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AIBE 20 Question Paper Set D - Download AIBE Question Paper with Solutions and Answer Key PDF

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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Nov 30, 2025

AIBE 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available to download here. AIBE 20 was successfully conducted by Bar Council of India (BCI) on November 30, 2025. This year’s AIBE exam followed the official syllabus and consisted of 100 objective-type questions designed to assess candidates’ analytical skills and legal knowledge.

AIBE 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF (Set D)

AIBE 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

What is the minimum age for a person to be a member of the Rajya Sabha?

  • (A) 25 years
  • (B) 30 years
  • (C) 35 years
  • (D) 21 years
Correct Answer: (B) 30 years
View Solution



Article 84 of the Constitution sets the qualifications for membership of Parliament.


For the Rajya Sabha (Council of States), Article 84(b) specifies that a person must be not less than 30 years of age.


For the Lok Sabha (House of the People), the minimum age is 25 years.


35 years is the minimum age for the President and Vice-President. 21 years is for Panchayats/Municipalities.


Therefore, 30 years is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Age Milestones: 18 (Vote), 21 (Panchayat), 25 (Lok Sabha/MLA), 30 (Rajya Sabha/MLC), 35 (President/Governor).


Question 2:

Which part of the Constitution of India deals with Fundamental Rights?

  • (A) Part III
  • (B) Part IV
  • (C) Part II
  • (D) Part V
Correct Answer: (A) Part III
View Solution



The Constitution is divided into Parts.


Part III (Articles 12 to 35) specifically contains the Fundamental Rights.


Part II deals with Citizenship.


Part IV deals with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).


Part V deals with the Union (The Executive, Parliament, and Judiciary).


Therefore, Part III is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Part III is often described as the "Magna Carta" of India. Remember: "Right" has 5 letters, but Fundamental Rights are in Part III.


Question 3:

The President of India is elected by which system?

  • (A) First-past-the-post
  • (B) Proportional representation
  • (C) Single transferable vote
  • (D) Electoral College
Correct Answer: (B) Proportional representation
View Solution



Article 55(3) of the Constitution states: "The election of the President shall be held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote."


While "Single transferable vote" (Option C) is the specific method/means used, "Proportional representation" is the broad system defined in the Constitution to distinguish it from the "First-past-the-post" system used for Lok Sabha elections.


"Electoral College" (Option D) refers to the body of voters, not the system of counting/voting.


In the context of classifying electoral systems, Proportional Representation is the correct primary classification.


Therefore, Option (B) is the best answer.
Quick Tip: The President is elected by the "System of Proportional Representation" via the "Means of Single Transferable Vote." If both are options, "Proportional Representation" is usually the intended answer for the "System."


Question 4:

Which Article guarantees the Right to Equality?

  • (A) Article 14
  • (B) Article 15
  • (C) Article 16
  • (D) Article 17
Correct Answer: (A) Article 14
View Solution



The Right to Equality spans Articles 14 to 18.


Article 14 is the general provision that guarantees "Equality before law" and "Equal protection of the laws" to all persons.


Article 15 prohibits discrimination on specific grounds.


Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in public employment.


Article 17 abolishes untouchability.


Since Article 14 establishes the broad principle of equality itself, it is the primary Article guaranteeing the Right to Equality.
Quick Tip: Article 14 is the genus (broad category) of Equality; Articles 15, 16, 17, and 18 are the species (specific applications).


Question 5:

Which Schedule contains provisions for tribal area administration?

  • (A) Fifth Schedule
  • (B) Sixth Schedule
  • (C) Seventh Schedule
  • (D) Ninth Schedule
Correct Answer: (B) Sixth Schedule
View Solution



The Constitution distinguishes between "Scheduled Areas" and "Tribal Areas."


The Sixth Schedule is titled "Provisions as to the Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram."


The Fifth Schedule is titled "Provisions as to the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes."


Since the question specifically asks for "tribal area administration," it refers to the special provisions of the Sixth Schedule.


The Seventh Schedule lists the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.


Therefore, Option (B) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember "ATM M" (Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram) for the 6th Schedule Tribal Areas.


Question 6:

Under Article 356, the President can impose President's Rule in a state for an initial period of:

  • (A) 6 months
  • (B) 1 year
  • (C) 2 years
  • (D) 3 years
Correct Answer: (A) 6 months
View Solution



When a proclamation of President's Rule (Article 356) is approved by both Houses of Parliament, it remains in force for 6 months.


It can be extended for 6 months at a time, up to a maximum of 3 years (subject to certain conditions).


Without Parliamentary approval, the proclamation only lasts for 2 months, but this is not listed as an option. The standard "initial period" of operation after approval is 6 months.


Therefore, Option (A) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Timelines for Emergency: Approval needed within 1 month (National) or 2 months (State/Financial). Once approved, State Emergency lasts 6 months at a time.


Question 7:

Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?

  • (A) Prime Minister
  • (B) President
  • (C) Parliament
  • (D) Governor
Correct Answer: (B) President
View Solution



Article 124(2) of the Constitution states that every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President.


This includes the Chief Justice of India.


While the appointment process involves the Collegium system (consultation), the formal appointing authority is the President of India.


Therefore, Option (B) is correct.
Quick Tip: All major constitutional appointments (CJI, Governors, AG, CAG, ECs) are made in the name of the President.


Question 8:

The Indian Parliament consists of:

  • (A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
  • (B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President
  • (C) Lok Sabha and President
  • (D) Rajya Sabha and President
Correct Answer: (B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President
View Solution



Article 79 of the Constitution explicitly defines the constitution of Parliament.


It states: "There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha)."


The President is an integral part of Parliament because no bill can become law without their assent, even though they are not a member of either House.


Therefore, Option (B) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Don't forget the President! Parliament = L.S. + R.S. + President.


Question 9:

'Procedure Established by Law' is associated with which Article?

  • (A) Article 21
  • (B) Article 19
  • (C) Article 14
  • (D) Article 32
Correct Answer: (A) Article 21
View Solution



Article 21 states: "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."


This specific phrase distinguishes the Indian legal standard (traditionally) from the American "Due Process of Law," although judicial interpretation (Maneka Gandhi case) has bridged the gap.


The phrase does not appear in Articles 19, 14, or 32.


Therefore, Option (A) is correct.
Quick Tip: Article 21 is the only article containing the phrase "Procedure Established by Law".


Question 10:

The Ninth Schedule was added by which amendment?

  • (A) First Amendment
  • (B) Second Amendment
  • (C) Fourth Amendment
  • (D) Seventh Amendment
Correct Answer: (A) First Amendment
View Solution



The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951.


It was introduced to protect land reform laws and the abolition of the Zamindari system from being challenged in courts on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.


Article 31B was also added along with it to provide this protective umbrella.


Therefore, Option (A) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: The First Amendment (1951) was passed by the Provisional Parliament (before the first general elections) specifically to secure land reforms via the 9th Schedule.

Topic Weightage & Strategy for AIBE 2025

The Bar Council of India has a fixed syllabus with specific weightage for each law subject. Since there are no sectional time limits, candidates should prioritize high-weightage subjects during the exam:

Subject Number of Questions Weightage (%)
Constitutional Law 10 10%
Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) 10 10%
Civil Procedure Code (CPC) 10 10%
Indian Penal Code (IPC) 8 8%
Evidence Act 8 8%

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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