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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Feb 10, 2026

CBSE 2025 Class 10th Board Social Science exam was held on February 25, 2025. The CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam is worth 80 marks, with an extra 20 Marks for internal assessment. The question paper contains MCQs, short and long answers that test students' knowledge.

The CBSE Class 10th Social Science Examination question paper and solution PDF is available for download here.

CBSE Class 10 2025 Social Science Question Paper (Set 2 - 32/3/2) With Solutions PDF

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper With Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions
CBSE Class 10 2025 Social Science Question Paper with Solution Set 2 32 3 2


Question 1:

By which organization is the Human Development Report published ?

  • (A) World Trade Organisation
  • (B) Amnesty International
  • (C) United Nations Development Programme
  • (D) World Health Organisation
Correct Answer: (C) United Nations Development Programme
View Solution




The Human Development Report (HDR) is an annual publication by the Human Development Report Office of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).


The first HDR was launched in 1990.


It measures human development based on indicators like life expectancy, education, and per capita income, which are combined into the Human Development Index (HDI).


The other organizations listed have different mandates: the WTO deals with trade rules, Amnesty International with human rights, and the WHO with international public health.


Therefore, the correct organization is the United Nations Development Programme.
Quick Tip: Remember that the Human Development Index (HDI), a key part of the Human Development Report, considers three main dimensions: a long and healthy life, knowledge (education), and a decent standard of living (Gross National Income per capita).


Question 2:

Identify the odd one out.

  • (A) Hindustan Computers Limited
  • (B) Bharti Airtel Limited
  • (C) Hindustan Unilever Limited
  • (D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
Correct Answer: (D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
View Solution




The question requires identifying the company that is different from the others based on a common characteristic.


Hindustan Computers Limited (HCL), Bharti Airtel Limited, and Hindustan Unilever Limited are all private sector companies.


They are owned by private individuals or shareholders and not by the government.


Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), however, is a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU).


It is an enterprise owned and controlled by the Government of India.


Thus, BHEL is the odd one out as it is a public sector entity while the others are private.
Quick Tip: To solve "odd one out" questions involving companies or industries, categorize them based on ownership (public vs. private), industry type (e.g., IT, telecom, manufacturing), or origin (Indian vs. multinational).


Question 3:

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank :

The process of removing barriers on foreign trade and investment by the government is known as __________.

  • (A) Import Tax
  • (B) Export Tax
  • (C) Liberalisation
  • (D) Industrialisation
Correct Answer: (C) Liberalisation
View Solution




The statement describes the removal of government-imposed restrictions on foreign trade and investment.


Import Tax and Export Tax are themselves types of trade barriers, not the process of removing them.


Industrialisation is the process of societal development from an agrarian economy to a manufacturing-based one.


Liberalisation is the economic policy of loosening government regulations and restrictions, especially in trade and capital markets.


This directly matches the definition given in the question.
Quick Tip: Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation (LPG) are the three pillars of the New Economic Policy introduced in India in 1991. Liberalisation specifically deals with reducing government controls to open up the economy.


Question 4:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A): Most of the jute industry in India is located in a narrow belt along the banks of Hugli river.

Reason (R) : India is the second largest exporter of jute.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution




First, we evaluate Assertion (A). The assertion that most jute mills are located along the Hugli river is factually correct due to factors like proximity to raw jute areas, water for processing, and transport infrastructure.


Second, we evaluate Reason (R). India is the world's largest producer of jute and a major exporter, often second to Bangladesh. So, the statement is factually true.


Third, we check if (R) explains (A). The geographical concentration of the jute industry (A) is due to locational advantages, not India's rank as an exporter (R).


Being a top exporter is a consequence of high production, which is facilitated by these locational advantages. It does not cause the location.


Therefore, both statements are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
Quick Tip: For Assertion-Reason questions, follow a three-step process: 1. Check if the Assertion is true. 2. Check if the Reason is true. 3. If both are true, check if the Reason correctly explains the Assertion by asking "Why?" after the Assertion. Does the Reason provide the answer?


Question 5:

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :


  • (A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  • (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  • (C) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  • (D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Correct Answer: (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
View Solution




We need to match the protected areas in Column I with their respective states in Column II.


a. Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Rajasthan. Thus, a matches with ii.


b. Manas Tiger Reserve is located in Assam. Thus, b matches with iii.


c. Periyar Tiger Reserve is located in Kerala. Thus, c matches with iv.


d. Corbett National Park is located in Uttarakhand. Thus, d matches with i.


The correct sequence of matches is a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, and d-i, which corresponds to option (B).
Quick Tip: When studying Geography, use maps to locate important National Parks, Tiger Reserves, and Wildlife Sanctuaries. Visual association makes it much easier to remember their respective states.


Question 6:

Mrs. Monica, along with her family, clears a piece of land and grows grain and other food crops to feed her family. When the soil's fertility decreases, she prepares another piece of land for agriculture. Which of the following methods of agriculture does she use ?

  • (A) Plantation farming
  • (B) Slash and burn farming
  • (C) Intensive subsistence farming
  • (D) Commercial farming
Correct Answer: (B) Slash and burn farming
View Solution




The description provided is that of a farmer clearing land, cultivating it until fertility declines, and then moving to a new plot.


This method of cultivation is known as shifting cultivation.


'Slash and burn farming' is the specific term for the process where vegetation is cut down and burned to clear the land for farming.


This is a key characteristic of shifting cultivation, practiced for subsistence.


Plantation, intensive subsistence, and commercial farming all involve cultivation on a permanent plot of land, which contradicts the description.


Therefore, the correct method is slash and burn farming.
Quick Tip: Slash and burn agriculture is also known by various local names, such as 'Jhum' in Northeast India, 'Milpa' in Central America, and 'Ladang' in Indonesia. Knowing these names can be helpful.


Question 7:

The germs of which disease paved the way for Europe's conquest of America in the later half of the sixteenth century ?

  • (A) Cholera
  • (B) Smallpox
  • (C) Jaundice
  • (D) Malaria
Correct Answer: (B) Smallpox
View Solution




The question asks about the disease that facilitated the European conquest of the Americas.


When Europeans arrived in the Americas, they brought with them diseases to which the native populations had no immunity.


Smallpox was the most devastating of these diseases.


It caused widespread epidemics that killed a vast majority of the indigenous population, weakening their societies and their ability to resist conquest.


This biological warfare, though unintentional, was a major factor in the Spanish conquest of the Aztec and Inca empires.


Therefore, Smallpox is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: This event is a key example of the "Columbian Exchange," which refers to the widespread transfer of plants, animals, culture, human populations, technology, diseases, and ideas between the Americas, West Africa, and the Old World in the 15th and 16th centuries.


Question 8:

In reference to the Germania allegory the "olive branch around the sword" symbolizes which one of the following ?

  • (A) Being freed
  • (B) Heroism and strength
  • (C) Willingness to make peace
  • (D) Beginning of a new era
Correct Answer: (C) Willingness to make peace
View Solution




The allegory of Germania was a personification of the German nation.


In this imagery, different objects hold symbolic meanings.


The sword itself symbolizes readiness to fight and defend the German empire.


The olive branch is a classical and universally recognized symbol of peace.


Combining the two, an olive branch around the sword, represents the idea of being willing to make peace, but also being prepared for conflict.


It symbolizes peace-making desire backed by military strength.


Therefore, the correct symbolism is 'Willingness to make peace'.
Quick Tip: Familiarize yourself with the key symbols used in 19th-century allegories like Germania and Marianne. For example, the broken chains symbolize 'being freed', and the crown of oak leaves stands for 'heroism'.


Question 9:

Which among the following newspapers is related to Bal Gangadhar Tilak ?

  • (A) Hindustan
  • (B) Bangla Patrika
  • (C) Veer Bhoomi
  • (D) Kesari
Correct Answer: (D) Kesari
View Solution




The question asks to identify the newspaper associated with the freedom fighter Bal Gangadhar Tilak.


Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement.


He started two newspapers to propagate nationalist ideas among the people.


One was 'Mahratta' in English, and the other was 'Kesari' in Marathi.


'Kesari' became extremely popular and was a powerful tool in the nationalist struggle.


Therefore, Kesari is the newspaper related to Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Quick Tip: Associate prominent freedom fighters with their newspapers and famous slogans. For example, Mahatma Gandhi is associated with 'Young India' and 'Harijan', and Tilak is famous for the slogan, "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it!"


Question 10:

Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option :

I. Bardoli Satyagraha

II. Rowlatt Satyagraha

III. Champaran Satyagraha

IV. Kheda Satyagraha

  • (A) I, II, III, IV
  • (B) III, II, I, IV
  • (C) II, I, IV, III
  • (D) III, IV, II, I
Correct Answer: (D) III, IV, II, I
View Solution




To answer this question, we must know the years in which these events occurred.


III. Champaran Satyagraha took place in 1917.


IV. Kheda Satyagraha took place in 1918.


II. Rowlatt Satyagraha was launched in 1919.


I. Bardoli Satyagraha was launched in 1928.


Arranging these events in chronological (time) order, we get: Champaran (III), then Kheda (IV), then Rowlatt (II), and finally Bardoli (I).


The correct sequence is III, IV, II, I.


This corresponds to option (D).
Quick Tip: Creating a timeline of key events in the Indian National Movement is an effective study strategy. Pay special attention to the early satyagrahas led by Mahatma Gandhi after his return to India.


Question 11:

Why is it not easy to get loans from the formal sector ? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option :

I. Availability of Banks

II. Availability of Collateral

III. Long and Complicated Loan Process

IV. Awareness of Borrower

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
View Solution




The question asks for the reasons that make it difficult to obtain loans from the formal sector, such as banks.


II. Availability of Collateral: Formal lenders require collateral (an asset like land, building, vehicle) as security against the loan, which many poor people lack. This is a major barrier.


III. Long and Complicated Loan Process: Formal sector loans often involve extensive documentation and a lengthy, complex procedure, which can be daunting for many borrowers, especially those with low literacy.


IV. Awareness of Borrower: Many potential borrowers, particularly in rural areas, may not be fully aware of the loan facilities available from banks or the procedures to access them.


I. Availability of Banks: While the physical presence of banks has increased, the other factors (II, III, IV) are the primary difficulties encountered during the process of trying to get a loan. The question is about the difficulty of the process itself.


Therefore, the combination of needing collateral, a complicated process, and lack of awareness are the most significant reasons why formal sector loans are not easily accessible to all.
Quick Tip: The formal financial sector includes banks and cooperatives, while the informal sector includes moneylenders, traders, and relatives. Informal loans are easier to get but have much higher interest rates and can lead to debt traps.


Question 12:

Identify the sector on basis of the following characteristics and choose the correct option :
\(\bullet\) The objective of this sector is to earn profit.
\(\bullet\) This sector is owned by a person or company.
\(\bullet\) Tata Iron and Steel is a example of this sector.

  • (A) Cooperative Sector
  • (B) Unorganised Sector
  • (C) Public Sector
  • (D) Private Sector
Correct Answer: (D) Private Sector
View Solution




Let's analyze the given characteristics.


The primary objective is to earn profit. This is the main motive of private enterprises.


Ownership is in the hands of a private individual or a company, not the government.


Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) is given as an example, which is a well-known private limited company.


The Public Sector is owned by the government (e.g., BHEL, SAIL).


The Cooperative Sector is owned and operated by a group of individuals for their mutual benefit (e.g., Amul).


The Unorganised Sector is characterized by small, scattered units with no job security or rules.


The given characteristics perfectly describe the Private Sector.
Quick Tip: Sectors of the economy can be classified based on ownership: Public Sector (government-owned) and Private Sector (privately-owned). The Joint Sector involves a partnership between the government and private companies.


Question 13:

Data related to an imaginary country is given below. Study these data and answer the question that follows :






The attendance percentage of this country of the age group of 14 and 15 years is ______.

  • (A) 90 percent
  • (B) 80 percent
  • (C) 70 percent
  • (D) 60 percent
Correct Answer: (B) 80 percent
View Solution




The question asks for the attendance percentage for the specific age group of 14 and 15 years.


From the table, we identify the data for the age group '14 and 15 years of age'.


Total Population in this age group = 1000.


Net Attendance in this age group = 800.


The attendance percentage is calculated using the formula: (Net Attendance / Total Population) \(\times\) 100.


Percentage = (800 / 1000) \(\times\) 100.


Percentage = 0.8 \(\times\) 100 = 80%.


Therefore, the attendance percentage for the 14 and 15 years age group is 80 percent.
Quick Tip: Net Attendance Ratio is a crucial indicator for assessing the educational status of a country. It represents the percentage of children of a specific age group attending school to the total number of children in the same age group.


Question 14:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option :

Assertion (A): Every party in India has to register with the Election Commission.

Reason (R) : The Government provides election symbols to all political parties in India.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
View Solution




First, let's evaluate Assertion (A).


Assertion (A) states that every political party in India must register with the Election Commission. This is a mandatory legal requirement for a political formation to be recognized as a party. So, (A) is true.


Next, let's evaluate Reason (R).


Reason (R) states that the Government provides election symbols. This is incorrect. The Election Commission of India, which is an autonomous constitutional body, allots election symbols to political parties, not the Government.


Since the Assertion (A) is true and the Reason (R) is false, the correct option is (C).
Quick Tip: It's crucial to distinguish between the 'Government' and other constitutional bodies like the 'Election Commission' or the 'Judiciary'. The Election Commission is independent of the government to ensure free and fair elections.


Question 15:

Which of the following group is in majority in Sri Lanka ?

  • (A) Tamil-speakers
  • (B) Sinhala-speakers
  • (C) Telugu-speakers
  • (D) English-speakers
Correct Answer: (B) Sinhala-speakers
View Solution




The social composition of Sri Lanka is diverse.


The major social group is the Sinhala-speakers, who constitute about 74 percent of the population.


The Tamil-speakers are the largest minority, comprising about 18 percent of the population. They are further divided into 'Sri Lankan Tamils' and 'Indian Tamils'.


Telugu-speakers and English-speakers form very small minorities.


Therefore, the Sinhala-speakers are the majority group in Sri Lanka.
Quick Tip: The dominance of the Sinhala community and the state's policies favouring them (Majoritarianism) after independence led to a feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils and was a major cause of the civil war in the country.


Question 16:

To reform the party system, which of the following tasks have been made compulsory for the political parties ? Choose the most appropriate option.

I. It is now compulsory for all the political parties to file income tax returns.

II. It is now compulsory for all parties to have one-third women candidates.

III. It is now compulsory for all the political parties to hold their organisational election.

IV. It is now compulsory for all candidates to disclose information about pending criminal cases against them through affidavit.

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only II, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
View Solution




Let's examine each statement regarding reforms for political parties.


I. Filing income tax returns has been made compulsory for all political parties to ensure financial transparency. This is true.


II. Making it compulsory to have one-third women candidates is a provision of the Women's Reservation Bill, which has been passed but its implementation is pending. It is not yet a compulsory rule for parties in every election. So, this is false.


III. It has been made mandatory for political parties to hold regular organisational elections and maintain a democratic structure. This is true.


IV. A Supreme Court order has made it mandatory for every candidate contesting elections to file an affidavit giving details of their assets and any pending criminal cases. This is true.


Thus, statements I, III, and IV are correct reforms that have been implemented.
Quick Tip: Reforms in political parties aim to curb the challenges of lack of internal democracy, dynastic succession, and the growing role of money and muscle power. Key reforms include the Anti-Defection Law and the mandatory filing of affidavits by candidates.


Question 17:

Which of the following statements represent gender equality ?

  • (A) The value of women's vote is more than that of men.
  • (B) Restricting women to household chores.
  • (C) Providing more rights to men.
  • (D) Providing voting rights equally to men and women.
Correct Answer: (D) Providing voting rights equally to men and women.
View Solution




Gender equality means that men and women have equal rights, responsibilities, and opportunities.


Option (A) is unequal, favouring women.


Option (B) is a form of gender stereotyping and restricts women's opportunities, representing inequality.


Option (C) is unequal, favouring men.


Option (D) describes the principle of universal adult suffrage, where every adult citizen, regardless of gender, has one vote, and each vote has one value. This is a fundamental aspect of gender equality in a democracy.


Therefore, providing equal voting rights represents gender equality.
Quick Tip: Gender equality is a key principle of democracy. It is not just about political rights but also about equal access to education, economic opportunities, and social status.


Question 18:

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following :

  • (A) Concurrent List - Education
  • (B) Concurrent List - Defence
  • (C) Concurrent List - Police
  • (D) Concurrent List - Trade
Correct Answer: (A) Concurrent List - Education
View Solution




The Constitution of India divides legislative powers between the Union and State governments into three lists.


(A) Education: Originally a state subject, it was moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. This allows both the central and state governments to legislate on it. This pair is correctly matched.


(B) Defence: This is a subject of national importance and is exclusively under the Union List. So, this is incorrect.


(C) Police: This is a state subject, meaning only state governments can make laws on it. It is under the State List. So, this is incorrect.


(D) Trade: While 'Trade and Commerce' is on the Concurrent List, specific aspects like interstate trade are on the Union list and trade within the state is on the State list, making it ambiguous. However, 'Education' is clearly and entirely on the Concurrent List.


Therefore, the correctly matched pair is (A).
Quick Tip: Remember the main subjects under each list: Union List (Defence, Foreign Affairs, Currency), State List (Police, Agriculture, Public Health), and Concurrent List (Education, Forests, Marriage).


Question 19:

In which one of the following organs of India are women taking advantage of reservation ?

  • (A) Municipality
  • (B) Legislative Council
  • (C) Rajya Sabha
  • (D) Judiciary
Correct Answer: (A) Municipality
View Solution




The question asks where women's reservation is currently implemented in India.


The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992 mandated reservation for women in local self-government bodies.


This means that at least one-third of the seats and chairperson posts in Panchayats and Municipalities are reserved for women.


There is currently no reservation for women in the Rajya Sabha, Legislative Councils, or the Judiciary.


Although the Women's Reservation Bill for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies has been passed, its implementation is conditional and not yet in effect.


Therefore, women are taking advantage of reservation in Municipalities.
Quick Tip: The 73rd Amendment pertains to rural local bodies (Panchayats), and the 74th Amendment pertains to urban local bodies (Municipalities). Both were instrumental in ensuring political representation for women at the grassroots level.


Question 20:

Which one of the following languages is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?

  • (A) Bhojpuri
  • (B) Magadhi
  • (C) Rajasthani
  • (D) Tamil
Correct Answer: (D) Tamil
View Solution




The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages of the Republic of India.


Initially, there were 14 languages. Currently, there are 22 scheduled languages.


Tamil is one of the original 14 languages included in the Eighth Schedule and is also recognized as a classical language.


Bhojpuri, Magadhi, and Rajasthani are spoken by large numbers of people, and there are demands for their inclusion, but as of now, they are not listed in the Eighth Schedule.


Therefore, among the given options, only Tamil is included in the Eighth Schedule.
Quick Tip: While you don't need to memorize all 22 languages in the Eighth Schedule, it's helpful to know some of the major ones and recognize that languages like English, Bhojpuri, and Rajasthani are not on the list despite their prevalence.


Question 21(a):

Describe any two features of ‘arid soils'.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Two prominent features of arid soils are:


1. Texture and Colour: Arid soils are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. Their colour ranges from red to brown.


2. Low Humus and High Salt Content: Due to the dry climate and high temperatures, they lack humus and moisture. After proper irrigation, these soils become cultivable. The salt content is very high, and common salt is sometimes obtained by evaporating the water.
Quick Tip: Arid soils are found in regions with low rainfall and high evaporation, such as Western Rajasthan in India. Remember the term 'Kankar' layer in the lower horizons of arid soil, which restricts the infiltration of water.


OR

Question 21(b):

Describe any two features of 'forest soils'.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Two prominent features of forest soils are:


1. Varied Texture: These soils are found in hilly and mountainous areas. The soil texture is loamy and silty in valley sides and coarse-grained in the upper slopes.


2. Acidity and Humus Content: In the snow-covered areas of the Himalayas, these soils experience denudation and are acidic with low humus content. The soil found in the lower parts of the valleys, particularly on the river terraces, is fertile.
Quick Tip: The characteristics of forest soils change significantly depending on the altitude and the mountain environment. Soils in coniferous forest zones tend to be more acidic than those in deciduous forest zones.


Question 22:

Explain the effectiveness of horizontal distribution of power in the context of India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




The horizontal distribution of power in India, which places power among the Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary, is effective in the following ways:


1. System of Checks and Balances: It ensures that no single organ of the government can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others, resulting in a balance of power. For instance, the judiciary can declare laws passed by the legislature unconstitutional.


2. Upholding Democracy: This separation of powers is fundamental to the functioning of a democracy. It prevents the concentration of power and safeguards the rights and liberties of citizens against potential misuse of authority by any single branch of the government.
Quick Tip: Remember the horizontal distribution of power as "Checks and Balances." In contrast, the vertical distribution of power (federalism) involves sharing power between different levels of government (Union, State, Local).


Question 23:

What changes did the Government of India make in its economic policies in the beginning of 1991 ? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




In 1991, facing an economic crisis, the Government of India introduced the New Economic Policy (NEP), which marked a significant shift from its previous policies. The key changes were:


1. Liberalisation: The government removed many barriers to trade and investment. Industrial licensing was abolished for most industries, making it easier for private companies to start and expand their operations.


2. Privatisation: The role of the public sector was reduced. Many public sector undertakings (PSUs) were sold to the private sector to improve efficiency and reduce the financial burden on the government.


3. Globalisation: The Indian economy was opened up to the world. Policies were designed to encourage foreign trade and foreign direct investment (FDI), integrating the Indian economy with the global economy.
Quick Tip: The economic reforms of 1991 are often summarized by the acronym LPG: Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation. This policy shift moved India from a mixed-economy model with significant state control towards a more market-oriented economy.


Question 24:

Mention any two economic impacts of the First World War on India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




The First World War had significant economic impacts on India. Two of them were:


1. Huge Increase in Defence Expenditure: The war led to a massive increase in defence expenditure for the British government. This was financed by war loans and by increasing taxes in India. Custom duties were raised and an income tax was introduced, leading to economic hardship for the common people.


2. Price Rise and Hardship: Prices of goods almost doubled between 1913 and 1918. This led to extreme hardship for the common populace. Furthermore, crop failures in many parts of India created acute food shortages, which were worsened by the influenza epidemic.
Quick Tip: While the war created economic problems for the masses, it also provided a boost to some Indian industries like iron and steel (TISCO) and textiles, as the demand for war supplies increased and imports from Britain declined.


Question 25:

How does democracy establish an accountable, responsible and legitimate governance ? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Democracy establishes accountable, responsible, and legitimate governance through the following mechanisms:


1. Accountable Governance: In a democracy, governments are accountable to the people. Citizens have the right to choose their representatives and, if they are not satisfied with their performance, they can vote them out in the next election. This electoral fear makes rulers accountable.


2. Responsible Governance: A democratic government is expected to be responsible to the needs and expectations of the citizens. It has to formulate policies and make decisions that promote the welfare of the people. Debates, negotiations, and criticism in parliament and media ensure that the government acts responsibly.


3. Legitimate Governance: A democratic government is a legitimate government because it is elected by the people. It is the people's own government and it derives its power and authority from the consent of the governed, which gives it legitimacy to rule.
Quick Tip: These three terms are key outcomes of democracy. Accountable = answerable to the people. Responsible = responsive to people's needs. Legitimate = based on the will of the people.


Question 26:

Describe any three ways of water conservation used in ancient India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Ancient India had sophisticated water conservation and harvesting systems. Three such methods were:


1. Kuls or Guls in the Western Himalayas: In hilly regions like Himachal Pradesh, people built diversion channels called 'guls' or 'kuls'. These channels tapped water from streams and rivers and transported it to villages for irrigation.


2. Johads and Khadins in Rajasthan: In the arid regions of Rajasthan, people built earthen check dams, known as 'johads', to capture and store rainwater. In other parts, 'khadins' were constructed, which were long earthen embankments to store rainwater on agricultural land, allowing the soil to get saturated.


3. Rooftop Rainwater Harvesting: This was a common practice, especially in arid regions. Rainwater falling on the rooftops was collected and stored in underground tanks, known as 'tankas'. This stored water was used for drinking, especially during the dry season.
Quick Tip: Traditional rainwater harvesting methods are still relevant today. They are cost-effective, eco-friendly, and help in recharging groundwater, making them a sustainable solution to water scarcity.


Question 27:

Explain any three functions of money as a medium of exchange.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




The question asks for three functions of money, with a focus on its role as a medium of exchange. The three primary functions of money are:


1. Medium of Exchange: This is the most important function. Money acts as an intermediary in the exchange of goods and services. It eliminates the need for a 'double coincidence of wants' which is a major problem in a barter system. A person can sell their goods for money and then use that money to buy what they need.


2. A Measure of Value (or Unit of Account): Money serves as a common measure of value. The value of all goods and services can be expressed in terms of money (i.e., their price). This makes it easy to compare the values of different things and facilitates economic calculation.


3. A Store of Value: Money can be held and saved for future use. Since it is the most liquid of all assets, it can be easily stored and converted into other goods and services when needed. This allows people to transfer purchasing power from the present to the future.
Quick Tip: The key problem that money solves is the 'double coincidence of wants'. This is a situation in a barter system where two parties each hold an item the other wants, so they can exchange these items directly. Money makes this unnecessary.


Question 28:

How does the Indian Constitution ensure the division of powers between the Union and State Governments ? Explain.

Correct Answer:
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The Indian Constitution ensures a clear division of legislative powers between the Union and State governments through its Seventh Schedule, which contains three lists:


1. Union List: This list includes subjects of national importance, such as defence, foreign affairs, banking, and currency. Only the Union (Central) Government can make laws on these subjects. This ensures uniformity in policy on crucial matters for the nation.


2. State List: This list contains subjects of state and local importance, such as police, trade, agriculture, and irrigation. Only the State Governments can make laws on these subjects. This allows for diversity and local governance.


3. Concurrent List: This list includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and State governments, such as education, forests, and marriage. Both the Union and State governments can make laws on these subjects. However, if their laws conflict, the law made by the Union Government will prevail.
Quick Tip: This three-list system is the cornerstone of Indian federalism. Remember that any subject not mentioned in these three lists (residuary subjects) comes under the legislative power of the Union Government.


Question 29(a):

Analyse the impacts of Gandhi-Irwin pact on the Indian freedom struggle.

Correct Answer:
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The Gandhi-Irwin Pact, signed in March 1931, had the following significant impacts on the freedom struggle:


1. Suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement: As part of the pact, the Indian National Congress agreed to discontinue the Civil Disobedience Movement. This provided a temporary pause in the direct confrontation with the British government.


2. Participation in the Second Round Table Conference: Gandhiji agreed to participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London, representing the Congress. This was significant as the Congress had boycotted the first conference. It marked a shift towards negotiations, although the conference ultimately failed to meet Indian demands.


3. Release of Political Prisoners: The British government agreed to release all political prisoners who were not convicted of violence. This was a major moral victory for the movement and led to the release of thousands of satyagrahis.
Quick Tip: The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was a point of controversy as it did not secure the commutation of the death sentences for Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru, which was a major demand of the youth. It highlighted the difference in strategies within the nationalist movement.


OR

Question 29(b):

Analyse the role of Alluri Sitaram Raju in the Indian National Movement.

Correct Answer:
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Alluri Sitaram Raju played a significant role by leading a tribal uprising against the British in the early 1920s:


1. Leadership of the Gudem Hills Rebellion: Raju led the militant guerrilla movement of tribal peasants in the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh. The rebellion was against the oppressive forest laws of the colonial government, which prevented the tribal people from entering the forests to graze their cattle or collect fuelwood and fruits.


2. Inspired by Gandhian Ideals but Advocated Violence: Raju was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement and persuaded people to wear khadi and give up drinking. However, he believed that India could be liberated only by the use of force, not non-violence. He asserted that a violent struggle was necessary to achieve Swaraj.


3. Symbol of Resistance: The Gudem rebels, under his leadership, attacked police stations and attempted to kill British officials. Raju became a folk hero and a symbol of tribal resistance against colonial oppression. He was eventually captured and executed in 1924.
Quick Tip: The story of Alluri Sitaram Raju illustrates that the Indian National Movement was not a single, monolithic movement. It included various streams and ideologies, from Gandhian non-violence to militant and revolutionary struggles, especially in tribal areas.


Question 30(a):

Explain the measures taken by the colonial government to censor the press in India and analyse their effects on the nationalist movement.

Correct Answer:
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The colonial government took several measures to censor the press in India, especially the vernacular press which was critical of its policies.


Measures for Censorship:


1. The Vernacular Press Act, 1878: This was a major repressive measure. It gave the government extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press. If a vernacular paper published anything deemed 'seditious', the government could confiscate its printing press and paper.


2. Seditious Laws: Laws such as Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code were used to try and imprison nationalist leaders and journalists, like Bal Gangadhar Tilak, for writing articles critical of the government.


Effects on the Nationalist Movement:


1. Stifling of Dissent: These acts aimed to suppress nationalist sentiments and prevent the spread of anti-colonial ideas among the masses. They created an atmosphere of fear for a while.


2. Provoked Nationalist Resistance: However, instead of being suppressed, these repressive measures provoked widespread protests. Nationalist newspapers continued to be published defiantly. The fight for the freedom of the press became an integral part of the larger struggle for Swaraj.
Quick Tip: The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 is a key example of British censorship. It was nicknamed the "gagging act" because it specifically targeted the non-English press, which had a wider reach among the common people.


OR

Question 30(b):

How did the printing press contribute to the emergence of new genres of writing in the 18th century? Explain.

Correct Answer:
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The printing press was instrumental in the emergence and popularization of new literary genres, particularly in 18th century Europe, with its effects being felt in India later.


1. Rise of the Reading Public: The printing press reduced the cost of books and made them accessible to a wider audience beyond the wealthy and clerical elite. This created a new 'reading public' with diverse tastes and demands.


2. Emergence of the Novel: The 18th century is known as the age of the novel. The new readership was interested in stories about the lives, experiences, and emotions of ordinary people. Print allowed novels by authors like Samuel Richardson and Henry Fielding to be circulated widely, establishing the novel as a major literary form.


3. Periodicals and Essays: The growth of print also led to the rise of periodicals, journals, and newspapers. This created a demand for shorter forms of writing like essays and articles, where writers could comment on social, political, and cultural matters of the day, shaping public opinion.
Quick Tip: The printing press didn't just reproduce old texts; it created new possibilities for writing. By creating a large, anonymous market for books, it allowed writers to become independent professionals and experiment with new forms that appealed to the experiences of a broader public.


Question 31(a):

Distinguish between public and private sector of economy with examples.

Correct Answer:
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The public and private sectors can be distinguished on the basis of ownership, motive, and examples:


Public Sector:

\(\bullet\) Ownership: The government owns most of the assets and provides all the services.

\(\bullet\) Motive: The primary motive is not just to earn profits, but public welfare.

\(\bullet\) Examples: Indian Railways, Post Office, Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL).


Private Sector:

\(\bullet\) Ownership: Ownership of assets and delivery of services is in the hands of private individuals or companies.

\(\bullet\) Motive: The primary motive is to earn profit.

\(\bullet\) Examples: Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO), Reliance Industries Limited (RIL), Hindustan Unilever Ltd.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember the difference is to think about who owns the enterprise. If it's the government, it's public. If it's an individual or a group of individuals, it's private.


OR

Question 31(b):

Suppose you are the Sarpanch of your village. What suggestions will you give for creating additional employment in the village, so that the problem of unemployment of the residents of rural areas can be reduced ?

Correct Answer:
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As the Sarpanch of a village, I would suggest the following five measures to create additional employment:


1. Infrastructure Development: Start projects to build and repair village infrastructure like roads, ponds, and canals under schemes like MGNREGA, which provides direct employment.


2. Promoting Local Industries: Encourage and provide support for setting up small-scale industries based on local resources, such as food processing units (making pickles, papad), flour mills, or handicraft workshops.


3. Facilitating Cheap Credit: Work with local banks and cooperative societies to provide loans at low interest rates to villagers so they can buy agricultural equipment, seeds, or start their own small businesses.


4. Improving Irrigation: Invest in building check dams or digging wells to improve irrigation facilities. This would allow farmers to grow a second crop (Rabi crop) during the year, providing employment for more months.


5. Service Sector Growth: Promote services like local tourism (if applicable), establish a local cold storage facility, or improve transportation services to nearby towns, creating jobs in the service sector.
Quick Tip: When thinking about rural employment, focus on both farm and non-farm activities. Improving agriculture provides seasonal work, while developing local industries and services can provide year-round employment.


Question 32(a):

The Government of India has invited some suggestions for technological reforms in agriculture. Propose any five technological reforms to the Government for the betterment of agriculture.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Five suggestions for technological reforms for the betterment of Indian agriculture are:


1. Precision Agriculture: Promote the use of GPS, sensors, and drones for precise application of water, fertilizers, and pesticides. This reduces waste, lowers costs, and minimizes environmental impact.


2. Improved Irrigation Techniques: Provide subsidies and training for adopting micro-irrigation systems like drip irrigation and sprinklers, which conserve water and increase crop yield.


3. Soil Health Management: Establish more soil testing labs in rural areas and create mobile apps that provide farmers with instant soil health reports and recommendations for crop and fertilizer use.


4. Digital Marketplaces: Develop and popularize more user-friendly e-trading platforms (like e-NAM) that connect farmers directly to buyers, ensuring better price discovery and reducing the role of middlemen.


5. Access to Modern Machinery: Create custom hiring centers (CHCs) for expensive farm machinery like tractors, seed drills, and harvesters, making technology accessible to small and marginal farmers who cannot afford to buy them.
Quick Tip: Technological reforms in agriculture are not just about big machines. They also include biotechnology (like HYV seeds) and information technology (like weather forecasting apps).


OR

Question 32(b):

Suppose you are a farmer. You want to cultivate tea in India. Describe any three geographical conditions which will be conducive for tea cultivation in India and write the names of two major tea-producing states of India.

Correct Answer:
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Tea is a beverage crop. The geographical conditions conducive for its cultivation are:


Geographical Conditions:


1. Climate: Tea requires a warm, moist, and frost-free tropical or sub-tropical climate. It needs frequent and well-distributed rainfall throughout the year to ensure continuous growth of tender leaves.


2. Soil: The crop requires deep, fertile, and well-drained soil that is rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes are sensitive to stagnant water.


3. Topography: Hilly areas with gentle slopes are ideal for tea cultivation. The slopes prevent waterlogging at the roots of the tea bushes, which is harmful to the plant.


Major Tea-Producing States:


Two major tea-producing states in India are:

1. Assam

2. West Bengal (particularly the Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts)
Quick Tip: Remember that tea is a labour-intensive crop. It requires an abundant supply of cheap and skilled labour, especially for plucking the tea leaves. This is another important factor for its cultivation.


Question 33(a):

"Secularism is the very idea of Indian Constitution." Justify the statement.

Correct Answer:
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The statement that secularism is the very idea of the Indian Constitution is justified by the following provisions:


1. No State Religion: The Constitution of India does not grant the status of a national or state religion to any single religion. The state remains neutral and impartial in matters of religion.


2. Fundamental Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28): The Constitution guarantees every citizen the freedom to profess, practice, and propagate the religion of their choice. It also gives every religious denomination the right to manage its own affairs.


3. Prohibition of Discrimination: Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits the state from discriminating against any citizen on grounds of religion. This ensures equal treatment for all citizens, irrespective of their faith.


4. Preamble: The word 'SECULAR' was explicitly added to the Preamble of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, reinforcing its secular credentials.


5. Equal Opportunities: The state ensures equal opportunities in matters of public employment to all citizens, without any discrimination based on religion.
Quick Tip: Indian secularism is different from Western secularism. While Western secularism often implies a strict separation of religion and state, Indian secularism is based on the principle of 'Sarva Dharma Sama Bhava' (equal respect for all religions).


OR

Question 33(b):

Suggest any five measures to establish the gender equality of labour.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Five measures to establish gender equality of labour are:


1. Enforce Equal Pay Laws: Strictly implement and monitor the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, which mandates equal pay for men and women for the same work or work of a similar nature.


2. Provide Support Services: Establish more crèches and childcare facilities at or near workplaces. This would reduce the burden of caregiving on women and enable their consistent participation in the workforce.


3. Promote Skill Development: Create and promote skill training and vocational education programs specifically for women, especially in non-traditional and high-growth sectors like IT, manufacturing, and management.


4. Ensure Safe Workplaces: Enforce laws like the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, to create safe and secure working environments for women.


5. Challenge Gender Stereotypes: Promote awareness campaigns and company policies that challenge traditional gender roles, encouraging the hiring of women in leadership positions and men in caregiving roles.
Quick Tip: Gender equality at work is not just a social issue but also an economic one. Increased female labour force participation can significantly boost a country's GDP.


Question 34:

Kanta works in the organised sector. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc. It is called Organised Sector because it has some formal processes and procedures. Some of these people may not be employed by anyone but may work on their own, but they too have to register themselves with the government and follow the rules and regulations.


Question 34.1

Mention any one feature of the working conditions of organised sector.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Based on the provided text, one feature of the working conditions in the organised sector is that the terms of employment are regular and people have assured work.


Another feature that can be mentioned is that employees have fixed working hours and are paid for overtime if they work more.
Quick Tip: The key features of the organised sector are regularity and security of employment, adherence to government rules, and provision of social security benefits.


Question 34.2:

Explain any one benefit provided by the employers to the organised sector employees.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




One benefit provided by employers in the organised sector is social security benefits.


For example, as mentioned in the text through laws like the 'Payment of Gratuity Act', employees are entitled to benefits like provident fund, paid leave, gratuity, and medical benefits.
Quick Tip: The unorganised sector, in stark contrast, does not offer such benefits. Workers in the unorganised sector lack job security, paid leave, and other social security protections.


Question 34.3:

Why is it necessary for all self-employed people to register with the government ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




According to the text, it is necessary for self-employed people to register with the government so that they can be brought under the purview of the law.


Registration ensures that they follow the rules and regulations set by the government, just like other enterprises in the organised sector.


This helps in formalizing the economy, ensuring adherence to labour laws, tax compliance, and it can also make them eligible for government schemes and formal credit.
Quick Tip: Registering a business, even a self-employed one, moves it from the informal/unorganised sector to the formal/organised sector, providing both legal obligations and benefits.


Question 35:

During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground. Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas. To be revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that had been established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom. Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom.


Question 35.1

Mention any one political demand of the liberals.

Correct Answer:
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Based on the source, one political demand of the liberals was the creation of nation-states.


The text states that "Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom."


Another demand was to oppose monarchical forms of government and fight for liberty and freedom.
Quick Tip: Liberal-nationalism in 19th-century Europe combined the ideas of liberalism (individual freedom, constitutional government) with nationalism (creation of states based on common identity).


Question 35.2:

Mention the main cause for the rise of secret societies in European States.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




The main cause for the rise of secret societies, as mentioned in the text, was the "fear of repression" by the conservative monarchical regimes established after 1815.


These regimes suppressed dissent, forcing liberal-nationalists to go underground and form secret societies to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas.
Quick Tip: A famous example of a revolutionary who was a member of a secret society (the Carbonari) and later founded his own (Young Italy and Young Europe) was Giuseppe Mazzini.


Question 35.3:

Analyse the reasons for many liberal-nationalists going underground after 1815.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




After the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, conservative regimes were established across Europe through the Congress of Vienna.


These regimes were autocratic and did not tolerate criticism or opposition. They imposed strict censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, books, plays, and songs.


The main reason for liberal-nationalists going underground was to escape this repression and persecution by the state's secret police.


By operating in secret, they could continue to promote their ideas of liberty, freedom, and the creation of nation-states without being immediately arrested and suppressed.
Quick Tip: The period after 1815 is often called the 'Age of Metternich', named after the Austrian chancellor who was a leading figure of conservatism in Europe. The goal of these conservative regimes was to restore the old monarchical order.


Question 36:

Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good quality iron ores. Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent. It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry. Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a slightly lower iron content than magnetite (50 - 60 per cent). In 2018 - 19, almost the entire production of iron ore (97percent ) accrued from Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Jharkhand. The remaining production (3 percent) was from other states.


Question 36.1:
In which iron ore is the maximum iron content found ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




According to the provided text, Magnetite is the iron ore where the maximum iron content is found.


The text explicitly states that Magnetite has "a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent."
Quick Tip: Remember the two main types of iron ore: Magnetite (highest iron content, magnetic) and Hematite (most used industrially, slightly lower iron content).


Question 36.2:

Which is the most important industrial iron ore ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




The most important industrial iron ore, according to the source, is Hematite.


The text mentions that "Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used."
Quick Tip: Even though Magnetite has better quality, Hematite is more important industrially because it is found in larger quantities and is more widely distributed, making it the backbone of the steel industry.


Question 36.3:

"Iron ore is a basic mineral." Support the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




The statement "Iron ore is a basic mineral" is supported by the fact that it is the "backbone of industrial development," as mentioned in the text.


It is considered a basic or foundational mineral because it is the primary raw material for producing pig iron, which is then used to make steel.


Steel is essential for the development of almost every other industry, including machinery, tools, automobiles, railways, ships, and construction of infrastructure like buildings and bridges.


Without iron ore, the modern industrial economy would not exist in its current form.
Quick Tip: Minerals can be classified as 'basic' or 'key' if they are essential raw materials for other major industries. Iron ore is the classic example of a basic mineral.


Question 37(a):

Two places 'A' and 'B' have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :

A. The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held place in 1927.

B. The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




A. The Indian National Congress session of 1927 was held in Madras (now known as Chennai). The point marked 'A' on the map is located on the coast of Tamil Nadu, which corresponds to the city of Chennai.

Correct Answer: Madras (Chennai)


B. Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law on April 6, 1930, at the end of the Salt March. This event took place at the coastal town of Dandi in Gujarat. The point marked 'B' on the map is located on the coast of Gujarat, corresponding to Dandi.

Correct Answer: Dandi



Quick Tip: Map work on Indian Nationalism often focuses on key locations of INC sessions (like Calcutta, Nagpur, Lahore, Madras) and important centers of the freedom struggle (like Champaran, Kheda, Dandi, Amritsar).


Question 37(b):

On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :

(i) An international airport of West Bengal

(ii) A software technology park of Karnataka

(iii) A nuclear power plant located in Maharashtra

(iv) A major sea port of Odisha

Correct Answer:
View Solution




The locations for the four given places are as follows:


(i) An international airport of West Bengal: This is the Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport, located in Kolkata.


(ii) A software technology park of Karnataka: The most prominent one is in Bengaluru (Bangalore).


(iii) A nuclear power plant located in Maharashtra: This is the Tarapur Atomic Power Station, located in Tarapur.


(iv) A major sea port of Odisha: This is the Paradip Port.



Quick Tip: For map questions, it is essential to have a clear mental map of India's states and major cities. Practice locating key industrial centers, power plants, ports, and airports on a blank political map.


For Visually Impaired Candidates

Question 37(a):

(i) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1927.

(ii) Name the place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




(i) The session of the Indian National Congress in 1927 was held in Madras (present-day Chennai).

This session was significant because a resolution was passed to boycott the Simon Commission "at every stage and in every form".


(ii) Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law at the coastal town of Dandi in Gujarat.

After completing the 240-mile long Salt March from Sabarmati Ashram, he ceremonially violated the British Salt Laws on April 6, 1930, by producing salt from seawater.

This event marked the formal beginning of the nationwide Civil Disobedience Movement.
Quick Tip: It's helpful to remember the president and one key resolution for important INC sessions. The 1927 Madras session, presided over by M. A. Ansari, is crucial for its decision to boycott the all-white Simon Commission.


For Visually Impaired Candidates

Question 37(b):

(i) Name the place where an international airport is located in West Bengal.

(ii) Name the place where a major sea port is located in Odisha.

(iii) Name the place where a software technology park is located in Karnataka.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




(i) The international airport in West Bengal is the Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International Airport.

It is located in Kolkata (specifically in Dum Dum).



(ii) A major software technology park in Karnataka is located in Bengaluru (also known as Bangalore).

Bengaluru is often called the "Silicon Valley of India" due to its role as the nation's leading information technology (IT) exporter.



(iii) The nuclear power plant located in Maharashtra is the Tarapur Atomic Power Station.

It is located in Tarapur, Palghar district, and it holds the distinction of being India's first commercial nuclear power station.
Quick Tip: Major international airports in India are often named after prominent national figures. Associating the name (Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose) with the city (Kolkata) can be an effective memory aid.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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