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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Sep 13, 2025

The CBSE 2025 Class 10 Social Science exam was held on 25th Feb, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 is available here with Solution PDF. The Social Science theory paper is of 80 marks, while 20 marks are allocated for the internal assessment

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper Set-1 32/6/1 with Solutions

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

Rama is a farmer. She needs loan for agriculture work. Which of the following sources of loan will be beneficial for Rama? Choose the most appropriate option:

I. Bank
II. Agricultural Trader
III. Self-Help Group
IV. Government

  • (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (B) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (C) Only II, III and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Only I, III and IV are correct.
View Solution



For agricultural loans, the most reliable and commonly used sources are formal institutions like Bank, Self-Help Groups (SHGs), and the Government through various schemes. These institutions provide regulated credit facilities with structured repayment plans. In contrast, Agricultural Traders are informal sources and may charge high interest, making them less beneficial. Therefore, options I (Bank), III (Self-Help Group), and IV (Government) are beneficial loan sources for Rama.
Quick Tip: In agriculture-related loan questions, prefer institutional sources like banks, SHGs, and government schemes over informal ones like traders.


Question 2:

'Per capita income' is criterion for development of which one of the following?

  • (A) United Nations Development Programme
  • (B) World Health Organisation
  • (C) World Trade Organisation
  • (D) World Bank
Correct Answer: (D) World Bank
View Solution



The World Bank uses per capita income as the main criterion to classify countries into income groups such as low-income, middle-income, and high-income economies. While the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) uses broader indicators like the Human Development Index (HDI) that include health and education along with income, and WHO and WTO focus on health and trade respectively, they do not use per capita income as their primary classification criterion.
Quick Tip: Remember: World Bank = Per Capita Income; UNDP = HDI (health + education + income).


Question 3:

Read the following statements for stimulating the process of globalization and choose the correct options:

I. Government reduces trade barriers.
II. Government reduces competition among producers.
III. Government reduces import and export taxes.
IV. Government removes restrictions on foreign investment.

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
    (B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
    (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
    (D) Only I, II and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
View Solution



Globalization is promoted by policies that open up the economy, such as reducing trade barriers, lowering import-export taxes, and removing restrictions on foreign investment. However, reducing competition among producers goes against the principle of globalization, which encourages more competition and market integration.
Quick Tip: Globalization thrives on liberal economic policies—focus on openness and integration.


Question 4:

Which of the following provisions have been made under the ‘Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act – 2005’?

  • (A) Government ensures 100 days of employment for all residents.
    (B) Government ensures 200 days of employment for all rural residents.
    (C) Government provides grains in exchange of work in rural areas.
    (D) Government provides unemployment allowance to the beneficiaries in case of failure to provide employment.
Correct Answer: (D) Government provides unemployment allowance to the beneficiaries in case of failure to provide employment.
View Solution



The MGNREGA Act guarantees 100 days of wage employment to rural households willing to do unskilled manual work. If employment is not provided within 15 days of the application, the government must provide unemployment allowance. This provision ensures accountability and support to rural workers.
Quick Tip: MGNREGA ensures job security through employment guarantee and unemployment compensation.


Question 5:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Rupees is accepted as medium of exchange in India.
Reason (R): The World Bank legalises the use of rupee as a medium of payment in India.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
    (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Correct Answer: (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
View Solution



The Indian Rupee is accepted as a medium of exchange because it is authorized by the Government of India and recognized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The World Bank does not legalize currencies for domestic use. Hence, the assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
Quick Tip: Currency legal status is conferred by national governments, not global institutions like the World Bank.


Question 6:

Find the odd one out.

  • (A) Hindustan Computers Limited
    (B) Hindustan Unilever
    (C) Bharti Airtel Limited
    (D) Indian Postal Service
Correct Answer: (D) Indian Postal Service
View Solution



All options except Indian Postal Service are private or corporate enterprises. Indian Postal Service is a government-operated entity providing communication and logistical services, making it the odd one out.
Quick Tip: Look for public vs private sector distinctions when identifying the odd one.


Question 7:

Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the following:
Column-I (Publications)            Column-II (Authors)
a. Bengal Gazette                       ii. James August Hickey
b. Kesari                                     iv. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c. Ramcharitmanas                    i. Tulsidas
d. Samvad Kaumudi                  iii. Ram Mohan Roy

  • (A) a-i \quad b-ii \quad c-iii \quad d-iv
    (B) a-ii \quad b-iii \quad c-iv \quad d-i
    (C) a-ii \quad b-iv \quad c-i \quad d-iii
    (D) a-iv \quad b-i \quad c-ii \quad d-iii
Correct Answer: (C) a-ii \quad b-iv \quad c-i \quad d-iii
View Solution



Bengal Gazette was started by James August Hickey; Kesari was associated with Bal Gangadhar Tilak; Ramcharitmanas was authored by Tulsidas; and Samvad Kaumudi was published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Quick Tip: Focus on matching historical publications to reformers and literary figures accurately.


Question 8:

Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option:

I. Second Round Table Conference
II. Simon Commission arrives in India
III. Beginning of Dandi March
IV. Incident of Chauri-Chaura

  • (A) I, II, III and IV
    (B) IV, II, III and I
    (C) IV, I, II and III
    (D) I, II, IV and III
Correct Answer: (B) IV, II, III and I
View Solution



Chronological order of events:

IV. Chauri-Chaura (1922)

II. Simon Commission arrives (1928)

III. Dandi March (1930)

I. Second Round Table Conference (1931)

Thus, the correct sequence is IV, II, III, I.
Quick Tip: Use event years as anchors for chronological arrangement in modern Indian history.


Question 9:

In the 17th century the city El Dorado in South America became famous as which one of the following?

  • (A) City of Diversity
  • (B) City of Gold
  • (C) Small pox City
  • (D) Trading City
Correct Answer: (B) City of Gold
View Solution



El Dorado was a mythical city believed to be full of gold and riches, attracting explorers and treasure hunters during the colonial period. It became symbolic of the European quest for wealth in the Americas.
Quick Tip: El Dorado is historically associated with gold legends in South America.


Question 10:

Arrange the following regions of Italy in the order of their inclusion in the Unified Italy and choose the correct option:

I. Venetia
II. Savoy Sardinia
III. Sicilies

  • (A) I, II and III
  • (B) II, III and I
  • (C) I, III and II
  • (D) II, I and III
Correct Answer: (B) II, III and I
View Solution



Savoy Sardinia led the unification process; the Kingdom of Two Sicilies joined next through Garibaldi's efforts; finally, Venetia was annexed in 1866. Hence, the correct chronological order is II, III and I.
Quick Tip: Remember the order: Sardinia → Sicilies → Venetia in Italian unification.


Question 11:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): There was civil war in Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): An Act was passed in 1956 to secure dominance of Sinhala community on the government.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
  • (D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution



The civil war in Sri Lanka began due to ethnic tensions between the Sinhala majority and Tamil minority. The 1956 Act making Sinhala the sole official language intensified these tensions, leading to prolonged civil conflict.
Quick Tip: Link language policy with ethnic tensions in Sri Lanka’s conflict.


Question 12:

Choose the correct option related to the regional political parties of India:

Party Name                                    Election Symbol & State
Rashtriya Lok Dal                         Mashal & Uttar Pradesh
Telugu Desam                               Cycle & Andhra Pradesh
Telangana Rashtra Samiti            Kite & Telangana
Shiromani Akali Dal                      Chashma & Punjab

 

  • (A) Rashtriya Lok Dal – Mashal – Uttar Pradesh
  • (B) Telugu Desam – Cycle – Andhra Pradesh
  • (C) Telangana Rashtra Samiti – Kite – Telangana
  • (D) Shiromani Akali Dal – Chashma – Punjab
Correct Answer: (C) Telangana Rashtra Samiti – Kite – Telangana
View Solution



Each regional party has a distinct election symbol and operates in a specific state. The correct match for Telangana Rashtra Samiti is ‘Kite’ in Telangana.
Quick Tip: Match regional parties with their stronghold states and unique symbols.


Question 13:

Choose the correct option related to Union list.

  • (A) Police, Foreign affairs, Agriculture
  • (B) Trade, Irrigation, Marriage
  • (C) Education, Commerce, Banking
  • (D) Currency, Communication, Defence
Correct Answer: (D) Currency, Communication, Defence
View Solution



The Union List contains subjects of national importance. Currency, Communication, and Defence are exclusively handled by the central government and are part of this list.
Quick Tip: Union list = matters of national significance handled by the central government.


Question 14:

Read the following statements regarding the creation of States on the basis of language in India and choose the correct options:

I. Formation of states on the basis of language made the country more united and stronger.
II. Formation of states on the basis of language made administration easier.
III. Formation of states on the basis of language has weakened the federal structure.
IV. Formation of states on the basis of language led to the development of Indian languages.

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only II, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
View Solution



Linguistic reorganization helped unite people culturally and linguistically, simplified governance, and promoted regional languages. It did not weaken the federal structure, hence statement III is incorrect.
Quick Tip: Language-based reorganization helped in unity, governance, and cultural preservation.


Question 15:

How is democracy better than other forms of Government? Choose the most appropriate option.

  • (A) It enhances the dignity of individuals.
  • (B) It promotes equality among elites.
  • (C) It promotes tendency of private ownership only.
  • (D) It increases the individualism.
Correct Answer: (A) It enhances the dignity of individuals.
View Solution



Democracy respects individual rights and gives everyone a voice. It upholds equality, justice, and dignity, enabling participation in decision-making.
Quick Tip: Democracy = dignity, participation, and equality.


Question 16:

Belgium took some measures to solve its problem. Read the following measures and choose the correct option:

I. Formation of community government.
II. Following majoritarian policy.
III. By providing equal representation of language groups.
IV. By providing additional powers to local governments.

  • (A) Only I, II and III are correct.
  • (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
  • (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
  • (D) Only II, III and IV are correct.
Correct Answer: (B) Only I, III and IV are correct.
View Solution



Belgium avoided majoritarianism by creating a federal system with community government, equal representation for language groups, and strong local self-governance. Statement II is incorrect.
Quick Tip: Belgium’s model avoided domination through power-sharing and inclusivity.


Question 17:

Which state of India has the maximum area under permanent forest?

  • (A) Haryana
  • (B) Himachal Pradesh
  • (C) Punjab
  • (D) Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer: (D) Madhya Pradesh
View Solution



Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under forest cover in India, owing to its vast geographical size and dense forest regions.
Quick Tip: Madhya Pradesh = Maximum forest cover due to area and terrain.


Question 18:

Read the characteristics given in the box and identify the type of coal from the option given below:

This is low grade brown coal.
The principal reserves are in Neyveli in Tamilnadu.
It is soft with high moisture content.

  • (A) Pit Coal
  • (B) Anthracite Coal
  • (C) Lignite Coal
  • (D) Bituminous Coal
Correct Answer: (C) Lignite Coal
View Solution



Lignite is a low-grade brown coal with high moisture content and less carbon content. Its principal reserves are found in Neyveli, Tamil Nadu. It is softer compared to other types of coal and is used mainly for power generation.
Quick Tip: Lignite = Brown, moist, soft coal found in Neyveli (TN).


Question 19:

Which among the following crop is known as ‘Golden Fibre’?

  • (A) Cotton
  • (B) Wool
  • (C) Jute
  • (D) Silk
Correct Answer: (C) Jute
View Solution



Jute is referred to as the ‘Golden Fibre’ because of its golden, silky texture and high economic value. It is used to make gunny bags, ropes, mats, and other eco-friendly products.
Quick Tip: Golden Fibre = Jute; mainly grown in eastern India (WB, Assam).


Question 20:

Choose the correctly matched pair:

Multi-purpose River Project                     River
Gandhi Sagar                                             Chambal
Hirakud                                                       Godavari
Nagarjuna Sagar                                        Kaveri
Salal                                                            Beas

 

  • (A) Gandhi Sagar – Chambal
  • (B) Hirakud – Godavari
  • (C) Nagarjuna Sagar – Kaveri
  • (D) Salal – Beas
Correct Answer: (A) Gandhi Sagar – Chambal
View Solution



Gandhi Sagar Dam is built on the Chambal River and is part of the Chambal Valley Project. Other options are mismatched—Hirakud is on the Mahanadi, Nagarjuna Sagar is on the Krishna, and Salal is on the Chenab.
Quick Tip: Match major dams with their correct rivers; Gandhi Sagar → Chambal.


Question 21:

How did information and communication technology promote the process of Globalization? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Information and communication technology (ICT) played a major role in promoting globalization by enabling faster and more efficient communication across countries. It allowed businesses to manage international operations, coordinate production, and deliver services globally, reducing costs and improving connectivity.
Quick Tip: ICT bridges time and distance, facilitating economic and cultural exchange globally.


Question 22:

How did Indians react to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Indians reacted with nationwide anger and sorrow to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. Protests spread across the country, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood, and the incident united Indians against colonial oppression, intensifying the freedom movement.
Quick Tip: The massacre transformed moderate protest into mass resistance against British rule.


Question 23:

Why is the conservation of conventional sources of energy significant? Explain any two reasons.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. Conventional sources like coal and petroleum are non-renewable and finite. Conservation helps prevent their rapid depletion.

2. Burning these fuels causes pollution and global warming. Conservation reduces environmental damage and promotes sustainability.
Quick Tip: Save fossil fuels today to ensure a cleaner, secure energy future tomorrow.


Question 24:

Suggest any two measures to promote secularism as mentioned in the Indian Constitution.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. The state provides equal protection to all religions without favoring any.

2. Citizens are free to profess, practice, and propagate any religion of their choice.
Quick Tip: Secularism protects religious freedom and promotes national unity.


Question 25:

Suggest any two measures to ensure participation of women in public life.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



1. Reservation of seats for women in local governance bodies increases political participation.

2. Promoting women’s education and awareness empowers them to take leadership roles in society.
Quick Tip: Empowered women lead to an inclusive and progressive society.


Question 26:

Define ‘Gross Domestic Product’ and explain its importance.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a specific period, usually a year.


Importance:

It reflects the economic performance of a country.
It helps in comparing economic productivity across countries and time.
Policymakers use it to formulate economic policies and allocate resources. Quick Tip: GDP measures national income and is a key indicator of economic health.


Question 27:

Explain the main provisions of the Napoleonic Code – 1804.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




It established equality before the law and abolished feudal privileges.
It secured the right to property and promoted legal uniformity.
It simplified administrative systems and was adopted in many European regions under French rule. Quick Tip: The Napoleonic Code was a foundation for modern civil law in Europe.


Question 28:

Explain any three features of Plantation Agriculture.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




It is a large-scale commercial farming system focused on a single crop like tea, coffee, or rubber.
It requires large capital investment, skilled labor, and modern equipment.
The produce is mainly for export and is linked to global markets. Quick Tip: Plantation farming = monoculture + commercial + export-oriented.


Question 29:

Explain any three factors responsible for water pollution.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Industrial waste discharge into rivers and lakes.
Agricultural runoff containing pesticides and fertilizers.
Domestic sewage and garbage dumped into water bodies. Quick Tip: Pollution sources = Industrial + Agricultural + Domestic.


Question 30:

Explain any three factors responsible for air pollution.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Emissions from vehicles and industrial activities.
Burning of fossil fuels and biomass.
Release of harmful gases like carbon monoxide and sulfur dioxide. Quick Tip: Air pollution mainly comes from vehicles, industries, and burning fuels.


Question 31:

Differentiate between federal and unitary form of government with examples.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



\begin{tabular{|p{6cm|p{6cm|
\hline
Federal Government & Unitary Government

\hline
Power is divided between central and state governments. & Power is concentrated in the central government.

\hline
Examples: India, USA & Examples: UK, China

\hline
Constitution provides for multiple levels of government. & Constitution may or may not recognize regional governments.

\hline
\end{tabular Quick Tip: Federal = shared powers; Unitary = centralized power.


Question 32:

“The consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national and state boundaries.” Examine the statement in context of sustainability of development.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Environmental degradation refers to the deterioration of the natural environment due to human activities such as deforestation, pollution, and over-exploitation of resources. These effects are not limited by political boundaries. For example:

Air pollution from industries in one region can drift into neighboring states or countries, causing acid rain or smog.
River pollution in one state affects water quality downstream in others.
Climate change impacts global weather patterns, leading to floods, droughts, and sea-level rise that affect all nations.

Sustainable development means meeting present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. This requires:

International cooperation on environmental issues.
Use of cleaner technologies and renewable resources.
Environmental laws and cross-border agreements to reduce degradation. Quick Tip: Global environmental issues demand sustainable development strategies beyond political borders.


Question 33:

“The question of sustainability of development becoming more complex day by day.” Examine the statement in context of use of underground water in India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The sustainability of development refers to the balanced use of natural resources for economic growth without harming ecological balance. The case of underground water in India highlights the growing complexity:

Over-extraction: Excessive use of groundwater for irrigation in states like Punjab and Haryana has led to alarming declines in water tables.
Inequity: Rich farmers using tube wells and electric pumps deplete water, leaving small farmers with less access.
Lack of regulation: In many areas, there is no control over groundwater usage.
Pollution: Groundwater is also becoming polluted due to fertilizers and industrial waste.

To ensure sustainable development, there must be:

Rainwater harvesting and groundwater recharge.
Improved irrigation methods like drip and sprinkler systems.
Legal frameworks to regulate extraction. Quick Tip: Sustainable groundwater use requires regulation, awareness, and efficient technology.


Question 34:

Analyse the changes in Indian printing by the end of the 19th century.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The Indian printing industry witnessed major developments by the end of the 19th century:

Increased access: With the expansion of literacy and education, printed material in vernacular languages spread among the masses.
Nationalism: Reformers and revolutionaries used print media to spread awareness about social evils and British exploitation.
Women’s participation: Magazines and books began addressing women’s education and social roles.
Social reforms: Leaders like Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar used print to campaign against child marriage and promote widow remarriage.
Growth of newspapers: Regional newspapers such as 'Kesari' (Marathi) and 'Amrita Bazar Patrika' (Bengali) gained popularity. Quick Tip: Print in India became a tool for education, reform, and freedom struggle.


Question 35:

Analyze the significant changes in printing technology during 19th century in the world.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The 19th century was a revolutionary period for global printing:

Steam-powered printing press: Increased speed and volume of printing, making newspapers and books affordable.
Rotary press (1843): Enabled continuous printing on paper rolls, increasing efficiency.
Cheaper paper and ink: Lowered costs, making printed material accessible to the middle and working classes.
Growth in literacy: Public education created demand for textbooks, newspapers, novels, etc.
Rise of public opinion: Print media became a vehicle for social, political, and cultural change. Quick Tip: Advancements in printing helped spread literacy and democratic ideas globally.


Question 36:

Explain the main features of alluvial soil.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Alluvial soil is one of the most fertile and widely spread soils in India. Its features include:

Formation: Formed by deposits from rivers like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Indus.
Fertility: Rich in minerals like potash, lime, and phosphoric acid, making it ideal for agriculture.
Texture: Fine particles and good water retention capacity.
Distribution: Found in the Indo-Gangetic plain, deltas, and river valleys.
Types: Khadar (new alluvium – more fertile) and Bangar (old alluvium – less fertile).

Suitable crops include rice, wheat, sugarcane, and pulses. Quick Tip: Alluvial soil supports dense farming and feeds a large part of India’s population.


Question 37:

Explain the various stages of resource planning and its need in India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Stages of Resource Planning:

Identification and inventory of resources: Mapping of resources through surveys and technology like GIS.
Planning structure: Based on need, availability, and development priorities of a region.
Implementation and monitoring: Using appropriate technology and administrative measures.

Need in India:

Resources are unevenly distributed – some regions are rich, others are poor.
Over-exploitation in some areas causes degradation.
To ensure equitable, sustainable, and long-term use of resources. Quick Tip: India’s vast diversity requires region-specific resource planning.


Question 38:

“The law enacted in 1956 and other Constitutional Provisions led to major conflict between the two communities in Sri Lanka.” Support the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The 1956 Sinhala Only Act made Sinhala the sole official language of Sri Lanka, excluding Tamil. This, along with other policies, led to:

Discrimination in jobs and education – Tamils faced reduced opportunities.
Political exclusion – Tamils were denied equal representation.
Cultural marginalization – Tamil language and identity were undermined.
Emergence of Tamil nationalism – Peaceful protests were followed by demands for autonomy, and eventually civil war.

The majoritarian policies of the Sinhala-dominated government led to deep distrust and prolonged ethnic conflict. Quick Tip: Ethnic conflicts can arise when majority communities suppress minority rights.


Question 39:

“Power sharing increases trust between different groups.” Support the statement.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Power sharing is essential in democracies to prevent the dominance of one group over others. It promotes:

Social harmony: By ensuring that all groups feel represented.
Political stability: Prevents conflicts by distributing power between various organs and levels of government.
Examples:

Belgium: Equal representation of Dutch and French communities ensured peace.
India: Federal structure and reservation system give voice to minorities.

Decentralization: Local governments give people power over local issues. Quick Tip: Sharing power makes governance inclusive and builds public trust.


Question 40:

(34.1) Which sector includes credit facilities offered by Co-operative Societies?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The credit facilities offered by Co-operative Societies are part of the formal sector of credit. These are regulated institutions that operate under financial and legal frameworks and offer secure credit to their members. Quick Tip: Formal credit includes banks and co-operatives that follow official norms and offer low-interest loans.


Question 41:

(34.2) How do Self-Help Groups access external funding?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Self-Help Groups (SHGs) access external funding by pooling the small savings of their members regularly. After demonstrating good financial discipline, they become eligible for bank loans. Banks lend to the group collectively, and the group distributes the funds to individual members for personal or entrepreneurial use. Quick Tip: SHGs strengthen rural credit by using pooled savings and building trust with banks.


Question 42:

(34.3) Explain the functioning of Co-operative Societies.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Co-operative Societies operate by pooling resources from their members, often within the same profession or locality. Their functioning includes:

Accepting deposits from members which are used as collateral to borrow from banks.
Using these loans to give affordable credit to members for agriculture, housing, trade, and other needs.
Recycling repaid loans for new lending rounds.
Operating democratically with each member having a voice in decisions.

They reduce dependency on moneylenders and provide an organized credit system in rural areas. Quick Tip: Co-operatives work on mutual trust and shared resources, providing low-cost credit to members.


Question 43:

(35.1) Why was Swaraj considered as an inalienable right of the Indian people?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Swaraj, or self-rule, was considered an inalienable right because it symbolized the natural entitlement of every citizen to freedom and dignity. It ensured that Indians could govern themselves, enjoy economic benefits from their labor, and live free from foreign domination and exploitation. Quick Tip: Swaraj was linked to freedom, equality, and national pride.


Question 44:

(35.2) Which type of government is supported in the source?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The source supports a democratic and independent government where the people have the power to elect representatives and govern themselves. It opposes colonial rule and promotes the idea of self-governance rooted in liberty and justice. Quick Tip: The pledge supports democratic self-rule over exploitative colonial control.


Question 45:

(35.3) Explain any two effects of British rule in India.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Economic Ruin: The British drained India’s wealth by exporting raw materials and importing manufactured goods, leading to the collapse of traditional industries and unemployment.
Political Oppression: Indians were denied political rights and participation in administration. Decisions were taken by British officials without Indian consent, fueling discontent and national movements. Quick Tip: British rule weakened India’s economy and suppressed its political autonomy.


Question 46:

Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:


A. The place where the session of Indian National Congress took place in 1927.
B. The place where Mahatma Gandhi led the movement of cotton mill workers.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A. Madras (now Chennai)

B. Ahmedabad
Quick Tip: Link key historical events to locations—Madras for INC session (1927), Ahmedabad for Gandhi’s labor movement.


Question 47:

(i) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress took place in 1927.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Madras (now Chennai) Quick Tip: 1927 INC session at Madras endorsed complete independence.


Question 48:

(ii) Name the place where Mahatma Gandhi led the movement of cotton mill workers.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Ahmedabad Quick Tip: Ahmedabad was central to Gandhi’s early Satyagraha and labor movements.


Question 49:

On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:

(i) An International Airport located in Punjab.
(ii) A major Sea port located in Gujarat.
(iii) A major oil field of India located in Arabian Sea.
(iv) A Nuclear Power Plant located in Uttar Pradesh.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



(i) Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport – Amritsar (Punjab)

(ii) Kandla Port – Gujarat

(iii) Mumbai High Oil Fields – Arabian Sea

(iv) Narora Nuclear Power Plant – Uttar Pradesh



Quick Tip: Practice map labeling for major ports, airports, oil fields, and power stations.


Question 50:

(i) Name the place where an International Airport is located in Punjab.

Correct Answer:
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Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport, Amritsar Quick Tip: Amritsar is home to Punjab’s major international airport named after Guru Ram Dass Ji.


Question 51:

(ii) Name the place where major sea port is located in Gujarat.

Correct Answer:
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Kandla Quick Tip: Kandla is a tidal port and one of the largest in India, located in Gujarat.


Question 52:

(iii) Name an oil field of India located in Arabian Sea.

Correct Answer:
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Mumbai High Quick Tip: Mumbai High is India’s most productive offshore oil field in the Arabian Sea.


Question 53:

(iv) Name the place where nuclear power plant is located in Uttar Pradesh.

Correct Answer:
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Narora Quick Tip: Narora Nuclear Power Plant is a key source of atomic energy in Uttar Pradesh.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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