Zollege is here for to help you!!
Need Counselling
Nidhi Bamnawat's profile photo

Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Feb 10, 2026

CBSE 2025 Class 10th Board Social Science exam was held on February 25, 2025. The CBSE Class 10 Social Science exam is worth 80 marks, with an extra 20 Marks for internal assessment. The question paper contains MCQs, short and long answers that test students' knowledge.

The CBSE Class 10th Social Science Examination question paper and solution PDF is available for download here.

CBSE Class 10 2025 Social Science Question Paper (Set 3 – 32/3/3) With Solutions PDF

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper With Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions
CBSE Class 10 2025 Social Science Question Paper with Solution Set 3 32 3 3


Question 1:

Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option :
I. Bardoli Satyagraha
II. Rowlatt Satyagraha
III. Champaran Satyagraha
IV. Kheda Satyagraha

  • (A) I, II, III, IV
  • (B) III, II, I, IV
  • (C) II, I, IV, III
  • (D) III, IV, II, I
Correct Answer: (D) III, IV, II, I
View Solution



To arrange the events in chronological order, we need to identify the year each event occurred.


Step 1: The Champaran Satyagraha (III) was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1917.


Step 2: The Kheda Satyagraha (IV) was initiated by Mahatma Gandhi in 1918.


Step 3: The Rowlatt Satyagraha (II) was a nationwide protest started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1919.


Step 4: The Bardoli Satyagraha (I) was a major peasant movement led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in 1928.


Step 5: The correct chronological sequence is Champaran (1917), Kheda (1918), Rowlatt (1919), and Bardoli (1928).


Step 6: This corresponds to the order III, IV, II, I.
Quick Tip: For chronological questions, create a mental timeline of key events in Indian history, especially focusing on the Gandhian era (1915-1947). Associating each movement with its year is crucial.


Question 2:

Which among the following newspapers is related to Bal Gangadhar Tilak?

  • (A) Hindustan
  • (B) Bangla Patrika
  • (C) Veer Bhoomi
  • (D) Kesari
Correct Answer: (D) Kesari
View Solution



Step 1: Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a prominent nationalist leader who used newspapers to spread his ideas.


Step 2: He founded two influential newspapers: 'Kesari', which was published in Marathi, and 'Mahratta', which was published in English.


Step 3: Among the given options, 'Kesari' is listed.


Step 4: The other newspapers are not associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak.


Step 5: Therefore, 'Kesari' is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember the names of important newspapers and journals started by nationalist leaders, along with their languages. For example, Tilak's Kesari (Marathi) and Mahratta (English), Gandhi's Young India and Harijan.


Question 3:

In reference to the Germania allegory the "olive branch around the sword" symbolizes which one of the following ?

  • (A) Being freed
  • (B) Heroism and strength
  • (C) Willingness to make peace
  • (D) Beginning of a new era
Correct Answer: (C) Willingness to make peace
View Solution



Step 1: The Germania allegory uses various symbols to represent the German nation.


Step 2: The sword is a symbol of strength and readiness to fight.


Step 3: The olive branch is a traditional symbol of peace.


Step 4: Combining the two, an olive branch around a sword signifies that while the nation is ready to defend itself (sword), it also desires peace (olive branch).


Step 5: This combined symbolism represents a willingness to make peace, but from a position of strength.


Step 6: Therefore, the correct interpretation is "Willingness to make peace".
Quick Tip: Familiarize yourself with the common symbols used in 19th-century European nationalism, such as the broken chains (being freed), the tricolor (liberal nationalism), and the crown of oak leaves (heroism).


Question 4:

The germs of which disease paved the way for Europe's conquest of America in the later half of the sixteenth century ?

  • (A) Cholera
  • (B) Smallpox
  • (C) Jaundice
  • (D) Malaria
Correct Answer: (B) Smallpox
View Solution



Step 1: The conquest of America by Europeans was facilitated not just by superior weaponry but also by biological factors.


Step 2: The native populations of the Americas had been isolated from the rest of the world and had no immunity to diseases common in Europe.


Step 3: European colonizers brought with them germs of diseases like smallpox.


Step 4: Smallpox spread like an epidemic among the indigenous communities, killing a vast majority of the population.


Step 5: This demographic collapse severely weakened the native empires and societies, making them vulnerable to European conquest.


Step 6: Thus, smallpox was the disease that played a crucial role in the conquest.
Quick Tip: Remember the concept of "biological warfare" in the context of colonization. Diseases like smallpox and measles were Europe's deadliest weapons in the conquest of the Americas, more effective than their guns and steel.


Question 5:

Mrs. Monica, along with her family, clears a piece of land and grows grain and other food crops to feed her family. When the soil's fertility decreases, she prepares another piece of land for agriculture. Which of the following methods of agriculture does she use ?

  • (A) Plantation farming
  • (B) Slash and burn farming
  • (C) Intensive subsistence farming
  • (D) Commercial farming
Correct Answer: (B) Slash and burn farming
View Solution



Step 1: The question describes a method of farming where a plot of land is cleared, cultivated, and then abandoned when its fertility decreases.


Step 2: The family then moves to a new plot and repeats the process.


Step 3: This type of farming is also known as shifting cultivation.


Step 4: 'Slash and burn' is the specific technique used in this form of agriculture, where forests are cleared by cutting and burning.


Step 5: The other options are incorrect: Plantation farming involves a single crop on a large estate, intensive subsistence farming involves cultivating a small plot intensely without shifting, and commercial farming is for profit, not just family subsistence.


Step 6: The described method is a classic example of slash and burn farming.
Quick Tip: Understand the key characteristics that differentiate types of farming: purpose (subsistence vs. commercial), scale (small vs. large), land use (shifting vs. permanent), and intensity of inputs. This will help you identify the correct type from a description.


Question 6:

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :


  • (A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  • (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
  • (C) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
  • (D) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Correct Answer: (B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the state where each National Park or Wildlife Sanctuary is located.


Step 2: Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary (a) is located in Rajasthan (ii).


Step 3: Manas Tiger Reserve (b) is located in Assam (iii).


Step 4: Periyar Tiger Reserve (c) is located in Kerala (iv).


Step 5: Corbett National Park (d) is located in Uttarakhand (i).


Step 6: The correct matching is a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, and d-i.


Step 7: This sequence corresponds to option (B).
Quick Tip: It's essential to remember the locations of major National Parks, Tiger Reserves, and Wildlife Sanctuaries in India as they are frequently asked in map work and MCQs.


Question 7:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A): Most of the jute industry in India is located in a narrow belt along the banks of Hugli river.
Reason (R): India is the second largest exporter of jute.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



Step 1: Evaluate Assertion (A). The statement that most of India's jute industry is located along the Hugli river is a well-known geographical fact. The region offers ideal conditions like proximity to jute-producing areas, inexpensive water transport, and abundant water for processing raw jute. So, (A) is true.


Step 2: Evaluate Reason (R). The statement that India is the second largest exporter of jute is also factually correct (with Bangladesh often being the largest). So, (R) is true.


Step 3: Determine if (R) explains (A). The location of the jute industry along the Hugli river is due to geographical and historical factors (water, transport, labour, port facilities). India's rank as an exporter is a consequence of its large production, not the cause for the industry's location. The mills would be located there regardless of whether India was the first, second, or third largest exporter.


Step 4: Therefore, both statements are true, but the reason does not correctly explain the assertion.
Quick Tip: In Assertion-Reason questions, first check the individual truthfulness of each statement. Then, ask "Why?" for the Assertion. If the Reason answers that "Why?", it's the correct explanation.


Question 8:

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank : The process of removing barriers on foreign trade and investment by the government is known as \hspace{2cm}.

  • (A) Import Tax
  • (B) Export Tax
  • (C) Liberalisation
  • (D) Industrialisation
Correct Answer: (C) Liberalisation
View Solution



Step 1: The question asks for the term that defines the removal of government-imposed barriers on foreign trade and investment.


Step 2: Barriers such as tariffs (taxes on imports), quotas, and restrictions on foreign investment are forms of trade protectionism.


Step 3: The process of removing or reducing these restrictions to allow for freer flow of goods, services, and capital is called Liberalisation.


Step 4: Import Tax and Export Tax are examples of trade barriers, not the process of removing them.


Step 5: Industrialisation is the process of developing industries in a country.


Step 6: Therefore, the correct term is Liberalisation.
Quick Tip: Remember the three pillars of the New Economic Policy (1991) in India: Liberalisation (removing restrictions), Privatisation (transfer of ownership to private sector), and Globalisation (integrating with the world economy).


Question 9:

Identify the odd one out.

  • (A) Hindustan Computers Limited
  • (B) Bharti Airtel Limited
  • (C) Hindustan Unilever Limited
  • (D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
Correct Answer: (D) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
View Solution



Step 1: Classify each company based on its ownership structure (public sector vs. private sector).


Step 2: Hindustan Computers Limited (HCL) is a private sector company.


Step 3: Bharti Airtel Limited is a private sector company.


Step 4: Hindustan Unilever Limited is a multinational corporation operating in the private sector in India.


Step 5: Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) is a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU), meaning it is owned by the Government of India.


Step 6: Three of the companies are from the private sector, while one is from the public sector.


Step 7: Therefore, Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited is the odd one out.
Quick Tip: Be able to distinguish between public sector enterprises (owned by the government, e.g., BHEL, SAIL, ONGC) and private sector companies (owned by individuals or groups, e.g., Reliance, Tata, Infosys).


Question 10:

By which organization is the Human Development Report published ?

  • (A) World Trade Organisation
  • (B) Amnesty International
  • (C) United Nations Development Programme
  • (D) World Health Organisation
Correct Answer: (C) United Nations Development Programme
View Solution



Step 1: The Human Development Report (HDR) is a well-known annual report that measures and compares human development across countries.


Step 2: It introduces the Human Development Index (HDI), which combines indicators of life expectancy, education, and per capita income.


Step 3: This report has been published annually since 1990 by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).


Step 4: The other organizations have different mandates: WTO deals with trade, Amnesty International with human rights, and WHO with international public health.


Step 5: Therefore, the correct organization is the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
Quick Tip: Associate major international reports with their publishing organizations. For example: Human Development Report (UNDP), World Development Report (World Bank), and World Economic Outlook (IMF).


Question 11:

Why is it not easy to get loans from the formal sector ? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option :
I. Availability of Banks
II. Availability of Collateral
III. Long and Complicated Loan Process
IV. Awareness of Borrower

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the reasons listed that make formal sector loans difficult to obtain, especially for the poor.


Step 2: 'Availability of Collateral' (II) is a major hurdle. Formal lenders like banks almost always require assets (like land, property) as security, which many people do not have. This makes it very difficult.


Step 3: 'Long and Complicated Loan Process' (III) is another significant barrier. The amount of documentation and procedures required can be overwhelming and difficult for people with low literacy levels.


Step 4: 'Awareness of Borrower' (IV) is also a valid reason. Many potential borrowers are not fully aware of the benefits of formal loans or the procedures involved, which prevents them from even applying.


Step 5: 'Availability of Banks' (I) can be a problem in remote areas, but the question asks why it is "not easy", which points more towards the procedural difficulties even when a bank is physically present. The most crucial difficulties related to the process of getting a loan are II, III, and IV.


Step 6: Option (B) combines the key hurdles of requiring collateral, a complicated process, and the borrower's lack of awareness about navigating this system. This is the most comprehensive and accurate set of reasons.
Quick Tip: The key difference between formal and informal credit is the requirement for collateral and documentation. The absence of these is why many poor households still depend on informal sources despite high interest rates.


Question 12:

Identify the sector on basis of the following characteristics and choose the correct option :
The objective of this sector is to earn profit.
This sector is owned by a person or company.
Tata Iron and Steel is an example of this sector.

 

  • (A) Cooperative Sector
  • (B) Unorganised Sector
  • (C) Public Sector
  • (D) Private Sector
Correct Answer: (D) Private Sector
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the given characteristics.


Step 2: The first characteristic, 'The objective of this sector is to earn profit', is the primary motive of private enterprises. The Public Sector's primary motive is public welfare.


Step 3: The second characteristic, 'This sector is owned by a person or company', defines private ownership, as opposed to government ownership (Public Sector).


Step 4: The third characteristic, 'Tata Iron and Steel is an example of this sector', confirms the identification. TISCO is one of India's oldest and largest private sector companies.


Step 5: Based on all three characteristics, the sector being described is the Private Sector.
Quick Tip: Sectors can be classified by ownership: Public (government-owned, e.g., BHEL), Private (privately owned, e.g., TISCO), and Cooperative (jointly owned by producers/workers, e.g., Amul).


Question 13:

Data related to an imaginary country is given below. Study these data and answer the question that follows :

The attendance percentage of this country of the age group of 14 and 15 years is _________.


  • (A) 90 percent
  • (B) 80 percent
  • (C) 70 percent
  • (D) 60 percent
Correct Answer: (B) 80 percent
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the relevant data from the table for the age group of 14 and 15 years.


Step 2: Total Population in the 14 and 15 years age group = 1000.


Step 3: Net Attendance in the 14 and 15 years age group = 800.


Step 4: The formula for attendance percentage is: (Net Attendance / Total Population) \(\times\) 100.


Step 5: Substitute the values into the formula: (800 / 1000) \(\times\) 100.


Step 6: Calculate the result: 0.8 \(\times\) 100 = 80 percent.


Step 7: Therefore, the attendance percentage for this age group is 80 percent.
Quick Tip: When working with data tables, carefully read the question to identify exactly which row and columns you need to use for your calculation. Avoid using 'Total' figures unless specifically asked.


Question 14:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A): Every party in India has to register with the Election Commission.
Reason (R): The Government provides election symbols to all political parties in India.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
View Solution



Step 1: Evaluate Assertion (A). The statement that every political party in India must register with the Election Commission is a legal requirement under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. So, (A) is true.


Step 2: Evaluate Reason (R). The statement says that the 'Government' provides election symbols. This is incorrect. The allocation of election symbols is the responsibility of the Election Commission of India, which is an autonomous constitutional body, independent of the government. So, (R) is false.


Step 3: Since (A) is true and (R) is false, the correct option is (C).
Quick Tip: It is crucial to understand the distinction between the 'Government' and other independent constitutional bodies like the Election Commission, Judiciary, and UPSC. They are not part of the government's executive branch.


Question 15:

Which of the following group is in majority in Sri Lanka ?

  • (A) Tamil-speakers
  • (B) Sinhala-speakers
  • (C) Telugu-speakers
  • (D) English-speakers
Correct Answer: (B) Sinhala-speakers
View Solution



Step 1: Recall the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka.


Step 2: The country has two major linguistic and ethnic groups.


Step 3: The Sinhala-speakers constitute the majority of the population, comprising about 74 percent.


Step 4: The Tamil-speakers are the largest minority group, comprising about 18 percent.


Step 5: Telugu-speakers and English-speakers are very small minorities.


Step 6: Therefore, the Sinhala-speakers are the majority group in Sri Lanka.
Quick Tip: The ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka is a key case study in 'Power Sharing'. Remember the major groups (Sinhala and Tamil), their religions (Buddhism and Hinduism/Islam), and the concept of Majoritarianism adopted by the government after 1948.


Question 16:

To reform the party system, which of the following tasks have been made compulsory for the political parties ? Choose the most appropriate option.
I. It is now compulsory for all the political parties to file income tax returns.
II. It is now compulsory for all parties to have one-third women candidates.
III. It is now compulsory for all the political parties to hold their organisational elections.
IV. It is now compulsory for all candidates to disclose information about pending criminal cases against them through affidavit.

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only II, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze each statement to see if it is a compulsory reform.


Step 2: Statement I: Filing of income tax returns by political parties is mandatory. This is a measure to ensure financial transparency. So, I is correct.


Step 3: Statement II: Reserving one-third of tickets for women candidates is not compulsory for political parties. While there is a Women's Reservation Bill for legislatures, it is not a rule for party candidate selection itself. So, II is incorrect.


Step 4: Statement III: It is mandatory for registered political parties to hold regular internal organisational elections to ensure internal democracy. So, III is correct.


Step 5: Statement IV: A Supreme Court order has made it mandatory for all candidates contesting elections to file an affidavit giving details of their assets and any pending criminal cases. This is a key reform for transparency. So, IV is correct.


Step 6: The correct compulsory tasks are I, III, and IV. This corresponds to option (C).
Quick Tip: Reforms in political parties focus on reducing the role of money and muscle power, and increasing internal democracy and transparency. Remember key reforms like the anti-defection law, filing of IT returns, and candidate affidavits.


Question 17:

Which of the following statements represent gender equality ?

  • (A) The value of women's vote is more than that of men.
  • (B) Restricting women to household chores.
  • (C) Providing more rights to men.
  • (D) Providing voting rights equally to men and women.
Correct Answer: (D) Providing voting rights equally to men and women.
View Solution



Step 1: Gender equality means that all genders have equal rights, responsibilities, and opportunities.


Step 2: Analyze option (A): Giving more value to women's votes is a form of inequality.


Step 3: Analyze option (B): Restricting women to specific roles is a form of gender stereotyping and inequality.


Step 4: Analyze option (C): Providing more rights to men is a clear example of gender inequality.


Step 5: Analyze option (D): Providing equal voting rights (political equality) is a fundamental aspect of gender equality, where every citizen's voice is valued equally regardless of gender.


Step 6: Therefore, option (D) is the only statement that represents gender equality.
Quick Tip: Gender equality is about equal rights and opportunities in all spheres of life: political (voting), economic (equal pay), and social (freedom from stereotypes).


Question 18:

Choose the correctly matched pair from the following :

  • (A) Concurrent List – Education
  • (B) Concurrent List – Defence
  • (C) Concurrent List – Police
  • (D) Concurrent List – Trade
Correct Answer: (A) Concurrent List – Education
View Solution



Step 1: The Constitution of India divides legislative powers between the Union and State governments into three lists.


Step 2: The Union List contains subjects of national importance like Defence, Foreign Affairs, and Banking. Both options (B) is on the Union list.


Step 3: The State List contains subjects of state and local importance like Police, Agriculture, and Trade (within the state). Option (C) and (D) are on the State list.


Step 4: The Concurrent List contains subjects of common interest to both the Union and State governments, like Education, Forests, and Marriage. Both governments can make laws on these subjects.


Step 5: Education was originally on the State List but was moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.


Step 6: Therefore, the pair 'Concurrent List – Education' is correctly matched.
Quick Tip: Remember key subjects from each list: Union List (Defence, Currency), State List (Police, Agriculture), and Concurrent List (Education, Forests). This is a foundational concept of Indian Federalism.


Question 19:

In which one of the following organs of India are women taking advantage of reservation ?

  • (A) Municipality
  • (B) Legislative Council
  • (C) Rajya Sabha
  • (D) Judiciary
Correct Answer: (A) Municipality
View Solution



Step 1: The question asks where a system of reservation for women is currently implemented in India.


Step 2: The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts of 1992 introduced local self-government (Panchayats and Municipalities).


Step 3: A key provision of these amendments was the mandatory reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women in these local bodies.


Step 4: There is no reservation for women in the Rajya Sabha, Legislative Councils, or the Judiciary, although a bill for reservation in Parliament and State Assemblies has been passed recently.


Step 5: Therefore, women are taking advantage of reservation in Municipalities (and Panchayats).
Quick Tip: Reservation for women in India is currently in effect only at the local government level (Panchayats and Municipalities) as per the 73rd and 74th Amendments.


Question 20:

Which one of the following languages is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?

  • (A) Bhojpuri
  • (B) Magadhi
  • (C) Rajasthani
  • (D) Tamil
Correct Answer: (D) Tamil
View Solution



Step 1: The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the officially recognized languages of the Republic of India.


Step 2: Currently, there are 22 languages in this schedule.


Step 3: We need to check which of the given options is on this list.


Step 4: Bhojpuri, Magadhi, and Rajasthani are major languages/dialects, and there have been demands for their inclusion, but as of now, they are not included in the Eighth Schedule.


Step 5: Tamil is one of the original languages included in the schedule and is also recognized as a classical language of India.


Step 6: Therefore, Tamil is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: While you may not need to memorize all 22 languages of the Eighth Schedule, be aware of major languages that are included (like Hindi, Bengali, Tamil, Telugu, Marathi, Sanskrit) and those that are not yet included despite popular demand (like Bhojpuri, Rajasthani).


Question 21:

How is the distribution of power among different social groups beneficial for democracy? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Distribution of power among different social groups is beneficial for democracy in the following ways:


1. It helps in reducing the possibility of conflict between different social groups, such as linguistic and religious groups. By giving each group a stake in governance, it promotes social harmony.


2. It ensures political stability by accommodating the interests of various groups. When major communities feel their voice is heard, the system becomes more stable.


3. It gives a fair share in power to minority and weaker sections of society, preventing a feeling of alienation from the government and fostering a sense of belonging to the nation. An example is the 'community government' in Belgium.
Quick Tip: Power sharing among social groups is the very spirit of democracy. It's a way to ensure that the government represents the country's social diversity and prevents the tyranny of the majority.


Question 22:

Explain any two benefits of globalisation.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Two major benefits of globalisation are:


1. Greater Choice and Lower Prices for Consumers: Globalisation leads to greater competition among producers, both local and foreign. This competition provides consumers with a wider variety of goods and services at lower prices and of improved quality.


2. Access to Technology and Investment: It facilitates the flow of foreign investment and advanced technology into the country. This helps in improving production methods, efficiency, and the overall growth of domestic industries.
Quick Tip: Think about the impact of globalisation on different stakeholders. For consumers, it means more choice. For producers, it means new technology and competition. For workers, it can mean new jobs in sectors like IT and call centres.


Question 23:

Mention any two economic impacts of the First World War on India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Two major economic impacts of the First World War on India were:


1. Increase in Taxes and Price Rise: The war led to a huge increase in British defence expenditure, which was financed by war loans and increasing taxes in India. Customs duties were raised and income tax was introduced. This, combined with war-related shortages, caused the prices of essential goods to nearly double between 1913 and 1918, causing extreme hardship for common people.


2. Mixed Impact on Industries: While the overall economy suffered, Indian industries experienced a boom. With British mills busy with war production, the demand for Indian goods like jute bags, cloth, and rails increased. This gave Indian industries an opportunity to grow. However, the wider population faced acute economic distress.
Quick Tip: The First World War created a new economic and political situation in India. Remember the keywords: increased defence spending, high taxes, price rise, and forced recruitment, all of which fueled nationalist sentiments.


Question 24(a):

Describe any two features of 'arid soils'.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Two features of arid soils are:


1. Texture and Salinity: Arid soils are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. Due to the dry climate and high evaporation, they lack moisture and have a high salt content, sometimes so high that common salt is obtained by evaporating the water.


2. Humus Content and Kankar Layer: These soils lack humus due to the sparse vegetation. The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by 'Kankar' layers (impure calcium carbonate), which restrict the infiltration of water, making the soil less fertile.
Quick Tip: Associate arid soils with desert areas like western Rajasthan. The key characteristics to remember are sandy, saline, lack of humus, and the presence of a hard kankar layer underneath.


OR

Question 24(b):

Describe any two features of 'forest soils'.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Two features of forest soils are:


1. Location and Varied Texture: These soils are found in the hilly and mountainous areas where sufficient rain forests are available. The soil texture is variable; they are loamy and silty in valley sides and coarse-grained in the upper slopes.


2. Acidity and Humus Content: In the snow-covered areas of the Himalayas, these soils experience denudation and are acidic with low humus content. However, the soils found in the lower parts of the valleys, particularly on the river terraces and alluvial fans, are fertile.
Quick Tip: The key characteristic of forest soil is its variability depending on the mountain environment (altitude and slope). It is fertile in the valleys but acidic and less developed on the upper slopes.


Question 25:

Explain any three aims of Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM).

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Three main aims of the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) are:


1. Provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC): The primary objective of the mission is to provide safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap connections to all households in rural India by the year 2024.


2. Ensure Source Sustainability: The mission focuses on the sustainability of the water source as a key component. This includes measures like recharging and reuse through greywater management, water conservation, and rainwater harvesting.


3. Promote Community Participation: JJM is designed as a community-centric program. It aims to involve the local village communities (through bodies like Pani Samitis or Village Water and Sanitation Committees) in the planning, implementation, management, operation, and maintenance of the village water supply systems.
Quick Tip: Remember the core idea of Jal Jeevan Mission: 'Har Ghar Jal' (Water to Every Home). The three pillars are providing tap connections, ensuring the water source is sustainable, and empowering the local community to manage it.


Question 26:

How does democracy establish an accountable, responsible and legitimate governance ? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Democracy establishes accountable, responsible, and legitimate governance in the following ways:


1. Accountable Governance: A democratic government is accountable to its citizens. It achieves this through regular, free, and fair elections. If rulers do not work for the people, they can be voted out of power. Transparency mechanisms, like the Right to Information (RTI) Act, empower citizens to examine the process of decision-making, making the government more accountable.


2. Responsible and Responsive Governance: Democracy produces a government that is responsible and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens. It provides formal procedures and institutions where public opinion is formed and decisions are made after deliberation and negotiation, making it responsive to public demands.


3. Legitimate Governance: A democratic government is a legitimate government. It is legitimate because it is elected by the people and represents their will. Even if it is slow or less efficient at times, it is the people's own government, which gives it a basis of legitimacy that other forms of government lack.
Quick Tip: Remember the 'three pillars' of democratic governance quality: Accountable (answerable to citizens, especially via elections), Responsive (reacts to citizens' needs), and Legitimate (has the right to rule because it's chosen by the people).


Question 27(a):

Analyse the impacts of Gandhi-Irwin pact on the Indian freedom struggle.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The Gandhi-Irwin Pact of March 1931 had the following significant impacts on the freedom struggle:


1. Temporary Suspension of Civil Disobedience Movement: As per the pact, the Indian National Congress, led by Mahatma Gandhi, agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement. This provided a temporary truce in the confrontation between the nationalists and the British government.


2. Participation in Round Table Conference: Mahatma Gandhi consented to participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London. This was significant because the Congress had boycotted the first conference. It marked a shift from direct action to negotiation, although the conference ultimately failed to meet Indian demands.


3. Enhanced Stature of the Congress: The pact forced the British Viceroy to negotiate with the Indian National Congress on equal terms. This raised the political stature and prestige of the Congress, as the British government was compelled to recognize it as the representative voice of the Indian people. However, it was also criticized by radical nationalists for not securing the release of revolutionaries like Bhagat Singh.
Quick Tip: The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was a political compromise. Remember the two main outcomes: Gandhi suspended the Civil Disobedience Movement, and the British government agreed to release political prisoners and negotiate with Gandhi as an equal.


OR

Question 27(b):

Analyse the role of Alluri Sitaram Raju in the Indian National Movement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The role of Alluri Sitaram Raju in the Indian National Movement is analysed as follows:


1. Leadership of Tribal Rebellion: Raju led a militant guerrilla movement in the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh in the early 1920s. This was a rebellion of the tribal people against the oppressive forest laws of the colonial government, which prevented them from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuelwood and fruits, thus threatening their livelihoods.


2. Inspiration from Non-Cooperation Movement: Alluri Sitaram Raju was inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement. He persuaded the tribal people to wear khadi and give up drinking. He was considered a charismatic figure with supposed magical powers by the local people.


3. Divergence from Gandhian Methods: While he admired Gandhi, Raju believed that India could be liberated only through the use of force, not non-violence. The Gudem rebels, under his leadership, attacked police stations and attempted to kill British officials. He was eventually captured and executed in 1924, becoming a folk hero for his resistance.
Quick Tip: Alluri Sitaram Raju represents a strand of the freedom struggle that was inspired by Gandhi's ideals (like Khadi) but did not agree with his methods (non-violence). He is a key example of tribal participation and resistance.


Question 28:

Examine the importance of bank deposits.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The importance of bank deposits can be examined from the following three points:


1. Safety and Income for Depositors: Bank deposits offer a safe and secure way for people to keep their surplus money, protecting it from theft or loss. Additionally, banks pay an amount as interest on the deposits, providing a source of income for the depositors.


2. Medium of Exchange: Deposits in bank accounts can be withdrawn on demand and serve as a convenient medium of exchange. People can make payments using cheques or digital transfers instead of cash, which facilitates transactions, especially large ones.


3. Foundation for Credit Creation: Bank deposits are crucial for the economy as they form the basis for lending and credit creation. Banks keep only a small proportion of the deposits as reserves and use the major portion to extend loans for various economic activities like business investment, agriculture, and housing. This circulation of money fuels economic growth.
Quick Tip: Bank deposits are the lifeline of the banking system. They connect people who have surplus money (savers) with people who need money (borrowers), playing a central role in the economy.


Question 29:

Explain the main features of the Indian federal system.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The main features of the Indian federal system are:


1. Three Tiers of Government: India has a three-tier system of government. It consists of the Union Government for the entire country, State Governments for individual states, and Local Self-Governments (Panchayats and Municipalities) for rural and urban areas respectively.


2. Written Constitution and Division of Powers: India has one of the longest written constitutions in the world. It clearly divides legislative powers between the Union and State governments through three lists: the Union List (for the central government), the State List (for state governments), and the Concurrent List (for both).


3. Independent Judiciary: The Indian Constitution provides for an independent judiciary, with the Supreme Court at its apex. The judiciary acts as an umpire, interpreting the constitution and resolving disputes that may arise between the different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.
Quick Tip: To remember the features of federalism, think of the 'rules of the game': a rulebook (written constitution), different teams with defined roles (levels of government with divided powers), and a referee to settle disputes (independent judiciary).


Question 30(a):

Analyse the contribution of Johann Gutenberg in the development of the printing press.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Johann Gutenberg's contribution was pivotal in the development of the printing press, leading to a print revolution in Europe. His key contributions can be analysed as follows:


1. Perfection of Movable-Type Printing: While woodblock printing existed, Gutenberg's greatest innovation was the creation of a system with metal movable types for the letters of the Roman alphabet. Coming from a goldsmith background, he perfected the art of casting these metal types with precision and in large quantities.


2. Development of the Printing Press Machine: He adapted existing technologies to create his press. He used the idea of an olive press and wine press to design a machine where a long handle was used to turn a screw and press a platen down onto the paper, which was laid over the inked metal types.


3. Innovation in Ink: He also experimented and developed a suitable oil-based ink that would stick to the metal types and transfer perfectly onto the paper, which was a significant improvement over previous water-based inks.


4. First Major Printed Work: Around 1455, he used his invention to print the Bible. He printed about 180 copies, and this work, known as the Gutenberg Bible, was the first major book printed using the movable-type printing press. It was praised for its aesthetic quality, rivaling handwritten manuscripts.


5. Pioneering the Print Revolution: Gutenberg's system made the production of books dramatically faster and cheaper. This led to the rapid spread of printing presses across Europe, making knowledge and ideas (like those of the Protestant Reformation) accessible to a much wider audience, thereby transforming European society.
Quick Tip: Gutenberg's genius lay in combining existing technologies (the press, metal casting) to create a complete and efficient printing system. Remember his three key innovations: movable metal type, the press itself, and suitable ink.


OR

Question 30(b):

Analyse the development journey of print culture in India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The development journey of print culture in India was a long and transformative process:


1. Early Introduction by Missionaries: The printing press first came to India with Portuguese missionaries in Goa in the mid-16th century. They printed religious texts, primarily in Konkani and other local languages, to aid in proselytization.


2. Emergence of Newspapers in English: The colonial period saw the growth of an English press. James Augustus Hickey began publishing the first newspaper, the 'Bengal Gazette', in 1780. This press was often critical of the colonial government and catered mainly to the European community.


3. Growth of the Vernacular Press: From the early 19th century, newspapers and journals in Indian languages started appearing. Raja Rammohun Roy's 'Sambad Kaumudi' (1821) in Bengali and the Persian newspaper 'Mirat-ul-Akhbar' (1822) were pioneers. This vernacular press became a platform for debates on social and religious reforms.


4. Print and Nationalism: In the later 19th century, the vernacular press became a powerful tool for spreading nationalist ideas. Newspapers like Bal Gangadhar Tilak's 'Kesari' openly criticized colonial policies. The British government tried to curb this nationalist press through censorship, most notably the Vernacular Press Act of 1878.


5. Diversification and Mass Reach: By the end of the 19th century, print was not limited to newspapers. Cheap, illustrated books, religious scriptures, and calendars were printed and sold in markets, reaching even the poor. This led to the creation of a new culture of reading and public debate, influencing issues like women's education, caste discrimination, and popular culture.
Quick Tip: Trace the evolution of print in India through its key drivers: first religion (missionaries), then administration and news (English press), followed by social reform and nationalism (vernacular press), and finally mass culture (popular books and images).


Question 31(a):

"Secularism is the very idea of Indian Constitution." Justify the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The statement that "Secularism is the very idea of Indian Constitution" is justified by the following provisions and principles enshrined in it:


1. No Official Religion: The Constitution of India does not grant the status of a national or official religion to any one religion. The state is neutral and impartial in its attitude towards all religions.


2. Fundamental Right to Freedom of Religion: Articles 25 to 28 of the Constitution grant all citizens the fundamental right to profess, practice, and propagate the religion of their choice.


3. Prohibition of Discrimination: Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. This ensures that all citizens are treated equally by the state, irrespective of their religious faith.


4. Equal Opportunities in Public Employment: Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment. No citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment under the State on grounds of religion.


5. State's Role in Religious Affairs: While the state maintains a principled distance from religion, it can intervene in religious matters to root out social evils like untouchability or practices that violate fundamental rights. This reflects the unique concept of Indian secularism which stands for equal respect for all religions ('Sarva Dharma Sama Bhava').
Quick Tip: Indian secularism is different from the Western concept. While the West often emphasizes a strict separation of religion and state, Indian secularism involves a 'principled distance', allowing for state intervention to ensure equality within and between religious communities.


OR

Question 31(b):

Suggest any five measures to establish the gender equality of labour.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Five measures to establish gender equality in the field of labour are:


1. Enforcing Equal Pay for Equal Work: The principle of 'equal pay for equal work for both men and women' must be strictly implemented and monitored by law. The wage gap between genders for the same work needs to be eliminated.


2. Skill Development and Education: Promoting education and providing vocational training and skill development opportunities specifically for women in non-traditional fields like technology, manufacturing, and management can help them access better-paying jobs.


3. Ensuring Safe and Secure Workplaces: It is essential to create safe working environments for women, free from harassment. This includes implementing the provisions of the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, and providing safe transportation.


4. Providing Support Services: The government and employers should provide support services like creches and childcare facilities at or near workplaces. This allows women to manage both their professional and family responsibilities without having to drop out of the workforce.


5. Promoting Women's Representation in Leadership: Encouraging and creating pathways for women to reach leadership and decision-making positions in companies and labour unions can help in formulating more gender-sensitive policies and breaking stereotypes.
Quick Tip: Gender equality in labour is not just a social justice issue but also an economic imperative. A higher female labour force participation rate leads to increased economic growth and prosperity for the nation.


Question 32(a):

Distinguish between public and private sector of economy with examples.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The distinction between the public and private sectors of the economy is as follows:


Difference between Public Sector and Private Sector


Ownership:

Public Sector: Owned and controlled by the government.
Private Sector: Owned by private individuals or companies.


Primary Motive:

Public Sector: Public welfare and service is the main objective.
Private Sector: Profit earning is the main objective.


Examples:

Public Sector: Indian Railways, Post Office, BHEL.
Private Sector: TISCO, Reliance Industries Limited. Quick Tip: India has a 'mixed economy' where both the public and private sectors coexist and contribute to national development. The public sector focuses on infrastructure and welfare, while the private sector drives consumer goods and innovation.


OR

Question 32(b):

Suppose you are the Sarpanch of your village. What suggestions will you give for creating additional employment in the village, so that the problem of unemployment of the residents of rural areas can be reduced ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



As the Sarpanch of a village, I would give the following suggestions to create additional employment:


1. Promoting Local Industries and Services: Encourage the setting up of small-scale industries based on local produce, such as dal mills, food processing units (for making pickles, jams), or handicrafts. Services like local transport and repair shops can also be promoted.


2. Investment in Infrastructure: Urge the government to invest in rural infrastructure projects like the construction of new roads, canals, and check-dams. These projects directly create employment for labourers and also improve the village's long-term economic prospects.


3. Diversification of Agriculture: Encourage farmers to diversify into activities like dairy farming, poultry, and pisciculture (fish farming). This provides an alternative and regular source of income, reducing dependency on seasonal agriculture.


4. Developing Tourism Potential: If the village has any historical sites, natural beauty, or unique cultural traditions, I would promote it as a rural tourism destination. This can create employment in hospitality, guide services, and local crafts.


5. Effective Implementation of Government Schemes: Ensure that government employment schemes like the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) are implemented effectively, providing the guaranteed 100 days of wage employment to every registered household.
Quick Tip: The key to reducing rural unemployment is to create both farm and non-farm employment opportunities within the village itself. This reduces distress migration to cities and leads to balanced regional development.


Question 33(a):

Describe the features of cropping patterns in India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



India has three distinct cropping seasons, which together form its cropping pattern. The features are:


1. Kharif Season:

It coincides with the onset of the monsoon. Crops are sown in June-July.
They are harvested in September-October.
It is dependent on monsoon rains.
Major crops include Paddy (Rice), Maize, Jowar, Bajra, Tur (Arhar), Moong, Urad, Cotton, and Jute.



2. Rabi Season:

It is the winter cropping season. Crops are sown in October-December.
They are harvested in the summer, from April to June.
These crops depend on winter precipitation (western disturbances) and irrigation.
Major crops include Wheat, Barley, Peas, Gram, and Mustard.



3. Zaid Season:

This is a short season during the summer months between the Rabi and Kharif seasons.
It typically lasts from March to June.
Crops grown during this season are mainly irrigated.
Major crops include Watermelon, Muskmelon, Cucumber, vegetables, and fodder crops.

Quick Tip: Link the cropping seasons to the Indian climate: Kharif = Monsoon season crop, Rabi = Winter season crop, and Zaid = Summer season crop. This simple association helps in remembering the timing and major crops of each season.


OR

Question 33(b):

Describe the main characteristics of major millet crops grown in India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Millets are important coarse grains with high nutritional value. The main characteristics of the three major millet crops grown in India are:


Jowar (Sorghum):

It is the third most important food crop with respect to area and production.
It is a rain-fed crop mostly grown in moist areas which hardly needs irrigation.
Major producing states are Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.



Bajra (Pearl Millet):

It grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soils.
It is a hardy crop that can resist dry spells.
Major producing states are Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Haryana.



Ragi (Finger Millet):

It is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy, and shallow black soils.
Ragi is very rich in iron, calcium, other micro-nutrients, and roughage.
Major producing states are Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jharkhand.

Quick Tip: Millets are now being promoted as 'nutri-cereals' or 'superfoods' due to their high nutritional value and climate resilience. Remember that they are hardy crops, suitable for cultivation in dry and less fertile regions of India.


Question 34:

Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good quality iron ores. Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent. It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry. Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a slightly lower iron content than magnetite (50 - 60 per cent). In 2018 - 19, almost the entire production of iron ore (97percent ) accrued from Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Jharkhand. The remaining production (3 percent) was from other states.


Question 34.1:
In which iron ore is the maximum iron content found ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



According to the source, Magnetite is the iron ore with the maximum iron content.

The text explicitly states: "Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent."
Quick Tip: For source-based questions, the answer is almost always directly stated in the text. Read the passage carefully and locate the exact phrase or sentence that answers the question.


Question 34.2:

Which is the most important industrial iron ore ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



According to the source, Hematite is the most important industrial iron ore.

The text mentions: "Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used..."
Quick Tip: Distinguish between 'best quality' (Magnetite, highest iron content) and 'most used' (Hematite, largest quantity used). The question specifically asks for the 'most important industrial' ore, which the text links to the quantity used.


Question 34.3:

“Iron ore is a basic mineral.” Support the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The statement "Iron ore is a basic mineral" is supported by the text and general economic knowledge for the following reasons:


1. Backbone of Industrial Development: The source itself calls iron ore "the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development."


2. Raw Material for Steel: Iron ore is the primary raw material for the production of pig iron, which is then used to make steel. Steel is a crucial material used in the manufacturing of machinery, tools, automobiles, construction of infrastructure like bridges and buildings, and countless other industrial and consumer goods. Without iron ore, the entire industrial structure would collapse.
Quick Tip: A 'basic' or 'key' industry is one whose products are used as raw materials by many other industries. The iron and steel industry is the classic example of a basic industry, making its raw material, iron ore, a basic mineral.


Question 35:

Kanta works in the organised sector. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc. It is called Organised Sector because it has some formal processes and procedures. Some of these people may not be employed by anyone but may work on their own, but they too have to register themselves with the government and follow the rules and regulations.


Question 35.1:
Mention any one feature of the working conditions of organised sector.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



One feature of the working conditions in the organised sector, as mentioned in the source, is that the terms of employment are regular and people have assured work.
Quick Tip: The core idea of the organised sector is 'regularity' and 'security' of work, governed by formal rules and laws.


Question 35.2:

Explain any one benefit provided by the employers to the organised sector employees.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



One benefit provided by employers in the organised sector is job security. As the text states, "people have assured work." Beyond this, because these enterprises are registered under laws like the Factories Act and Minimum Wages Act, employees also receive other benefits such as paid leave, provident fund, gratuity, and medical benefits, which are not available in the unorganised sector.
Quick Tip: Benefits in the organised sector are often called 'social security benefits'. These are legal entitlements that protect workers from various life contingencies.


Question 35.3:

Why is it necessary for all self-employed people to register with the government?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



According to the source, it is necessary for self-employed people to register themselves with the government so that they "follow the rules and regulations."

This is necessary for two main reasons:

1. Compliance: It ensures that they comply with various government laws, such as tax laws (GST, income tax), labour laws (if they employ others), and environmental regulations. This brings them into the formal economy.

2. Access to Benefits: Registration also allows these self-employed individuals and their enterprises to access benefits offered by the government, such as bank loans at lower interest rates, participation in government tenders, and support from various government schemes.
Quick Tip: Registration is a two-way street. It makes an enterprise accountable to the government's rules, but it also makes the enterprise eligible for the government's support and benefits.


Question 36:

During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground. Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas. To be revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that had been established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom. Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom.



Question 36.1 :
Mention any one political demand of the liberals.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



One political demand of the liberals, as mentioned in the text, was to oppose monarchical forms of government that had been established after the Vienna Congress of 1815. They also fought for liberty and freedom.
Quick Tip: After 1815, 'liberalism' and 'nationalism' were revolutionary ideas that stood for the end of aristocracy and monarchy, and the creation of democratic nation-states based on a constitution.


Question 36.2:

Mention the main cause for the rise of secret societies in European States.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The main cause for the rise of secret societies, according to the source, was the fear of repression by the conservative monarchical regimes established after 1815. The text states, "the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground. Secret societies sprang up..."
Quick Tip: When open political activity is banned, opposition tends to go underground. Secret societies became the primary vehicle for spreading liberal-nationalist ideas in an era of conservative repression.


Question 36.3:

Analyse the reasons for many liberal-nationalists going underground after 1815.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The reasons for many liberal-nationalists going underground after 1815 are:

1. Establishment of Conservative Regimes: The Vienna Congress of 1815 restored monarchies that were conservative in nature. These new regimes were autocratic and did not tolerate criticism or dissent.


2. Repression of Liberal Ideas: They actively sought to repress the ideas of liberty and freedom that had spread during the French Revolution. They imposed censorship laws to control the press and suppress any challenge to their legitimacy.


3. Fear of Persecution: As a result, openly advocating for liberal-nationalist ideas like constitutionalism, national unification, and an end to aristocratic privileges became dangerous. To avoid arrest, persecution, and to continue their struggle, the revolutionaries were forced to operate in secret, leading them to go underground and form secret societies.
Quick Tip: The year 1815 marks the beginning of a period of conservative reaction against the French Revolution's ideals. The struggle between these old conservative forces and the new liberal-nationalist forces defined European politics for the next few decades.


Question 37(a):

Identify the places marked 'A' and 'B' on the political outline map of India.

A. The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1927.

B. The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A. The Indian National Congress session of 1927 was held in Madras (now Chennai). The location marked 'A' on the map correctly points to Madras in Tamil Nadu.


B. Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law at the end of the Salt March on April 6, 1930, at Dandi, a coastal village in Gujarat. The location marked 'B' on the map correctly points to Dandi.
Quick Tip: For history map work, associating key events of the freedom struggle with their specific locations is crucial. The 1927 Madras session (presided over by M.A. Ansari, decision to boycott Simon Commission) and Dandi (culmination of the Salt March) are very important landmarks.


Question 37(b):

On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following.

(i) An international airport of West Bengal

(ii) A software technology park of Karnataka

(iii) A nuclear power plant located in Maharashtra

(iv) A major sea port of Odisha

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The locations for three of the given items are as follows:


(i) An international airport of West Bengal: This is the Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport, located in Kolkata.


(ii) A software technology park of Karnataka: The most prominent software technology park in Karnataka is located in Bengaluru (Bangalore).


(iv) A major sea port of Odisha: The major sea port in Odisha is Paradip.



Quick Tip: For geography map work, focus on one major example for each category per state. For instance: West Bengal airport = Kolkata, Karnataka IT park = Bengaluru, Maharashtra nuclear plant = Tarapur, Odisha seaport = Paradip. This makes recall easier.


For Visually Impaired Candidates

Question 37(a):

(i) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1927.
(ii) Name the place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



(i) The session of the Indian National Congress in 1927 was held in Madras (now Chennai).


(ii) Mahatma Gandhi broke the Salt Law at the coastal village of Dandi in Gujarat.
Quick Tip: Associating the year with the event and place is crucial for questions on Indian Nationalism. For instance, 1927 is linked to the Madras INC session (which decided to boycott the Simon Commission), and 1930 is linked to the Dandi March and the breaking of the Salt Law.


For Visually Impaired Candidates

Question 37(b):

Attempt any three questions.
(i) Name the place where an international airport is located in West Bengal.
(ii) Name the place where a software technology park is located in Karnataka.
(iii) Name the place where a nuclear power plant is located in Maharashtra.
(iv) Name the place where a major sea port is located in Odisha.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



(i) The Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose International Airport is located in Kolkata, West Bengal.


(ii) A major software technology park in Karnataka is located in Bengaluru (Bangalore).


(iii) The Tarapur Atomic Power Station, a nuclear power plant, is located in Tarapur, Maharashtra.


(iv) A major sea port in Odisha is the Paradip Port.
Quick Tip: For map-based questions, it's essential to remember the location of at least one major example of key infrastructure (airports, seaports, nuclear plants, software parks) for the important states of India.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

Ask your question

Subscribe To Our News Letter

Get Latest Notification Of Colleges, Exams and News

© 2026 Patronum Web Private Limited