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NEET MDS 2024 Question Paper with Solutions

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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Jan 31, 2026

NEET MDS 2024 question paper is available for download here. NEET MDS is conducted by National Board of Examinations (NBE). NEET MDS 2024 question paper consisted of 240 questions to be attempted in the duration of 3 hours. Download NEED MDS 2024 Question Paper with Solutions PDF from the links provided below.

NEET MDS 2024 Question Paper with Solutions

NEET MDS 2024​ Question Paper with Solutions Pdf Download PDF Check Solutions
NEET MDS 2024 Question Paper with Solution

Question 1:

Winterbottom's sign of trypanosomiasis refers to?

  • (A) Swelling of lymph nodes in the neck
  • (B) Bilateral swelling of the feet
  • (C) Presence of fever and chills
  • (D) Skin rash on the abdomen
Correct Answer: (A) Swelling of lymph nodes in the neck
View Solution



Winterbottom's sign is a key clinical indicator of the early, or hemolymphatic, stage of African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness).


It is characterized by the conspicuous swelling and enlargement of the lymph nodes in the posterior cervical triangle, particularly those along the neck.


This lymphadenopathy signifies the multiplication and spread of the Trypanosoma parasites within the lymphatic system.
Quick Tip: Winterbottom's sign is specific for African trypanosomiasis caused by \(Trypanosoma\) \(brucei\) \(gambiense\).


Question 2:

Which sinus opening is not present in the middle meatus?

  • (A) Maxillary sinus
  • (B) Frontal sinus
  • (C) Ethmoidal sinus
  • (D) Sphenoid sinus
Correct Answer: (D) Sphenoid sinus
View Solution



The middle meatus is the drainage site for the anterior group of paranasal sinuses.


The Maxillary sinus, Frontal sinus, and the Anterior and Middle Ethmoidal air cells all open into the middle meatus.


The Sphenoid sinus drains posteriorly into the sphenoethmoidal recess, which lies above and behind the superior nasal concha.
Quick Tip: The superior meatus receives drainage from the Posterior Ethmoidal cells, and the Sphenoid sinus drains into the sphenoethmoidal recess.


Question 3:

How is age estimation from an OPG (Orthopantomogram) of a child done?

  • (A) By the eruption sequence of teeth
  • (B) By the development of the root apex
  • (C) By the length of the crown
  • (D) By the shape of the jaw
Correct Answer: (B) By the development of the root apex
View Solution



Age estimation methods like Nolla's and Demirjian's rely on assessing the stages of tooth calcification and formation.


The most reliable, quantifiable part of this process involves tracking the closure and maturation of the root apex.


A fully formed root apex (closed apical foramen) indicates dental maturity, making its development stage a strong correlate for chronological age.
Quick Tip: While eruption sequence is used, the radiographic assessment of root apex formation is a more biologically precise and internationally accepted method for estimating dental age.


Question 4:

What is the thick band-like gingiva on the canine called?

  • (A) Mucogingival junction
  • (B) Gingival recession
  • (C) Gingival hyperplasia
  • (D) Gingival collar
Correct Answer: (D) Gingival collar
View Solution



The gingival collar is an anatomical term synonymous with the free gingiva or marginal gingiva.


It is the cuff of tissue that immediately surrounds the neck of the tooth.


This tissue is unattached and often appears as a defined, band-like structure, particularly prominent around single-rooted teeth like the canine.
Quick Tip: The gingival collar forms the wall of the gingival sulcus, distinguishing it from the attached gingiva.


Question 5:

Does interproximal wear result in mesial drift?

  • (A) Yes, it can result in mesial drift
  • (B) No, it causes distal drift
  • (C) No, it causes occlusal wear
  • (D) Yes, but only in molars
Correct Answer: (A) Yes, it can result in mesial drift
View Solution



Interproximal wear (attrition) results in the loss of mesiodistal tooth substance.


This loss creates spaces between teeth and compromises arch continuity.


To eliminate these gaps and maintain tight contact, the teeth physiologically drift mesially due to the Anterior Component of Force (ACF).


This mesial drift is a compensatory mechanism driven by biological forces and the transseptal fibers.
Quick Tip: Mesial drift is a continuous process throughout life, accelerating in response to proximal wear to ensure the integrity of the dental arch.


Question 6:

What is the common feature in McCune-Albright syndrome, Fanconi anemia, and Noonan's syndrome?

  • (A) Bone marrow failure
  • (B) Developmental delays
  • (C) Cardiovascular defects
  • (D) Endocrine disorders
Correct Answer: (C) Cardiovascular defects
View Solution



Noonan's syndrome is characterized by a high incidence of cardiac issues, particularly pulmonary stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.


Fanconi anemia is primarily a bone marrow failure syndrome, but it is also a developmental disorder frequently associated with congenital heart defects (e.g., VSD, PDA).


McCune-Albright syndrome, while known for fibrous dysplasia and endocrine issues, can secondarily affect the cardiovascular system due to associated endocrine hyperfunction (e.g., hypertension or rapid heart rate from hyperthyroidism).


Cardiovascular defects represent a significant systemic morbidity shared or potentially shared across these three syndromes.
Quick Tip: When faced with overlapping syndrome questions, recall the systems most commonly affected. Cardiac anomalies are highly characteristic of Noonan's syndrome.


Question 7:

How is OPG used to identify the age of a child?

  • (A) By assessing the shape of the teeth
  • (B) By evaluating the eruption of the teeth
  • (C) By measuring the length of the jaw
  • (D) By identifying calcification stages of teeth
Correct Answer: (D) By identifying calcification stages of teeth
View Solution



Dental age estimation systems (e.g., Demirjian, Nolla) utilize the progressive mineralization of the developing teeth.


This mineralization is divided into specific calcification stages, ranging from crypt formation to apical closure.


Identifying which stage each tooth has reached on the OPG provides the most reliable index of the child's developmental age.
Quick Tip: Calcification stages provide a robust and less variable measure of dental development compared to the timing of tooth eruption.


Question 8:

What is tumor staging classification grade?

  • (A) TNM Classification
  • (B) FIGO Classification
  • (C) Breslow Classification
  • (D) Ann Arbor Classification
Correct Answer: (C) Breslow Classification
View Solution



Tumor systems are typically categorized into staging (extent of spread) and grading (degree of differentiation/aggressiveness).


TNM, FIGO (Gynecologic cancers), and Ann Arbor (Lymphomas) are systems used for clinical or pathological STAGING.


The Breslow Classification specifically measures the depth of invasion in millimeters for melanoma, which directly correlates with the histological GRADE and prognosis of the tumor.
Quick Tip: TNM is the universal system for staging solid tumors; Breslow is used specifically to grade the depth of invasion in melanoma.


Question 9:

What should be done for a premature baby with breathing difficulty and cyanosis?

  • (A) Immediate intubation
  • (B) Oxygen therapy
  • (C) Intravenous fluids
  • (D) Monitor and wait
Correct Answer: (A) Immediate intubation
View Solution



Breathing difficulty and cyanosis in a premature baby indicate severe respiratory failure, most commonly due to Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome (NRDS).


This condition involves alveolar collapse due to surfactant deficiency, leading to severe hypoxemia.


Immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation are necessary to ensure adequate oxygenation and to deliver exogenous surfactant, which is the definitive treatment.


Simple oxygen therapy is insufficient for severe cyanotic distress where the underlying issue is lung collapse.
Quick Tip: Cyanosis is a sign of extreme emergency; definitive airway management (intubation) precedes simple supportive measures in severe respiratory distress.


Question 10:

What are border movement and neutral zone while recording muscles?

  • (A) Border movement refers to the movement of the mandible, and neutral zone refers to the position where muscles have equal force.
  • (B) Border movement refers to the limits of tooth movement, and neutral zone refers to the natural resting position.
  • (C) Border movement refers to the position of teeth during occlusion, and neutral zone refers to the area of the tongue's influence.
  • (D) Border movement refers to the jaw's occlusal position, and neutral zone refers to the teeth's contact.
Correct Answer: (A) Border movement refers to the movement of the mandible, and neutral zone refers to the position where muscles have equal force.
View Solution



Border movement defines the maximum possible range of motion of the mandible in any direction (sagittal, frontal, or horizontal planes).


The Neutral Zone (or zone of minimum conflict) is the potential space in the mouth where the tongue, cheeks, and lips exert equal and opposing forces.


Optimal prosthesis stability is achieved by placing artificial teeth within this zone of muscular equilibrium.
Quick Tip: Border movements are anatomical limits determined by the TMJ and ligaments (Posselt's envelope), while the Neutral Zone is a dynamic limit determined by muscle function.


Question 11:

Which organisms are involved in ANUG (Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis)?

  • (A) \(Treponema\) \(denticola\), \(Prevotella\) \(intermedia\), \(Fusobacterium\) \(nucleatum\)
  • (B) \(Staphylococcus\) \(aureus\), \(Streptococcus\) \(pneumoniae\), \(Candida\) \(albicans\)
  • (C) \(Escherichia\) \(coli\), \(Pseudomonas\) \(aeruginosa\), \(Streptococcus\) \(mutans\)
  • (D) \(Actinomyces\) \(israelii\), \(Lactobacillus\) \(acidophilus\), \(Helicobacter\) \(pylori\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(Treponema\) \(denticola\), \(Prevotella\) \(intermedia\), \(Fusobacterium\) \(nucleatum\)
View Solution



ANUG is associated with a specific polymicrobial infection dominated by anaerobic bacteria, historically called the fusospirochetal complex.


Key species include spirochetes (\(Treponema\) \(denticola\)), fusiform bacilli (\(Fusobacterium\) \(nucleatum\)), and Gram-negative anaerobes (\(Prevotella\) \(intermedia\)).


These organisms work synergistically to produce the characteristic necrotizing lesions of the gingiva.
Quick Tip: The presence of \(Treponema\) (spirochetes) and \(Fusobacterium\) (fusiform rods) in large numbers is pathognomonic for necrotizing periodontal diseases.


Question 12:

Given the mean and standard deviation value, how is the standard error calculated?

  • (A) Standard error \(=\) Standard deviation \(/\) square root of sample size
  • (B) Standard error \(=\) Mean \(/\) sample size
  • (C) Standard error \(=\) Standard deviation \(*\) sample size
  • (D) Standard error \(=\) Standard deviation \(/\) sample size
Correct Answer: (A) Standard error \(=\) Standard deviation \(/\) square root of sample size
View Solution



The Standard Error of the Mean (SEM) is a measure of how far the sample mean is likely to be from the true population mean.


It relates the variability within the sample (Standard Deviation, \(SD\)) to the size of the sample (\(N\)).


The mathematical formula is \(SEM = \frac{SD}{\sqrt{N}}\).
Quick Tip: The Standard Error (SEM) decreases as the sample size (\(N\)) increases, meaning larger samples yield more precise estimates of the population mean.


Question 13:

Which precancerous lesions were identified in 2005 by the WHO?

  • (A) Leukoplakia, Erythroplakia
  • (B) Lichen planus, Actinic keratosis
  • (C) Oral submucous fibrosis, Candidiasis
  • (D) Basal cell carcinoma, Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: (A) Leukoplakia, Erythroplakia
View Solution



In 2005, the World Health Organization (WHO) redefined "precancerous lesions" as "Potentially Malignant Disorders" (PMDs).


Leukoplakia (white patches) and Erythroplakia (red patches) are historically and currently the most significant PMDs due to their high transformation rates.


Erythroplakia, in particular, has the highest malignant transformation potential among oral PMDs.
Quick Tip: The WHO PMD classification includes Leukoplakia, Erythroplakia, Oral Submucous Fibrosis (OSMF), and certain types of Chronic Hyperplastic Candidiasis. Option (A) lists the two most common and high-risk lesions.


Question 14:

What is the best treatment option for an avulsion that happened 10 minutes ago?

  • (A) Immediate reimplantation of the tooth
  • (B) Use of an ice pack and waiting for dental intervention
  • (C) Preservation in milk and reimplantation
  • (D) No treatment necessary
Correct Answer: (A) Immediate reimplantation of the tooth
View Solution



For an avulsed tooth, the success of healing depends crucially on the viability of the periodontal ligament (PDL) cells.


When the extra-oral time is short (10 minutes), the PDL cells are viable.


Immediate reimplantation at the site of injury (by the patient or parent) provides the best chance for maintaining PDL vitality and achieving successful healing.


If immediate reimplantation is not possible, storage medium (C) is the next best step, but immediate reimplantation takes precedence.
Quick Tip: The golden time for avulsion is \(< 30\) minutes of dry time. If the tooth is clean and intact, immediate reimplantation is the standard of care for optimal prognosis.


Question 15:

Unilateral cleft lip occurs due to?

  • (A) Genetic factors
  • (B) Environmental factors
  • (C) Both genetic and environmental factors
  • (D) Nutritional deficiency
Correct Answer: (C) Both genetic and environmental factors
View Solution



Cleft lip and palate (CL/P) are classical examples of multifactorial inheritance congenital anomalies.


The etiology involves the interaction between underlying genetic susceptibility (multiple genes) and external environmental triggers.


Environmental factors include maternal exposure to teratogens (smoking, alcohol, certain medications) during critical stages of palatal and lip formation (weeks \(4-12\)).
Quick Tip: Multifactorial inheritance indicates that the disorder results from the combination of a genetic predisposition and environmental influences.


Question 16:

If anterior teeth are periodontally compromised, what is the major connector in partial denture construction?

  • (A) Lingual bar
  • (B) Palatal bar
  • (C) Kennedy bar
  • (D) Lingual plate
Correct Answer: (D) Lingual plate
View Solution



A Lingual plate (or linguoplate) major connector is a thin plate of metal covering the lingual surfaces of the anterior teeth and the marginal gingiva (if necessary).


This design provides splinting and stabilization for periodontally weakened or compromised mandibular anterior teeth.


A Lingual bar, by contrast, provides rigidity but no stabilization, as it must be positioned clear of the teeth and gingiva.
Quick Tip: The Lingual plate is the major connector of choice in mandibular RPDs when maximum rigidity and stabilization of anterior teeth are required.


Question 17:

What is the Merin classification?

  • (A) Classification of periodontal disease
  • (B) Classification of malocclusion
  • (C) Classification of fractures
  • (D) Classification of cleft lips and palates
Correct Answer: (D) Classification of cleft lips and palates
View Solution



The Merin Classification system is a standardized method used in orthodontics and surgery for describing the anatomical extent and severity of cleft lip and palate deformities.


It provides detailed descriptors necessary for surgical planning and comparative studies.
Quick Tip: Other prominent cleft classification systems include the Veau, Kernahan, and LAHSHAL systems.


Question 18:

What is the dose of adrenaline in Angina Pectoris?

  • (A) \(1 mg\)
  • (B) \(0.5 mg\)
  • (C) \(0.3 mg\)
  • (D) \(0.2 mg\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(0.3 \text{ mg}\)
View Solution



Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is generally contraindicated in Angina Pectoris because its cardiovascular stimulating effects increase myocardial oxygen demand, potentially worsening ischemia.


However, if a patient with Angina Pectoris experiences a life-threatening acute emergency like anaphylaxis or severe allergic reaction during dental treatment, adrenaline must be administered.


The standard adult dose for intramuscular administration of \(1:1000\) epinephrine in such emergencies is \(0.3 mg\).
Quick Tip: In dental settings, the \(0.3 mg\) dose (\(1:1000\) IM) is used for anaphylaxis, even in cardiac patients, as the risk of anaphylactic death outweighs the cardiac risk.


Question 19:

There was an image-based question on Cherubism. What is Cherubism?

  • (A) A congenital bone disorder affecting the face
  • (B) A type of cranial deformity due to birth trauma
  • (C) A rare soft tissue disorder of the mouth
  • (D) A vascular malformation in the skull
Correct Answer: (A) A congenital bone disorder affecting the face
View Solution



Cherubism is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder of the bone affecting the jaws and facial skeleton.


It causes bilateral, symmetric, painless enlargement of the mandible and sometimes the maxilla.


Radiographically, it presents as multilocular radiolucencies containing giant cells, resembling giant cell granulomas.
Quick Tip: Cherubism is characterized by progressive mandibular and maxillary swelling in childhood, often giving the child an upward gaze (cherubic look) due to displacement of the orbital contents.


Question 20:

Which drug is given in ACLS (Advanced Cardiac Life Support) for Ventricular Tachycardia?

  • (A) Amiodarone
  • (B) Atropine
  • (C) Adrenaline
  • (D) Lidocaine
Correct Answer: (A) Amiodarone
View Solution



In the ACLS algorithm for pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia (\(VT\)) or Ventricular Fibrillation (\(VF\)), the priority drugs are epinephrine (adrenaline) and antiarrhythmics.


Amiodarone is the first-line antiarrhythmic drug administered after initial defibrillation attempts and epinephrine have failed.


It is used to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further life-threatening arrhythmias.


Lidocaine is considered an acceptable second-line alternative.
Quick Tip: Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic in cardiac arrest (\(VT/VF\)). Atropine is used for bradycardia, and Adrenaline is the primary vasoconstrictor/pressor.


Question 21:

A girl was having a problem with her eye. She could not see the whiteboard from a distance but she could see the textbook. What is it?

  • (A) Hypermetropia
  • (B) Myopia
  • (C) Astigmatism
  • (D) Presbyopia
Correct Answer: (B) Myopia
View Solution



The patient can see objects clearly near her (textbook) but has difficulty seeing distant objects (whiteboard).


This condition is known as Myopia (nearsightedness).


In myopia, the focal point falls in front of the retina, making distant objects appear blurry.
Quick Tip: Myopia is corrected using concave (diverging) lenses, while Hypermetropia (farsightedness) is corrected using convex (converging) lenses.


Question 22:

What is the level of the Thyroid Cartilage?

  • (A) C4
  • (B) C5
  • (C) C6
  • (D) C3
Correct Answer: (A) C4
View Solution



The superior border of the thyroid cartilage is typically located opposite the fourth cervical vertebra (C4).


Its inferior border is generally opposite the lower part of C5.


Since C4 is the highest and most precise single option representing the main bulk/superior margin, it is the best answer.
Quick Tip: The cricoid cartilage is reliably located opposite C6, a landmark used for performing tracheotomy.


Question 23:

What is the antidote for Morphine?

  • (A) Naloxone
  • (B) Flumazenil
  • (C) Atropine
  • (D) Protamine
Correct Answer: (A) Naloxone
View Solution



Morphine is a powerful opioid analgesic, and overdose leads to respiratory depression.


Naloxone is a pure opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioid drugs, serving as the specific antidote.


Flumazenil is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose.
Quick Tip: Naloxone has a short half-life, often requiring repeat doses to counteract the effects of long-acting opioids like morphine.


Question 24:

Wallerian degeneration is seen in?

  • (A) Peripheral nervous system
  • (B) Central nervous system
  • (C) Muscular system
  • (D) Endocrine system
Correct Answer: (A) Peripheral nervous system
View Solution



Wallerian degeneration is the process that occurs when a nerve axon is severed or crushed.


It involves the disintegration and degeneration of the axon segment distal (away) from the neuronal cell body.


While it can occur in both the CNS and PNS, the term is predominantly associated with the Peripheral Nervous System, where the degeneration is faster and followed by more effective potential regeneration due to the presence of Schwann cells.
Quick Tip: Axonal regeneration is generally successful in the PNS following Wallerian degeneration, but regeneration in the CNS is typically inhibited by myelin-associated inhibitors and glial scarring.


Question 25:

A patient came with painless swelling on the posterior jaw. On aspiration, only a drop of blood is obtained. What is the likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Hemangioma
  • (B) Odontogenic cyst
  • (C) Aneurysmal bone cyst
  • (D) Malignant tumor
Correct Answer: (C) Aneurysmal bone cyst
View Solution



Painless swelling in the posterior jaw is a common presentation for benign bony lesions.


Aspiration that yields only a small drop of blood, or is described as "empty," is highly characteristic of an Aneurysmal Bone Cyst (ABC).


The ABC consists of blood-filled, sinusoidal spaces that often fail to fill a syringe due to their high viscosity or rapid collapse upon needle entry.


A Hemangioma (A) would typically yield massive, non-clotting blood due to its high-flow nature.
Quick Tip: The "drop of blood" or "empty aspiration" sign helps differentiate ABC from high-flow vascular lesions like central hemangioma, which bleed profusely upon attempted aspiration.


Question 26:

What is the characteristic feature of Wispy Septa?

  • (A) Radiographic appearance in cystic lesions
  • (B) Thickening of the bony cortex
  • (C) Presence of calcifications
  • (D) Bony spicules radiating from the lesion
Correct Answer: (A) Radiographic appearance in cystic lesions
View Solution



"Wispy septa" is a descriptive radiographic term referring to thin, fine internal bony partitions.


These septa create a multilocular or honeycombed internal pattern within a radiolucent lesion.


This appearance is often noted in large, aggressive cystic lesions or benign tumors of the jaw, such as Odontogenic Keratocysts or Ameloblastomas.


Therefore, it describes the internal radiographic appearance within certain cystic/tumor lesions.
Quick Tip: Wispy septa should be contrasted with thick, coarse septa, which may suggest a more slowly growing or aggressive solid tumor. Radiating spicules (D) are characteristic of malignancy (e.g., sunburst appearance in osteosarcoma).


Question 27:

Gas gangrene is caused by?

  • (A) \(Clostridium\) \(perfringens\)
  • (B) \(Staphylococcus\) \(aureus\)
  • (C) \(Escherichia\) \(coli\)
  • (D) \(Pseudomonas\) \(aeruginosa\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(Clostridium\) \(perfringens\)
View Solution



Gas gangrene (myonecrosis) is a severe bacterial infection characterized by muscle death and gas production within tissues.


It is primarily caused by \(Clostridium\) \(perfringens\), an anaerobic, spore-forming, Gram-positive rod.


The organism produces toxins that cause rapid tissue destruction and fermentation, leading to gas accumulation.
Quick Tip: Gas gangrene is a medical emergency requiring aggressive surgical debridement and hyperbaric oxygen therapy, in addition to high-dose penicillin.


Question 28:

Which fungi is commonly associated with urinary tract infections in catheterized patients?

  • (A) \(Candida\) \(albicans\)
  • (B) \(Aspergillus\) \(fumigatus\)
  • (C) \(Cryptococcus\) \(neoformans\)
  • (D) \(Histoplasma\) \(capsulatum\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(Candida\) \(albicans\)
View Solution


\(Candida\) species, particularly \(Candida\) \(albicans\), are the most frequent fungal pathogens associated with hospital-acquired infections (nosocomial infections).


In catheterized patients, \(C.\) \(albicans\) commonly colonizes the urinary tract and forms biofilms on the catheter surface, leading to candiduria and sometimes invasive fungal urinary tract infections.
Quick Tip: \(Candida\) is a leading cause of UTIs and bloodstream infections in immunocompromised and catheterized hospital patients.


Question 29:

What is the National Pathfinder Survey related to?

  • (A) Educational achievement in the United States
  • (B) Nutritional habits of adolescents
  • (C) Global health initiatives
  • (D) Environmental conservation efforts
Correct Answer: (B) Nutritional habits of adolescents
View Solution



The National Pathfinder Survey (specifically referring to the U.S. National Institute of Dental Research surveys of the \(1980\)s) was a major epidemiological study.


These surveys focused on the oral health status of children and adolescents, collecting vast data on dental caries, periodontal disease, and crucially, the influence of habits, diet, and fluoride exposure.


Among the given options, nutritional habits are a key component of dental health epidemiology studied in such surveys.
Quick Tip: Pathfinder surveys are foundational in dental public health, often setting baseline data for national health goals (like monitoring trends in caries prevalence).


Question 30:

What is the type of Ameloblastoma?

  • (A) Unicystic
  • (B) Multicystic
  • (C) Peripheral
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
View Solution



Ameloblastoma, the most common clinically significant odontogenic tumor, is categorized into four main clinicoradiographic types.


These types are: Solid/Multicystic, Unicystic, Peripheral (extraosseous), and Malignant.


Options (A), (B), and (C) list the three major benign variants based on their presentation and biological behavior.
Quick Tip: The Solid/Multicystic Ameloblastoma is the most common and aggressive type, while the Peripheral Ameloblastoma is the least aggressive, presenting as a soft tissue mass.


Question 31:

What is the treatment for Mandibular Angle Fracture?

  • (A) Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
  • (B) Closed reduction with wiring
  • (C) Conservative management
  • (D) No treatment required
Correct Answer: (A) Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)
View Solution



Mandibular angle fractures are often unstable because the proximal fragment (ramus) is pulled superiorly and medially by the powerful elevator muscles (masseter, medial pterygoid, temporalis).


Due to this muscular displacement, achieving and maintaining adequate reduction requires stable fixation.


Open Reduction and Internal Fixation (ORIF) using miniplates (usually a two-plate technique or a single load-bearing plate) is the universally accepted standard of care for displaced angle fractures.
Quick Tip: The majority of mandibular fractures are treated with ORIF to ensure anatomical reduction and prompt return to function without long periods of maxillomandibular fixation.


Question 32:

Costochondral graft to a child aged \(8\) years after treatment: why does the mouth deviate to the unoperated site while opening?

  • (A) Unilateral condylar growth
  • (B) Malposition of the graft
  • (C) Neuromuscular imbalance
  • (D) Abnormal growth of the temporomandibular joint
Correct Answer: (C) Neuromuscular imbalance
View Solution



The typical deviation upon opening is toward the side of restriction (the operated side), indicating failure of translation on that side.


Deviation to the *unoperated* side implies that the range of movement is severely restricted on the *unoperated* (healthy) side, or that the operated side is hypermobile.


However, the most generalized and frequently cited cause of persistent post-surgical deviation, regardless of direction, is failure of coordinated muscle function.


Neuromuscular imbalance (C), particularly related to the function of the lateral pterygoid muscle, best explains the disturbance in controlled mandibular movement following complex joint surgery.
Quick Tip: Mandibular deviation is often the result of lateral pterygoid muscle dysfunction, whether due to scarring, nerve damage, or altered mechanics of the neo-condyle/graft.


Question 33:

What is Stellate granuloma?

  • (A) A type of benign skin tumor
  • (B) A granulomatous lesion in the oral cavity
  • (C) A form of infectious granuloma
  • (D) A non-neoplastic lesion affecting the bones
Correct Answer: (C) A form of infectious granuloma
View Solution



The term "stellate granuloma" is often used histologically to describe the star-shaped, central necrosis or arrangement of epithelioid cells and microabscesses.


This specific pattern is a pathognomonic feature of infectious lymphadenitis, most famously seen in Cat-Scratch Disease caused by \(Bartonella\) \(henselae\).


Therefore, it refers to a specific morphological structure seen within an infectious granuloma of the lymph nodes.
Quick Tip: Stellate microabscesses/granulomas are highly characteristic features of granulomatous infections involving lymph nodes, differentiating them from other types of granulomas (e.g., foreign body or sarcoidosis).


Question 34:

What is the role of retention after orthodontic movement?

  • (A) To maintain tooth position after active treatment
  • (B) To prevent relapse of tooth movement
  • (C) To improve facial aesthetics
  • (D) To reduce pain after treatment
Correct Answer: (A) To maintain tooth position after active treatment
View Solution



Orthodontic retention is the period following the removal of active appliances, during which retainers are worn.


The primary biological role of retention is to allow the reorganization and maturation of the periodontal ligament, gingival fibers, and adjacent alveolar bone around the newly positioned teeth.


This stabilization achieves the fundamental goal: maintenance of the corrected tooth position.


Prevention of relapse (B) is the direct clinical consequence of successful maintenance (A).
Quick Tip: The greatest risk of relapse occurs in the first few months post-treatment, making immediate and consistent retention appliance wear critical.


Question 35:

What is the stochastic effect of radiographs?

  • (A) Cancer and genetic mutations due to radiation exposure
  • (B) Immediate tissue damage from radiation
  • (C) Loss of tooth enamel due to repeated exposure
  • (D) Long-term bone density loss
Correct Answer: (A) Cancer and genetic mutations due to radiation exposure
View Solution



Stochastic effects of radiation are probabilistic, random effects that have no threshold dose.


The severity of the effect is independent of the dose received; only the probability of occurrence increases with dose.


The main examples of stochastic effects are carcinogenesis (cancer) and heritable (genetic) mutations.


Immediate tissue damage (B) is a deterministic effect, which has a dose threshold.
Quick Tip: Deterministic effects (like erythema, tissue necrosis) have a threshold and their severity increases with dose, unlike stochastic effects.


Question 36:

Ductility test is not relevant for?

  • (A) Metals
  • (B) Polymers
  • (C) Glasses
  • (D) Ceramics
Correct Answer: (D) Ceramics
View Solution



Ductility is the ability of a material to deform plastically under tensile stress without fracturing.


Metals are highly ductile, and polymers can exhibit ductility.


Ceramics (and glasses, which are non-crystalline ceramics) are inherently brittle materials.


Since they fracture before significant plastic deformation occurs, testing for ductility is not relevant to their mechanical characterization.
Quick Tip: Brittleness is the opposite of ductility. Ceramics are brittle materials favored for their hardness and aesthetic properties, not their capacity for deformation.


Question 37:

There was a question related to Dentigerous cyst. What is it?

  • (A) A cyst associated with the crown of an unerupted tooth
  • (B) A cyst that occurs in the alveolar bone
  • (C) A cyst caused by impacted wisdom teeth
  • (D) A cyst in the soft tissue surrounding the tooth
Correct Answer: (A) A cyst associated with the crown of an unerupted tooth
View Solution



A Dentigerous cyst (follicular cyst) develops by the accumulation of fluid between the crown of an unerupted tooth and the reduced enamel epithelium.


It is defined by its association with the crown of an impacted or unerupted tooth.


This cyst is attached at the cementoenamel junction (CEJ).
Quick Tip: The Dentigerous cyst is the second most common odontogenic cyst (after periapical cyst) and has a risk of transformation into an Ameloblastoma.


Question 38:

What is the tooth shedding sequence in primary teeth?

  • (A) Incisors, molars, canines
  • (B) Molars, incisors, canines
  • (C) Canines, incisors, molars
  • (D) Molars, canines, incisors
Correct Answer: (A) Incisors, molars, canines
View Solution



The exfoliation sequence of primary teeth generally follows the sequence of eruption, starting around age \(6\).


The generalized sequence is: Incisors (Central and Lateral) \(\rightarrow\) First Molars \(\rightarrow\) Canines \(\rightarrow\) Second Molars.


Option (A) Incisors, molars, canines, lists the tooth types in the correct chronological order of shedding.
Quick Tip: The primary mandibular central incisors are typically the first teeth to exfoliate, marking the beginning of the mixed dentition period.


Question 39:

What is the HIV prophylaxis?

  • (A) Antiretroviral therapy (ART)
  • (B) Zidovudine
  • (C) Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
  • (D) Combination of antiretroviral drugs
Correct Answer: (C) Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
View Solution



HIV prophylaxis refers to preventing HIV infection, often following a known exposure event (e.g., needlestick injury).


Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is the specific medical treatment regimen used immediately after potential exposure to HIV to reduce the risk of infection.


PEP typically involves a combination of antiretroviral drugs, fitting the definition of prophylaxis.
Quick Tip: PEP must be started as soon as possible, ideally within hours, and no later than \(72\) hours after exposure, and usually involves a course of \(28\) days of antiretroviral medication.


Question 40:

Which drug is used to relax muscles in maxillofacial surgery?

  • (A) Midazolam
  • (B) Propofol
  • (C) Succinylcholine
  • (D) Ketamine
Correct Answer: (C) Succinylcholine
View Solution



Maxillofacial surgery often requires complete muscle relaxation to facilitate intubation and surgical access.


Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent (muscle relaxant) used in anesthesia to induce rapid and profound paralysis.


Midazolam is a sedative, Propofol is a general anesthetic, and Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic; none are primary muscle relaxants.
Quick Tip: Succinylcholine is known for its rapid onset but short duration of action, making it ideal for rapid sequence intubation (RSI) prior to surgery.


Question 41:

There was a question related to Shrugging off the Shoulder in Neck Surgery. What is it related to?

  • (A) Accessory nerve damage
  • (B) Spinal cord injury
  • (C) Shoulder dislocation
  • (D) Thoracic outlet syndrome
Correct Answer: (A) Accessory nerve damage
View Solution



The shrugging motion of the shoulder (elevation and retraction) is controlled primarily by the Trapezius muscle.


The Trapezius muscle is innervated by the Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI).


This nerve is highly vulnerable during surgeries in the posterior triangle of the neck (e.g., radical neck dissection or lymph node biopsy).


Damage to the Accessory nerve leads to paralysis of the trapezius, resulting in drooping of the shoulder and an inability to shrug.
Quick Tip: The Accessory Nerve is the most common nerve injury associated with head and neck surgical procedures involving the posterior neck triangle.


Question 42:

What are nosocomial infections in a hospital setting?

  • (1) Infections acquired from hospital staff
  • (2) Infections acquired during hospital stay
  • (3) Infections acquired from visitors
  • (4) Infections acquired during surgery only
Correct Answer: (2) Infections acquired during hospital stay
View Solution



Nosocomial infections, also known as Healthcare-Associated Infections (HAIs), are infections acquired while receiving care in a healthcare facility.


By definition, the patient must have been admitted for a condition other than the infection and develop the infection typically \(48\) hours or more after admission.


This encompasses infections from various sources, including staff, instruments, environment, and other patients.
Quick Tip: The most common nosocomial infections involve the urinary tract (catheter-associated UTI), surgical sites, and the lower respiratory tract (ventilator-associated pneumonia).


Question 43:

Which type of implant has the root piece intact?

  • (A) Endosteal implant
  • (B) Subperiosteal implant
  • (C) Transosteal implant
  • (D) Root-form implant
Correct Answer: (D) Root-form implant
View Solution



This question is phrased ambiguously. No modern implant system uses an "intact root piece."


However, a Root-form implant (D), a type of endosteal implant, is designed specifically to replicate the shape and function of a natural tooth root.


Among the options, Root-form (4) is the type whose structure is based on the anatomy of the tooth root, providing the closest conceptual fit.
Quick Tip: Root-form implants are the most widely used type today, relying on osseointegration with the surrounding alveolar bone.


Question 44:

What is the recommended area for biopsy from ulcers?

  • (A) The margin of the ulcer
  • (B) The center of the ulcer
  • (C) The surrounding normal tissue
  • (D) The deepest part of the ulcer
Correct Answer: (A) The margin of the ulcer
View Solution



When performing an incisional biopsy for a suspected malignant ulcer, the sample must include the junction between the abnormal tissue and the adjacent normal tissue (the margin).


This is crucial because the biopsy must capture the deepest point of invasion or the epithelial dysplasia transitioning to carcinoma, which is usually concentrated at the perimeter.


Taking tissue only from the center (B) often results in sampling only necrotic tissue.
Quick Tip: An adequate incisional biopsy must include both the representative pathological tissue and a small margin of normal-appearing tissue for comparative histology.


Question 45:

Which drug is used for asthma during extraction?

  • (A) Albuterol
  • (B) Adrenaline
  • (C) Atropine
  • (D) Hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: (A) Albuterol
View Solution



Acute asthma attacks (bronchospasm) during dental treatment are managed primarily with short-acting beta-2 adrenergic agonists.


Albuterol (Salbutamol) is the standard rescue inhaler drug, causing rapid smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchioles.


Adrenaline (B) is used for anaphylaxis, and Hydrocortisone (D) is a corticosteroid used later for prolonged management, not immediate rescue.
Quick Tip: Ensure that asthmatic patients bring their rescue inhaler (Albuterol) to every dental appointment and keep it accessible for immediate use.


Question 46:

What is the most ethical way to study bone growth?

  • (A) Animal experiments
  • (B) In vitro studies
  • (C) Human clinical studies
  • (D) Radiographic analysis
Correct Answer: (D) Radiographic analysis
View Solution



Ethical research prioritizes minimizing invasiveness and risk to human and animal subjects.


Radiographic analysis allows for non-invasive, longitudinal study of growth patterns in living humans over time.


This method provides detailed anatomical data with minimal risk (controlled radiation exposure), making it the most ethical approach compared to invasive human studies or animal sacrifices.
Quick Tip: In human growth studies, methods that rely on existing clinical records (like longitudinal cephalometric series) are considered the gold standard for both precision and ethical considerations.


Question 47:

Which tumor shows resistance to radiation?

  • (A) Osteosarcoma
  • (B) Glioblastoma
  • (C) Squamous cell carcinoma
  • (D) Melanoma
Correct Answer: (D) Melanoma
View Solution



Melanoma is classically known for its high intrinsic resistance to conventional fractionated radiation therapy.


This resistance is due to high levels of DNA repair mechanisms and complex cellular defense pathways.


Squamous Cell Carcinoma (C) is generally radiosensitive, especially at the primary site.
Quick Tip: Melanoma is typically managed surgically, with immunotherapy and targeted therapy playing major roles, due to its poor response to radiotherapy.


Question 48:

What is the prenatal period in the human embryological period?

  • (A) First \(2\) weeks
  • (B) \(3rd\) to \(8th\) week
  • (C) \(9th\) week to birth
  • (D) \(5th\) month to birth
Correct Answer: (B) \(3\text{rd}\) to \(8\text{th}\) week
View Solution



The prenatal period (from conception to birth) is divided into three main stages.


The germinal period is the first \(2\) weeks (A).


The Embryological period is defined as weeks \(3\) through \(8\). This is the time of maximal organogenesis and major congenital anomaly risk.


The Fetal period begins at the \(9th\) week (C) and continues until birth, characterized by growth and maturation.
Quick Tip: The embryological period (\(3rd\) to \(8th\) week) is the critical window where most organs, including the palate and lips, are formed, making it the period of highest susceptibility to teratogens.


Question 49:

What is the best fluoride-releasing agent?

  • (A) Sodium fluoride
  • (B) Stannous fluoride
  • (C) Calcium fluoride
  • (D) Silver diamine fluoride
Correct Answer: (D) Silver diamine fluoride
View Solution



Silver Diamine Fluoride (\(SDF\)) is highly regarded as a superior fluoride agent due to its dual mechanism of action.


It releases a high concentration of fluoride ions, promoting remineralization, and the silver component acts as a potent antimicrobial agent against cariogenic bacteria.


This makes it the most effective agent for caries arrest and long-term sustained fluoride release among the options.
Quick Tip: \(SDF\) is primarily used to arrest active carious lesions in primary teeth, especially in non-restorative caries management, despite causing black staining of the treated tooth structure.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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