Zollege is here for to help you!!
Need Counselling
Zollege Team's profile photo

Zollege Team

Content Curator | Updated On - Jan 6, 2025

CBSE Class 10 Question Papers are the most important study material for effective exam preparation. We at Zollege have provided all CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Papers with Solution PDFs here. CBSE Class 10 2024 Science exam was conducted successfully on March 2 by CBSE.

Students can freely download the CBSE Class 10 previous year's question paper PDFs along with their solutions here. We strongly encourage CBSE 10 aspirants to scan through all the CBSE Class 10 Question Paper to know the overall difficulty level, CBSE Class 10 Syllabus and understand the changes in CBSE Class 10 Exam Pattern over the years.

CBSE Class 10 2024 Social Science Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CBSE Class 10 Science 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key (Set 1 31/2/1) download iconDownload Check Solution

Question 1:

Solid Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form Calcium hydroxide accompanied by the liberation of heat. From the information given above, it may be concluded that this reaction:

  1. is endothermic and pH of the solution formed is more than 7.
  2. is exothermic and pH of the solution formed is 7.
  3. is endothermic and pH of the solution formed is 7.
  4. is exothermic and pH of the solution formed is more than 7.
Correct Answer: (D) is exothermic and pH of the solution formed is more than 7.

Solution:
The reaction of calcium oxide (CaO) with water is highly exothermic, meaning it releases heat. The reaction produces calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2), which is a strong base that dissociates to form OH- ions, increasing the pH of the solution above 7:

CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq)


Question 2:

Juice of tamarind turns blue litmus to red. It is because of the presence of an acid called:

  1. methanoic acid
  2. acetic acid
  3. tartaric acid
  4. oxalic acid
Correct Answer: (C) tartaric acid

Solution:
Tamarind juice contains tartaric acid. Acidic solutions turn blue litmus paper red, confirming the presence of acid in the juice.


Question 3:

Select from the following a process in which a combination reaction is involved:

  1. Black and White photography
  2. Burning of coal
  3. Burning of methane
  4. Digestion of food
Correct Answer: (B) Burning of coal

Solution:
Burning of coal involves a combination reaction where carbon (coal) reacts with oxygen to form carbon dioxide:

C + O2 → CO2


Question 4:

The oxide which can react with HCl as well as KOH to give corresponding salt and water is:

  1. CuO
  2. Al2O3
  3. Na2O
  4. K2O
Correct Answer: (B) Al2O3

Solution:
Aluminum oxide (Al2O3) is amphoteric, reacting with both acids and bases:

  • With HCl: Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
  • With KOH: Al2O3 + 2KOH + 3H2O → 2KAl(OH)4

Question 5:

Consider the following cases:

(a) CaSO4 + Al →
(b) CuSO4 + Ca →
(c) FeSO4 + Cu →
(d) ZnSO4 + Mg →

The cases in which new products will form are:

  1. (a) and (b)
  2. (b) and (c)
  3. (c) and (d)
  4. (b) and (d)
Correct Answer: (D) (b) and (d)

Solution:
Based on the reactivity series:

  • In (b), Ca is more reactive than Cu, so it displaces Cu from CuSO4.
  • In (d), Mg is more reactive than Zn, so it displaces Zn from ZnSO4.



Question 6:

Identify the correct statement about the following reaction:

2H2S + SO2 → 2H2O + S

  1. H2S is oxidising agent and SO2 is reducing agent.
  2. H2S is reduced to sulphur.
  3. SO2 is oxidising agent and H2S is reducing agent.
  4. SO2 is oxidised to sulphur.
Correct Answer: (C) SO2 is oxidising agent and H2S is reducing agent.

Solution:
In this reaction, the oxidation state of sulfur in H2S changes from -2 to 0 (oxidation), and the oxidation state of sulfur in SO2 changes from +4 to 0 (reduction). Hence, H2S is the reducing agent, and SO2 is the oxidising agent.


Question 7:

Consider the following statements about homologous series of carbon compounds:

(a) All succeeding members differ by –CH2 unit.
(b) Melting point and boiling point increases with increasing molecular mass.
(c) The difference in molecular masses between two successive members is 16 u.
(d) C2H2 and C3H4 are NOT successive members of the alkyne series.

The correct statements are:

  1. (a) and (b)
  2. (b) and (c)
  3. (a) and (c)
  4. (c) and (d)
Correct Answer: (A) (a) and (b)

Solution:
Members of a homologous series differ by a –CH2 unit (14 u difference in molecular mass, not 16 u). Melting and boiling points increase with molecular mass due to stronger intermolecular forces. Therefore, statements (a) and (b) are correct.


Question 8:

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about human heart?

(a) Right atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs through pulmonary artery.
(b) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to left ventricle which sends it to various parts of the body.
(c) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood through vena cava from upper and lower body.
(d) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to aorta which sends it to different parts of the body.

  1. (a)
  2. (a) and (d)
  3. (b) and (c)
  4. (b) and (d)
Correct Answer: (C) (b) and (c)

Solution:
The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood via vena cava (not oxygenated blood). The left atrium sends oxygenated blood to the left ventricle, which pumps it through the aorta to the body. Therefore, statements (b) and (c) are correct.


Question 9:

Select out of the following a gland which does NOT occur as a pair in the human body:

  1. Pituitary
  2. Ovary
  3. Testis
  4. Adrenal
Correct Answer: (A) Pituitary

Solution:
The pituitary gland is a single gland located at the base of the brain, unlike ovaries, testes, and adrenal glands, which occur as pairs.


Question 10:

In human respiratory system, when a person breathes in, the position of ribs and diaphragm will be:

  1. Lifted ribs and curve/dome shaped diaphragm.
  2. Lifted ribs and flattened diaphragm.
  3. Relaxed ribs and flattened diaphragm.
  4. Relaxed ribs and curve/dome shaped diaphragm.
Correct Answer: (B) Lifted ribs and flattened diaphragm.

Solution:
During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and flattens while the ribs are lifted, increasing the thoracic cavity's volume and drawing air into the lungs.



Question 11:

Identify the mode of asexual reproduction in the following organism:

Image showing an organism reproducing via budding
  1. Fragmentation
  2. Multiple fission
  3. Budding
  4. Binary fission
Correct Answer: (C) Budding

Solution:
The image shows an organism reproducing through budding, a process where a new organism grows out of the parent as a bud. Eventually, the bud detaches and becomes independent.


Question 12:

A cross made between two pea plants produces 50% tall and 50% short pea plants. The gene combination of the parental pea plants must be:

  1. Tt and Tt
  2. TT and Tt
  3. Tt and tt
  4. TT and tt
Correct Answer: (C) Tt and tt

Solution:
A 1:1 ratio of tall to short offspring indicates a cross between a heterozygous tall plant (Tt) and a homozygous recessive short plant (tt). The Punnett square confirms this ratio.


Question 13:

Consider the following statements in the context of human eye:

(a) The diameter of the eyeball is about 2.3 cm.
(b) Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil.
(c) Most of the refraction for light rays entering the eye occurs at the crystalline lens.
(d) While focusing on objects at different distances, the distance between the lens and retina is adjusted by ciliary muscles.

The correct statements are:

  1. (a) and (b)
  2. (a), (b), and (c)
  3. (b), (c), and (d)
  4. (a), (c), and (d)
Correct Answer: (A) (a) and (b)

Solution:
Statements (a) and (b) are correct. Statement (c) is incorrect because most refraction occurs at the cornea, not the lens. Statement (d) is incorrect as the lens's shape, not its distance from the retina, changes during focusing.


Question 14:

The maximum resistance of a network of five identical resistors of 1/5 Ω each can be:

  1. 1 Ω
  2. 0.5 Ω
  3. 0.25 Ω
  4. 0.1 Ω
Correct Answer: (A) 1 Ω

Solution:
Maximum resistance is achieved when all resistors are connected in series. The total resistance is the sum of the individual resistances: \( 5 \times \frac{1}{5} = 1 \, \Omega \).


Question 15:

Study the I-V graph for three resistors of resistances R1, R2, and R3, and select the correct statement:

I-V graph showing resistors with different slopes
  1. R1 = R2 = R3
  2. R1 > R2 > R3
  3. R3 > R2 > R1
  4. R2 > R3 > R1
Correct Answer: (C) R3 > R2 > R1

Solution:
The slope of the I-V graph represents \( \frac{1}{R} \). A steeper slope corresponds to lower resistance. The least steep slope (R3) indicates the highest resistance.



Question 16:

Strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid DOES NOT depend upon:

  1. Number of turns in the solenoid
  2. Direction of the current flowing through it
  3. Radius of solenoid
  4. Material of core of the solenoid
Correct Answer: (B) Direction of the current flowing through it

Solution:
The strength of the magnetic field depends on the number of turns in the solenoid, the current magnitude, the radius of the solenoid, and the core material's permeability. However, the direction of the current affects the polarity of the solenoid, not the strength of the magnetic field.


Question 17:

Assertion (A): Different metals have different reactivities with water and dilute acids.
Reason (R): Extraction of a metal from its ore depends on its position in the reactivity series.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Solution:
Metals react differently with water and acids due to their chemical properties. The extraction process depends on the metal's reactivity, but this does not directly explain the varying reactivities of metals with water and acids.


Question 18:

Assertion (A): Human female has a perfect pair of sex chromosomes.
Reason (R): Sex chromosome contributed by the human male in the zygote decides the sex of a child.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Solution:
Females have two X chromosomes (XX). The male's contribution of either an X or Y chromosome determines the child's sex (XX for female, XY for male).


Question 19:

Assertion (A): Myopic eye cannot see distant objects distinctly.
Reason (R): For the correction of myopia, converging lenses of appropriate power are prescribed by eye-surgeons.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

Solution:
Myopia results from light focusing in front of the retina. Diverging (concave) lenses correct this by redirecting light to focus on the retina. The reason provided in (R) is incorrect.


Question 20:

Assertion (A): The deflection of a compass needle placed near a current-carrying wire decreases when the magnitude of an electric current in the wire is increased.
Reason (R): Strength of the magnetic field at a point due to a current-carrying conductor increases on increasing the current in the conductor.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Solution:
Increasing current in a conductor strengthens the magnetic field, causing greater deflection of the compass needle. Therefore, (A) is false, and (R) is true.



Question 21 (a):

"No precipitation reaction can occur without exchange of ions between the two reactants." Justify this statement giving a balanced chemical equation for the reaction.

Solution:

The statement is true because precipitation reactions involve the exchange of ions between reactants to form an insoluble product (precipitate). For example:

AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)

In this reaction, Ag+ from AgNO3 and Cl- from NaCl combine to form AgCl, an insoluble precipitate. Without ion exchange, no precipitation occurs.


Question 21 (b):

Giving one example of each, differentiate between a displacement reaction and a double displacement reaction.

Solution:

Displacement Reaction: A more reactive element displaces a less reactive element in a compound.

Example: Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

Double Displacement Reaction: Exchange of ions between two compounds forms two new compounds.

Example: AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)


Question 22:

Photosynthesis takes place in the leaves, and the food prepared by it reaches other parts of the plant. Name the process involved and explain it.

Solution:

The process is translocation.

Translocation involves the movement of sugars (sucrose) and other organic compounds from the leaves (source) to other parts of the plant (sink) through the phloem. It is driven by osmotic pressure differences created by active loading and unloading of sugars at the source and sink, respectively.


Question 23:

"Stability of DNA in a species is ensured during sexual reproduction." Justify the statement.

Solution:

DNA stability in a species is ensured through:

  • Meiosis: Reduces chromosome number by half, ensuring correct diploid number after fertilization.
  • Recombination: Introduces genetic variation without altering the overall stability of the genome.
  • DNA Repair Mechanisms: Correct replication errors, maintaining genome integrity.
  • Natural Selection: Ensures only stable, advantageous genetic traits are passed on.

Question 24 (a):

State two laws of refraction of light.

Solution:

  • The incident ray, refracted ray, and normal at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
  • The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is constant (Snell's Law): sin i / sin r = μ.

Question 24 (b):

Define the term absolute refractive index of a medium. Calculate the speed of light in glass with absolute refractive index 1.5 (speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 m/s).

Solution:

The absolute refractive index of a medium is the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in the medium:

μ = c / v

Calculation:

Given μ = 1.5 and c = 3 × 108:

v = c / μ = (3 × 108) / 1.5 = 2 × 108 m/s



Question 25:

Use Ohm's law to determine the potential difference across the 3 Ω resistor in the circuit shown in the following diagram when the key is closed:

Circuit Diagram

Solution:

Given:

  • Resistors in series: R_s = R_1 + R_2 + R_3 = 1 Ω + 2 Ω + 3 Ω = 6 Ω
  • Total current: I = V / R = 2V / 6 Ω = 1/3 A
  • Voltage across 3 Ω resistor: V = I × R = (1/3 A) × 3 Ω = 1 V

Question 26:

Name the term used for materials which cannot be broken down by biological processes. Give two ways by which they harm various components of an ecosystem.

Solution:

Term: Non-biodegradable materials.

Ways they harm ecosystems:

  1. Pollution: Non-biodegradable materials accumulate, causing pollution of soil, water, and air. This adversely affects plants, animals, and human health. For example, plastics clog waterways and harm marine life.
  2. Disruption of Food Chains: These materials enter food chains and accumulate through biomagnification, leading to toxicity in higher trophic levels, including humans.

Question 27:

It is observed that calcium on reaction with water floats on its surface. Explain why it happens. Also write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction that occurs. What happens when the aqueous solution of the product of this reaction reacts with carbon dioxide gas? Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction.

Solution:

Calcium reacts with water to produce calcium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. The hydrogen gas adheres to the calcium, reducing its overall density and causing it to float.

Reaction with water:

Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)

When carbon dioxide is passed through calcium hydroxide solution (limewater), it forms a white precipitate of calcium carbonate:

Reaction with CO2:

Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)

Question 28:

Draw a labelled diagram to show electrolytic refining of copper. State what happens when electric current is passed through the electrolyte taken in this case.

Solution:

Electrolytic Refining of Copper

Explanation:

  • Anode: Impure copper (oxidation occurs).
  • Cathode: Pure copper (reduction occurs).
  • Electrolyte: Copper sulfate solution.

Reactions:

  • Anode: Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e-
  • Cathode: Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s)


Question 29 (a):

Give reasons for the following:

  1. Alveoli in lungs are richly supplied with blood capillaries.
  2. Respiratory pigment in the blood takes up oxygen and not carbon dioxide.
  3. During anaerobic respiration, a 3-carbon molecule is formed as an end product instead of CO2 in human beings.

Solution:

  1. Alveoli are richly supplied with blood capillaries to facilitate efficient gas exchange. The extensive capillary network maximizes the surface area for oxygen diffusion into the blood and carbon dioxide diffusion out of the blood, enabling rapid gas exchange due to the short diffusion distance.
  2. Hemoglobin, the respiratory pigment in human blood, has a higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide. In the lungs, where oxygen partial pressure is high, hemoglobin readily binds oxygen. Its structure is optimized for oxygen transport, although it carries a smaller amount of carbon dioxide.
  3. During anaerobic respiration in human muscle cells, pyruvate (a 3-carbon molecule) is converted into lactic acid instead of being oxidized to CO2. This occurs due to the absence of oxygen, which prevents complete aerobic respiration, leading to energy production through lactic acid fermentation, causing muscle fatigue.

OR

Question 29 (b):

(i) Name the movements that occur all along the gut in the human digestive system. How do they help in digestion?

(ii) Where is bile juice stored in the human body? List two roles of bile juice.

Solution:

  1. The movements occurring along the gut are called peristalsis. Peristalsis involves rhythmic contractions and relaxations of the smooth muscles in the digestive tract. These movements:
    • Mix food: The churning action blends food with digestive enzymes for efficient digestion.
    • Propel food: Peristalsis moves food through the gut, ensuring it is processed in each digestive section.
  2. Bile juice is stored in the gallbladder. Two roles of bile juice:
    • Emulsification of fats: Bile salts break down large fat globules into smaller droplets, increasing the surface area for lipase action.
    • Fat-soluble vitamin absorption: Bile aids in the absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K in the small intestine.


Question 30:

Explain the events that take place once a sperm reaches the oviduct till it becomes a foetus. Write the role of placenta in pregnancy.

Solution:

Events from fertilization to foetus formation:

  1. Fertilization: When a sperm reaches the oviduct, it fuses with the ovum (egg) to form a zygote (diploid cell).
  2. Cleavage: The zygote undergoes repeated mitotic cell divisions, forming a morula (solid ball of cells).
  3. Blastocyst Formation: The morula develops into a blastocyst, a hollow structure with an inner cell mass (future embryo) and an outer trophoblast layer (future placenta).
  4. Implantation: The blastocyst attaches to the uterine wall, embedding into the endometrium.
  5. Gastrulation: The inner cell mass differentiates into three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm), which will form the tissues and organs.
  6. Organogenesis: The organs and systems begin to develop from the germ layers.
  7. Foetal Development: The embryo continues to grow and develop into a foetus, completing organ formation and maturation.

Role of Placenta in Pregnancy:

  • Nutrient and Gas Exchange: The placenta facilitates the exchange of nutrients, oxygen, and waste products between the mother's blood and the foetus.
  • Protection: It acts as a selective barrier, protecting the foetus from harmful substances.
  • Hormone Production: The placenta produces essential hormones like hCG, progesterone, and estrogen, which maintain pregnancy and support foetal development.

Question 31 (a):

Define the term power of accommodation of human eye. Write the name of the part of eye which plays a major role in the process of accommodation and explain what happens when human eye focuses (i) nearby objects and (ii) distant objects.

Solution:

The power of accommodation is the ability of the eye to adjust its focus on objects at different distances by changing the shape of the lens.

Part of the Eye: The ciliary muscle plays a major role in accommodation.

  1. Focusing on Nearby Objects: The ciliary muscles contract, reducing tension on the suspensory ligaments. This makes the lens thicker and more convex, increasing its refractive power.
  2. Focusing on Distant Objects: The ciliary muscles relax, increasing tension on the suspensory ligaments. This makes the lens thinner and less convex, reducing its refractive power.

OR

Question 31 (b):

Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of a rainbow in the sky. On this diagram mark A – where dispersion of light occurs, B – where internal reflection of light occurs and C – where refraction of light occurs. List two necessary conditions to observe a rainbow.

Solution:

Rainbow Formation Diagram

The diagram illustrates:

  • Point C: Refraction of sunlight as it enters the raindrop.
  • Point B: Internal reflection of light within the raindrop.
  • Point A: Dispersion of light into different colors as it exits the raindrop.

Two Necessary Conditions:

  1. Sunlight: Sunlight must be present to refract and reflect within raindrops.
  2. Water Droplets: A sufficient number of water droplets in the atmosphere (e.g., during rain or mist) to create the visible spectrum.


Question 32:

Draw a diagram to show the pattern of magnetic field lines on a horizontal sheet of paper due to a straight conductor passing through its center and carrying current vertically upwards. Mark on it (i) the direction of current in the conductor and (ii) the corresponding magnetic field lines. State right-hand thumb rule and check whether the directions marked by you are in accordance with this rule or not.

Solution:

Magnetic field pattern around a current-carrying conductor

The diagram shows:

  1. The current in the conductor is marked with an upward arrow.
  2. The magnetic field lines form concentric circles around the conductor, with the direction determined by the right-hand thumb rule.

Right-Hand Thumb Rule: If you hold a current-carrying conductor in your right hand with your thumb pointing in the direction of the current, your curled fingers indicate the direction of the magnetic field lines.

Verification: In the given scenario, the current flows vertically upwards, and according to the right-hand thumb rule, the magnetic field lines follow a counterclockwise direction around the conductor. This aligns with the directions marked in the diagram.


Question 33:

Use of pesticides to protect our crops affect organisms at various trophic levels, especially human beings. Name the phenomenon involved and explain how does it happen.

Solution:

The phenomenon involved is biomagnification (or biological magnification).

Explanation:

  1. Pesticides in the Environment: Pesticides sprayed on crops enter the environment through water runoff, soil infiltration, or direct consumption by lower trophic level organisms.
  2. Bioaccumulation: Primary consumers (e.g., herbivores) ingest the pesticides present in plants or water. These chemicals accumulate in their bodies because they are non-biodegradable.
  3. Trophic Level Amplification: Predators consume multiple organisms from lower trophic levels, leading to a higher concentration of pesticides in their bodies. This process repeats at each trophic level.
  4. Human Impact: Humans, being at the top of many food chains, accumulate the highest pesticide concentrations. This can lead to severe health effects, including hormonal imbalances, nervous system disorders, and cancers.

Section - D

Q. Nos. 34 to 36 are long answer questions.

Question 34 (a):

(i) Give reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4− anions but form covalent compounds.
(ii) What is homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the molecular formula of any two consecutive members of homologous series of aldehydes.
(iii) Draw the structure of the molecule of cyclohexane (C6H12).

Solution:

(i) Carbon has four valence electrons. To achieve a stable octet, carbon would need to:

  • Lose four electrons to form C4+, which is highly unfavorable due to the enormous energy required.
  • Gain four electrons to form C4−, which is unstable due to strong electron-electron repulsion.

Instead, carbon forms covalent bonds by sharing electrons, achieving a stable configuration without forming ions.

(ii) A homologous series is a group of organic compounds with the same functional group, similar chemical properties, and a uniform difference of CH2 between successive members. Two consecutive aldehydes are:

  • Methanal (HCHO)
  • Ethanal (CH3CHO)

(iii) Structure of cyclohexane:

Cyclohexane structure

OR

Question 34 (b):

(i) Name a commercially important carbon compound having functional group –OH and write its molecular formula.
(ii) Write chemical equation to show its reaction with:

  1. Sodium metal
  2. Excess concentrated sulfuric acid
  3. Ethanoic acid in the presence of an acid catalyst
  4. Acidified potassium dichromate

Also write the name of the product formed in each case.

Solution:

(i) A commercially important compound is ethanol (C2H5OH).

(ii) Reactions:

  • With Sodium: 2C2H5OH + 2Na → 2C2H5ONa + H2
    Product: Sodium ethoxide
  • With Concentrated Sulfuric Acid: C2H5OH → C2H4 + H2O (dehydration)
    Product: Ethene
  • With Ethanoic Acid (Esterification): C2H5OH + CH3COOH → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
    Product: Ethyl ethanoate
  • With Acidified Potassium Dichromate: 3C2H5OH + K2Cr2O7 + 4H2SO4 → 3CH3COOH + Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O
    Product: Ethanoic acid


Question 35 (a):

(i) Distinguish between hormonal co-ordination in plants and animals.
(ii) Which part of the brain is responsible for –

  1. Intelligence
  2. Riding a bicycle
  3. Vomiting
  4. Controlling hunger

(iii) How is brain and spinal cord protected against mechanical injuries?

Solution:

(i) Hormonal Co-ordination: Plants vs. Animals

  • Transport: Plant hormones are transported through xylem and phloem; animal hormones use the bloodstream.
  • Response: Plant responses are slower; animal responses are faster.
  • Specificity: Animal hormones target specific organs; plant hormones influence multiple processes.

(ii) Brain Regions and Functions:

  • Intelligence: Controlled by the cerebrum (cerebral cortex).
  • Riding a bicycle: Coordinated by the cerebellum for motor control and balance.
  • Vomiting: Regulated by the medulla oblongata.
  • Controlling hunger: Managed by the hypothalamus.

(iii) Protection of Brain and Spinal Cord:

  • Bony Protection: The brain is encased in the skull, and the spinal cord is surrounded by the vertebral column.
  • Meninges: Three protective layers (dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater) cushion the brain and spinal cord.
  • Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF): CSF acts as a shock absorber, reducing the impact of mechanical forces.

Question 35 (b):

(i) What are tropic movements? Give an example of a plant hormone which (1) inhibits growth and (2) promotes cell division.
(ii) Explain the directional movement of a tendril in a pea plant in response to touch. Name the hormone responsible for this movement.

Solution:

(i) Tropic Movements: Directional growth movements in plants in response to a unidirectional stimulus, such as:

  • Examples:
    • (1) Inhibits growth: Abscisic acid (ABA).
    • (2) Promotes cell division: Cytokinins.

(ii) Directional Movement in Tendrils (Thigmotropism): When a tendril touches a support, the cells on the side of contact stop growing, while the cells on the opposite side elongate, causing the tendril to bend toward and wrap around the support. Auxin is the hormone responsible for this movement.



Question 36 (a):

Upper half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image of an object placed at a distance of 2F from such a lens. Mention the position and nature of the image formed. State the observable difference in the image obtained if the lens is uncovered. Give reason to justify your answer.

Solution:

Ray Diagram - Half-Covered Lens

Image Characteristics (Half-Covered Lens):

  • Position: At 2F on the right side of the lens (same as the uncovered lens).
  • Nature: Real, inverted, and of the same size as the object.
  • The image will be dimmer compared to the uncovered lens because only half of the lens contributes to image formation, reducing brightness.

Difference with Uncovered Lens: An uncovered lens forms a brighter and sharper image since all parts of the lens contribute to refracting light. When part of the lens is covered, fewer light rays contribute, resulting in a dimmer image, but the position and size remain unchanged.

Reason: Even when half of the lens is obscured, sufficient rays from the object refract through the remaining part of the lens to form a complete image. The image intensity is reduced because fewer light rays are utilized in image formation.


Question 36 (b):

An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the optical centre of a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Use lens formula to determine the distance of the image from the optical centre of the lens.

Solution:

The lens formula is:

\( \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f} \)

Where:

  • \( u = -30 \, \text{cm} \) (negative because the object is on the left side)
  • \( f = -15 \, \text{cm} \) (negative for concave lens)
  • \( v \) (image distance, to be determined)

Substitute the values:

\( \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{-30} = \frac{1}{-15} \)

\( \frac{1}{v} = -\frac{1}{15} - \frac{1}{30} = -\frac{3}{30} = -\frac{1}{10} \)

\( v = -10 \, \text{cm} \)

Result: The image distance is -10 cm. The negative sign indicates that the image is virtual and on the same side as the object.



Question 37:

Salts play a very important role in our daily life. Sodium chloride which is known as common salt is used almost in every kitchen. Baking soda is also a salt used in faster cooking as well as in the baking industry. The family of salts is classified on the basis of cations and anions present in them.

(a) Identify the acid and base from which Sodium chloride is formed.

Solution:

Sodium chloride (NaCl) is formed from the reaction of hydrochloric acid (HCl) and sodium hydroxide (NaOH):

HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

The acid is hydrochloric acid (HCl), and the base is sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

(b) Find the cation and the anion present in Calcium sulphate.

Solution:

The cation in Calcium sulphate (CaSO4) is calcium (Ca2+), and the anion is sulfate (SO42−).

(c) “Sodium chloride and washing soda both belong to the same family of salts.” Justify this statement.

Solution:

Sodium chloride (NaCl) and washing soda (sodium carbonate, Na2CO3) belong to the same family of salts because they share the same cation, sodium (Na+). Salts are classified into families based on their common cation or anion. Both NaCl and Na2CO3 are sodium salts.

OR: (c) Define the term pH scale. Name the salt obtained by the reaction of Potassium hydroxide and Sulphuric acid and give the pH value of its aqueous solution.

Solution:

The pH scale is a logarithmic scale that measures the acidity or basicity of a solution. It ranges from 0 to 14:

  • pH 7: Neutral solution
  • pH < 7: Acidic solution
  • pH > 7: Basic solution

The salt obtained by the reaction of potassium hydroxide (KOH) and sulfuric acid (H2SO4) is potassium sulfate (K2SO4):

2KOH(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → K2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l)

Potassium sulfate is a neutral salt, and its aqueous solution has a pH of approximately 7.



Question 38:

Asexual reproduction involves a single parent to produce offspring without the formation of gametes. It occurs by the following ways: Fission, Budding, Fragmentation, Spore formation, and Regeneration. In one of the methods like regeneration, Planaria A is cut horizontally into three pieces – L, M, and N, and Planaria B is cut vertically into two equal halves – O and P.

Planaria Regeneration

(a) Which of the cut pieces of the two Planaria could regenerate to form a complete organism?

Solution:

In Planaria A, all three pieces (L, M, and N) could regenerate into complete organisms because each piece contains sufficient genetic material and the necessary cell types for regeneration. In Planaria B, both halves (O and P) could regenerate into complete organisms for the same reason. Planaria have a high regenerative capacity.

(b) Give an example of another organism which follows the same mode of reproduction as Planaria.

Solution:

Another organism that exhibits regeneration similar to Planaria is the starfish. If a starfish is cut into pieces, each piece containing a sufficient amount of body tissue can regenerate into a complete starfish. Another example is Hydra.

(c) What is the meaning of ‘development’ in regeneration?

Solution:

In the context of regeneration, 'development' refers to the process by which a missing part of an organism is regrown. This involves:

  • Cell proliferation: Increase in the number of cells through division.
  • Cell differentiation: Cells develop specific roles to form tissues and organs.
  • Tissue reorganization: Formation of fully functional body parts.

Development ensures that the regrown part is not only restored in shape but also in function, allowing the organism to regain its normal physiology.

OR: (c) Differentiate between regeneration and fragmentation.
Feature Regeneration Fragmentation
Definition Regrowth of lost or damaged body parts. The organism splits into fragments, each developing into a new individual.
Organisms Involved Occurs in multicellular organisms (e.g., Planaria, starfish). Common in multicellular organisms (e.g., Hydra, Planaria).
Outcome Regeneration of parts; no new organism forms (except in special cases). Formation of new individuals from fragments.
Example Starfish regrowing its arm. Planaria fragment developing into new organisms.


Question 39:

When electric current flows in a purely resistive circuit, electrical energy gets fully converted into heat energy. The amount of heat produced (H) in the circuit is directly proportional to:

  • (i) the square of current (I2),
  • (ii) the resistance (R) of the conductor, and
  • (iii) the time (t) for which current flows.

In other words, H = I2Rt. Electrical devices such as electric fuses, heaters, irons, etc., are based on this heating effect of electric current.

(a) List two properties of heating elements.

Solution:

  • High Resistivity: Heating elements are made of materials with high electrical resistivity to ensure maximum conversion of electrical energy into heat.
  • High Melting Point: Heating elements need to withstand high temperatures without melting or degrading during operation.

(b) List two properties of electric fuses.

Solution:

  • Low Melting Point: Fuse wires have a low melting point to break the circuit quickly during excessive current flow.
  • High Conductivity: Fuse wires have reasonably high conductivity to ensure efficient operation without adding unnecessary resistance to the circuit.

(c) Name the principle on which an electric fuse works. Explain how a fuse wire is capable of saving electrical appliances from high currents.

Solution:

An electric fuse works on the heating effect of electric current. When an excessive current flows through the fuse wire due to a short circuit or overload, the heat generated by the current increases, causing the fuse wire to melt and break the circuit. This interruption prevents the high current from reaching electrical appliances, protecting them from damage.

The fuse wire is specifically designed to melt at a lower current than the circuit components can handle, ensuring that the circuit is disconnected before significant damage occurs.

OR: (c) The power of an electric heater is 1100 W...

(c) Calculate the current flowing in the circuit. What will happen to a 5 A fuse in this circuit?

Solution:

The formula for power is:

P = V × I

Given:

  • P = 1100 W
  • V = 220 V

The current (I) can be calculated as:

I = P / V = 1100 W / 220 V = 5 A

The current flowing in the circuit is 5 A. A 5 A fuse will operate at its maximum capacity. If the current increases even slightly above 5 A, the fuse will melt and disconnect the circuit, preventing damage to the heater or other appliances.


*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

Ask your question

Subscribe To Our News Letter

Get Latest Notification Of Colleges, Exams and News

© 2026 Patronum Web Private Limited