence.

The passage states: "...many countries at the Uruguay Round came to put a higher priority on the export gains... This reasoning... amounted to a recognition..."

The pronoun 'it' refers to "This reasoning," which itself refers back to the new priority placed on export gains and associating those gains with a rules-based system.

Among the options, (B) is the most direct and accurate antecedent for this line of reasoning.



\begin{quicktipbox
To resolve a pronoun reference ('it', 'this', 'they'), substitute the options back into the sentence in place of the pronoun and see which one makes the most logical sense in the context of the preceding sentences.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To resolve a pronoun reference ('it', 'this', 'they'), substitute the options back into the sentence in place of the pronoun and see which one makes the most logical sense in the context of the preceding sentences.


Question 98:

The importance of Cassis de Dijon is that it

  • (A) gave a new impetus to the momentum of legal development at the European Court of Justice.
  • (B) resulted in a decision that expanded incrementally the EU's internal market.
  • (C) strengthened the role of the Court more than envisaged in the Treaty of Rome.
  • (D) led to a doctrine that was a key turning point in European integration.
Correct Answer: (D) led to a doctrine that was a key turning point in European integration.
View Solution



The passage states that the ECJ has expanded the EU's internal market, "in which the doctrine of 'mutual recognition' handed down in the case Cassis de Dijon was a key turning point."

This directly states that the case was important because it was a "key turning point."

Option (D) is a direct paraphrase of this statement. The other options are true statements from the passage but do not capture the specific importance of the case itself as a "turning point."



\begin{quicktipbox
When a question asks for the "importance" of something, look for phrases in the text like "key turning point," "most important," or "significant because" to find the answer.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When a question asks for the "importance" of something, look for phrases in the text like "key turning point," "most important," or "significant because" to find the answer.


Question 99:

The passage is mainly about:

  • (A) Technology, Entertainment, and Design
  • (B) Turning over the conventional.
  • (C) Gaining popular adulation.
  • (D) Changing presentations.
Correct Answer: (D) Changing presentations.
View Solution



The passage discusses TED talks, online courses, and blogs as "newish forms" that are "upending traditional hierarchies of academic visibility."

It contrasts the old world of the lecture circuit with the new world of online video distribution.

The central theme is how the methods of presenting and disseminating academic ideas are changing.

Option (D) "Changing presentations" is the best summary of this overall theme. The other options are too specific or too vague.



\begin{quicktipbox
To find the main idea of a passage, look for a common thread that connects all the different examples and arguments. Ask yourself, "What is the one topic that everything else in the passage relates to?"
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To find the main idea of a passage, look for a common thread that connects all the different examples and arguments. Ask yourself, "What is the one topic that everything else in the passage relates to?"


Question 100:

The phrase “sepia-toned” implies:

  • (A) The end of an era.
  • (B) The way things were.
  • (C) The brown pigment.
  • (D) The time bound nature of things.
Correct Answer: (B) The way things were.
View Solution



"Sepia-toned" refers to the brownish color of old photographs.

Metaphorically, it is used to describe something that seems old-fashioned, nostalgic, or outdated.

The passage uses it to describe the world of Stanley Fish's essay, a world without live-tweeting or online video distribution.

It evokes a sense of "the way things were" in the past, making it seem quaint compared to the present. Option (B) is the best fit for this meaning.



\begin{quicktipbox
When interpreting a metaphorical phrase, consider its literal origin. The connection between "sepia" and old photographs is the key to understanding its figurative meaning of being outdated or from a past time.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When interpreting a metaphorical phrase, consider its literal origin. The connection between "sepia" and old photographs is the key to understanding its figurative meaning of being outdated or from a past time.


Question 101:

Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

  • (A) TED is the future.
  • (B) Theory can no longer be counted on.
  • (C) Philosophy is best understood through demos.
  • (D) TED is irreplaceable.
Correct Answer: (D) TED is irreplaceable.
View Solution



The passage explicitly states that TED "is just one of a number of platforms that are changing the ecology of academic celebrity."

It then lists other platforms like Aspen Ideas Festival, PopTech, online courses, and blogs.

This directly contradicts the idea that TED is irreplaceable. The passage presents it as a prominent example, but not a unique or singular one.

Therefore, the statement that TED is irreplaceable cannot be inferred.



\begin{quicktipbox
For "cannot be inferred" questions, look for a statement that is directly contradicted by information in the text.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For "cannot be inferred" questions, look for a statement that is directly contradicted by information in the text.


Question 102:

S1: In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman... S6: From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort of nebulous life of its own.

  • (A) RSQP
  • (B) PQRS
  • (C) SQPR
  • (D) QSPR
Correct Answer: (D) QSPR
View Solution



S1 introduces the Chairman. The most logical next sentence is one that describes the Chairman's role.

Q: "On him rests much of the responsibility..." This logically follows S1.

After describing his importance (Q), the next logical step is to describe his actions.

S: "As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities." This follows Q.

The phrase "While this is happening" in R refers to the formalities in S.

R: "While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the 'feel' of this committee." This follows S.

P offers a philosophical reflection on what a committee is, which fits well after observing it and before the concluding sentence S6.

P: "For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals." This follows R and leads into S6.

The correct sequence is QSPR.



\begin{quicktipbox
In jumbled sentence problems, look for logical links: pronoun references (he, this, it), chronological sequence, and general statements followed by specific examples.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In jumbled sentence problems, look for logical links: pronoun references (he, this, it), chronological sequence, and general statements followed by specific examples.


Question 103:

. S1: All the land was covered by the ocean.

P: The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body into two halves.

Q: A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from the water.

R: The god made the sky out of the upper part of the body and ornamented it with stars.\
S: The god created the earth from the lower part, grew plants on it and populated it with
animals.

S6: The god moulded the first people out of clay according to his own image and mind.

The proper sequence of the middle four sentences should be:

  • (A) PQRS
  • (B) PQSR
  • (C) QPSR
  • (D) QPRS
Correct Answer: (C) QPSR
View Solution



S1 sets the scene. The problem is introduced in Q.

Q: "A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from the water." This is the conflict.

The action to resolve the conflict is in P.

P: "The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body into two halves." This follows Q.

The next two sentences describe what was made from the two halves of the body.

S: "The god created the earth from the lower part..."

R: "The god made the sky out of the upper part..." The order of R and S could be swapped, but let's check the options. QPS... is a strong start.

The sequence QPSR creates a coherent creation myth narrative.



\begin{quicktipbox
Look for a clear narrative structure: setup (S1), conflict (Q), action (P), resolution/creation (S, R), and conclusion (S6).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Look for a clear narrative structure: setup (S1), conflict (Q), action (P), resolution/creation (S, R), and conclusion (S6).


Question 104:

S1: And then Gandhi came.

P: Get off the backs of these peasants and workers, he told us, all you who live by their exploitation.

Q: He was like a powerful current of fresh air, like a beam of light, like a whirlwind that upset many things.

R: He spoke their language and constantly drew their attention to their appalling conditions.

S: He didn’t descent from the top, he seemed to emerge from the masses of India.

S6: Political freedom took new shape and then acquired a new content.

The Proper sequence should be:

  • (A) QSRP
  • (B) SRQP
  • (C) RSQP
  • (D) PRSQ
Correct Answer: (A) QSRP
View Solution



S1 introduces Gandhi. The following sentences should describe his impact.

Q provides a powerful, general description of his arrival: "He was like a powerful current of fresh air..." This is a strong opening statement after S1.

S follows naturally, explaining his connection to the people: "He didn't descent from the top, he seemed to emerge from the masses..."

R elaborates on this connection, describing how he communicated with the masses: "He spoke their language and constantly drew their attention..."

P gives the content of his message to the elite: "Get off the backs of these peasants and workers, he told us..."

The sequence QSRP provides a logical flow from a general description to specific actions and messages.



\begin{quicktipbox
In paragraphs describing a person's impact, the logical flow is often from a general statement to specific details about their methods and message.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In paragraphs describing a person's impact, the logical flow is often from a general statement to specific details about their methods and message.


Question 105:

5. In each of the following, a related pair of words is followed by options. Choose the pair that is least similar in relationship to the given pair.

Given pair: XENOPHOBIA : FOREIGNERS

  • (A) claustrophobia : foreigners
  • (B) anglophobia : Englishmen
  • (C) bibliophobia : book
  • (D) hemophobia : blood
Correct Answer: (A) claustrophobia : foreigners
View Solution



The relationship in the given pair is "Phobia : Object of Fear". Xenophobia is the fear of foreigners.

Let's check the options:

(B) Anglophobia is the fear/dislike of Englishmen. (Similar relationship)

(C) Bibliophobia is the fear/dislike of books. (Similar relationship)

(D) Hemophobia is the fear of blood. (Similar relationship)

(A) Claustrophobia is the fear of enclosed spaces. The second word is "foreigners". The object of fear does not match the phobia. This pair has a dissimilar relationship.



\begin{quicktipbox
In "least similar" analogy questions, first identify the precise relationship in the given pair. Then, find the one option where that relationship does not hold true.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In "least similar" analogy questions, first identify the precise relationship in the given pair. Then, find the one option where that relationship does not hold true.


Question 106:

Given pair: SAIL : SHIP (find the pair least similar to this relation)

  • (A) propeller : dog
  • (B) radar : satellite
  • (C) hydrogen : balloon
  • (D) accelerator : car
Correct Answer: (A) propeller : dog
View Solution



The relationship is "Part that causes/enables motion : Whole object". A sail is the part of a ship that catches wind to cause motion.

Let's check the options:

(C) Hydrogen (the lifting gas) enables the motion (floating) of a balloon. (Similar relationship)

(D) An accelerator is the part of a car that controls its motion. (Similar relationship)

(B) A radar is a functional part of a satellite, but it's for sensing/communication, not propulsion. This is less similar.

(A) A propeller causes motion, but it is not a part of a dog. This relationship is completely different.

Comparing (A) and (B), (A) is the least similar because the "part : whole" relationship is entirely broken.



\begin{quicktipbox
For "part to whole" analogies, ensure both aspects of the relationship hold: is the first item truly a part of the second, and is its function analogous?
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For "part to whole" analogies, ensure both aspects of the relationship hold: is the first item truly a part of the second, and is its function analogous?


Question 107:

Given pair: CANINE : DOG (choose the pair least similar)

  • (A) feline : cat
  • (B) aquatic : parrot
  • (C) serpentine : cobra
  • (D) vulpine : fox
Correct Answer: (B) aquatic : parrot
View Solution



The relationship is "Adjective describing a species/family : Example member of that family". Canine is the adjective for the dog family.

Let's check the options:

(A) Feline is the adjective for the cat family. (Similar relationship)

(C) Serpentine means snake-like; a cobra is a snake. (Similar relationship)

(D) Vulpine means fox-like. (Similar relationship)

(B) Aquatic means relating to water. A parrot is a bird and is not aquatic. The relationship is broken.



\begin{quicktipbox
This type of analogy tests vocabulary related to animal classifications (canine, feline, bovine, etc.).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: This type of analogy tests vocabulary related to animal classifications (canine, feline, bovine, etc.).


Question 108:

. In each item, a paragraph is split into parts (A–E). Identify which part(s) are correct in grammar/usage (spelling, punctuation, and logic)

A. In 1849, a poor Bavarian imigrant named Levi Strauss.

B. landed in San Francisco, California,

C. at the invitation of his brother-in-law David Stern.

D. owner of dry goods business.

E. This dry goods business would later became known as Levi Strauss & Company.

 

  • (A) B only
  • (B) B and C
  • (C) A and B
  • (D) A only
Correct Answer: (B) B and C
View Solution



Let's check each part for errors.

A. "imigrant" is misspelled. The correct spelling is "immigrant". (Incorrect)

B. "landed in San Francisco, California,". This is a grammatically correct phrase. (Correct)

C. "at the invitation of his brother-in-law David Stern." This is also a grammatically correct phrase. (Correct)

D. "owner of dry goods business." This is a fragment, not a sentence or a complete clause. (Incorrect)

E. "became" is misspelled. The correct spelling is "become". (Incorrect)

The only correct parts are B and C.



\begin{quicktipbox
In sentence fragment identification, check each part for spelling errors and grammatical completeness (does it have a subject and verb, or is it a valid subordinate phrase?).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In sentence fragment identification, check each part for spelling errors and grammatical completeness (does it have a subject and verb, or is it a valid subordinate phrase?).


Question 109:

Choose the part(s) that are correct in grammar/usage.

A. In response to the allegations and condemnation pouring in,

B. Nike implemented comprehensive changes in their labour policy.

C. Perhaps sensing the rising tide of global labour concerns,

D. from the public would become a prominent media issue,

E. Nike sought to be a industry leader in employee relations.

  • (A) D and E
  • (B) D only
  • (C) A and E
  • (D) A and D
Correct Answer: (C) A and E
View Solution



Let's check each part.

A. "In response to the allegations and condemnation pouring in,". This is a correct introductory phrase. (Correct)

B. "their labour policy." The word "labour" is misspelled in AmE (labor), but correct in BrE. However, Nike is a US company, making "labor" more likely intended. Let's assume it's a minor issue.

C. "Perhaps sensing the rising tide of global labour concerns,". This is a correct phrase.

D. "from the public would become a prominent media issue,". This is a fragment and doesn't connect logically. (Incorrect)

E. "Nike sought to be a industry leader...". "a" should be "an" before "industry". (Incorrect). Let me re-read "a industry leader" is wrong. "an industry leader" is correct. So E is incorrect.
The question is flawed. Let's re-evaluate. Part A is definitely correct. Part B, C are also grammatically fine. Part D is a mess. Part E has an 'a/an' error. It's possible the question intends to ignore the 'a/an' error. If we must choose, A is the most unambiguously correct part. But 'A and E' is an option, which suggests E is considered correct. This is a flawed question.



\begin{quicktipbox
Pay close attention to small errors like articles ('a' vs 'an'), spelling, and sentence fragments. If multiple parts seem correct or incorrect, the question may be flawed.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Pay close attention to small errors like articles ('a' vs 'an'), spelling, and sentence fragments. If multiple parts seem correct or incorrect, the question may be flawed.


Question 110:

In each question, the sentences (A–E) form a paragraph. Identify which sentence parts are correct in grammar and usage (spelling, punctuation, and logic).

A. charges and countercharges mean nothing.

B. to the few million who have lost their home.

C. The nightmare is far from over, for the government.

D. is still unable to reach hundreds who are marooned.

E. The death count have just begun.

  • (A) A only
  • (B) C only
  • (C) A and C
  • (D) A, C and D
Correct Answer: (C) A and C
View Solution



Let's check each part.

A. "charges and countercharges mean nothing." - This is a grammatically correct sentence. (Correct)

B. "to the few million who have lost their home." - This is a prepositional phrase, a fragment. (Incorrect)

C. "The nightmare is far from over, for the government." - This is a grammatically correct sentence. (Correct)

D. "is still unable to reach hundreds who are marooned." - This is a verb phrase lacking a subject, a fragment. (Incorrect)

E. "The death count have just begun." - "Count" is singular, so the verb should be "has," not "have." (Incorrect)

The correct parts are A and C.



\begin{quicktipbox
A complete sentence must have a subject and a verb and express a complete thought. Also, check for subject-verb agreement (e.g., singular subject with singular verb).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: A complete sentence must have a subject and a verb and express a complete thought. Also, check for subject-verb agreement (e.g., singular subject with singular verb).


Question 111:

Which of the following is not correct with regard to the RTI Act, 2005?

(A) An officer as Public Information Officer shall be designated by every public authority to provide information to citizens.

(B) The Act provides for a penalty of up to |25,000 on the Public Information Officer if he fails to divulge information sought by a citizen.

(C) The Act provides for setting up a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions.

(D) The information sought shall be made available within 90 day

  • (A) An officer as Public Information Officer shall be designated...
  • (B) The Act provides for a penalty of up to ₹25,000...
  • (C) The Act provides for setting up a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions.
  • (D) The information sought shall be made available within 90 days.
Correct Answer: (D) The information sought shall be made available within 90 days.
View Solution



The RTI Act, 2005, specifies time limits for responding to information requests.

The standard time limit for a Public Information Officer (PIO) to provide information is 30 days.

This can be extended to 48 hours if the information concerns the life or liberty of a person.

The 90-day period mentioned in option (D) is incorrect. A 90-day period is typically the maximum for a first appeal to be disposed of.

Options A, B, and C are all correct provisions of the Act.



\begin{quicktipbox
Key numbers and timelines are often tested in questions about laws and acts. For the RTI Act, the 30-day response time is the most crucial number to remember.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Key numbers and timelines are often tested in questions about laws and acts. For the RTI Act, the 30-day response time is the most crucial number to remember.


Question 112:

Who estimated national income in India first?

  • (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
  • (B) R. C. Dutt
  • (C) V. K. R. V. Rao
  • (D) D. R. Gadgil
Correct Answer: (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
View Solution



The first attempt to calculate India's national income was made by Dadabhai Naoroji.

He did this for the year 1867-68 and published his findings in his book "Poverty and Un-British Rule in India."

While V. K. R. V. Rao is noted for making the first scientific estimate, Naoroji's was the pioneering first effort.



\begin{quicktipbox
Associate Dadabhai Naoroji with two key contributions: the "drain of wealth" theory and the first estimate of India's national income.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate Dadabhai Naoroji with two key contributions: the "drain of wealth" theory and the first estimate of India's national income.


Question 113:

The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their liquid assets (cash, gold, approved securities) and their liabilities. This ratio is called:

  • (A) Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR)
  • (B) Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR)
  • (C) Central Bank Reserve (CBR)
  • (D) Central Liquid Reserve (CLR)
Correct Answer: (B) Statutory Liquid Ratio (SLR)
View Solution



The definition provided in the question perfectly matches that of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).

SLR is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or other securities.

It is one of the key tools used by the Reserve Bank of India to regulate the money supply in the economy.



\begin{quicktipbox
Remember the two key reserve ratios in banking: CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio), which is the cash kept with the RBI, and SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio), which are the liquid assets banks must maintain with themselves.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember the two key reserve ratios in banking: CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio), which is the cash kept with the RBI, and SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio), which are the liquid assets banks must maintain with themselves.


Question 114:

Dwarf wheat (Mexican) is introduced in India by

  • (A) Dr. N. E. Borlaug
  • (B) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
  • (C) Dr. Subramanian
  • (D) Dr. B. P. Pal
Correct Answer: (A) Dr. N. E. Borlaug
View Solution



Dr. Norman E. Borlaug, an American agronomist, is known as the "Father of the Green Revolution."

He developed high-yield, disease-resistant dwarf wheat varieties in Mexico.

He introduced these varieties to India and Pakistan in the 1960s, working alongside Indian scientists like Dr. M. S. Swaminathan.

While Dr. Swaminathan was instrumental in adapting and implementing these varieties in India, Dr. Borlaug was the one who originally developed and introduced them.



\begin{quicktipbox
Associate Norman Borlaug with the international Green Revolution and the development of dwarf wheat. Associate M. S. Swaminathan with leading the Green Revolution specifically within India.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate Norman Borlaug with the international Green Revolution and the development of dwarf wheat. Associate M. S. Swaminathan with leading the Green Revolution specifically within India.


Question 115:

A Russian spacecraft set a new record by reaching the International Space Station (ISS) in only 6 hours (earlier flights took 2–3 days). Which spacecraft was this?

  • (A) Sputnik-II
  • (B) Soyuz
  • (C) Zond
  • (D) Venera
Correct Answer: (B) Soyuz
View Solution



The Russian Soyuz spacecraft is the primary vehicle used for transporting cosmonauts and astronauts to the International Space Station.

In 2013, the Russian space agency Roscosmos successfully implemented an expedited "fast-track" trajectory for the Soyuz.

This allowed the spacecraft to dock with the ISS in approximately 6 hours after launch, a significant reduction from the previous two-day journey.



\begin{quicktipbox
For modern spaceflight questions related to the ISS, Soyuz (Russian crew vehicle), Progress (Russian cargo vehicle), Dragon (SpaceX vehicle), and Cygnus (Northrop Grumman vehicle) are the key names to remember.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For modern spaceflight questions related to the ISS, Soyuz (Russian crew vehicle), Progress (Russian cargo vehicle), Dragon (SpaceX vehicle), and Cygnus (Northrop Grumman vehicle) are the key names to remember.


Question 116:

What contribution was made by Ernest Binfield Havell (E. B. Havell) in Indian art and culture?

  • (A) An East India Company official whose efforts led to the establishment of the Asiatic Society
  • (B) Made efforts in establishing the Bengal School of Art
  • (C) A famous Indologist who translated several Sanskrit dramas into English
  • (D) A teacher at Pune who established the National Archives of India
Correct Answer: (B) Made efforts in establishing the Bengal School of Art
View Solution



E. B. Havell was an English art administrator and historian who served as the principal of the Government School of Art in Calcutta (now Kolkata).

He was a major figure in the cultural landscape of the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

Along with the artist Abanindranath Tagore, Havell was instrumental in the development of the Bengal School of Art, which promoted a modern style of painting rooted in Indian traditions, moving away from Western academic styles.



\begin{quicktipbox
Associate E. B. Havell and Abanindranath Tagore directly with the founding and promotion of the Bengal School of Art.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate E. B. Havell and Abanindranath Tagore directly with the founding and promotion of the Bengal School of Art.


Question 117:

The India Human Development Award in association with UNDP was instituted in:

  • (A) 2010
  • (B) 2011
  • (C) 2012
  • (D) 2013
Correct Answer: (C) 2012
View Solution



The India Human Development Awards were established by the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) in partnership with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

The awards were created to recognize innovative state and district-level analysis and action on human development.

This initiative was officially instituted in the year 2012.



\begin{quicktipbox
For questions about the founding year of specific awards or schemes, it is often a matter of direct factual recall.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For questions about the founding year of specific awards or schemes, it is often a matter of direct factual recall.


Question 118:

The book “The Audacity of Hope” is written by:

  • (A) Nayantara Sahgal
  • (B) Aravind Adiga
  • (C) Vikram Seth
  • (D) Barack Obama
Correct Answer: (D) Barack Obama
View Solution



"The Audacity of Hope: Thoughts on Reclaiming the American Dream" is a best-selling book written by Barack Obama.

It was published in 2006, before he became President of the United States.

The book outlines his political and social beliefs and was a key part of his introduction to the American public.



\begin{quicktipbox
Remember the titles of major books by prominent world leaders, such as "Dreams from My Father" and "The Audacity of Hope" by Barack Obama, or "Long Walk to Freedom" by Nelson Mandela.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember the titles of major books by prominent world leaders, such as "Dreams from My Father" and "The Audacity of Hope" by Barack Obama, or "Long Walk to Freedom" by Nelson Mandela.


Question 119:

In which Olympic Games was field hockey introduced for the first time?

  • (A) London, 1908
  • (B) Stockholm, 1912
  • (C) St. Louis, 1904
  • (D) Paris, 1900
Correct Answer: (A) London, 1908
View Solution



Men's field hockey was first introduced as an Olympic sport at the 1908 Summer Olympics held in London.

It was not included in the 1912 games but reappeared in 1920.

It has been a permanent fixture on the Olympic program since the 1928 games in Amsterdam.



\begin{quicktipbox
For sports history, remembering the "firsts" is key. The 1908 London Olympics is notable for being the first time field hockey was included.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For sports history, remembering the "firsts" is key. The 1908 London Olympics is notable for being the first time field hockey was included.


Question 120:

Larry Page and Sergey Brin are well known as:

  • (A) Creators of Bluetooth device
  • (B) Founders of Google
  • (C) Stem cell researchers
  • (D) Scientists
Correct Answer: (B) Founders of Google
View Solution



Larry Page and Sergey Brin are American computer scientists and internet entrepreneurs.

They are famous for co-founding Google while they were Ph.D. students at Stanford University.

While they are scientists (D), their primary and most specific claim to fame is as the founders of Google (B).



\begin{quicktipbox
In "who is known for" questions, choose the most specific and significant achievement listed. While Page and Brin are scientists, their fame comes from founding Google.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In "who is known for" questions, choose the most specific and significant achievement listed. While Page and Brin are scientists, their fame comes from founding Google.


Question 121:

Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC):

  • (A) a semi-circle curve suggesting increase in per-capita income increases the pollution
  • (B) a U-shaped curve suggesting the level of development and carbon emission
  • (C) suggest a U-shaped relationship between carbon emission and ozone-layer depletion
  • (D) suggest a bell-shaped relationship between the concentration of certain pollution emission and per-capita real GDP
Correct Answer: (D) suggest a bell-shaped relationship between the concentration of certain pollution emission and per-capita real GDP
View Solution



The Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC) is a hypothesis in environmental economics.

It suggests that as an economy develops, environmental degradation first increases and then, after a certain level of per-capita income is reached, it begins to decrease.

This relationship, when plotted with income on the x-axis and pollution on the y-axis, creates an inverted U-shape, which is also described as a "bell-shaped" curve.

Option (D) provides the most accurate description of this relationship.



\begin{quicktipbox
Remember the shape of the EKC is an inverted 'U'. Pollution rises during early industrialization and then falls as the country gets richer and can afford cleaner technologies.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember the shape of the EKC is an inverted 'U'. Pollution rises during early industrialization and then falls as the country gets richer and can afford cleaner technologies.


Question 122:

Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. Vienna Convention: protection of ozone layer

2. Stockholm Convention: Hazardous wastes convention and their disposal

3. Rotterdam Convention: Hazardous chemicals

4. Basel Convention: Persistent organic pollutants

  • (A) 1 and 2
  • (B) 1 and 3
  • (C) 2, 3 and 4
  • (D) 1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer: (B) 1 and 3
View Solution



Let's check each match:

1. Vienna Convention: Correctly matched with the protection of the ozone layer.

2. Stockholm Convention: Incorrectly matched. It deals with Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).

3. Rotterdam Convention: Correctly matched. It deals with prior informed consent for hazardous chemicals.

4. Basel Convention: Incorrectly matched. It deals with the control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal.

Therefore, only matches 1 and 3 are correct.



\begin{quicktipbox
Associate these key environmental conventions: Vienna = Ozone, Stockholm = POPs, Rotterdam = Chemicals (Trade), Basel = Wastes (Movement).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate these key environmental conventions: Vienna = Ozone, Stockholm = POPs, Rotterdam = Chemicals (Trade), Basel = Wastes (Movement).


Question 123:

Which of following statement is true about the Primary deficit?

  • (A) It is difference between Revenue Receipts and Revenue Expenditure
  • (B) It is difference between Capital Receipts and Interest Payment
  • (C) It is difference between the Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment
  • (D) It is addition of Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment
Correct Answer: (C) It is difference between the Fiscal Deficit and Interest Payment
View Solution



Primary Deficit is a key metric of fiscal health that shows the borrowing requirement of a government, excluding interest payments on its past debts.

The formula is: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments.

It indicates the extent to which the government's current spending exceeds its current revenues.

Option (C) correctly states this definition.



\begin{quicktipbox
Think of the Primary Deficit as the deficit from the current year's policies alone, stripping out the burden of paying for past borrowings.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Think of the Primary Deficit as the deficit from the current year's policies alone, stripping out the burden of paying for past borrowings.


Question 124:

The slogan of 'poverty abolition' (Garibi Hatao) was given in which Five Year Plan?

  • (A) Second Plan
  • (B) Fourth Plan
  • (C) Fifth Plan
  • (D) Sixth Plan
Correct Answer: (C) Fifth Plan
View Solution



The slogan "Garibi Hatao" (Remove Poverty) was the central theme and slogan of Indira Gandhi's 1971 election campaign.

It was subsequently incorporated into the Fifth Five Year Plan (1974–1979).

The plan focused on poverty alleviation and self-reliance as its key objectives.



\begin{quicktipbox
Associate "Garibi Hatao" directly with Indira Gandhi and the Fifth Five Year Plan.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate "Garibi Hatao" directly with Indira Gandhi and the Fifth Five Year Plan.


Question 125:

REDD+ Programme is concerned with which of the following?

  • (A) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)
  • (B) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
  • (C) Millennium Development Goals (MDG)
  • (D) Earth Summit
Correct Answer: (B) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
View Solution



REDD+ stands for "Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and forest Degradation."

It is a framework created by the UNFCCC to guide activities in the forest sector that reduces emissions.

While its primary goal is climate change mitigation, it has strong co-benefits for biodiversity conservation and is closely linked with the objectives of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).

Among the given options, CBD is the most closely related international framework.



\begin{quicktipbox
Associate REDD+ with forests, climate change, and biodiversity. Its goal is to make forests more valuable standing than cut down.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate REDD+ with forests, climate change, and biodiversity. Its goal is to make forests more valuable standing than cut down.


Question 126:

Which is the largest stock exchange in the world?

  • (A) The New York Stock Exchange (NYSE)
  • (B) The Swiss Stock Exchange (SWX)
  • (C) The London Stock Exchange (LSE)
  • (D) The National Stock Exchange (NSE)
Correct Answer: (A) The New York Stock Exchange (NYSE)
View Solution



The largest stock exchange in the world, measured by the total market capitalization of its listed companies, is the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE).

It has held this position for most of modern financial history.



\begin{quicktipbox
When thinking of the "largest" stock exchange, the NYSE is the standard answer, representing the heart of the U.S. financial market.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When thinking of the "largest" stock exchange, the NYSE is the standard answer, representing the heart of the U.S. financial market.


Question 127:

Between which two countries was the Battle of Stalingrad fought in 1942–43?

  • (A) Russia and Germany
  • (B) Russia and Japan
  • (C) Germany and Italy
  • (D) Italy and Russia
Correct Answer: (A) Russia and Germany
View Solution



The Battle of Stalingrad was a brutal and decisive battle on the Eastern Front of World War II.

It was fought between the invading forces of Nazi Germany (and its Axis allies) and the defending forces of the Soviet Union (of which Russia was the largest part).

The Soviet victory at Stalingrad was a major turning point in the war.



\begin{quicktipbox
The Battle of Stalingrad is one of the most famous turning points of WWII, marking the halt of the German advance into the Soviet Union.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The Battle of Stalingrad is one of the most famous turning points of WWII, marking the halt of the German advance into the Soviet Union.


Question 128:

International Day for Disaster Reduction is observed on:

  • (A) 9th August
  • (B) 13th October
  • (C) 24th November
  • (D) 11th December
Correct Answer: (B) 13th October
View Solution



The United Nations General Assembly has designated October 13th as the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction.

The day is intended to promote a global culture of risk-awareness and disaster reduction.



\begin{quicktipbox
Remembering key UN international observance days can be useful for general knowledge questions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remembering key UN international observance days can be useful for general knowledge questions.


Question 129:

Name the India–China joint military exercise that started in Pune recently?

  • (A) Surya-Kiran 2014
  • (B) Hand-in-Hand 2014
  • (C) Mitra-Maitri 2014
  • (D) Yudh Abhyas 2014
Correct Answer: (B) Hand-in-Hand 2014
View Solution



"Hand-in-Hand" is the established name for the annual joint military exercise between the armies of India and China.

The 2014 edition of this exercise was held in Pune, India.

Surya-Kiran is with Nepal, and Yudh Abhyas is with the USA.



\begin{quicktipbox
Associate major military exercises with their partner countries: Hand-in-Hand (China), Yudh Abhyas (USA), Surya Kiran (Nepal), Indra (Russia).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate major military exercises with their partner countries: Hand-in-Hand (China), Yudh Abhyas (USA), Surya Kiran (Nepal), Indra (Russia).


Question 130:

What would you study if you were a speleologist?

  • (A) Mineral deposits
  • (B) Tress
  • (C) Birds
  • (D) Caves
Correct Answer: (D) Caves
View Solution



Speleology is the scientific study of caves and other karst features, their structure, physical properties, history, life forms, and the processes by which they form.

A person who studies this field is a speleologist.



\begin{quicktipbox
The root "spele" comes from the Greek 'spelaion' which means cave.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The root "spele" comes from the Greek 'spelaion' which means cave.


Question 131:

In a swap transaction where two fixed-floating currency swaps are combined to form a fixed-to-fixed currency swap, the structure is known as:

  • (A) Roller-coaster swap
  • (B) Amortized swap
  • (C) Amortizing swap
  • (D) Circus swap
Correct Answer: (D) Circus swap
View Solution



A "Circus swap" is a specific term in finance for a transaction that combines a coupon swap (fixed-for-floating interest rates in the same currency) with a currency swap (fixed-for-fixed rates in different currencies).

The net result is effectively a fixed-for-fixed currency swap. The term is a blend of "currency" and "coupon swap".



\begin{quicktipbox
Specialized jargon, like "Circus swap," is common in finance. These terms often describe a combination of more basic financial instruments.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Specialized jargon, like "Circus swap," is common in finance. These terms often describe a combination of more basic financial instruments.


Question 132:

In monetary terminology, what is called the "monetary base" or "high powered money"?

  • (A) the total assets of RBI
  • (B) the total liability of RBI
  • (C) the total debt of the government
  • (D) the total foreign exchange of RBI
Correct Answer: (B) the total liability of RBI
View Solution



The monetary base (or M0) is the total amount of a currency that is either in general circulation in the hands of the public or in the form of commercial bank deposits held in the central bank's reserves.

This entire quantity (currency and reserves) represents a liability on the central bank's (RBI's) balance sheet.

Therefore, the monetary base is considered the total liability of the RBI.



\begin{quicktipbox
Remember that currency issued by a central bank is technically a liability for that bank, as it is a claim held by the public and commercial banks.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember that currency issued by a central bank is technically a liability for that bank, as it is a claim held by the public and commercial banks.


Question 133:

Which is considered as the mother of all Central Banks?

  • (A) Bank of England
  • (B) Riksbank of Sweden
  • (C) Federal Reserve Bank
  • (D) Reserve Bank of India
Correct Answer: (A) Bank of England
View Solution



While the Riksbank of Sweden is the world's oldest central bank (founded in 1668), the Bank of England (founded in 1694) is often referred to as the "mother of all central banks."

This is because many of the practices and functions of modern central banking were developed and refined at the Bank of England, which then served as a model for central banks around the world.



\begin{quicktipbox
Distinguish between the "oldest" central bank (Riksbank) and the one that served as the primary "model" for others (Bank of England).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Distinguish between the "oldest" central bank (Riksbank) and the one that served as the primary "model" for others (Bank of England).


Question 134:

The catch-line "American dream, Indian soul” was of which film?

  • (A) American Desi
  • (B) Aa Ab Laut Chalein
  • (C) Indian
  • (D) Pardes
Correct Answer: (D) Pardes
View Solution



The tagline "American dream, Indian soul" was used for the 1997 Bollywood film "Pardes," directed by Subhash Ghai.

The film's plot revolves around the cultural differences between an NRI (Non-Resident Indian) living in America and a woman from a traditional Indian village.



\begin{quicktipbox
Movie taglines are a common type of general knowledge question, especially for iconic or culturally significant films.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Movie taglines are a common type of general knowledge question, especially for iconic or culturally significant films.


Question 135:

The words 'secular' and ‘socialist' were added to the Indian Constitution in 1976 by amending the

  • (A) All of the above
  • (B) Directive Principles
  • (C) Preamble
  • (D) Fundamental Rights
Correct Answer: (C) Preamble
View Solution



The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' (along with 'and Integrity') were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

This was done through the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, during the Emergency.



\begin{quicktipbox
The 42nd Amendment is a crucial one in Indian constitutional history, often called the "mini-constitution." Its most famous change was the addition of 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The 42nd Amendment is a crucial one in Indian constitutional history, often called the "mini-constitution." Its most famous change was the addition of 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble.


Question 136:

Who declared that his ultimate aim was to wipe “every tear from every eye”?

  • (A) Rajendra Prasad
  • (B) Sardar Patel
  • (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
  • (D) Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer: (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
View Solution



This famous quote is strongly associated with India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.

He often spoke of this as the ultimate ambition of his government and of the new Indian state.

While the sentiment was originally expressed by Mahatma Gandhi, it was Nehru who famously and repeatedly used it to define his political and economic vision. In the context of political declarations, Nehru is the correct answer.



\begin{quicktipbox
This quote is a classic from the era of Indian independence and is almost always attributed to Jawaharlal Nehru in general knowledge questions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: This quote is a classic from the era of Indian independence and is almost always attributed to Jawaharlal Nehru in general knowledge questions.


Question 137:

Amnesty International is an organisation associated with which of the following fields?

  • (A) Protection of cruelty to animals
  • (B) Environment protection
  • (C) Protection of human rights
  • (D) Protection of historic monuments
Correct Answer: (C) Protection of human rights
View Solution



Amnesty International is a global non-governmental organization (NGO) focused on human rights.

It was founded in London in 1961 and works to protect human rights worldwide, campaigning against torture and cruel treatment, and for the rights of prisoners of conscience.



\begin{quicktipbox
Associate major international NGOs with their core missions: Amnesty International = Human Rights, Greenpeace = Environment, WWF = Wildlife Conservation.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate major international NGOs with their core missions: Amnesty International = Human Rights, Greenpeace = Environment, WWF = Wildlife Conservation.


Question 138:

Google's main shopping service is called

  • (A) Froggle
  • (B) Cragle
  • (C) Doulde
  • (D) Ibibo
Correct Answer: (A) Froggle
View Solution



Google's price comparison and shopping service was originally launched under the name "Froogle" in 2002.

The name was a pun on "frugal."

In 2007, it was rebranded as "Google Product Search" and later simply "Google Shopping."

Given the options, "Froogle" is the correct historical name.



\begin{quicktipbox
Tech companies often rebrand their products. For historical questions, it's useful to know the original names of well-known services.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Tech companies often rebrand their products. For historical questions, it's useful to know the original names of well-known services.


Question 139:

The branch of medical science concerned with the study of disease as it affects a community of people is called

  • (A) epidemiology
  • (B) oncology
  • (C) paleontology
  • (D) pathology
Correct Answer: (A) epidemiology
View Solution



Epidemiology is the study and analysis of the distribution, patterns, and determinants of health and disease conditions in defined populations.

It is the cornerstone of public health.

Oncology is the study of cancer. Pathology is the study of the causes and effects of disease. Paleontology is the study of fossils.



\begin{quicktipbox
Break down the word: "Epi" (upon), "demos" (people), "logos" (study). The study of what is upon the people.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Break down the word: "Epi" (upon), "demos" (people), "logos" (study). The study of what is upon the people.


Question 140:

Which port on a system unit is commonly used to attach an external storage medium/peripheral device?

  • (A) VGA port
  • (B) USB port
  • (C) Parallel port
  • (D) Serial port
Correct Answer: (B) USB port
View Solution



The Universal Serial Bus (USB) port is the modern standard for connecting a vast array of peripheral devices to a computer.

This includes external storage (like flash drives and external hard drives), mice, keyboards, printers, and more.

VGA is for video display. Parallel and Serial ports are older, largely obsolete standards for printers and other devices.



\begin{quicktipbox
For modern computer hardware questions, USB is almost always the answer for general-purpose peripheral connectivity.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For modern computer hardware questions, USB is almost always the answer for general-purpose peripheral connectivity.


Question 141:

This personality is the father of radio science and has pioneered Bengali science fiction in the country. He invented the crescograph, a device that measures growth in plants. Identify him.

  • (A) Homi Bhabha
  • (B) Jagadish Chandra Bose
  • (C) C. V. Raman
  • (D) Govind Khurana
Correct Answer: (B) Jagadish Chandra Bose
View Solution



All the clues in the description point to Sir Jagadish Chandra Bose.

He was a physicist, biologist, and an early writer of science fiction.

He made significant contributions to the investigation of radio and microwave optics and is considered a pioneer of radio science.

He invented the crescograph to measure the growth of plants, demonstrating his interest in biophysics.



\begin{quicktipbox
The invention of the crescograph is a unique achievement that is almost exclusively associated with J.C. Bose.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The invention of the crescograph is a unique achievement that is almost exclusively associated with J.C. Bose.


Question 142:

The Union Cabinet approved the signing of three SAARC agreements for the 18th SAARC Summit. Which of the following is not one of those agreements?

  • (A) SAARC Regional Railways Agreement
  • (B) SAARC Motor Vehicles Agreement
  • (C) SAARC Framework Agreement for Energy Cooperation (Electricity)
  • (D) SAARC Inter-governmental Transport Connectivity
Correct Answer: (D) SAARC Inter-governmental Transport Connectivity
View Solution



At the 18th SAARC Summit in Kathmandu in 2014, three key connectivity agreements were on the agenda: the Motor Vehicles Agreement, the Regional Railways Agreement, and the Framework Agreement for Energy Cooperation.

However, due to reservations from Pakistan, only the Energy agreement was signed at the summit. The other two were deferred.

The question asks what was "approved for signing" by the Indian cabinet, which were the three main agreements (A, B, C). "SAARC Inter-governmental Transport Connectivity" is a general descriptive term, not the specific name of one of the agreements.

Therefore, (D) is not one of the specific agreements.



\begin{quicktipbox
For current affairs questions about summits, remember not only what was discussed but also what was actually signed versus what was deferred.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For current affairs questions about summits, remember not only what was discussed but also what was actually signed versus what was deferred.


Question 143:

The scientific term Fallstreak Hole Cloud was in news recently because

  • (A) It appeared in the sky over Gippsland in eastern Victoria of Britain
  • (B) It appeared in the sky over Gippsland in eastern Victoria of Burma
  • (C) It appeared in the sky over Gippsland in eastern Victoria of Australia
  • (D) It appeared in the sky over Gippsland in eastern Victoria of New Zealand
Correct Answer: (C) It appeared in the sky over Gippsland in eastern Victoria of Australia
View Solution



In November 2014, a spectacular example of a "fallstreak hole" or "hole punch cloud" was widely photographed and reported in the skies over eastern Victoria, Australia.

The specific area mentioned in the news reports was Gippsland.

This rare atmospheric phenomenon occurs when supercooled water droplets in a cloud layer freeze into ice crystals and fall, leaving a circular hole.



\begin{quicktipbox
Pay attention to place names in current affairs. "Gippsland" is a well-known region in the state of Victoria, Australia.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Pay attention to place names in current affairs. "Gippsland" is a well-known region in the state of Victoria, Australia.


Question 144:

Hyderabad recently found an intelligent way to manage traffic problems using H-TRIMS. What is the full form of H-TRIMS?

  • (A) Hyderabad Traffic Integrated Maintenance System
  • (B) Hyderabad Traffic Integrated Management System
  • (C) Hyderabad Traffic Integrated Manipulation System
  • (D) Hyderabad Traffic Inked Management System
Correct Answer: (B) Hyderabad Traffic Integrated Management System
View Solution



H-TRIMS was a major traffic modernization project implemented in Hyderabad.

The acronym stands for Hyderabad Traffic Integrated Management System.

It involved creating an intelligent transportation system with modern signaling and surveillance to manage the city's traffic flow.



\begin{quicktipbox
For acronyms of government projects, the words "Management" and "System" are very common components.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For acronyms of government projects, the words "Management" and "System" are very common components.


Question 145:

Which international organisation recently passed a resolution on sports autonomy and on sport as a means to promote peace and development?

  • (A) International Olympic Committee
  • (B) Commonwealth Games Federation
  • (C) United Nations
  • (D) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
Correct Answer: (C) United Nations
View Solution



The United Nations General Assembly has a long history of adopting resolutions related to sport as a tool for peace, development, and human rights.

In October 2014, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution on "Sport as a means to promote education, health, development and peace."

This is a recurring theme for the UN, which has a dedicated Office on Sport for Development and Peace.



\begin{quicktipbox
Broad, global themes like using sport for peace and development are the domain of major international bodies like the United Nations, rather than just sport-specific organizations.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Broad, global themes like using sport for peace and development are the domain of major international bodies like the United Nations, rather than just sport-specific organizations.


Question 146:

Liberty Medal is annually given to honour men and women of courage and conviction who strive to secure the blessings of liberty to people around the globe. It was established in:

  • (A) 1987, to commemorate the bicentennial of the US Constitution
  • (B) 1988, to commemorate the bicentennial of the US Constitution
  • (C) 1990, to commemorate the bicentennial of the US Constitution
  • (D) 1997, to commemorate the bicentennial of the US Constitution
Correct Answer: (B) 1988, to commemorate the bicentennial of the US Constitution
View Solution



The Liberty Medal is an annual award administered by the National Constitution Center in Philadelphia.

It was established in 1988 to commemorate the 200th anniversary (bicentennial) of the U.S. Constitution.

The award honors individuals and organizations who have worked to secure liberty for people worldwide.



\begin{quicktipbox
Associate the Liberty Medal with the U.S. Constitution and its bicentennial.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate the Liberty Medal with the U.S. Constitution and its bicentennial.


Question 147:

The Union Commerce Ministry recently cancelled approvals of nine Special Economic Zones (SEZs). ... Which option is correct?

  • (A) I, II and III
  • (B) I, III and IV
  • (C) II and III
  • (D) I, II, III and IV
Correct Answer: (D) I, II, III and IV
View Solution



This question refers to a specific news event from 2014.

In that period, the Board of Approval for SEZs, chaired by the Commerce Secretary, de-notified several SEZs that had not shown satisfactory progress.

The list of companies whose projects were cancelled at that time included all four mentioned: Hindalco Industries, Chennai Business Park, Essar Jamnagar, and Adani Townships.

Therefore, all four were part of the group whose approvals were cancelled.



\begin{quicktipbox
For current affairs questions that list multiple items, sometimes the answer is "all of the above," especially if all items were part of the same news event or government action.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For current affairs questions that list multiple items, sometimes the answer is "all of the above," especially if all items were part of the same news event or government action.


Question 148:

World Wildlife Fund released the Living Planet Report 2014. In this context, consider the following statements:

I. The theme of the report is Species and Spaces, People and Places.

II. Populations of fish, birds, mammals, amphibians and reptiles have declined by 52 percent since 1970.

III. Freshwater species have declined by 76 percent.

IV. The report’s measure of humanity’s Ecological Footprint is provided by the Global Footprint Network.

Which is/are correct?

  • (A) I, II and III
  • (B) I, III and IV
  • (C) II and III
  • (D) I, II, III and IV
Correct Answer: (D) I, II, III and IV
View Solution



Let's verify the key facts from the 2014 Living Planet Report:

I. Theme: The theme was indeed "Species and Spaces, People and Places." (Correct)

II. Population Decline: The headline finding of the report was that global wildlife populations had declined by 52% between 1970 and 2010. (Correct)

III. Freshwater Species Decline: The report highlighted that freshwater species had suffered the most, with a 76% decline. (Correct)

IV. Ecological Footprint: The report uses the Ecological Footprint metric, which is provided by the Global Footprint Network. (Correct)

All four statements are correct facts from the report.



\begin{quicktipbox
Major international reports often have headline figures (like the 52% decline) that are widely publicized and are good to remember for GK questions from that year.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Major international reports often have headline figures (like the 52% decline) that are widely publicized and are good to remember for GK questions from that year.


Question 149:

Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY) was launched by the Union Ministry of Tribal Affairs to:

  • (A) Lift human development indices of tribal people
  • (B) Ensure that forest dwellers are not deprived of their due
  • (C) Promote tribal language
  • (D) Establish a National Research Centre in the Tribal Research Institute
Correct Answer: (A) Lift human development indices of tribal people
View Solution



The Vanbandhu Kalyan Yojana (VKY) was launched in 2014 as a new approach to tribal development.

Its primary aim was the holistic development and welfare of tribal people by focusing on key sectors like education, health, and livelihood.

The overarching goal was to bridge the gap in Human Development Index (HDI) between tribal and non-tribal populations.

Option (A) best describes this comprehensive goal.



\begin{quicktipbox
"Kalyan" means welfare, and "Yojana" means scheme. "Vanbandhu" means friend of the forest (referring to tribal people). So, the name itself points to a holistic welfare scheme for tribals.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: "Kalyan" means welfare, and "Yojana" means scheme. "Vanbandhu" means friend of the forest (referring to tribal people). So, the name itself points to a holistic welfare scheme for tribals.


Question 150:

Name the player who won the IBSF World Billiards Championship in 2014.

  • (A) Ashok Mehta
  • (B) Geet Sethi
  • (C) Pankaj Advani
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Pankaj Advani
View Solution



Pankaj Advani is one of India's most decorated cuesports players.

In 2014, he won the IBSF World Billiards Championship, which was held in Leeds, England.

This was one of his many world titles in both billiards and snooker.



\begin{quicktipbox
For Indian sports questions from the 2010s related to billiards or snooker, Pankaj Advani is a very common and often correct answer due to his dominance in the sport.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For Indian sports questions from the 2010s related to billiards or snooker, Pankaj Advani is a very common and often correct answer due to his dominance in the sport.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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