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Content Curator | Updated On - Jan 6, 2025

CBSE Class 10 Question Papers are the most important study material for effective exam preparation. We at Zollege have provided all CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Papers with Solution PDFs here. CBSE Class 10 2024 Science exam was conducted successfully on March 2 by CBSE.

Students can freely download the CBSE Class 10 previous year's question paper PDFs along with their solutions here. We strongly encourage CBSE 10 aspirants to scan through all the CBSE Class 10 Question Paper to know the overall difficulty level, CBSE Class 10 Syllabus and understand the changes in CBSE Class 10 Exam Pattern over the years.

CBSE Class 10 2024 Science Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CBSE Class 10 Science 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key (Set 2 31/2/2) download iconDownload Check Solution


Question 1:

Consider the following statements about homologous series of carbon compounds:

  • (a) All succeeding members differ by –CH2 unit.
  • (b) Melting point and boiling point increases with increasing molecular mass.
  • (c) The difference in molecular masses between two successive members is 16 u.
  • (d) C2H2 and C3H4 are NOT the successive members of alkyne series.

The correct statements are:

  • (A) (a) and (b)
  • (B) (b) and (c)
  • (C) (a) and (c)
  • (D) (c) and (d)

Correct Answer: (A) (a) and (b)

Solution:

In a homologous series:

  • Statement (a): Consecutive members differ by a –CH2 unit (True).
  • Statement (b): Melting and boiling points generally increase with molecular mass due to stronger intermolecular forces (True).
  • Statement (c): The difference in molecular mass between successive members is 14 u (not 16 u). Hence, this statement is False.
  • Statement (d): C2H2 (ethyne) and C3H4 (propyne) are successive members of the alkyne series. Hence, this statement is False.

Thus, only statements (a) and (b) are correct.

Read more:

Members of a homologous series share chemical properties and show gradual changes in physical properties. The molecular mass difference between successive members is 14 u (from –CH2).


Question 2:

The number of shells required to write the electronic configuration of Potassium (At. No. 19):

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Correct Answer: (D) 4

Solution:

Potassium has an atomic number of 19, meaning it has 19 electrons. The electronic configuration is written as:

Shell 1: 2 electrons (K-shell)
Shell 2: 8 electrons (L-shell)
Shell 3: 8 electrons (M-shell)
Shell 4: 1 electron (N-shell)

Hence, 4 shells are required for its configuration: 2, 8, 8, 1.

Read more:

Use the 2n2 rule to calculate maximum electrons per shell, and distribute electrons sequentially until all are accounted for.


Question 3:

Select the process involving a combination reaction:

  • (A) Black and white photography
  • (B) Burning of coal
  • (C) Burning of methane
  • (D) Digestion of food

Correct Answer: (B) Burning of coal

Solution:

Burning of coal involves carbon (C) combining with oxygen (O2) to form carbon dioxide (CO2), which is a single product:

C + O2 → CO2

This is a combination reaction.

Read more:

Combination reactions involve two or more reactants forming one product. Burning is often a combination reaction with oxygen.


Question 4:

The oxide which reacts with both HCl and KOH to give corresponding salts and water is:

  • (A) CuO
  • (B) Al2O3
  • (C) Na2O
  • (D) K2O

Correct Answer: (B) Al2O3

Solution:

Aluminum oxide (Al2O3) is an amphoteric oxide, reacting with acids and bases:

  • With HCl: Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
  • With KOH: Al2O3 + 2KOH → 2KAlO2 + H2O
Read more:

Amphoteric oxides react with both acids and bases to form salts and water.


Question 5:

Which of the following is an alloy of copper and tin?

  • (A) Nichrome
  • (B) Brass
  • (C) Constantan
  • (D) Bronze

Correct Answer: (D) Bronze

Solution:

Bronze is an alloy primarily composed of copper and tin. Other options:

  • Nichrome: Nickel, chromium, and iron.
  • Brass: Copper and zinc.
  • Constantan: Copper and nickel.
Read more:

Remember common alloys: Brass (copper + zinc), Bronze (copper + tin), Nichrome (nickel + chromium).



Question 6:

Tooth decay begins at the pH of:

  • (A) 5.1
  • (B) 5.8
  • (C) 6.5
  • (D) 8.0

Correct Answer: (A) 5.1

Solution:

Tooth decay begins when the pH of the mouth falls below 5.5. Bacteria in the mouth produce acids that dissolve the enamel of the teeth. Among the given options, 5.1 is the pH value below 5.5.

Read more

Remember that a lower pH value indicates a more acidic environment. Tooth enamel starts to demineralize at a pH of approximately 5.5.


Question 7:

Solid Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form Calcium hydroxide accompanied by the liberation of heat. From the information given above it may be concluded that this reaction:

  • (A) is endothermic and pH of the solution formed is more than 7.
  • (B) is exothermic and pH of the solution formed is 7.
  • (C) is endothermic and pH of the solution formed is 7.
  • (D) is exothermic and pH of the solution formed is more than 7.

Correct Answer: (D) is exothermic and pH of the solution formed is more than 7.

Solution:

The reaction of calcium oxide (CaO) with water is:

CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + heat
  • Exothermic: The liberation of heat indicates that the reaction is exothermic.
  • pH > 7: Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2) is a base. Its solution releases OH-, making the pH greater than 7 (alkaline).
Read more

Reactions that release heat are exothermic. Metal oxides reacting with water generally form basic solutions with pH > 7.


Question 8:

In the human respiratory system, when a person breathes in, the position of ribs and diaphragm will be:

  • (A) lifted ribs and curved/dome-shaped diaphragm.
  • (B) lifted ribs and flattened diaphragm.
  • (C) relaxed ribs and flattened diaphragm.
  • (D) relaxed ribs and curved/dome-shaped diaphragm.

Correct Answer: (B) lifted ribs and flattened diaphragm.

Solution:

During inhalation:

  • Ribs: The rib cage expands, and the ribs are lifted upwards and outwards due to intercostal muscle contraction.
  • Diaphragm: The diaphragm contracts and flattens, increasing the thoracic cavity's volume.

The increased chest volume reduces air pressure in the lungs, causing air to flow in.

Read more

Inhalation involves chest cavity expansion: ribs move up and out, and the diaphragm flattens.


Question 9:

Select out of the following a gland which does NOT occur as a pair in the human body:

  • (A) Pituitary
  • (B) Ovary
  • (C) Testis
  • (D) Adrenal

Correct Answer: (A) Pituitary

Solution:

Pituitary Gland: Located at the brain's base, it is a single structure. In contrast:

  • Ovaries: Two ovaries are present in females.
  • Testes: Two testes are present in males.
  • Adrenal Glands: Two glands, one above each kidney.
Read more

The pituitary gland is a single structure and regulates many endocrine functions.


Question 10:

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about the human heart?

  • (a) Right atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs through pulmonary artery.
  • (b) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to left ventricle which sends it to various parts of the body.
  • (c) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood through vena cava from upper and lower body.
  • (d) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to aorta which sends it to different parts of the body.

Options:

  • (A) (a)
  • (B) (a) and (d)
  • (C) (b) and (c)
  • (D) (b) and (d)

Correct Answer: (C) (b) and (c)

Solution:

  • (a): Incorrect. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the vena cava, not oxygenated blood.
  • (b): Correct. The left atrium pumps oxygenated blood to the left ventricle, which then sends it to the body via the aorta.
  • (c): Correct. The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the body through the superior and inferior vena cava.
  • (d): Incorrect. The left atrium pumps blood to the left ventricle, not directly to the aorta.
Read more

Trace the blood flow in the heart: Right side handles deoxygenated blood; left side handles oxygenated blood. Atria receive blood; ventricles pump blood.



Question 11:

Which one of the following organisms is represented by this diagram?

Diagram of an organism

  • (A) Spirogyra
  • (B) Planaria
  • (C) Yeast
  • (D) Rhizopus

Correct Answer: (D) Rhizopus

Solution:

The diagram depicts a fungus with sporangia that contain spores. This is characteristic of Rhizopus, a common bread mold.

  • Spirogyra: A filamentous green alga, unrelated to the diagram.
  • Planaria: A flatworm, not a fungus.
  • Yeast: A single-celled fungus reproducing by budding, not sporangia.
  • Rhizopus: Produces spores in sporangia, matching the diagram.
Read more

Sporangia containing spores are key identifiers for Rhizopus. Learn basic characteristics of fungi, algae, and simple animals.


Question 12:

A cross made between two pea plants produces 50% tall and 50% short pea plants. The gene combination of the parental pea plants must be:

  • (A) Tt and Tt
  • (B) TT and Tt
  • (C) Tt and tt
  • (D) TT and tt

Correct Answer: (C) Tt and tt

Solution:

Using Punnett squares:

  • (A) Tt x Tt: Results in 75% tall, 25% short.
  • (B) TT x Tt: Results in 100% tall.
  • (C) Tt x tt: Results in 50% tall (Tt) and 50% short (tt), matching the observation.
  • (D) TT x tt: Results in 100% tall (Tt).

Thus, the parental genotypes must be Tt (heterozygous tall) and tt (homozygous short).

Read more

Construct Punnett squares to determine expected phenotypic ratios. Dominant traits are expressed with at least one dominant allele.


Question 13:

Strength of magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid DOES NOT depend upon:

  • (A) number of turns in the solenoid
  • (B) direction of the current flowing through it
  • (C) radius of solenoid
  • (D) material of core of the solenoid

Correct Answer: (B) direction of the current flowing through it

Solution:

The strength of a solenoid's magnetic field depends on:

  • Number of turns: More turns create a stronger field.
  • Radius: A smaller radius increases field strength.
  • Core material: A ferromagnetic core enhances the field.

The direction of current determines the direction of the field (using the right-hand rule) but not its strength.

Read more

Magnetic field strength is proportional to current, turns, and core material. Field direction is determined by current direction.


Question 14:

S.I. unit of electrical resistivity is:

  • (A) ohm per metre3
  • (B) ohm per metre2
  • (C) ohm • metre
  • (D) ohm • metre3

Correct Answer: (C) ohm • metre

Solution:

Resistivity formula:

ρ = R × (A / l)

Units:

  • R = ohms (Ω)
  • A = m2
  • l = m

Resulting unit: ρ = Ω • m (ohm-meter).

Read more

Remember: resistivity relates resistance to geometry. Its SI unit is ohm-meter.


Question 15:

The minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of resistance 10 Ω is:

  • (A) 1/50 Ω
  • (B) 1/5 Ω
  • (C) 2 Ω
  • (D) 1 Ω

Correct Answer: (C) 2 Ω

Solution:

For minimum resistance, connect all resistors in parallel:

1 / Req = 1 / R1 + 1 / R2 + ...

For 5 resistors of 10 Ω each:

1 / Req = 5 / 10 = 1 / 2

Req = 2 Ω

Read more

To minimize resistance, connect resistors in parallel. The formula for identical resistors: Req = R / n.




Question 16:

Consider the following statements in the context of the human eye:

  • (a) The diameter of the eyeball is about 2.3 cm.
  • (b) Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil.
  • (c) Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the crystalline lens.
  • (d) While focusing on objects at different distances, the distance between the crystalline lens and the retina is adjusted by ciliary muscles.

The correct statements are:

  • (A) (a) and (b)
  • (B) (a), (b), and (c)
  • (C) (b), (c), and (d)
  • (D) (a), (c), and (d)

Correct Answer: (A) (a) and (b)

Solution:

(a): True. The human eyeball's diameter is approximately 2.3 cm.

(b): True. The iris controls the amount of light entering the eye by adjusting the size of the pupil.

(c): False. Most refraction occurs at the cornea, not the crystalline lens.

(d): False. The distance between the lens and the retina does not change. The ciliary muscles alter the lens's shape for focusing.

Therefore, only statements (a) and (b) are correct.

Read more

Accommodation involves changing the lens shape to focus light, not altering the distance between the lens and the retina.


Question 17:

Assertion (A): The deflection of a compass needle placed near a current-carrying wire decreases when the magnitude of the electric current in the wire increases.

Reason (R): Strength of the magnetic field at a point due to a current-carrying conductor increases with increasing current in the conductor.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Correct Answer: (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Solution:

Assertion (A): False. Deflection of a compass needle increases as the current increases because a stronger magnetic field is produced.

Reason (R): True. The strength of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor is directly proportional to the current's magnitude.

Read more

Magnetic field strength increases with current. Stronger magnetic fields cause greater deflection of a compass needle.


Question 18:

Assertion (A): Human females have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes.

Reason (R): The sex chromosome contributed by the human male in the zygote decides the sex of a child.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Correct Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Solution:

(A): True. Human females have two identical sex chromosomes (XX).

(R): True. The sex chromosome contributed by the male (X or Y) determines the child's sex. However, this is unrelated to females having a "perfect pair" of sex chromosomes.

Read more

Sex determination in humans depends on the male's contribution (X or Y chromosome).


Question 19:

Assertion (A): A myopic eye cannot see distant objects distinctly.

Reason (R): For the correction of myopia, converging lenses of appropriate power are prescribed by eye surgeons.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Correct Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Solution:

(A): True. Myopia causes light to focus in front of the retina, blurring distant objects.

(R): False. Myopia is corrected using diverging (concave) lenses, not converging lenses.

Read more

Myopia correction involves diverging lenses. Converging lenses correct hyperopia (farsightedness).


Question 20:

Assertion (A): Metals in the middle of the activity series are found in nature as sulphides or carbonates.

Reason (R): The sulphide ores are calcinated, whereas carbonate ores are roasted to extract metals from them.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Correct Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Solution:

(A): True. Moderately reactive metals are often found as sulfides or carbonates in ores.

(R): False. The process described (calcination for carbonate ores and roasting for sulphide ores) does not explain why these metals are found as sulphides or carbonates.

Read more

Understand the processes of calcination and roasting and their role in ore processing.



Question 21 (a):

Define a decomposition reaction. Write an equation to show thermal decomposition of ferrous sulphate crystals.

Solution:

A decomposition reaction is a type of chemical reaction in which a single compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances. This breakdown can occur due to heat (thermal decomposition), light (photodecomposition), or electricity (electrolysis).

The thermal decomposition of ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO4·7H2O) is shown by the equation:

2FeSO4·7H2O(s) → Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g) + 14H2O(g)

Ferrous sulphate heptahydrate (green crystals) decomposes upon heating to produce ferric oxide (reddish-brown solid), sulfur dioxide, sulfur trioxide (gases), and water vapor.

Read more

Decomposition reactions are the opposite of combination reactions. Energy from heat, light, or electricity can break compounds into simpler substances.


Question 21 (b):

What is meant by a balanced chemical equation? Why is it necessary for the equation to be balanced?

Solution:

A balanced chemical equation is a representation of a chemical reaction in which the number of atoms of each element is equal on both sides of the equation. This is achieved by adjusting the coefficients (numbers in front of chemical formulas) without changing the actual chemical formulas of the reactants or products.

Why it is necessary:

  • A balanced equation reflects the Law of Conservation of Mass, which states that matter cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
  • It ensures that the total mass of reactants equals the total mass of products, maintaining the equality of atoms on both sides.
  • Balancing chemical equations is essential for accurately predicting the amounts of reactants and products involved in a reaction.
Read more

Balancing chemical equations ensures compliance with the Law of Conservation of Mass. Adjust coefficients (not subscripts) to balance atoms on both sides.



Question 22:

Two test tubes A and B are taken, each containing one mL of starch solution. Add 1 mL of saliva to test tube 'A' only and leave both the test tubes undisturbed for a few minutes. Now add a few drops of dilute iodine solution to both the test tubes.

(a) Test tube B will show a color change. Iodine solution turns blue-black in the presence of starch.

(b) Saliva contains the enzyme amylase, which breaks down starch into simpler sugars. In test tube A, the amylase in the saliva digests the starch. Therefore, when iodine is added, there is no starch left to react with, and no color change occurs. Test tube B, which did not receive saliva, still contains starch, and thus turns blue-black when iodine is added. This demonstrates the digestive action of saliva on starch.

Read more

Iodine is a common indicator for starch. The blue-black color change is a positive test for the presence of starch.


Question 23:

Name two types of germ cells present in human beings. List two structural differences between the two.

Solution:

The two types of germ cells (also known as gametes or sex cells) in human beings are:

  • Sperm cells (spermatozoa): Male germ cells.
  • Egg cells (ova): Female germ cells.

Two structural differences between sperm and egg cells:

  • Size: Egg cells are significantly larger than sperm cells. The egg cell is one of the largest cells in the human body, while sperm cells are tiny and motile.
  • Motility: Sperm cells are motile; they have a flagellum (tail) that allows them to swim. Egg cells are non-motile and are transported by cilia and muscle contractions in the female reproductive tract.
Read more

Germ cells are haploid (contain half the number of chromosomes as somatic cells). Their specialized structures reflect their roles in sexual reproduction.



Question 24 (a):

State two laws of refraction of light.

The two laws of refraction of light are:

  1. The incident ray, the refracted ray, and the normal to the interface at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
  2. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is constant for a given pair of media. This constant is known as the refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first. (Snell's Law: sin i / sin r = μ)
Read more

Remember Snell's Law and the coplanarity of the rays and normal in refraction.


OR

Question 24 (b):

Define the term absolute refractive index of a medium. A ray of light enters from vacuum to glass of absolute refractive index 1.5. Find the speed of light in glass. The speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 m/s.

The absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in that medium.

μ = c / v

Where:

  • μ is the absolute refractive index
  • c is the speed of light in vacuum (3 × 108 m/s)
  • v is the speed of light in the medium

Given that the absolute refractive index of glass is 1.5, we can find the speed of light in glass:

1.5 = (3 × 108) / v

v = (3 × 108) / 1.5 = 2 × 108 m/s

Therefore, the speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s.

Read more

The absolute refractive index is the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to its speed in the medium. A higher refractive index means a slower speed of light in the medium.



Question 25:

Use Ohm's law to determine the potential difference across the 3 Ω resistor in the circuit shown in the following diagram when key is closed:

Circuit Diagram

Solution:

Given:

Resistances in series:
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 = 1 Ω + 2 Ω + 3 Ω = 6 Ω

Current through the circuit:
I = V / R = 2 V / 6 Ω = 1/3 A

Potential difference across the 3 Ω resistor:
V = I × R = (1/3 A) × 3 Ω = 1 V

Read more

Remember to find the equivalent resistance for parallel and series combinations before applying Ohm's law.


Question 26:

Name the term used for the materials which cannot be broken down by biological processes. Give two ways by which they harm various components of an ecosystem.

The term used for materials that cannot be broken down by biological processes is non-biodegradable or persistent materials.

Two ways non-biodegradable materials harm various components of an ecosystem are:

  1. Pollution: Non-biodegradable substances accumulate in the environment, causing pollution of soil, water, and air. This can harm organisms directly (e.g., plastic ingestion by marine animals) or indirectly by affecting the quality of their habitat.
  2. Disruption of Food Chains: Non-biodegradable materials can enter the food chain, accumulating in organisms at higher trophic levels through biomagnification. This can lead to toxicity and disruption of food webs.
Read more

Non-biodegradable materials persist in the environment, causing pollution and disrupting ecosystems.



Question 27 (a):

Give reasons for the following:

  1. Alveoli in lungs are richly supplied with blood capillaries.
  2. Respiratory pigment in the blood takes up oxygen and not carbon dioxide.
  3. During anaerobic respiration, a 3-carbon molecule is formed as an end product instead of CO2 in human beings.

Solution:

  1. Alveoli are richly supplied with blood capillaries to facilitate efficient gas exchange. The extensive capillary network maximizes the surface area for the diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli into the blood and carbon dioxide from the blood into the alveoli. A large surface area and short diffusion distance enable rapid gas exchange.
  2. Respiratory pigment (hemoglobin) in human blood has a much higher affinity for oxygen than for carbon dioxide. Hemoglobin readily binds oxygen in the lungs (where oxygen partial pressure is high) and releases it in the tissues (where oxygen partial pressure is low). While hemoglobin does carry some carbon dioxide, its primary role is oxygen transport.
  3. During anaerobic respiration (in the absence of oxygen), pyruvate (a 3-carbon molecule) is converted to lactic acid in human muscle cells. This is an alternative metabolic pathway to aerobic respiration, where pyruvate is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide in the presence of oxygen. Lactic acid buildup causes muscle fatigue.
Read more

Efficient gas exchange requires a large surface area and short diffusion distance. Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen is crucial for oxygen transport. Anaerobic respiration produces lactic acid.


OR

Question 27 (b):

(i) Name the movements that occur all along the gut in the human digestive system. How do they help in digestion?

(ii) Where is bile juice stored in the human body? List two roles of bile juice.

Solution:

  1. Movements in the gut: The movements that occur all along the gut in the human digestive system are called peristalsis. Peristalsis involves rhythmic contractions and relaxations of the smooth muscles in the walls of the digestive tract, propelling food through the gut.
    • Mixing: The churning action mixes food with digestive enzymes, ensuring efficient digestion.
    • Movement: Peristalsis moves food through the digestive tract, allowing it to be processed in each section.
  2. Storage of bile juice: Bile juice is stored in the gallbladder.
    • Emulsification of fats: Bile salts break down large fat globules into smaller droplets, increasing the surface area available for the action of lipases (fat-digesting enzymes).
    • Absorption of fat-soluble vitamins: Bile helps in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) in the small intestine.
Read more

Peristalsis moves food through the digestive tract. Bile emulsifies fats and aids in fat-soluble vitamin absorption.



Question 28:

(a) In angiosperms, why fertilisation cannot take place in flowers if pollination does not take place? Where is the zygote located in a flower after fertilisation? What does it develop into?

Solution:

Fertilisation in angiosperms is highly dependent on pollination. Pollination involves the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower. If pollination does not occur, the male gametes (sperm cells) cannot reach the ovules to fuse with the female gametes (egg cells), making fertilisation impossible.

After fertilisation, the zygote is located inside the ovule within the ovary. The zygote undergoes multiple cell divisions to form an embryo. Over time, the ovule develops into a seed, and the ovary matures into a fruit.

Additional Information: Angiosperms exhibit two types of pollination: self-pollination and cross-pollination. Cross-pollination often involves external agents such as wind, water, or pollinators like bees. Successful fertilisation triggers post-fertilisation changes, including seed and fruit formation.


(b) Write the names of those parts of a flower which serve the same function as the following do in animals:

  1. Testis
  2. Ovary

Solution:

The anther produces pollen grains, which contain the male gametes (sperm cells), similar to how testes produce sperm in animals.

The ovary in a flower contains ovules, which are fertilised by male gametes to form seeds. This is similar to the function of the ovary in animals, which produces eggs.

  1. Testis: Anther
  2. Ovary: Ovary
Read more

In angiosperms, successful reproduction requires pollination followed by fertilisation. The ovule's transformation into a seed and the ovary's maturation into a fruit are crucial post-fertilisation events. Understanding floral anatomy helps in relating plant reproductive structures to those in animals.



Question 29:

(a) State any two observations when an electric current is passed through acidulated water, in a container having each electrode covered by test tubes filled with water.

Solution:

When an electric current is passed through acidulated water:

  1. Gas bubbles are observed at both electrodes.
  2. The volume of gas collected at the cathode (hydrogen gas) is approximately twice that at the anode (oxygen gas).

Additional Information: This process is called electrolysis. Acidulated water (water with dilute sulfuric acid) is used to enhance conductivity. At the cathode, hydrogen ions gain electrons to form hydrogen gas. At the anode, hydroxide or oxygen ions lose electrons to form oxygen gas.


(b) Write the ratio of the mass of the gas collected at the cathode to the mass of the gas collected at the anode.

The ratio of the mass of gas collected at the cathode to the mass of the gas collected at the anode is approximately 1:8. This is based on the molar masses of hydrogen (2 g/mol) and oxygen (32 g/mol), with hydrogen gas being lighter.

Read more

During the electrolysis of water, the stoichiometric ratio of gases produced is based on the reaction: $2H_2O \rightarrow 2H_2 + O_2$. This means twice the volume of hydrogen is produced compared to oxygen, but their mass ratio is 1:8.



Question 30:

Draw a labelled diagram to show electrolytic refining of copper. State what happens when electric current is passed through the electrolyte taken in this case.

Solution:

Diagram:

Electrolytic Refining of Copper

Key Components:

  • Anode: Impure copper rod.
  • Cathode: Thin sheet of pure copper.
  • Electrolyte: Copper(II) sulfate solution (CuSO4(aq)).
  • Power Source: A direct current (DC) power source.

Process:

When a DC current passes through the electrolyte:

  • At the anode (impure copper): Copper atoms lose electrons and enter the solution as Cu2+ ions: Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + 2e-.
  • At the cathode (pure copper): Cu2+ ions gain electrons and deposit as pure copper: Cu2+(aq) + 2e- → Cu(s).
  • Impurities settle as anode mud or dissolve into the solution depending on their reactivity.

Question 31:

(A) An object is placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm. If the distance of the object from the pole of the mirror is 8 cm, then use the mirror formula to determine the position of the image formed. Draw a labelled ray diagram to justify your answer.

Solution:

The mirror formula is:

1/f = 1/v + 1/u

  • f: -12 cm (concave mirror).
  • u: -8 cm (object distance).

Substituting values:

1/(-12) = 1/v + 1/(-8)

1/v = -1/12 + 1/8

1/v = (−2 + 3)/24 = 1/24

v = 24 cm.

The image is real, inverted, magnified, and formed 24 cm on the same side as the object.

Labelled Ray Diagram:

Concave Mirror Ray Diagram

(B) (i) The image of an object formed by a mirror is real, inverted, and is of magnification -1. If the image is at a distance of 30 cm from the mirror, where is the object placed? Give reason to justify your answer.

Solution:

Magnification (m) = -1:

m = -v/u

Substitute values:

-1 = -30/u

u = -30 cm.

The object is placed 30 cm from the mirror. Magnification -1 indicates equal distances for object and image, confirming the object is at 2F.

(ii) Where would the image be if the object is moved 15 cm towards the mirror? Draw a ray diagram for the new position of the object to justify your answer.

Solution:

New object distance: u' = -30 + 15 = -15 cm.

Using the mirror formula:

1/f = 1/v' + 1/u'

1/(-30) = 1/v' + 1/(-15)

1/v' = -1/30 + 2/30 = 1/30

v' = 30 cm.

The new image is real, inverted, and of the same size as the object. It forms 30 cm from the mirror.

Labelled Ray Diagram:

New Position Ray Diagram


Question 32:

(a) State Fleming's left-hand rule. Apply this rule to determine the direction of force experienced by a straight current-carrying conductor AB placed in a uniform magnetic field as shown.

Current-carrying conductor AB in a magnetic field

Solution:

Fleming's Left-Hand Rule:

If you stretch the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger of your left hand such that they are mutually perpendicular, then:

  • The forefinger points in the direction of the magnetic field.
  • The middle finger points in the direction of the current.
  • The thumb points in the direction of the force experienced by the conductor.

Application to the Given Scenario:

  • The magnetic field is directed to the right (horizontal direction).
  • The current flows vertically upwards through the conductor AB.

Using Fleming's left-hand rule, the thumb will point out of the plane of the paper. Hence, the force experienced by the conductor AB is directed outwards, perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the current.

Read more

Fleming's Left-Hand Rule is a fundamental concept used to determine the direction of force in a motor effect. Always align the fingers properly for accurate results.


(b) What will happen to an electron which enters in the same field in the same direction in which the current is flowing in the conductor AB? Give reason to justify your answer.

Solution:

When an electron enters the magnetic field in the same direction as the current flowing through conductor AB, it experiences a force due to the interaction between its motion and the magnetic field. According to the concept of Lorentz force:

F = q(v × B)

Where:

  • q is the charge of the particle (negative for an electron).
  • v is the velocity of the electron.
  • B is the magnetic field.

Explanation:

For an electron, the force direction will be opposite to the force experienced by a positive charge (like the current in the conductor). Since the current in AB flows upwards and the magnetic field is directed horizontally, the electron will experience a force directed into the plane of the paper (opposite to the force experienced by the conductor).

Reason: The force direction is determined by Fleming's left-hand rule. As the electron moves opposite to the conventional current, it experiences a force that is opposite to the force on the conductor. This causes the electron to deviate into the plane of the paper.

Read more

Remember, electrons experience a force opposite to conventional current in a magnetic field due to their negative charge. Use Lorentz force and Fleming's left-hand rule for direction determination.



Question 33:

Use of pesticides to protect our crops affect organisms at various trophic levels especially human beings. Name the phenomenon involved and explain how does it happen.

Solution:

The phenomenon involved is biomagnification (or biological magnification).

Biomagnification refers to the increasing concentration of a substance (like a pesticide) in organisms at successively higher trophic levels of a food chain. It happens because:

  1. Pesticides in the Environment: Pesticides applied to crops can enter the environment through runoff, spray drift, etc.
  2. Organisms at Lower Trophic Levels: Organisms at lower trophic levels (e.g., plants, primary consumers) absorb the pesticides from the environment. The concentration of the pesticide in these organisms may be relatively low.
  3. Bioaccumulation: Organisms tend to accumulate pesticides in their tissues because they don't easily metabolize or excrete them.
  4. Higher Trophic Levels: When an organism at a higher trophic level consumes multiple organisms from a lower trophic level, the accumulated pesticide concentration in the predator is amplified, leading to a higher concentration than in the prey. This process repeats at each trophic level.
  5. Impact on Humans: Humans, being at a high trophic level in many food chains, are particularly vulnerable to the effects of biomagnification. High concentrations of pesticides in the human body can lead to various health problems.
Read more

Biomagnification is the increasing concentration of toxins at higher trophic levels. Minimize pesticide use to protect ecosystems and human health.



Question 34 (a):

Upper half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of an image of an object placed at a distance of 2F from such a lens. Mention the position and nature of the image formed. State the observable difference in the image obtained if the lens is uncovered. Give reason to justify your answer.

Solution:

Ray diagram for a half-covered convex lens

Image Characteristics (Half-Covered Lens):

  • Position: At 2F on the right side of the lens (same as the uncovered lens).
  • Nature: Real, inverted, and of the same size as the object. The image will be slightly dimmer due to half the lens being covered. The brightness will be half of the image formed by the full lens.

Difference with Uncovered Lens: If the lens is uncovered, the image will be brighter and sharper because all parts of the lens contribute to image formation.

Reason: When only the lower half of the lens is used, the rays from the top half of the object are blocked. However, sufficient rays from the bottom half of the object still refract through the lens to form a complete image. The intensity will be slightly less because fewer rays contribute, but the image's location and characteristics remain the same. This demonstrates that even when part of the lens is obscured, image formation is still possible, provided a significant portion of the lens remains functional. With a full lens, more light contributes to the image resulting in a brighter, sharper image.

Read more

Even with half a lens, an image forms, though dimmer. The full lens produces a brighter, sharper image.


Question 34 (b):

An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the optical center of a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Use the lens formula to determine the distance of the image from the optical center of the lens.

Solution:

The lens formula is:

1 v - 1 u = 1 f

where:

  • u = -30 \, \text{cm} (negative for object on the left side)
  • f = -15 \, \text{cm} (negative for a concave lens)
  • v = ? (image distance to be calculated)

Substituting the values:

1 v - 1 ( -30 ) = 1 ( -15 )

Simplifying:

1 v = - 1 15 - 1 30

1 v = - 3 30 = - 1 10

v = -10 \, \text{cm}

Conclusion: The image is formed at a distance of 10 cm on the same side as the object (negative sign indicates virtual image).

Read more

Remember the sign conventions for lenses: object distances and focal lengths are negative for concave lenses. Negative image distance indicates a virtual image.



Question 35 (a):

(i) Give reason why carbon can neither form C4+ cations nor C4− anions but forms covalent compounds.

(ii) What is homologous series of carbon compounds? Write the molecular formula of any two consecutive members of the homologous series of aldehydes.

(iii) Draw the structure of the molecule of cyclohexane (C6H12).

Solution:

(i)

Carbon has four valence electrons. To achieve a stable octet, it would need to either gain four electrons (forming C4−) or lose four electrons (forming C4+). However:

  • The energy required to remove four electrons is very high, making the formation of C4+ highly unfavorable.
  • Similarly, gaining four electrons would lead to a highly unstable, negatively charged ion due to significant electron-electron repulsion.

Therefore, carbon avoids forming ionic compounds and instead shares its four electrons through covalent bonding, forming stable covalent compounds.

(ii)

A homologous series is a group of organic compounds with the same functional group and similar chemical properties. Members of a homologous series differ by a –CH2 unit in their molecular formula.

For aldehydes (RCHO), two consecutive members are:

  • Methanal (HCHO)
  • Ethanal (CH3CHO)

(iii)

The structure of cyclohexane (C6H12) is a six-membered carbon ring with each carbon atom bonded to two other carbon atoms and two hydrogen atoms.

Structure of Cyclohexane

Read more

Carbon forms covalent bonds due to its high ionization energy and electron-electron repulsion. Homologous series have similar chemical properties and differ by a –CH2 group.


Question 35 (b):

(i) Name a commercially important carbon compound having functional group –OH and write its molecular formula.

(ii) Write chemical equations to show its reaction with:

  1. Sodium metal
  2. Excess concentrated sulfuric acid
  3. Ethanoic acid in the presence of an acid catalyst
  4. Acidified potassium dichromate

Also write the name of the product formed in each case.

Solution:

(i)

A commercially important carbon compound with a –OH functional group is ethanol. Its molecular formula is C2H5OH.

(ii)

Reactions of ethanol:

2C2H5OH(l) + 2Na(s) → 2C2H5ONa(aq) + H2(g)

Product: Sodium ethoxide

C2H5OH(l) → C2H4(g) + H2O(l)

Product: Ethene (dehydration reaction)

C2H5OH(l) + CH3COOH(l) → CH3COOC2H5(l) + H2O(l)

Product: Ethyl ethanoate (an ester)

3C2H5OH(l) + 2K2Cr2O7(aq) + 8H2SO4(aq) → 3CH3COOH(aq) + 2Cr2(SO4)3(aq) + 2K2SO4(aq) + 11H2O(l)

Product: Ethanoic acid

  1. Reaction with sodium metal:
  2. Reaction with excess concentrated sulfuric acid:
  3. Reaction with ethanoic acid in the presence of an acid catalyst (esterification):
  4. Reaction with acidified potassium dichromate (oxidation):
Read more

Ethanol's –OH group allows for various reactions including oxidation, dehydration, and esterification. Always balance chemical equations for clarity.



Question 36 (a):

(i) Distinguish between hormonal co-ordination in plants and animals.

(ii) Which part of the brain is responsible for –

  1. Intelligence
  2. Riding a bicycle
  3. Vomiting
  4. Controlling hunger

(iii) How is brain and spinal cord protected against mechanical injuries?

Solution:

(i) Hormonal Co-ordination: Plants vs. Animals

  • Transport: Plant hormones are transported through vascular tissues (xylem and phloem), while animal hormones travel through the bloodstream.
  • Response Time: Plant responses are slower compared to animals due to different transport mechanisms.
  • Effect: Plant hormones often have broader effects, while animal hormones target specific cells or tissues.

(ii) Brain Regions and Functions:

  • Intelligence: Cerebrum (cerebral cortex) controls higher cognitive functions like memory, learning, and reasoning.
  • Riding a Bicycle: Cerebellum coordinates muscle movements and balance.
  • Vomiting: Medulla oblongata regulates this reflex action.
  • Controlling Hunger: Hypothalamus monitors energy balance and regulates appetite.

(iii) Protection of Brain and Spinal Cord:

  • Bony Encasement: The brain is protected by the cranium, and the spinal cord by the vertebral column.
  • Meninges: Three protective membranes (dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater) cushion the brain and spinal cord.
  • Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF): This fluid acts as a shock absorber and minimizes impact from external forces.
Read more

The brain is divided into regions with specific functions. Multiple layers of protection, including bone and cerebrospinal fluid, safeguard the brain and spinal cord.


Question 36 (b):

(i) What are tropic movements? Give an example of a plant hormone which –

  1. Inhibits growth
  2. Promotes cell division

(ii) Explain the directional movement of a tendril in a pea plant in response to touch. Name the hormone responsible for this movement.

Solution:

(i) Tropic Movements:

Tropic movements are directional growth responses of plants to external stimuli such as light (phototropism), gravity (geotropism), and touch (thigmotropism).

  • Inhibits Growth: Abscisic acid (ABA)
  • Promotes Cell Division: Cytokinins

(ii) Directional Movement of Tendrils:

In response to touch (thigmotropism), cells on the side of the tendril in contact with the support stop growing, while cells on the opposite side elongate. This differential growth causes the tendril to bend and coil around the support. The hormone responsible for this movement is auxin.

Read more

Tropic movements are stimulus-directed growth responses. Auxin plays a crucial role in directional growth like thigmotropism in tendrils.



Question 37:

(a) List two properties of heating elements.

(b) List two properties of electric fuse.

(c) Name the principle on which an electric fuse works. Explain how a fuse wire is capable of saving electrical appliances from getting damaged due to accidentally produced high currents.

Solution:

(a) Two Properties of Heating Elements:

  1. High Resistivity: Heating elements are made of materials with high electrical resistivity to ensure efficient conversion of electrical energy into heat.
  2. High Melting Point: Heating elements must withstand high temperatures without melting or degrading, ensuring durability during operation.

(b) Two Properties of Electric Fuse:

  1. Low Melting Point: The fuse wire has a low melting point, enabling it to melt and break the circuit under high current conditions.
  2. High Conductivity: The fuse wire is made from a material with high conductivity to minimize resistance during normal operation.

(c) Principle and Functioning of an Electric Fuse:

An electric fuse works on the heating effect of electric current. When a high current flows through the fuse wire due to a fault (like a short circuit), the wire heats up. If the current exceeds the fuse's rated capacity, the heat generated is sufficient to melt the wire, breaking the circuit. This action prevents high current from reaching appliances, thus protecting them from damage.

Read more

Heating elements need high resistivity and melting points for efficient and safe operation. Fuses protect circuits by melting when the current exceeds their rating.


OR

The power of an electric heater is 1100 W. If the potential difference between the two terminals of the heater is 220 V, find the current flowing in the circuit. What will happen to an electric fuse of rating 5 A connected in this circuit?

Solution:

We use the formula for power:

P = V × I

Given:

  • P = 1100 W
  • V = 220 V

Calculating the current (I):

I = P / V = 1100 W / 220 V = 5 A

The current flowing in the circuit is 5 A. If a 5 A fuse is connected, it will be at its maximum rating. Any further increase in current will cause the fuse to melt and break the circuit, protecting the heater and other components from damage.

Read more

Use the formula P = VI to calculate current or voltage in power-related problems. Fuses act as safety devices to break the circuit when current exceeds the rated value.



Question 38:

(a) Identify the acid and base from which Sodium chloride is formed.

(b) Find the cation and the anion present in Calcium sulphate.

(c) “Sodium chloride and washing soda both belong to the same family of salts.” Justify this statement.

Solution:

(a) Acid and Base for Sodium Chloride Formation:

Sodium chloride (NaCl) is formed from the reaction of:

  • Acid: Hydrochloric acid (HCl)
  • Base: Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)

Reaction: HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O

(b) Cation and Anion in Calcium Sulphate:

The cation in calcium sulphate (CaSO4) is calcium (Ca2+), and the anion is sulphate (SO42−).

(c) Justification for Sodium Chloride and Washing Soda:

Sodium chloride (NaCl) and washing soda (Na2CO3) belong to the same family of salts because both contain the same cation, sodium (Na+). This classification is based on the common cation present in their chemical structure.

Read more

Salts are classified based on their common cation or anion. Sodium salts like NaCl and Na2CO3 share the Na+ cation.


Question 39:

Asexual reproduction involves a single parent to produce offspring without the formation of gametes. It occurs by methods such as fission, budding, fragmentation, spore formation, and regeneration.

(a) Which of the cut pieces of the two Planaria could regenerate to form a complete organism?

(b) Give an example of another organism which follows the same mode of reproduction as Planaria.

(c) What is the meaning of ‘development’ in regeneration?

Solution:

(a) Regeneration in Cut Pieces of Planaria:

In Planaria A, all three pieces (L, M, and N) can regenerate into complete organisms. In Planaria B, both halves (O and P) can regenerate into complete organisms. Planaria have a remarkable capacity for regeneration due to their pluripotent stem cells.

(b) Example of Another Organism:

Another organism that exhibits regeneration is the starfish. A severed arm with part of the central disc can regenerate into a complete starfish. Hydra also shows similar regeneration capabilities.

(c) Development in Regeneration:

'Development' in regeneration refers to the process where the lost body part is regrown through cell proliferation, differentiation, and tissue reorganization. This involves the formation of a fully functional organ or body structure.

Read more

Regeneration restores lost body parts, while development ensures the reformed parts are functional. Organisms like Planaria and starfish are excellent examples of regenerative abilities.


(c) Differentiate between Regeneration and Fragmentation:

Regeneration Fragmentation
Regeneration involves regrowing lost body parts and is primarily a repair mechanism. Fragmentation is a mode of reproduction where the organism breaks into parts, and each part develops into a new organism.
Seen in complex organisms like lizards and starfish. Seen in simpler organisms like spirogyra and planaria.
May not lead to the creation of new individuals. Always leads to the formation of new individuals.
Read more

Regeneration focuses on repairing lost body parts, while fragmentation is strictly a reproductive process.



*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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