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| Updated On - Sep 15, 2026

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Set 2 - (32/4/2) Question Paper 2026 is now available here for download. CBSE conducted the class 10 Social Science exam on March 7, 2026, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science paper is of 100 marks, out of which 80 marks are allocated for theory paper and 20 marks are allocated for internal assessment. The question paper is divided into 4 sections - History, Geography, Political Science and Economics (20 marks for each section).

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Set 2 - (32/4/2) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Set 2 - (32/4/2) Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions

CBSE Class 10 Social Science 2026 Set 2 (32/4/2) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The given painting is from the sixteenth century from Mughal India. Identify the work shown in this painting from the following options:

  • (A) Minting of coins
  • (B) Metal crafting
  • (C) Pottery making
  • (D) Book making

Question 2:

Which one of the following areas in Calcutta was devoted to the printing of popular books in the 19th century?

  • (A) Baranagar
  • (B) Jadavpur
  • (C) Alipore
  • (D) Batala

Question 3:

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Column – A (Writer)Column – B (Contribution)
(A) Ram ChaddhaBengal Gazette
(B) Gangadhar BhattacharyaKesari
(C) Jyotiba PhuleGulamgiri
(D) Rashsundari DeviPadmarg

  • (A) Ram Chaddha – Bengal Gazette
  • (B) Gangadhar Bhattacharya – Kesari
  • (C) Jyotiba Phule – Gulamgiri
  • (D) Rashsundari Devi – Padmarg

Question 4:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion (A): Silver from Peru and Mexico enhanced the wealth of Europe in the sixteenth century.
Reason (R): Europe used this silver to finance its trade with Asia.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 5:

Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option:

I. Second Round Table Conference
II. Formation of Depressed Class Association
III. Lahore Session of Indian National Congress
IV. Formation of Awadh Kissan Sabha

  • (A) I, II, IV, III
  • (B) I, II, III, IV
  • (C) IV, III, II, I
  • (D) IV, III, I, II

Question 6:

“Food offered many examples of long distance cultural exchange during pre-modern times.” Explain the statement with any two examples.


Question 7:

“Trade and cultural exchange went hand-in-hand during pre-modern times.” Explain the statement with any two examples.


Question 8:

Evaluate the role of print in the French Revolution.


Question 9:

Evaluate the role of Buddhist missionaries in printing culture.


Question 10:

Describe the role of Balkans in the outbreak of World War – I.


Question 11:

Describe the role of European artists in promoting nationalism during nineteenth century.


Comprehension:

Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Quit India Movement

Read More The failure of the Cripps Mission and the effects of World War II created widespread discontentment in India. This led Gandhiji to launch a movement calling for complete withdrawal of the British from India. The Congress Working Committee, in its meeting in Wardha on 14 July 1942, passed the historic ‘Quit India’ resolution demanding the immediate transfer of power to Indians and quit India. On 8th August 1942 in Bombay, the All India Congress Committee endorsed the resolution which called for a non-violent mass struggle on the widest possible scale throughout the country. It was on this occasion that Gandhiji delivered the famous ‘Do or Die’ speech. The call for ‘Quit India’ almost brought the state machinery to a standstill in large parts of the country as people voluntarily threw themselves into the thick of the movement. People observed hartals, and demonstrations and processions were accompanied by national songs and slogans. The movement was truly a mass movement which brought into its ambit thousands of ordinary people, namely students, workers and peasants. It also saw the active participation of leaders, namely, Jayprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali and Ram Manohar Lohia and many women such as Matangini Hazra in Bengal, Kanaklata Barua in Assam and Rama Devi in Orissa. The British responded with much force, yet it took more than a year to suppress the movement.

Question 12:

How did the failure of the Cripps Mission contribute to the launch of the Quit India Movement?


Question 13:

Why was the call given by Gandhiji for ‘Quit India’ considered historic?


Question 14:

Explain the role of women in making the Quit India Movement more inclusive.


Question 15:

Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:

A. The place where Gandhiji broke the Salt Law.
B. The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held.


Question 16:

Name the place where Gandhiji broke the Salt Law.


Question 17:

Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920 in Eastern India.


Question 18:

Which one of the following crops grows well in hot and humid climate?

  • (A) Sugarcane
  • (B) Peas
  • (C) Wheat
  • (D) Gram

Question 19:

In which of the following categories of ‘land-use’ has India registered an increase?

  • (A) Permanent pasture
  • (B) Unsuitable for agriculture
  • (C) Barren
  • (D) Forest

Question 20:

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:

  • (A) Non-metallic
  • (B) Metallic
  • (C) Precious
  • (D) Energy

Question 21:

Match Column – I with Column – II and choose the correct option:

Column – I (National Park)Column – II (States)
a. Corbetti. Rajasthan
b. Sunderbanii. Uttarakhand
c. Sariskaiii. Kerala
d. Periyariv. West Bengal

  • (A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
  • (B) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
  • (C) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
  • (D) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

Question 22:

In which of the following regions did the “Beej-Bachao Andolan” of farmers begin?

  • (A) Kumaon
  • (B) Tehri
  • (C) Almora
  • (D) Chamoli

Question 23:

Read the given infographics carefully and choose the correct option that identifies the soil described:

(1)(2)(3)
Sandy in textureRed to brown in colourSoil lacks humus due to dry climate

  • (A) Laterite soil
  • (B) Forest soil
  • (C) Arid soil
  • (D) Black soil

Question 24:

If every farmer in India follows modern farming practices, explain any two positive changes this could bring to villages.


Question 25:

Examine the importance of Bio-gas energy in rural areas.


Question 26:

Examine the significance of natural gas for industrial usage.


Comprehension:

Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:

Sardar Sarovar Project

Read More Sardar Sarovar Dam has been built over the Narmada river in Gujarat. This is one of the largest water resources projects of India covering four states – Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan. The Sardar Sarovar Project would meet the requirement of water in drought prone and desert areas. Sardar Sarovar Project will provide irrigation facilities to 18.45 lakh hectare of land, covering 3112 villages in 15 districts of Gujarat. It will also irrigate 2,46,000 hectare of land in the strategic desert districts of Barmer and Jalore in Rajasthan and 37,500 hectare in the tribal hilly tract of Maharashtra through lift. About 75% of the command area in Gujarat is drought prone while entire command in Rajasthan is drought prone. Assured water supply will soon make this area drought proof.

Question 27:

Why is Sardar Sarovar Project considered important for Gujarat?


Question 28:

Why is Sardar Sarovar Project designed to cover four states?


Question 29:

In what ways does this project promote sustainability?


Question 30:

On the same outline map of India given for Q. No. 9, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols:

(i) The major dam constructed on the Chenab river
(ii) Nuclear power plant in Maharashtra
(iii) Software Technology Park in Tamil Nadu
(iv) International Airport in Punjab


Question 31:

Name the dam built on River Chenab in India.


Question 32:

Name the place where ‘nuclear power plant’ is located in Maharashtra.


Question 33:

Name the place where software technology park is located in Tamil Nadu.


Question 34:

Name the place where international airport is located in Punjab.


Question 35:

Look at the given picture carefully and choose the most appropriate option:

Which of the following is a strength of democracy highlighted in the cartoon?

  • (A) Avoidance of social conflicts.
  • (B) Quick decision-making
  • (C) Concentration of power with one
  • (D) Thinking accommodation of various demands.

Question 36:

In a democracy, the government is responsible:

  • (A) Towards prosperous societies
  • (B) Towards deprived societies
  • (C) Towards communities
  • (D) Towards citizens.

Question 37:

Read the given statements regarding decentralisation in India and choose the correct option:

i. Rural local government is known as Panchayati Raj.
ii. Each village or group of villages have Gram Panchayat.
iii. Panch and Sarpanch of villages are selected by Election Commission.
iv. Panchayat works under the supervision of Gram Sabha.

  • (A) only i, iii and iv are correct.
  • (B) only i, ii and iv are correct.
  • (C) only ii, iii and iv are correct.
  • (D) only i, ii and iii are correct.

Question 38:

Find the odd one out from the following:

  • (A) Communist Party of India (M) & Bharatiya Janata Party
  • (B) Rashtriya Janata Dal & Janata Dal
  • (C) Nationalist Congress Party & Shiv Sena
  • (D) United Democratic Party & National People’s Party

Question 39:

Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The civil war in Sri Lanka resulted due to failure of political accommodation of ethnicity.
Reason (R): The distrust between the Sinhala and Tamil communities turned into widespread conflict in Sri Lanka.

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Question 40:

Suggest two measures to ensure equal opportunities for women in all professions.


Question 41:

Differentiate between democracy and dictatorship.


Question 42:

How does the Indian Constitution define the distribution of powers between the centre and the states? Explain with examples.


Question 43:

“Political parties are one of the most visible institutions in a democracy.” Examine the statement.


Question 44:

“There are many challenges before the political parties.” Examine the statement.


Comprehension:

Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Power Sharing

Read More Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary. Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers. Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power. Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions. Last year, we studied that in a democracy, even though ministers and government officials exercise power, they are responsible to the Parliament or State Assemblies. Similarly, although judges are appointed by the executive, they can check the functioning of executive or laws made by the legislatures. This arrangement is called a system of checks and balances.

Question 45:

Explain the term ‘Balance of Power’.


Question 46:

Why is the judiciary considered independent in a democracy?


Question 47:

How is power shared among different organs of government? Explain.


Question 48:

Which of the following reports compare countries using health, education and per capita income?

  • (A) Human Development Report
  • (B) Global Trade Report
  • (C) World Development Report
  • (D) Economic Survey Report

Question 49:

The removal of barriers on foreign trade and investment by the Indian government has been called as:

  • (A) Industrialisation
  • (B) Nationalisation
  • (C) Privatisation
  • (D) Liberalisation

Question 50:

Read the given case and choose the correct option:

Swapna, a small farmer grows groundnut on her three acres of land. She takes a loan from the moneylender to meet the expenses of cultivation but midway due to flood, crop fails and her debt increased. Again she has to take loan to manage crops.

Suggest Swapna, which of the following sources of loan would be suitable for her.

  • (A) Friends
  • (B) Relatives
  • (C) Moneylenders
  • (D) Banks

Question 51:

Identify the sector of the economy on the basis of ownership with the help of following information:

• The government owns most of the assets.
• Delivery of services in the hands of government.
• Fair price shops is an example of it.

  • (A) Private Sector
  • (B) Public Sector
  • (C) Joint Sector
  • (D) Cooperative Sector

Question 52:

Study the given data carefully and answer the question that follows:

CountryMonthly income of citizens in ₹
IIIIIIIVV
A9,50010,5009,8001,00010,200
B5005005005004,800
Identify the average monthly income of citizens in country A.

  • (A) 8,200
  • (B) 9,000
  • (C) 1,000
  • (D) 9,020

Question 53:

Choose the correct option to fill in the blank:

Net attendance ratio is expressed as a ________ of total children in the age group of 6 – 10 years attending school.

  • (A) Ratio
  • (B) Percentage
  • (C) Fraction
  • (D) Index

Question 54:

“New technology has helped to connect the world.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.


Question 55:

Why is credit important for economic development? Explain.


Question 56:

Analyse the issues that necessitate sustainable development for the future.


Question 57:

Explain the role of secondary sector in an economy.


Question 58:

Explain the role of tertiary sector in an economy.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Paper Analysis 2026

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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