Zollege is here for to help you!!
Need Counselling
Bihar Class X Board logo

Bihar Board Class 10 Science 112 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set E

Dipanwita Pramanik's profile photo

Dipanwita Pramanik

Content Writer | Updated On - Nov 17, 2025

Bihar Board Class 10 Science 112 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set E is available for download. The Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB) conducted the Class 10 examination for a total duration of 3 hours, and the question paper was of a total of 100 marks.

Bihar Board Class 10 Science 112 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set E

Bihar Board Class 10 Science 112 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set E Download PDF Check Solutions
Bihar Board Class 10 Science 112 Question Paper with Solution Set E 2025



Question 1:

Double circulation is not found in

  • (A) Frog
  • (B) Fish
  • (C) Bird
  • (D) Human
Correct Answer: (B) Fish
View Solution



Double circulation is a circulatory system in which the blood travels through the heart twice for each complete circuit of the body.


This system involves two separate pathways: the pulmonary circulation (to the lungs) and the systemic circulation (to the rest of the body).


Humans, birds, and other mammals have a four-chambered heart that completely separates oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, allowing for efficient double circulation.


Frogs have a three-chambered heart and exhibit incomplete double circulation, as there is some mixing of blood in the ventricle.


Fish, however, have a two-chambered heart (one atrium and one ventricle) and exhibit single circulation. Blood is pumped from the heart to the gills for oxygenation and then circulates to the rest of the body before returning to the heart.


Therefore, double circulation is not found in fish.
Quick Tip: The number of heart chambers is a key indicator of the type of circulatory system. 2-chambered hearts (fish) have single circulation, while 3- and 4-chambered hearts have double circulation.


Question 2:

From where does urea enter the blood?

  • (A) Kidney
  • (B) Lungs
  • (C) Liver
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Liver
View Solution



The breakdown of proteins and amino acids in the body's cells produces ammonia, which is highly toxic.


The liver plays a crucial role in detoxification. It converts this toxic ammonia into a less harmful substance called urea through a process known as the urea cycle.


Once urea is synthesized in the liver cells, it is released from the liver into the bloodstream.


The circulatory system then transports this urea-rich blood to the kidneys.


The kidneys filter the urea from the blood, which is then excreted from the body as a major component of urine.


Thus, urea enters the blood from the liver.
Quick Tip: Remember the pathway of nitrogenous waste: Ammonia is produced by cells, converted to Urea in the Liver, transported by Blood, and filtered out by the Kidneys to form urine.


Question 3:

Where does glucose reabsorption occur?

  • (A) In PCT
  • (B) In DCT
  • (C) In Henle's loop
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (A) In PCT
View Solution



During the formation of urine, blood is first filtered in the glomerulus, and the filtrate enters the renal tubule of the nephron.


This filtrate contains essential substances like glucose, amino acids, and salts, which the body needs to reclaim.


The process of reclaiming these useful substances from the filtrate back into the blood is called selective reabsorption.


Almost 100% of the glucose in the filtrate is reabsorbed in the first part of the nephron, which is the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT).


The cells lining the PCT have microvilli to increase surface area and are rich in mitochondria to provide energy for the active transport of glucose.


The other parts like the DCT (Distal Convoluted Tubule) and Henle's loop are primarily involved in water and salt balance.
Quick Tip: PCT stands for Proximal (meaning near the start) Convoluted Tubule. Think of it as the primary site for heavy-duty reabsorption of all the "good stuff" like glucose and amino acids that were initially filtered out.


Question 4:

The mechanism for removing harmful substances formed as a result of various activities from the body is called

  • (A) Digestive system
  • (B) Circulatory system
  • (C) Excretory system
  • (D) Nervous system
Correct Answer: (C) Excretory system
View Solution



The body's metabolic processes, such as cellular respiration and protein synthesis, produce waste products like carbon dioxide, urea, and uric acid.


These metabolic wastes can be harmful if they accumulate in the body.


The biological process of collecting and removing these harmful metabolic wastes is known as excretion.


The organ system responsible for carrying out excretion is the excretory system. In humans, this primarily includes the kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra.


Therefore, the mechanism for removing these harmful substances is the function of the excretory system.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between excretion and egestion. Excretion removes metabolic wastes (like in urine), while egestion removes undigested food (feces). The excretory system handles excretion.


Question 5:

What can happen due to spinal cord injury?

  • (A) Goitre
  • (B) Dwarfism
  • (C) Diabetes
  • (D) Paralysis
Correct Answer: (D) Paralysis
View Solution



The spinal cord is a crucial bundle of nerves that extends from the brain down the back. It serves as the main pathway for transmitting nerve signals.


Motor nerve signals travel from the brain, down the spinal cord, to the muscles to initiate movement.


Sensory nerve signals travel from the body, up the spinal cord, to the brain to register sensations like touch, temperature, and pain.


An injury to the spinal cord can damage these nerve fibers, interrupting the communication between the brain and the parts of the body below the injury site.


This interruption of motor signals leads to a loss of muscle function and control, a condition known as paralysis.


Goitre, dwarfism, and diabetes are related to the endocrine system (hormones), not the nervous system.
Quick Tip: Think of the spinal cord as the body's main data cable. If the cable is damaged or cut, the signals can't get through, resulting in a loss of function (paralysis) in the connected devices (limbs).


Question 6:

The largest gland in the human body is

  • (A) Adrenal
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Ovary
  • (D) Pancreas
Correct Answer: (B) Liver
View Solution



A gland is an organ that produces and secretes substances for use in the body.


The liver is a large, vital organ located in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen.


It performs over 500 essential tasks, including producing bile (an exocrine function) and synthesizing proteins and cholesterol (an endocrine function).


Weighing approximately 1.5 kg (about 3.3 pounds) in an average adult, the liver is the largest internal organ and the largest gland in the human body.


The other options, such as the adrenal gland, ovary, and pancreas, are also glands but are significantly smaller than the liver.
Quick Tip: While the skin is the largest organ overall, the liver is the largest internal organ and the largest gland. For exam purposes, if asked for the largest gland, the answer is always the liver.


Question 7:

Plant hormone is called

  • (A) Pheromone
  • (B) Phytohormone
  • (C) Enzyme
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Phytohormone
View Solution



Hormones are chemical messengers that regulate physiological processes in an organism.


The prefix "phyto-" comes from the Greek word "phyton," which means "plant."


Therefore, hormones that are produced by plants to regulate their growth, development, and responses to the environment are called phytohormones.


Examples of phytohormones include auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid, and ethylene.


Pheromones are chemical signals used for communication between members of the same species (common in animals). Enzymes are biological catalysts.
Quick Tip: Break down the word: "Phyto" = Plant, "hormone" = chemical messenger. Phytohormone literally means "plant messenger." This makes it easy to remember.


Question 8:

An example of vegetative propagation through leaves is

  • (A) Onion
  • (B) Potato
  • (C) Rose
  • (D) Bryophyllum
Correct Answer: (D) Bryophyllum
View Solution



Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in plants where new individuals arise from vegetative parts of the parent plant, such as roots, stems, or leaves.


In some plants, the leaves are specialized for this purpose.


The leaves of the Bryophyllum plant have adventitious buds along their margins or notches.


When a leaf falls on moist soil, these buds can develop into small plantlets, complete with roots, which can then grow into new, independent plants.


Onion propagates through its bulb (a modified stem), potato propagates through its tubers (eyes on the stem), and rose is typically propagated by stem cuttings.


Therefore, Bryophyllum is a classic example of vegetative propagation through leaves.
Quick Tip: Associate specific vegetative propagation methods with their classic examples: Leaf -> Bryophyllum, Stem (tuber) -> Potato, Stem (cutting) -> Rose, Root -> Sweet Potato, Bulb (modified stem) -> Onion.


Question 9:

How many isomers of butane are possible?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (A) 2
View Solution



Isomers are molecules that have the same molecular formula but a different arrangement of atoms in space.


The molecular formula for butane is C\(_{4}\)H\(_{10}\).


We need to find the number of different structural arrangements (structural isomers) possible for this formula.


The first possible structure is a straight chain of four carbon atoms. This is called n-butane (normal butane).

CH\(_{3}\)–CH\(_{2}\)–CH\(_{2}\)–CH\(_{3}\)


The second possible structure is a branched chain. A three-carbon chain with the fourth carbon atom attached to the central carbon. This is called isobutane (or its IUPAC name, 2-methylpropane).

CH\(_{3}\)–CH(CH\(_{3}\))–CH\(_{3}\)


There are no other ways to arrange four carbon atoms and ten hydrogen atoms to form a stable, distinct molecule. Any other drawing would be a rotation of one of these two structures.


Therefore, butane has exactly 2 structural isomers.
Quick Tip: To find isomers, always start with the longest possible straight chain (n-alkane). Then, shorten the main chain by one carbon and use that carbon as a branch, trying all possible positions. Repeat until no new structures can be formed.


Question 10:

The shape of methane molecule is

  • (A) Linear
  • (B) Annular
  • (C) Tetrahedral
  • (D) Octahedral
Correct Answer: (C) Tetrahedral
View Solution



The molecular formula of methane is CH\(_{4}\).


The central atom is carbon (C), which has 4 valence electrons. It forms single covalent bonds with four hydrogen (H) atoms.


According to the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory, the electron pairs in the valence shell of the central atom repel each other and arrange themselves in a way that minimizes repulsion.


In methane, there are four bonding pairs of electrons and zero lone pairs around the central carbon atom.


To maximize the distance between these four electron pairs, they arrange themselves pointing towards the vertices of a regular tetrahedron.


This results in a tetrahedral geometry, with bond angles of 109.5 degrees between any two C-H bonds.
Quick Tip: Memorize the basic molecular shapes based on VSEPR theory. For a central atom with 4 single bonds and 0 lone pairs (like in CH\(_{4}\)), the shape is always tetrahedral.


Question 11:

The valency of carbon in organic compounds is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
View Solution



The atomic number of carbon is 6.


Its electronic configuration is 2, 4.


This means carbon has 4 electrons in its outermost (valence) shell.


To achieve a stable noble gas configuration (an octet), carbon needs to gain, lose, or share 4 electrons.


Due to energy considerations, carbon predominantly shares these 4 valence electrons to form four covalent bonds.


The number of covalent bonds an atom can form is its valency. Therefore, the valency of carbon is 4.
Quick Tip: The property of carbon having a valency of four is called tetravalency. This, combined with its ability to form strong bonds with other carbon atoms (catenation), is the reason for the vast number of organic compounds.


Question 12:

Which of the following is saturated hydrocarbon?

  • (A) Alkane
  • (B) Alkene
  • (C) Alkyne
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Alkane
View Solution



Hydrocarbons are compounds made up of only carbon and hydrogen atoms.


They are classified as saturated or unsaturated based on the types of bonds between carbon atoms.


Saturated hydrocarbons are those in which all the carbon-carbon bonds are single bonds (C-C). These compounds contain the maximum possible number of hydrogen atoms for a given number of carbon atoms.


Alkanes are the class of hydrocarbons that have only single bonds between their carbon atoms. Their general formula is C\(_{n}\)H\(_{2n+2}\).


Alkenes (with at least one C=C double bond) and Alkynes (with at least one C\(\equiv\)C triple bond) are unsaturated hydrocarbons.


Therefore, alkane is a saturated hydrocarbon.
Quick Tip: Think of "saturated" as "full". A saturated hydrocarbon is "full" of hydrogen atoms, which is only possible when all carbon-carbon bonds are single bonds.


Question 13:

IUPAC name of ethylene is

  • (A) Ethane
  • (B) Ethyne
  • (C) Ethene
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Ethene
View Solution



"Ethylene" is the common name for the hydrocarbon with the chemical formula C\(_{2}\)H\(_{4}\).


The IUPAC (International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry) system provides systematic names for compounds.


For a hydrocarbon, the name is based on the number of carbon atoms (word root) and the type of carbon-carbon bonds (suffix).


The word root for two carbon atoms is "eth-".


The molecule C\(_{2}\)H\(_{4}\) has a double bond between the two carbon atoms (H\(_{2}\)C=CH\(_{2}\)).


The suffix for a double bond is "-ene".


Combining the root "eth-" and the suffix "-ene" gives the IUPAC name Ethene.
Quick Tip: Remember the basic IUPAC naming rules for simple hydrocarbons: Ethane (C\(_{2}\)H\(_{6}\), single bond), Ethene (C\(_{2}\)H\(_{4}\), double bond), Ethyne (C\(_{2}\)H\(_{2}\), triple bond).


Question 14:

Which was a defect of Mendeleev's periodic table?

  • (A) Not giving proper place to oxygen
  • (B) Not giving proper place to Cl
  • (C) Not giving proper place to hydrogen
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Not giving proper place to hydrogen
View Solution



While Mendeleev's periodic table was revolutionary, it had a few limitations.


One of the major ambiguities was the position of hydrogen.


Hydrogen's electronic configuration (1s\(^1\)) is unique. It can lose one electron to form a positive ion (H\(^{+}\)), similar to alkali metals (Group 1).


It can also gain one electron to form a negative ion (H\(^{-}\)), similar to halogens (Group 17).


Because of this dual behavior, a fixed and correct position could not be assigned to hydrogen in Mendeleev's table. It was placed in Group 1, but its properties did not fully align with the other elements in that group.


The positions for elements like oxygen and chlorine were not considered major defects.
Quick Tip: The three primary defects of Mendeleev's periodic table were: the anomalous position of hydrogen, the placement of isotopes, and certain anomalous pairs where elements with higher atomic mass were placed before those with lower atomic mass (e.g., Co before Ni).


Question 15:

Who among the following propounded the laws of octave?

  • (A) Mendeleev
  • (B) Newlands
  • (C) Lother Meyer
  • (D) Dobereiner
Correct Answer: (B) Newlands
View Solution



In 1866, John Newlands, an English chemist, arranged the known elements in order of increasing atomic mass.


He observed a pattern where the properties of every eighth element were similar to those of the first one.


He compared this periodicity to the octaves found in music, where the eighth note is similar to the first.


This relationship was thus called Newlands' Law of Octaves.


Dobereiner is known for the Law of Triads, and Mendeleev is credited with developing the first comprehensive periodic table.
Quick Tip: Associate the early classification laws with their proponents and concepts: Dobereiner \(\rightarrow\) Triads (groups of 3), Newlands \(\rightarrow\) Octaves (groups of 8/musical scale).


Question 16:

Which of the following compounds would be the most basic?

  • (A) SO\(_{2}\)
  • (B) Na\(_{2}\)O
  • (C) Al\(_{2}\)O\(_{3}\)
  • (D) NO\(_{2}\)
Correct Answer: (B) Na\(_{2}\)O
View Solution



The acidic or basic nature of oxides generally follows a trend in the periodic table.


Oxides of metals are typically basic, while oxides of non-metals are typically acidic.


Sodium (Na) is an alkali metal (Group 1), a very electropositive element. Its oxide, sodium oxide (Na\(_{2}\)O), is a strong basic oxide. It reacts with water to form a strong base, sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

Na\(_{2}\)O + H\(_{2}\)O \(\rightarrow\) 2NaOH


Sulphur (S) and Nitrogen (N) are non-metals. Their oxides, SO\(_{2}\) and NO\(_{2}\), are acidic oxides.


Aluminum (Al) is a metal, but its oxide, Al\(_{2}\)O\(_{3}\), is amphoteric, meaning it exhibits both acidic and basic properties.


Comparing a strong basic oxide (Na\(_{2}\)O) with acidic oxides and an amphoteric oxide, Na\(_{2}\)O is the most basic.
Quick Tip: A simple rule for oxides: Metal oxides are basic (e.g., Na\(_{2}\)O, CaO), Non-metal oxides are acidic (e.g., CO\(_{2}\), SO\(_{2}\)), and some oxides in between (e.g., Al\(_{2}\)O\(_{3}\), ZnO) are amphoteric.


Question 17:

A group of rays is called

  • (A) Light beam
  • (B) Ray beam
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Light beam
View Solution



In optics, a ray of light is the straight line path along which light energy travels. It is a conceptual tool used to analyze the propagation of light.


A collection or bundle of such light rays constitutes a beam of light.


A beam of light can be of three types:

1. Parallel beam: All rays are parallel to each other.

2. Convergent beam: All rays meet at a point.

3. Divergent beam: Rays spread out from a point.


"Light beam" is the standard scientific term. "Ray beam" is not a commonly used or standard term in physics.


Therefore, a group of rays is called a light beam.
Quick Tip: Remember the hierarchy: A single line representing the path of light is a "ray". A collection or bundle of these rays is a "beam".


Question 18:

The light rays travel in

  • (A) any direction
  • (B) oblique line
  • (C) a straight line
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (C) a straight line
View Solution



A fundamental property of light is that it propagates in a straight line as long as it is traveling in a uniform, homogeneous medium.


This principle is known as the rectilinear propagation of light.


This property is responsible for the formation of shadows. When an opaque object blocks the path of light, a shadow is formed in the region behind it where the light cannot reach because it travels in a straight line.


While the path of light can be bent by reflection or refraction when it encounters a surface or a different medium, its path within a single medium is straight.
Quick Tip: The simple working of a pinhole camera is a classic demonstration of the rectilinear propagation of light. Light from an object travels in straight lines through the pinhole to form an inverted image.


Question 19:

Which type of mirror is a concave mirror?

  • (A) Divergent
  • (B) Convergent
  • (C) Both convergent and divergent
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Convergent
View Solution



A concave mirror has a reflecting surface that curves inward.


When a parallel beam of light rays is incident on a concave mirror, the rays reflect off the curved surface.


Due to the shape of the mirror, all the reflected rays are directed towards a single point on the principal axis, known as the principal focus (F).


Since the mirror causes the parallel rays of light to come together or converge at a point, it is called a convergent mirror.


In contrast, a convex mirror, which curves outwards, spreads the light rays apart and is called a divergent mirror.
Quick Tip: A helpful mnemonic: A Concave mirror "caves in" and Converges light rays. A Convex mirror bulges out and Diverges light rays.


Question 20:

Which of the following types of mirror is used in the headlight of a car?

  • (A) Convex mirror
  • (B) Concave mirror
  • (C) Plane mirror
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Concave mirror
View Solution



The purpose of a car's headlight is to project a strong, parallel beam of light over a long distance to illuminate the road.


Concave mirrors have a specific optical property: if a source of light is placed at its principal focus, the rays originating from the source will reflect from the mirror and travel parallel to the principal axis.


This is precisely the principle used in car headlights. The light bulb is positioned at the focus of a concave reflector.


The concave mirror then collects the light spreading out from the bulb and reflects it as a powerful, parallel beam.


Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors to give a wider field of view, and plane mirrors are used where a 1:1, non-distorted image is needed, like a looking glass.
Quick Tip: Remember the main applications of spherical mirrors: Concave mirrors are used in headlights, searchlights, and shaving mirrors. Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles.


Question 21:

The focal length of a concave mirror is

  • (A) Positive
  • (B) Negative
  • (C) both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Negative
View Solution



According to the sign convention used in optics, all distances are measured from the pole of the mirror.


The direction of the incident light is taken as positive.


A concave mirror converges parallel rays of light to its principal focus (F), which lies in front of the mirror.


Since the focus is in front of the mirror, the distance from the pole to the focus (focal length) is measured against the direction of incident light.


Therefore, the focal length of a concave mirror is considered negative.
Quick Tip: Remember the sign convention for mirrors and lenses: Distances measured in the same direction as incident light are positive. Distances measured in the opposite direction are negative. For a concave mirror, the focus is in front, so f is negative. For a convex mirror, the focus is behind, so f is positive.


Question 22:

Which mirror always forms an image smaller than the object?

  • (A) Concave
  • (B) Plane
  • (C) Convex
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Convex
View Solution



A plane mirror always forms a virtual, erect image of the same size as the object.


A concave mirror can form images that are smaller, larger, or the same size as the object, depending on the object's position. It can form both real and virtual images.


A convex mirror diverges light rays that fall on it. Because of this diverging nature, it always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished (smaller) image, regardless of the object's position.


Therefore, a convex mirror is the only type that always forms an image smaller than the object.
Quick Tip: This property of convex mirrors—always forming a smaller image and providing a wider field of view—is why they are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles.


Question 23:

The speed of light in air as compared to vacuum is

  • (A) Less
  • (B) More
  • (C) Same
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Less
View Solution



The speed of light is maximum in a vacuum, which is approximately 3 \(\times\) 10\(^{8}\) m/s. This is a universal constant, denoted by 'c'.


When light enters any optical medium, such as air, water, or glass, it interacts with the particles of the medium.


This interaction causes the light to slow down. The extent to which it slows down is determined by the refractive index of the medium.


Air is an optical medium, although it is not very dense. The refractive index of air is slightly greater than 1 (approximately 1.0003).


Because the refractive index of air is greater than that of a vacuum (which is 1), the speed of light in air is slightly less than in a vacuum.
Quick Tip: Light travels fastest in a vacuum. In any other medium, it will travel slower. The higher the refractive index of the medium, the slower the speed of light.


Question 24:

Which phenomenon exhibited by light is demonstrated in the twinkling of stars?

  • (A) Reflection
  • (B) Dispersion
  • (C) Scattering
  • (D) Refraction
Correct Answer: (D) Refraction
View Solution



The twinkling of stars is caused by the atmospheric refraction of starlight.


Starlight enters the Earth's atmosphere and has to pass through various layers of air with different temperatures and densities.


As light passes from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it bends. Since the atmospheric layers are constantly moving, the amount of light reaching our eyes from a star continuously changes.


This continuous bending and changing path of light cause the apparent position of the star to fluctuate, and the amount of light entering the eye flickers. This flickering is what we perceive as the twinkling of stars.


Planets do not twinkle because they are much closer to Earth and are seen as extended sources, so the refraction effects average out.
Quick Tip: Remember that any optical phenomenon involving the atmosphere, like twinkling of stars or the apparent early sunrise/delayed sunset, is primarily due to atmospheric refraction.


Question 25:

An aqueous solution of acid conducts electricity because acid in water

  • (A) gets ionized
  • (B) is soluble
  • (C) is insoluble
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (A) gets ionized
View Solution



The conduction of electricity in a liquid solution requires the presence of mobile charged particles, which are called ions.


When an acid is dissolved in water, it dissociates or ionizes to produce ions.


For example, hydrochloric acid (HCl) in water ionizes to form hydrogen ions (H\(^{+}\)) and chloride ions (Cl\(^{-}\)).

HCl(aq) \(\rightarrow\) H\(^{+}\)(aq) + Cl\(^{-}\)(aq)


These mobile H\(^{+}\) and Cl\(^{-}\) ions are free to move throughout the solution and carry an electric current when a voltage is applied.


Solubility is a necessary condition for ionization to occur in water, but it is the ionization itself—the creation of free ions—that is the direct reason for electrical conductivity.
Quick Tip: For any solution to conduct electricity, it must contain free-moving ions. This is why solutions of acids, bases, and salts are electrolytes, while solutions of sugar or pure water are not (or are very poor conductors). The key is the presence of ions.


Question 26:

Which of the following is not an olfactory indicator?

  • (A) Clove oil
  • (B) Vanilla
  • (C) Sweet potato
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (C) Sweet potato
View Solution



Olfactory indicators are substances whose smell or odor changes when they are mixed with an acidic or a basic solution.


They are used to determine whether a solution is acidic or basic, especially for visually impaired students.


Clove oil has a characteristic smell that diminishes or is lost in a basic solution but remains in an acidic solution.


Vanilla extract also has a pleasant smell that vanishes in the presence of a strong base like NaOH.


Sweet potato, however, does not have a characteristic smell that changes distinctly in acidic or basic media. It is not used as an olfactory indicator.


Therefore, sweet potato is not an olfactory indicator.
Quick Tip: Common examples of olfactory indicators are onion, vanilla extract, and clove oil. Remember that their characteristic smell is typically destroyed or changed by a basic solution.


Question 27:

Which acid is found in ant sting?

  • (A) Citric acid
  • (B) Acetic acid
  • (C) Methanoic acid
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Methanoic acid
View Solution



The sting of an ant (and the sting of a nettle leaf) contains an acid that causes a burning pain and irritation.


This acid is methanoic acid, which has the chemical formula HCOOH.


Methanoic acid is more commonly known as formic acid. The name "formic" comes from the Latin word for ant, "formica."


Citric acid is found in citrus fruits like lemons and oranges. Acetic acid is the main component of vinegar.


To neutralize the effect of the ant sting, a mild base like baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate) can be applied to the affected area.
Quick Tip: Associate common natural sources with their acids: Ant sting \(\rightarrow\) Methanoic (Formic) acid, Vinegar \(\rightarrow\) Acetic acid, Lemon/Orange \(\rightarrow\) Citric acid, Tamarind \(\rightarrow\) Tartaric acid.


Question 28:

Which of the following is kept immersed in water?

  • (A) White phosphorus
  • (B) Red phosphorus
  • (C) Iodine
  • (D) Sulphur
Correct Answer: (A) White phosphorus
View Solution



White phosphorus is a very reactive allotrope of phosphorus.


It has a low ignition temperature (around 30°C or 86°F).


When exposed to air, it spontaneously ignites and burns to form phosphorus pentoxide (P\(_{4}\)O\(_{10}\)).


To prevent this spontaneous combustion, white phosphorus must be stored away from air.


White phosphorus is insoluble in water and does not react with it. Therefore, it is safely stored by immersing it in water.


Red phosphorus is much more stable and does not need to be stored under water. Iodine and Sulphur are also stable in air at room temperature.
Quick Tip: Remember the storage conditions for highly reactive elements: Alkali metals like sodium and potassium are stored in kerosene oil because they react violently with water. White phosphorus is stored in water because it reacts with air.


Question 29:

The substances, present as impurities in on ore, are called

  • (A) Slag
  • (B) Gangue
  • (C) Mineral
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Gangue
View Solution



Ores are naturally occurring rocks or minerals from which a metal can be extracted economically.


Ores are rarely pure; they are usually mixed with earthly or undesirable impurities like sand, soil, clay, and rock.


These impurities that are present in the ore are collectively known as gangue or matrix.


During the process of metallurgy, the first step is the concentration or enrichment of the ore, which involves removing the gangue.


Slag is a waste product formed during smelting when a flux is added to react with the gangue. A mineral is a naturally occurring solid substance, and not all minerals are ores.
Quick Tip: Don't confuse gangue and slag. Gangue is the natural impurity in the ore before processing. Slag is the man-made waste product created during smelting to remove the gangue.


Question 30:

Which of the following metals can be easily cut with a knife?

  • (A) Na
  • (B) Cu
  • (C) Ni
  • (D) Al
Correct Answer: (A) Na
View Solution



Alkali metals, which are in Group 1 of the periodic table, are known for being very soft.


Sodium (Na), potassium (K), and lithium (Li) are examples of alkali metals.


They have a single valence electron and weak metallic bonding, which results in their soft, wax-like consistency.


These metals are so soft that they can be easily cut with a knife at room temperature.


Copper (Cu), Nickel (Ni), and Aluminum (Al) are transition metals and a p-block metal, respectively. They have strong metallic bonds and are hard, typical metals that cannot be cut with a knife.
Quick Tip: Remember that the alkali metals (Li, Na, K, etc.) are exceptionally soft and highly reactive. Their softness is a key physical property that distinguishes them from most other metals.


Question 31:

Which metal is mixed with gold to make an alloy?

  • (A) Fe
  • (B) Cu
  • (C) Zn
  • (D) Ag
Correct Answer: (B) Cu
View Solution



Pure gold (24 karat) is very soft and malleable, making it unsuitable for making durable jewelry.


To increase its hardness, durability, and sometimes to change its color, pure gold is alloyed with other metals.


The most common metals mixed with gold for this purpose are copper (Cu), silver (Ag), zinc (Zn), and nickel (Ni).


Copper is very frequently used because it significantly increases the hardness and is relatively inexpensive. Adding copper also gives the gold a reddish tint, creating rose gold.


While Zinc (Zn) and Silver (Ag) are also used in gold alloys, Copper (Cu) is the most common and primary metal added to increase strength for standard yellow gold jewelry. Given the options, Copper is the best answer.
Quick Tip: The "karat" system measures the purity of gold. 24 karat is pure gold. 18 karat gold is 18/24 parts gold (75%) and 6/24 parts (25%) other alloy metals like copper or silver.


Question 32:

Silicon is a/an

  • (A) Non-metal
  • (B) Metal
  • (C) Alloy
  • (D) Metalloid
Correct Answer: (D) Metalloid
View Solution



Elements in the periodic table can be broadly classified into metals, non-metals, and metalloids.


Metalloids are elements that exhibit properties intermediate between those of metals and non-metals.


Silicon (Si) is a classic example of a metalloid.


Physically, it is a shiny, crystalline solid like a metal. However, it is brittle, which is a characteristic of non-metals.


Electrically, silicon is a semiconductor, meaning its ability to conduct electricity is between that of a conductor (metal) and an insulator (non-metal). This property makes it essential for the electronics industry.
Quick Tip: Memorize the common metalloids located along the "staircase" line in the periodic table: Boron (B), Silicon (Si), Germanium (Ge), Arsenic (As), Antimony (Sb), Tellurium (Te). Silicon and Germanium are the most famous due to their use in semiconductors.


Question 33:

A horizontal magnet hanging freely in air always comes to rest in

  • (A) Any direction
  • (B) East-West direction
  • (C) North-South direction
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) North-South direction
View Solution



The Earth itself behaves like a giant bar magnet, with its magnetic poles located near its geographic poles.


A freely suspended magnet, like a bar magnet or a compass needle, will align itself with the Earth's magnetic field lines.


The magnetic field lines of the Earth run approximately from the geographic South to the geographic North.


As a result, the north pole of the suspended magnet is attracted towards the Earth's magnetic south pole (which is near the geographic North Pole), and the south pole of the magnet is attracted towards the Earth's magnetic north pole (near the geographic South Pole).


This causes the magnet to always align itself in a North-South direction. This is the principle behind the magnetic compass.
Quick Tip: Remember that the pole of a magnet labeled "North" is actually a "North-seeking" pole. It seeks the Earth's magnetic pole located in the geographic North.


Question 34:

If a compass is placed near a wire carrying electric current, the compass needle

  • (A) Will be deflected
  • (B) The current carrying wire will be deflected
  • (C) Will not be deflected
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Will be deflected
View Solution



In 1820, Hans Christian Oersted discovered that an electric current produces a magnetic field.


An electric current flowing through a wire creates concentric circular magnetic field lines around the wire.


A compass needle is a small magnet that aligns itself with any external magnetic field.


When a compass is brought near a current-carrying wire, the magnetic field produced by the current interacts with the compass needle.


This interaction exerts a torque on the needle, causing it to deflect from its usual North-South alignment and point in the direction of the wire's magnetic field.
Quick Tip: This is the fundamental principle of electromagnetism: moving charges (electric current) create magnetic fields. Oersted's experiment with a compass and a wire is the classic demonstration of this effect.


Question 35:

Faraday made many revolutionary discoveries, including

  • (A) Electromagnetic induction
  • (B) Law of electrolysis
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
View Solution



Michael Faraday was a brilliant scientist who made significant contributions to both electromagnetism and electrochemistry.


In 1831, he discovered electromagnetic induction, which is the principle that a changing magnetic field in a coil of wire induces an electric current. This is the fundamental principle behind electric generators and transformers.


In the field of electrochemistry, around 1832, he established the Laws of Electrolysis. These laws quantify the relationship between the amount of substance deposited at an electrode and the amount of electric charge passed through the electrolyte.


Since Faraday is credited with both of these major discoveries, the correct option is that he discovered both.
Quick Tip: Associate scientists with their key discoveries: Oersted \(\rightarrow\) Current produces a magnetic field. Faraday \(\rightarrow\) A changing magnetic field produces a current (Induction) AND Laws of Electrolysis.


Question 36:

An electric motor converts

  • (A) Chemical energy into electrical energy
  • (B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
  • (C) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
  • (D) Electrical energy into chemical energy
Correct Answer: (B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
View Solution



An electric motor is a device designed to produce motion from electricity.


The working principle of a motor is based on the fact that when a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force (the motor effect).


In a motor, electrical energy is supplied to a coil of wire placed in a magnetic field.


The force on the wire causes the coil to rotate, thus producing rotational motion.


This rotational motion is a form of mechanical energy, which can then be used to do work, such as turning a fan or lifting an object.


Therefore, an electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Quick Tip: Remember the difference between a motor and a generator: A Motor takes in Electricity and produces Motion (Electrical \(\rightarrow\) Mechanical). A Generator takes in Motion and produces Electricity (Mechanical \(\rightarrow\) Electrical). They are opposite processes.


Question 37:

In Fleming's left-hand rule, the index finger of the left hand indicates

  • (A) Direction of magnetic field
  • (B) Direction of electric force applied on the conductor
  • (C) Direction of electric current flowing in the conductor
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Direction of magnetic field
View Solution



Fleming's Left-Hand Rule is a mnemonic used to determine the direction of the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field (the motor principle).


The rule states that if you stretch the thumb, forefinger (index finger), and middle finger of your left hand so they are mutually perpendicular to each other:

- The Thumb represents the direction of the Force (or Thrust/Motion).

- The Forefinger (Index finger) represents the direction of the Magnetic Field (from North to South).

- The Middle finger represents the direction of the Current.


Therefore, the index finger indicates the direction of the magnetic field.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember Fleming's Left-Hand Rule: Thumb = Thrust (Force), Forefinger = Field, Middle finger = Current. You can also use the mnemonic "Father Mother Child" for Force, Magnetic Field, Current.


Question 38:

When electric current flows through a conducting wire, what type of magnetic field is generated above and below the wire?

  • (A) Opposite type
  • (B) Similar type
  • (C) Not of any kind
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Opposite type
View Solution



An electric current flowing through a straight wire creates a magnetic field in the form of concentric circles around the wire.


The direction of this magnetic field is given by the Right-Hand Thumb Rule (or Maxwell's Corkscrew Rule).


If you point the thumb of your right hand in the direction of the current, the direction in which your fingers curl gives the direction of the magnetic field lines.


Imagine a wire with current flowing from left to right. Above the wire, your curling fingers will be pointing out of the page. Below the wire, your curling fingers will be pointing into the page.


These directions (out of the page and into the page) are opposite to each other.


Therefore, the magnetic field generated has opposite directions above and below the wire.
Quick Tip: Always use the Right-Hand Thumb Rule to find the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor. Point your thumb in the direction of the current, and your curled fingers will show you the circular direction of the magnetic field.


Question 39:

What type of energy source is hydroelectric energy?

  • (A) Renewable
  • (B) Non-renewable
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Renewable
View Solution



Energy sources are classified as renewable or non-renewable.


Renewable energy sources are those that are replenished naturally over a short period. They are considered sustainable because they will not run out.


Non-renewable energy sources are those that exist in finite quantities and are consumed much faster than they are formed, such as fossil fuels (coal, oil, natural gas).


Hydroelectric energy is generated from the kinetic energy of flowing water or the potential energy of water stored in a dam.


The source of this water is the water cycle (evaporation, condensation, precipitation), which is driven by solar energy and is a continuous, natural process.


Since the water cycle continuously replenishes the water used, hydroelectric energy is considered a renewable source of energy.
Quick Tip: Renewable sources are generally those derived from natural cycles that are not depleted by use, such as solar, wind, geothermal, and hydro power. Non-renewable sources are essentially stored energy from the ancient past, like fossil fuels.


Question 40:

Which gas is responsible for global warming?

  • (A) Nitrogen
  • (B) Carbon dioxide
  • (C) Oxygen
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Carbon dioxide
View Solution



Global warming is the long-term heating of Earth's climate system observed since the pre-industrial period due to human activities.


It is primarily caused by the enhanced greenhouse effect. Certain gases in the atmosphere, known as greenhouse gases, trap heat radiated from the Earth's surface.


While several gases contribute to this effect (including methane, nitrous oxide, and water vapor), carbon dioxide (CO\(_{2}\)) is the most significant contributor.


The burning of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and gas) for energy and transportation is the main source of increased atmospheric CO\(_{2}\).


Nitrogen and oxygen make up about 99% of the atmosphere but are not significant greenhouse gases.
Quick Tip: While there are many greenhouse gases, for most exam questions, Carbon Dioxide (CO\(_{2}\)) is considered the primary gas responsible for man-made global warming.


Question 41:

Magnesium is a member of which group of the periodic table?

  • (A) Group VIII
  • (B) Group I
  • (C) Group II
  • (D) Nonmetallic element
Correct Answer: (C) Group II
View Solution



The atomic number of Magnesium (Mg) is 12.


Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 2.


The number of electrons in the outermost (valence) shell determines the group number for main group elements.


Magnesium has 2 valence electrons.


Elements with 2 valence electrons are placed in Group 2 of the periodic table.


The elements of Group 2 are known as the alkaline earth metals.


Group 1 are the alkali metals, and Group 18 (or VIII in some older notations) are the noble gases.
Quick Tip: For main group elements (Groups 1, 2, 13-18), the number of valence electrons is equal to the last digit of the group number. For Magnesium with 2 valence electrons, it belongs to Group 2.


Question 42:

How many periods are there in the periodic table?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 7
Correct Answer: (D) 7
View Solution



The modern periodic table organizes elements based on their atomic number.


The horizontal rows in the periodic table are called periods.


The period number of an element signifies the principal energy level or shell in which the valence electrons are located.


For example, elements in Period 1 have electrons in the first shell, elements in Period 2 have their valence electrons in the second shell, and so on.


Currently, the modern periodic table has 7 periods, with elements up to atomic number 118 identified and placed within these 7 periods.
Quick Tip: Remember the basic structure of the modern periodic table: Vertical columns are Groups (18 of them). Horizontal rows are Periods (7 of them).


Question 43:

Which of the following is not an ancient method of water harvesting?

  • (A) Katta
  • (B) Kulh
  • (C) Dug well
  • (D) Irish
Correct Answer: (D) Irish
View Solution



Ancient water harvesting methods are traditional techniques developed across different regions, particularly in India, to capture and store rainwater.


Katta is a traditional water harvesting system found in parts of Karnataka, involving stone embankments.


Kulhs are irrigation channels found in hilly areas, particularly in Himachal Pradesh, to carry water from glaciers to villages.


Dug wells are one of the most common and ancient methods of accessing groundwater across the world, including India.


"Irish" refers to something from Ireland. While Ireland has its own traditional practices, it is not an ancient method of water harvesting in the context of Indian traditional systems which the other options represent. It is the odd one out, referring to a nationality rather than a specific technique.
Quick Tip: Be familiar with some of the traditional Indian water harvesting systems like Khadins and Tanks in Rajasthan, Bandharas and Tals in Maharashtra, Kulhs in Himachal Pradesh, etc. Recognizing these names will help you identify an option that doesn't fit.


Question 44:

What was the objective of construction of Tehri Dam?

  • (A) Electricity generation
  • (B) Land irrigation
  • (C) Water supply
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution



Large dams like the Tehri Dam are typically constructed as multipurpose projects.


This means they are designed to serve several objectives simultaneously.


One of the primary objectives of the Tehri Dam is hydroelectricity generation, producing a large amount of power.


It is also designed to provide water for the irrigation of agricultural land in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand.


Furthermore, it supplies drinking water to several urban areas, including Delhi.


Since the dam serves all three purposes—electricity generation, irrigation, and water supply—the correct answer is "All of these."
Quick Tip: When asked about the purpose of a large dam, "All of these" is often the correct answer, as they are almost always built as multipurpose projects to maximize their economic benefits.


Question 45:

What is the new concept of waste management?

  • (A) Reuse
  • (B) Recycle
  • (C) Reduce
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution



The modern concept of waste management emphasizes sustainability and minimizing environmental impact.


This concept is popularly summarized by the "Three Rs" of waste management.


1. Reduce: This is the most preferred step. It means minimizing the amount of waste generated in the first place.


2. Reuse: This involves using items multiple times for their original purpose or a new purpose instead of throwing them away.


3. Recycle: This is the process of converting waste materials into new materials and objects.


Since the new concept of waste management includes all three principles—Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle—the correct answer is "All of these."
Quick Tip: Remember the waste management hierarchy: The most effective approach is to Reduce, then Reuse, and finally Recycle. This order prioritizes preventing waste before it's even created.


Question 46:

Which of the following is a renewable resource?

  • (A) Coal
  • (B) Forest
  • (C) Petroleum
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Forest
View Solution



Renewable resources are natural resources that can be replenished or regenerated within a human lifespan.


Non-renewable resources are resources that exist in a fixed amount and are consumed much faster than they can be formed.


Coal and Petroleum are fossil fuels. They were formed from the remains of ancient organisms over millions of years. They are being depleted rapidly and are considered non-renewable.


Forests, on the other hand, are renewable. Trees can be planted and can grow to maturity within a few decades. If managed sustainably through practices like afforestation and regulated cutting, forests can be a continuous resource.


Therefore, among the given options, the forest is a renewable resource.
Quick Tip: A simple test for a renewable resource is to ask: "Can we make more of it in a reasonable amount of time?" We can grow more trees (Forests), but we can't make more coal or petroleum.


Question 47:

Which of the following is the main component of biogas?

  • (A) Carbon dioxide
  • (B) Hydrogen sulphide
  • (C) Water vapour
  • (D) Methane
Correct Answer: (D) Methane
View Solution



Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by the anaerobic (in the absence of oxygen) decomposition of organic matter, such as cow dung, agricultural waste, and sewage.


The composition of biogas can vary depending on the feedstock, but it primarily consists of methane and carbon dioxide.


Methane (CH\(_{4}\)) is the main component, typically making up 50% to 75% of the gas mixture.


Methane is a highly flammable gas, and it is the component that makes biogas a valuable fuel for cooking and electricity generation.


Carbon dioxide (CO\(_{2}\)) is the second major component (25%-50%), along with trace amounts of other gases like hydrogen sulfide (H\(_{2}\)S) and water vapor.
Quick Tip: Remember: Biogas = primarily Methane (CH\(_{4}\)) + Carbon Dioxide (CO\(_{2}\)). The useful fuel part is the methane. Natural gas is also mostly methane.


Question 48:

Peptic ulcer can be caused by

  • (A) Eating less food
  • (B) Eating normal food
  • (C) Prolonged starvation
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Prolonged starvation
View Solution



Peptic ulcers are sores that develop on the inner lining of the stomach and the upper part of the small intestine.


They are primarily caused by infection with the bacterium Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) or long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).


However, lifestyle factors can exacerbate the condition. The stomach produces hydrochloric acid to digest food.


During prolonged starvation or long gaps between meals, the stomach continues to secrete acid. In the absence of food to act upon, this acid can start to damage the stomach's protective mucous lining.


This increased exposure to acid can worsen existing ulcers or contribute to their formation. Therefore, among the given lifestyle-related options, prolonged starvation is a contributing factor.
Quick Tip: While the main cause of peptic ulcers is the bacterium H. pylori, remember that factors increasing stomach acidity, like stress and prolonged fasting, can worsen the condition.


Question 49:

Bile juice is secreted by

  • (A) Oral cavity
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Small intestine
  • (D) Stomach
Correct Answer: (B) Liver
View Solution



Bile is a digestive fluid essential for the digestion and absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins in the small intestine.


Bile is produced continuously by the liver, which is the largest gland in the body.


After being produced in the liver, the bile is transported to the gall bladder, where it is stored and concentrated.


When fatty food enters the small intestine, the gall bladder contracts and releases the stored bile into the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine).


Therefore, bile juice is secreted (produced) by the liver.
Quick Tip: Remember the roles: Liver produces bile. Gall bladder stores bile. Small intestine uses bile for fat digestion.


Question 50:

What is the function of the villi located in small intestine?

  • (A) Blocking absorption
  • (B) Reducing the surface area of absorption
  • (C) Increasing the surface area of absorption
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Increasing the surface area of absorption
View Solution



The final digestion of food and the absorption of nutrients occur primarily in the small intestine.


To make this absorption process highly efficient, the inner lining of the small intestine needs a very large surface area.


This is achieved by the presence of millions of tiny, finger-like projections called villi (singular: villus).


These villi, and the even smaller microvilli on their surface, vastly increase the effective surface area available for nutrients to pass from the intestine into the bloodstream.


Therefore, the main function of the villi is to increase the surface area for absorption.
Quick Tip: Think of the villi like the bristles of a brush. They create a huge surface area in a small space, which is perfect for maximizing the absorption of digested food.


Question 51:

The posterior part of the oral cavity is

  • (A) Esophagus
  • (B) Pharynx
  • (C) Duodenum
  • (D) Pancreas
Correct Answer: (B) Pharynx
View Solution



The oral cavity, or mouth, is the beginning of the digestive tract.


At the back of the oral cavity is the pharynx, which is a cone-shaped passageway.


The pharynx serves as a common pathway for both food (traveling to the esophagus) and air (traveling to the larynx).


The esophagus is the tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine. The pancreas is a gland connected to the small intestine.


Therefore, the posterior part of the oral cavity is the pharynx.
Quick Tip: Trace the path of food: Oral Cavity \(\rightarrow\) Pharynx \(\rightarrow\) Esophagus \(\rightarrow\) Stomach. The pharynx is the immediate posterior part of the oral cavity.


Question 52:

The transfer of O\(_{2}\) from outside environment to cells and removal of CO\(_{2}\) is referred to as

  • (A) Exhalation
  • (B) Respiration
  • (C) Inhalation
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Respiration
View Solution



The term respiration, in biology, refers to the overall process of gas exchange between an organism and its environment.


This process includes several stages:

1. Breathing (ventilation), which involves inhalation (taking in oxygen) and exhalation (releasing carbon dioxide).

2. Gaseous exchange in the lungs (external respiration).

3. Transport of gases by the blood.

4. Gaseous exchange at the cellular level (internal respiration), where O\(_{2}\) is delivered to cells and CO\(_{2}\) is removed.


The question describes the complete process of getting oxygen to the cells and removing carbon dioxide, which is the definition of respiration. Inhalation and exhalation are just parts of this larger process.
Quick Tip: Don't confuse "respiration" with "breathing". Breathing is just the physical act of inhaling and exhaling. Respiration is the entire physiological process of gas exchange, from the environment to the cells.


Question 53:

The basic source of oxygen in photosynthesis is

  • (A) Chlorophyll
  • (B) CO\(_{2}\)
  • (C) Water
  • (D) Solar energy
Correct Answer: (C) Water
View Solution



The overall equation for photosynthesis is: 6CO\(_{2}\) + 6H\(_{2}\)O \(\xrightarrow{Sunlight}\) C\(_{6}\)H\(_{12}\)O\(_{6}\) + 6O\(_{2}\).


This equation shows that both carbon dioxide (CO\(_{2}\)) and water (H\(_{2}\)O) are reactants, and oxygen (O\(_{2}\)) is a product.


During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, solar energy is used to split water molecules in a process called photolysis.


The reaction for photolysis is: 2H\(_{2}\)O \(\rightarrow\) 4H\(^{+}\) + 4e\(^{-}\) + O\(_{2}\).


This reaction clearly shows that the oxygen gas released as a byproduct comes from the splitting of water molecules, not from carbon dioxide.
Quick Tip: A common misconception is that the oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from the CO\(_{2}\) taken in. Remember, it comes from the photolysis (splitting by light) of water (H\(_{2}\)O).


Question 54:

Which of the following is known as the 'energy currency' of the cell?

  • (A) ATP
  • (B) ADP
  • (C) DTP
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) ATP
View Solution



Cells require a constant supply of energy to carry out various life processes, such as muscle contraction, nerve impulse transmission, and synthesis of molecules.


This energy is stored and transported within the cell in the form of a molecule called Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP).


Energy released during respiration is used to form ATP from ADP (Adenosine Diphosphate) and inorganic phosphate.

ADP + P + Energy \(\rightarrow\) ATP


When the cell needs energy, ATP is broken down back into ADP and phosphate, releasing the stored energy.

ATP \(\rightarrow\) ADP + P + Energy


Because ATP is the molecule that is "spent" to power cellular activities, it is known as the energy currency of the cell.
Quick Tip: Think of ATP as the cell's rechargeable battery. Respiration charges the battery (ADP \(\rightarrow\) ATP), and cellular activities use the battery's power (ATP \(\rightarrow\) ADP).


Question 55:

Xylem in plant is responsible for

  • (A) Carrying of food
  • (B) Carrying of oxygen
  • (C) Carrying of amino acid
  • (D) Carrying of water
Correct Answer: (D) Carrying of water
View Solution



Plants have two main types of vascular (conducting) tissues: xylem and phloem.


Xylem is responsible for the transport of water and dissolved minerals from the roots to all other parts of the plant, such as the stem and leaves. This transport is unidirectional (upwards).


Phloem is responsible for the transport of food, primarily sucrose, produced during photosynthesis in the leaves to other parts of the plant for use or storage. This process is called translocation and can be bidirectional.


Therefore, xylem is responsible for carrying water.
Quick Tip: A simple mnemonic: "Xylem up" for water and minerals moving up from the roots. "Phloem flows" for food flowing to all parts of the plant.


Question 56:

Apart from plasma, which of the following is found in blood?

  • (A) White Blood Cells (WBC)
  • (B) Red Blood Cells (RBC)
  • (C) Blood platelets
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution



Blood is composed of two main components: a liquid matrix called plasma, and the formed elements that are suspended in the plasma.


Plasma makes up about 55% of the blood volume.


The formed elements, making up the other 45%, include:

1. Red Blood Cells (RBCs or erythrocytes), which transport oxygen.

2. White Blood Cells (WBCs or leukocytes), which are part of the immune system.

3. Blood Platelets (thrombocytes), which are involved in blood clotting.


Since RBCs, WBCs, and platelets are all found in the blood in addition to plasma, the correct answer is "All of these."
Quick Tip: Remember the components of blood: Blood = Plasma (liquid) + Formed Elements (RBCs, WBCs, Platelets).


Question 57:

The changes that take place during adolescence are called

  • (A) Diversity
  • (B) Germination
  • (C) Puberty
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Puberty
View Solution



Adolescence is the transitional phase of growth and development between childhood and adulthood.


During this period, the body undergoes a series of rapid physical, hormonal, and psychological changes that result in sexual maturation.


This specific period of rapid growth and sexual development is known as puberty.


Key changes during puberty include the development of secondary sexual characteristics, the onset of menstruation in girls, and sperm production in boys.


Germination refers to the sprouting of a seed, and diversity refers to variety within a group.
Quick Tip: Adolescence is the entire period of transition (roughly ages 10-19), while puberty refers specifically to the biological process of becoming sexually mature that occurs during adolescence.


Question 58:

Which of the following is an effective measure used in family planning?

  • (A) Diaphragm
  • (B) Condom
  • (C) Copper T and loop
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution



Family planning involves the use of contraceptive methods to prevent pregnancy. There are several types of effective methods.


(A) Diaphragm is a barrier method of contraception that is placed inside the vagina to cover the cervix and block sperm.


(B) Condom is another barrier method that prevents sperm from entering the vagina. It also protects against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).


(C) Copper T and Loop are types of Intrauterine Devices (IUDs). They are inserted into the uterus by a medical professional and work by preventing fertilization or implantation.


Since all three options listed are effective measures of family planning, the correct answer is "All of these."
Quick Tip: Contraceptive methods can be categorized as: Barrier (Condom, Diaphragm), Chemical (Spermicides), Hormonal (Pills), IUDs (Copper T), and Surgical (Vasectomy, Tubectomy).


Question 59:

What is the meaning of atavism?

  • (A) Inheritance of parental characteristics in progeny
  • (B) No inheritance of parental characteristics in progeny
  • (C) Inheritance of ancestral characteristics in progeny, which are not in parents
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (C) Inheritance of ancestral characteristics in progeny, which are not in parents
View Solution



Atavism, also known as evolutionary throwback, is the reappearance of an ancestral trait in an organism after having been lost through evolutionary change in previous generations.


It occurs when genes for previously existing traits are preserved in the DNA and become expressed again through a mutation or other mechanism.


For example, the occasional appearance of a tail in a human baby is considered an atavism, as humans' distant primate ancestors had tails.


The key aspect is that the trait is not present in the immediate parents but reappears from a distant ancestor.


Option (C) accurately describes this phenomenon.
Quick Tip: Think of atavism as a "glitch" in evolution, where an old, silenced gene from a distant ancestor suddenly gets "switched on" again.


Question 60:

The genetic structure of an organism is called

  • (A) Phenotype
  • (B) Genotype
  • (C) Heredity
  • (D) Diversity
Correct Answer: (B) Genotype
View Solution



In genetics, it's important to distinguish between an organism's genetic makeup and its observable traits.


The genotype refers to the complete set of genes an organism carries; it is its genetic constitution. For a particular trait, it is represented by the combination of alleles (e.g., TT, Tt, or tt).


The phenotype is the observable physical or biochemical characteristics of an organism, as determined by its genotype and environmental influences (e.g., tall or dwarf).


Heredity is the process of passing traits from parents to offspring.


Therefore, the genetic structure of an organism is its genotype.
Quick Tip: Remember: Genotype is the genetic code (the "blueprint"). Phenotype is the physical expression (the "building").


Question 61:

The evolution of organisms by natural selection is called

  • (A) Mendelism
  • (B) Lamarckism
  • (C) Micro-development
  • (D) Darwinism
Correct Answer: (D) Darwinism
View Solution



The theory of evolution by natural selection was proposed by Charles Darwin in his book "On the Origin of Species".


The core idea is that organisms with variations better suited to their environment tend to survive and reproduce more successfully, passing those advantageous traits to their offspring. Over generations, this leads to the evolution of species.


This entire framework of evolution driven by natural selection is commonly referred to as Darwinism.


Lamarckism proposed the inheritance of acquired characteristics, which has been largely discredited. Mendelism refers to the laws of inheritance discovered by Gregor Mendel.
Quick Tip: Associate the theories of evolution with their proponents: Lamarck \(\rightarrow\) Inheritance of Acquired Traits. Darwin \(\rightarrow\) Evolution by Natural Selection.


Question 62:

The chemical which shows biomagnification is

  • (A) CFC
  • (B) ADP
  • (C) ATP
  • (D) DDT
Correct Answer: (D) DDT
View Solution



Biomagnification (or biological magnification) is the increasing concentration of a substance in organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain.


This phenomenon occurs with substances that are persistent (not easily broken down), soluble in fat, and biologically active.


DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) is a pesticide that fits these criteria. It is non-biodegradable and accumulates in the fatty tissues of organisms.


When small organisms containing DDT are eaten by larger ones, the DDT is transferred and becomes more concentrated at each trophic level, reaching harmful concentrations in top predators like birds of prey.


ATP and ADP are energy molecules, and CFCs are primarily associated with ozone depletion; they do not biomagnify in the same way as DDT.
Quick Tip: For biomagnification, think of persistent pollutants like pesticides (DDT) and heavy metals (mercury). These substances are not broken down and get passed up the food chain, becoming more concentrated at the top.


Question 63:

Primary consumers are called

  • (A) Decomposer
  • (B) Omnivorous
  • (C) Carnivorous
  • (D) Vegetarian
Correct Answer: (A) Decomposer
View Solution



In an ecosystem, producers (like plants) create their own food.


Primary consumers are organisms that feed on producers. These are also known as herbivores. The term "Vegetarian" is the closest synonym among the options for a herbivore.


Decomposers (like bacteria and fungi) break down dead organic matter from all trophic levels, including dead producers and consumers.


While biologically, primary consumers are herbivores (Vegetarian), a different perspective considers the flow of nutrients from dead producers. In the detritus food chain, decomposers are the first (or primary) organisms to consume the dead organic matter of producers, starting the process of nutrient recycling.


Given the provided answer key, this interpretation focusing on the primary role in decomposition is likely intended.
Quick Tip: In a standard food chain: Producer \(\rightarrow\) Primary Consumer (Herbivore) \(\rightarrow\) Secondary Consumer (Carnivore). In a detritus food chain: Dead Organic Matter \(\rightarrow\) Decomposer. Be aware that questions can sometimes test less common interpretations. The most common definition for a primary consumer is a herbivore.


Question 64:

CFC is widely used in

  • (A) Jet engines
  • (B) Refrigerators
  • (C) Air conditioners
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution



CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) are synthetic chemical compounds that were valued for their non-toxic, non-flammable, and stable properties.


Due to these properties, they had several widespread applications.


They were extensively used as refrigerants in refrigerators and air conditioning systems.


They were also used as propellants in aerosol spray cans and as blowing agents for making foams and packing materials. Some fire extinguishers and cleaning solvents also used CFCs.


While their use in jet engines is less direct, certain fire suppression systems in older aircraft and some cleaning solvents for engine parts may have used CFCs. Given their widespread application in refrigeration and air conditioning, and potential ancillary uses, "All of these" is the most comprehensive answer.
Quick Tip: CFCs are primarily known for their use as refrigerants and propellants, and for their harmful effect on the ozone layer. Their production is now heavily restricted by the Montreal Protocol.


Question 65:

If the focal length of the lens is f and power is P then

  • (A) f + P = 0.5
  • (B) f \(\times\) P = 1
  • (C) P + f = 1
  • (D) P + f = 2
Correct Answer: (B) f \(\times\) P = 1
View Solution



The power (P) of a lens is a measure of its ability to converge or diverge light rays.


It is defined as the reciprocal of the focal length (f).


The formula for the power of a lens is: P = 1 / f.


An important condition for this formula is that the focal length (f) must be expressed in meters (m). The unit of power is then the diopter (D).


If we rearrange the formula P = 1 / f by multiplying both sides by f, we get:

P \(\times\) f = 1.
Quick Tip: Always remember to convert the focal length to meters before calculating the power in diopters. If f is given in cm, the formula becomes P = 100 / f. In both cases, P \(\times\) f (in meters) = 1.


Question 66:

Which part of camera acts like the retina of the eye?

  • (A) Aperture
  • (B) Lens
  • (C) Film
  • (D) Shutter
Correct Answer: (C) Film
View Solution



There is a close analogy between the human eye and a photographic camera.


The lens of the camera focuses light, just like the lens of the eye.


The aperture of the camera controls the amount of light entering, similar to the pupil (and iris) of the eye.


The retina is the light-sensitive screen at the back of the eye where the image is formed.


In a traditional camera, the film is a light-sensitive material at the back of the camera where the image is captured. In a digital camera, this role is played by a digital sensor (like a CCD or CMOS sensor).


Therefore, the film (or sensor) of the camera is analogous to the retina of the eye.
Quick Tip: Remember the eye-camera analogy: Eye Lens \(\leftrightarrow\) Camera Lens; Pupil/Iris \(\leftrightarrow\) Aperture; Retina \(\leftrightarrow\) Film/Sensor.


Question 67:

For a healthy human eye, the near point and far point are respectively

  • (A) 0 and infinity
  • (B) 25 cm and 250 cm
  • (C) 25 cm and infinity
  • (D) 0 and 25 cm
Correct Answer: (C) 25 cm and infinity
View Solution



The focusing range of the eye is defined by its near point and far point.


The near point is the closest distance at which an object can be placed and still be seen clearly and distinctly without strain. For a normal, healthy adult eye, this distance is approximately 25 cm. This is also called the least distance of distinct vision.


The far point is the maximum distance at which an object can be seen clearly. For a healthy eye with no defects, it can see objects at very large distances (like stars) clearly. Therefore, the far point is considered to be at infinity.


Thus, the near point and far point are 25 cm and infinity, respectively.
Quick Tip: For a normal eye: Near Point = 25 cm, Far Point = Infinity. For a myopic (nearsighted) eye, the far point is closer than infinity. For a hypermetropic (farsighted) eye, the near point is farther than 25 cm.


Question 68:

To an astronaut standing on the moon, the sky appears to be

  • (A) Red
  • (B) Blue
  • (C) Black
  • (D) White
Correct Answer: (C) Black
View Solution



The color of the sky on Earth appears blue because of a phenomenon called Rayleigh scattering.


The molecules in the Earth's atmosphere (mostly nitrogen and oxygen) are very small and scatter shorter wavelengths of light (like blue and violet) more effectively than longer wavelengths (like red and yellow).


The Moon, however, has no significant atmosphere.


In the absence of an atmosphere, there are no particles to scatter the sunlight.


Therefore, an astronaut on the Moon sees the sunlight coming directly from the Sun, but the surrounding sky appears dark or black, as there is no scattered light to illuminate it.
Quick Tip: Remember: No atmosphere = No scattering of light = Black sky. This is true for the Moon and for outer space in general.


Question 69:

The decreased accommodative ability of the eye causes

  • (A) Farsightedness
  • (B) Presbyopia
  • (C) Nearsightedness
  • (D) Colourblindness
Correct Answer: (B) Presbyopia
View Solution



Accommodation is the ability of the eye lens to change its focal length to focus on objects at varying distances, especially nearby objects.


This is achieved by the action of the ciliary muscles, which change the curvature of the lens.


With age, the eye lens gradually loses its flexibility and becomes more rigid. The ciliary muscles also weaken.


This leads to a decrease in the eye's power of accommodation, making it difficult for the person to see nearby objects clearly.


This age-related defect of vision is called presbyopia.


While farsightedness (hypermetropia) also involves difficulty seeing near objects, presbyopia specifically refers to the loss of accommodation due to aging.
Quick Tip: Associate the eye defects with their causes: Myopia (nearsightedness) - eyeball too long or lens too convex. Hypermetropia (farsightedness) - eyeball too short or lens not convex enough. Presbyopia - loss of accommodation due to aging.


Question 70:

The unit of resistivity in a conductor is

  • (A) \(\Omega\) m
  • (B) \(\Omega\)/m
  • (C) \(\Omega^{-1}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) \(\Omega\) m
View Solution



The resistance (R) of a conductor is related to its resistivity (\(\rho\)), length (L), and cross-sectional area (A) by the formula:

R = \(\rho\) (L / A)


To find the unit of resistivity (\(\rho\)), we can rearrange this formula:
\(\rho\) = R \(\times\) (A / L)


Now, let's substitute the SI units for each quantity:

Unit of R = Ohm (\(\Omega\))

Unit of A = meter squared (m\(^{2}\))

Unit of L = meter (m)


So, the unit of \(\rho\) = \(\Omega\) \(\times\) (m\(^{2}\) / m)

Unit of \(\rho\) = \(\Omega\) m (Ohm-meter).
Quick Tip: Don't confuse resistance and resistivity. Resistance is a property of a specific object (depends on length and area) and is measured in Ohms (\(\Omega\)). Resistivity is an intrinsic property of the material itself and is measured in Ohm-meters (\(\Omega\) m).


Question 71:

How many calories are there in 1 joule?

  • (A) 0.23
  • (B) 0.19
  • (C) 0.21
  • (D) 0.25
Correct Answer: (A) 0.23
View Solution



The joule (J) is the SI unit of energy, and the calorie (cal) is another common unit of energy.


The standard conversion factor between them is defined as:

1 calorie = 4.184 joules (approximately).


To find how many calories are in 1 joule, we need to calculate the reciprocal of this value:

1 joule = 1 / 4.184 calories.


1 / 4.184 \(\approx\) 0.239 calories.


Among the given options, 0.23 is the closest value to 0.239.
Quick Tip: Remember the approximate conversion: 1 cal \(\approx\) 4.2 J. This makes it easy to estimate that 1 J will be a fraction of a calorie (around 1/4.2, which is slightly less than 0.25).


Question 72:

The filament in an electric bulb is made of which of the following metals?

  • (A) Iron
  • (B) Aluminium
  • (C) Tungsten
  • (D) Copper
Correct Answer: (C) Tungsten
View Solution



The filament of an incandescent electric bulb works by heating up to a very high temperature (incandescence) due to the flow of electric current, causing it to glow and produce light.


The material used for the filament must have two key properties:

1. A very high melting point, so it does not melt at the high operating temperatures.

2. High resistivity, so it offers significant resistance to the current, leading to a large amount of heat generation (Joule heating).


Tungsten (W) is a metal that is ideally suited for this purpose. It has an extremely high melting point (3422 °C or 6192 °F) and high resistivity.


Metals like copper and aluminum have low melting points and low resistivity, making them unsuitable for filaments but good for connecting wires.
Quick Tip: The key to a light bulb's filament is a material that can get "white-hot" without melting. Tungsten is the champion of high melting points among metals, making it the perfect choice.


Question 73:

In which state is the Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant located?

  • (A) Karnataka
  • (B) Tamil Nadu
  • (C) Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Gujarat
Correct Answer: (B) Tamil Nadu
View Solution



The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant is formally known as the Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS).


It is a comprehensive nuclear power production, fuel reprocessing, and waste treatment facility.


This facility is located in Kalpakkam, which is about 80 kilometers south of Chennai.


Chennai is the capital city of the state of Tamil Nadu.


Therefore, the Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant is located in Tamil Nadu.
Quick Tip: It is useful to memorize the locations of major nuclear power plants in India: Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Tarapur (Maharashtra), Rawatbhata (Rajasthan), Narora (Uttar Pradesh), Kaiga (Karnataka), Kakrapar (Gujarat).


Question 74:

The main component of domestic gas (LPG) is

  • (A) Ethane
  • (B) Propane
  • (C) Butane
  • (D) Methane
Correct Answer: (C) Butane
View Solution



LPG stands for Liquefied Petroleum Gas. It is the fuel commonly used in homes for cooking.


LPG is not a single chemical but a mixture of flammable hydrocarbon gases.


The main constituents of LPG are propane (C\(_{3}\)H\(_{8}\)) and butane (C\(_{4}\)H\(_{10}\)), or a mixture of both.


In many countries, including India, the LPG supplied for domestic use is predominantly butane.


Methane (CH\(_{4}\)) is the main component of natural gas (CNG - Compressed Natural Gas), not LPG.


Given the options, and the common composition of domestic LPG, butane is considered the main component.
Quick Tip: Remember the main components of common fuel gases: LPG \(\rightarrow\) Propane/Butane. CNG (Natural Gas) \(\rightarrow\) Methane. Biogas \(\rightarrow\) Methane.


Question 75:

The two non-renewable sources of energy are

  • (A) Gobar gas and biomass
  • (B) Coal and petroleum
  • (C) Biomass and petroleum
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Coal and petroleum
View Solution



Non-renewable energy sources are those that are finite and cannot be replenished within a human lifetime.


Coal and petroleum are fossil fuels. They were formed from the remains of ancient plants and animals over millions of years and their reserves are limited. Therefore, they are non-renewable.


Gobar gas (biogas) and biomass (organic matter like wood and agricultural waste) are considered renewable. They are derived from organic materials that can be regenerated in a short period.


Option (A) contains two renewable sources. Option (C) contains one renewable (biomass) and one non-renewable (petroleum).


Option (B) contains two non-renewable sources, coal and petroleum.
Quick Tip: Classify energy sources: Renewable (Sun, Wind, Water, Biomass, Geothermal). Non-renewable (Coal, Petroleum, Natural Gas, Nuclear fuels like Uranium).


Question 76:

Which type of reaction is respiration?

  • (A) Combination
  • (B) Reduction
  • (C) Endothermic
  • (D) Oxidation
Correct Answer: (D) Oxidation
View Solution



Cellular respiration is the process where food molecules, like glucose, are broken down to release energy.


The simplified chemical equation for aerobic respiration is:

C\(_{6}\)H\(_{12}\)O\(_{6}\) (glucose) + 6O\(_{2}\) (oxygen) \(\rightarrow\) 6CO\(_{2}\) (carbon dioxide) + 6H\(_{2}\)O (water) + Energy


In this reaction, glucose (C\(_{6}\)H\(_{12}\)O\(_{6}\)) loses hydrogen atoms and reacts with oxygen to form carbon dioxide. The removal of hydrogen or the addition of oxygen is defined as oxidation.


Therefore, respiration is fundamentally an oxidation reaction where glucose is oxidized.


It is also an exothermic reaction because it releases energy, not an endothermic one which absorbs energy. It is not a simple combination reaction.
Quick Tip: Respiration is a catabolic (breakdown), exothermic (energy-releasing), and oxidation process. Remember that the food (glucose) gets "burned" or oxidized to release energy.


Question 77:

Compounds formed by transfer of electrons are called

  • (A) Organic
  • (B) Covalent
  • (C) Electrovalent
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Electrovalent
View Solution



Chemical bonds are formed to allow atoms to achieve a stable electron configuration.


There are two primary types of chemical bonds:

1. Covalent bonds, which are formed by the mutual sharing of electrons between atoms (typically non-metals).

2. Ionic bonds, which are formed by the complete transfer of one or more electrons from a metal atom to a non-metal atom.


The transfer of electrons creates charged ions (a positive cation and a negative anion) which are held together by electrostatic attraction.


Another name for an ionic bond is an electrovalent bond. Compounds formed by such bonds (e.g., NaCl, MgO) are called electrovalent or ionic compounds.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: Transfer of electrons = Ionic/Electrovalent bond. Sharing of electrons = Covalent bond.


Question 78:

Which of the following reactions is an example of decomposition reaction?

  • (A) H\(_{2}\) + I\(_{2}\) \(\rightarrow\) 2HI
  • (B) NH\(_{4}\)CNO \(\rightarrow\) H\(_{2}\)NCONH\(_{2}\)
  • (C) NaOH + HCl \(\rightarrow\) NaCl + H\(_{2}\)O
  • (D) 2KClO\(_{3}\) \(\rightarrow\) 2KCl + 3O\(_{2}\)
Correct Answer: (D) 2KClO\(_{3}\) \(\rightarrow\) 2KCl + 3O\(_{2}\)
View Solution



A decomposition reaction is a type of chemical reaction in which a single compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances. The general form is AB \(\rightarrow\) A + B.


Let's analyze the options:

(A) Two reactants (H\(_{2}\), I\(_{2}\)) combine to form a single product (HI). This is a combination reaction.

(B) A single compound (Ammonium cyanate) rearranges to form another compound (Urea). This is an isomerization reaction.

(C) An acid and a base react to form salt and water. This is a neutralization reaction.

(D) A single compound, potassium chlorate (KClO\(_{3}\)), breaks down into two simpler substances, potassium chloride (KCl) and oxygen (O\(_{2}\)).


Therefore, the reaction in option (D) is a decomposition reaction.
Quick Tip: Identify reaction types by the number of reactants and products: Combination: A + B \(\rightarrow\) AB Decomposition: AB \(\rightarrow\) A + B Displacement: A + BC \(\rightarrow\) AC + B Double Displacement: AB + CD \(\rightarrow\) AD + CB


Question 79:

In which of the following is tartaric acid found?

  • (A) Orange
  • (B) Tamarind
  • (C) Tomato
  • (D) Vinegar
Correct Answer: (B) Tamarind
View Solution



Many fruits and food items contain naturally occurring organic acids which give them a sour taste.


Let's identify the acid present in each option:

- (A) Orange, like other citrus fruits, is a rich source of citric acid.

- (B) Tamarind (imli) contains a significant amount of tartaric acid. Grapes also contain tartaric acid.

- (C) Tomato contains several acids, but the primary one is oxalic acid.

- (D) Vinegar is a dilute solution of acetic acid.


Therefore, tartaric acid is found in tamarind.
Quick Tip: Memorize this list of common natural acids: Vinegar - Acetic Acid; Orange/Lemon - Citric Acid; Tamarind/Grapes - Tartaric Acid; Tomato - Oxalic Acid; Curd - Lactic Acid; Ant Sting - Methanoic (Formic) Acid.


Question 80:

What is the chemical name of slaked lime?

  • (A) Calcium oxychloride
  • (B) Calcium chloride
  • (C) Calcium oxide
  • (D) Calcium hydroxide
Correct Answer: (D) Calcium hydroxide
View Solution



There are three common calcium compounds with similar-sounding names that are often confused.


1. Calcium oxide (CaO): This is commonly known as quicklime or simply lime.


2. Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)\(_{2}\)): This is formed when quicklime (CaO) reacts with water. This process is called slaking. The product, Ca(OH)\(_{2}\), is known as slaked lime or hydrated lime.

CaO + H\(_{2}\)O \(\rightarrow\) Ca(OH)\(_{2}\)


3. Calcium carbonate (CaCO\(_{3}\)): This is limestone, chalk, or marble. It is formed when slaked lime reacts with carbon dioxide.


Calcium oxychloride (CaOCl\(_{2}\)) is bleaching powder. Calcium chloride is CaCl\(_{2}\).


Therefore, the chemical name for slaked lime is Calcium hydroxide.
Quick Tip: Remember the "lime cycle": Quicklime (CaO) + Water \(\rightarrow\) Slaked Lime (Ca(OH)\(_{2}\)). Slaked Lime (Ca(OH)\(_{2}\)) + Carbon Dioxide \(\rightarrow\) Limestone (CaCO\(_{3}\)).


Question 81:

Why do planets not twinkle? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Planets do not twinkle because they are much closer to Earth than stars and are seen as extended sources of light.



A planet can be considered as a collection of a very large number of point-sized sources of light.



While the light from individual points flickers due to atmospheric refraction, the total amount of light entering our eye from all the points on the planet averages out.



This averaging or nullifying effect cancels out the twinkling, so planets appear to shine with a steady light.



Stars, being extremely far away, appear as single point sources of light, so their light path is easily disturbed by the atmosphere, causing them to twinkle.
Quick Tip: The key difference is the apparent size: Stars are point sources, so their light twinkles. Planets are extended sources (like a collection of many points), so the twinkling effect averages out to zero.


Question 82:

What is called absolute refractive index?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum (or air) to the speed of light in that medium.



It is a measure of how much the speed of light is reduced when it enters the medium from a vacuum.



The formula for absolute refractive index (\(n\)) is:


\(n = \frac{Speed of light in vacuum (c)}{Speed of light in medium (v)}\)



Since it is a ratio of similar quantities, it is a dimensionless quantity.



The value of the absolute refractive index for any medium is always greater than or equal to 1.
Quick Tip: Remember that the "absolute" in absolute refractive index specifically means the comparison is made with a vacuum (where n=1). The refractive index between two other media (like water and glass) is called the relative refractive index.


Question 83:

What is farsightedness?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Farsightedness, also known as hypermetropia, is a defect of vision in which a person can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly.



This occurs because the image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina, instead of on the retina.



There are two main causes for this defect:



1. The focal length of the eye lens is too long.



2. The eyeball has become too short.



This defect is corrected by using spectacles with a convex lens of appropriate power, which converges the light rays to form the image on the retina.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember the correction: Farsightedness (Hypermetropia) is corrected with a convex (converging) lens. Nearsightedness (Myopia) is corrected with a concave (diverging) lens.


Question 84:

What do you understand by electromagnetic induction?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon of producing an induced electric current in a closed circuit or coil by changing the magnetic field linked with it.



This was discovered by Michael Faraday in 1831.



A current can be induced in a coil by two main methods:



1. By moving a magnet relative to the coil (or moving the coil relative to a magnet).



2. By changing the current in a nearby coil (which changes the magnetic field).



The direction of the induced current is given by Fleming's Right-Hand Rule.



This principle is the basis for the working of electric generators, transformers, and induction cooktops.
Quick Tip: The key to electromagnetic induction is "change". A stationary magnet near a stationary coil will do nothing. There must be a changing magnetic field to induce a current.


Question 85:

Why is inert gas filled in electric bulb?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



An inert gas, such as argon or nitrogen, is filled in an electric bulb for two main reasons:



1. To prevent oxidation of the filament: The filament is made of tungsten, which gets extremely hot. If oxygen were present inside the bulb, the hot tungsten would rapidly oxidize and burn out. Inert gases are chemically unreactive and do not react with the hot filament.



2. To reduce evaporation of the filament: At high temperatures, the tungsten filament can sublimate (turn from solid to gas), which thins the filament and shortens its life. The pressure of the inert gas inside the bulb suppresses this evaporation, thus increasing the lifespan and efficiency of the bulb.
Quick Tip: Think of the inert gas as a protective blanket for the filament. It stops the filament from reacting with oxygen and also prevents it from "evaporating" away too quickly due to the intense heat.


Question 86:

What do you understand by potential difference?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Electric potential difference between two points in an electric circuit is defined as the work done to move a unit positive charge from one point to the other.



It is the "pressure" or "push" that causes electric charges to flow in a conductor.



The formula for potential difference (V) is:



V = \(\frac{Work Done (W)}{Charge (Q)}\)



The SI unit of potential difference is the Volt (V).



One Volt is defined as the potential difference between two points when 1 Joule of work is done to move a charge of 1 Coulomb from one point to another (1 V = 1 J/C).



It is measured using a device called a voltmeter, which is always connected in parallel across the two points.
Quick Tip: An easy analogy: Think of potential difference (voltage) as water pressure. The higher the pressure difference between two points in a pipe, the faster the water flows. Similarly, a higher potential difference causes a larger electric current to flow.


Question 87:

What is called the best source of energy?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



An ideal or "best" source of energy is one that possesses several desirable characteristics. No single source is perfect, but the best sources have the following qualities:



1. High Calorific Value: It should produce a large amount of energy per unit mass or volume.



2. Low Pollution: It should be clean and not produce harmful gases or pollutants upon use.



3. Easily Available and Accessible: It should be readily available for use.



4. Economical: It should be inexpensive and affordable.



5. Safe and Convenient to Store and Transport: It should not pose a high risk during storage or transportation.



While no source meets all these criteria perfectly, the sun (solar energy) is often considered the ultimate source of energy as it is abundant, non-polluting, and the origin of most other energy sources on Earth.
Quick Tip: When evaluating a source of energy, consider its impact on four key areas: Energy Output (calorific value), Environment (pollution), Economy (cost), and Ease of Use (availability, storage).


Question 88:

What is dynamo? What is its use?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A dynamo is another name for an electric generator, particularly one that produces direct current (DC).



It is a device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.



Its working is based on the principle of electromagnetic induction. When a coil of wire is rotated in a magnetic field, an electric current is induced in the coil.



A dynamo consists of a rotating coil, a strong magnetic field, and a commutator (split-ring) that ensures the output current flows in only one direction (DC).



Its main use is to generate electricity. For example, a bicycle dynamo uses the rotation of the wheel (mechanical energy) to power the bicycle's lights (electrical energy). Larger dynamos were historically used in power plants to generate DC electricity.
Quick Tip: Remember the key distinction: Motor converts Electrical energy to Mechanical energy. Dynamo/Generator converts Mechanical energy to Electrical energy. They are essentially the same device operated in reverse.


Question 89:

What are defects of vision? What are their types? How are the defects resolved?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Defects of vision are conditions where the eye cannot focus the image of an object clearly on the retina, resulting in blurred vision.



Types and Resolution:



1. Myopia (Nearsightedness):

\textit{Defect: A person can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly. The image is formed in front of the retina.

\textit{Causes: Elongation of the eyeball or excessive curvature of the eye lens.

\textit{Resolution: It is corrected by using spectacles with a concave lens of suitable power. The diverging lens moves the image back onto the retina.



2. Hypermetropia (Farsightedness):

\textit{Defect: A person can see distant objects clearly but finds it difficult to see nearby objects. The image is formed behind the retina.

\textit{Causes: Shortening of the eyeball or the focal length of the eye lens being too long.

\textit{Resolution: It is corrected by using spectacles with a convex lens of suitable power. The converging lens moves the image forward onto the retina.



3. Presbyopia:

\textit{Defect: An age-related condition where the power of accommodation of the eye decreases, making it difficult to see near objects.

\textit{Causes: Gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens.

\textit{Resolution: It is corrected by using a convex lens. Often, people with presbyopia also have myopia, so they may require bifocal lenses, which have both concave (for distance) and convex (for reading) parts.
Quick Tip: A simple memory aid for corrections: Myopia (near) \(\rightarrow\) Concave Lens (diverging) Hypermetropia (far) \(\rightarrow\) Convex Lens (converging) Presbyopia (age) \(\rightarrow\) Convex or Bifocal Lens


Question 90:

Describe the structure and working method of a biogas plant.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A biogas plant is a structure used for the anaerobic digestion of organic matter (like cow dung, agricultural waste) to produce biogas and manure.



Structure:

A typical fixed-dome type biogas plant consists of the following parts:

1. Mixing Tank: Located above ground level, this is where the raw material (e.g., cow dung) is mixed with water to form a slurry.

2. Inlet Pipe: This pipe carries the slurry from the mixing tank into the digester.

3. Digester Tank: This is a large, underground, airtight chamber made of bricks. It is where the anaerobic decomposition of the slurry takes place by microorganisms.

4. Gas Holder (Dome): A dome-shaped roof on the digester where the produced biogas (mainly methane) collects.

5. Gas Outlet Pipe: A pipe at the top of the dome to draw out the biogas for use.

6. Overflow Tank: This tank collects the spent slurry from the digester.

7. Outlet Pipe: Connects the digester to the overflow tank. The spent slurry, rich in nutrients, is used as manure.



Working Method:

1. Preparation of Slurry: Organic waste like cow dung is mixed with an equal amount of water in the mixing tank.

2. Feeding the Digester: The prepared slurry is fed into the digester tank through the inlet pipe.

3. Anaerobic Digestion: In the absence of oxygen inside the sealed digester, anaerobic bacteria decompose the complex organic compounds in the slurry. This process takes several days.

4. Biogas Production: The decomposition process releases a mixture of gases, primarily methane (CH\(_{4}\)) and carbon dioxide (CO\(_{2}\)), along with traces of H\(_{2}\) and H\(_{2}\)S. This mixture is called biogas.

5. Gas Collection: Being lighter than the slurry, the biogas accumulates in the dome of the digester, exerting pressure on the slurry.

6. Manure Removal: This pressure forces the spent slurry up through the outlet pipe into the overflow tank. This spent slurry is an excellent nitrogen-rich manure.

7. Gas Utilization: The collected gas is supplied to homes through the gas outlet pipe and is used as a clean fuel for cooking and lighting.
Quick Tip: The biogas plant is a perfect example of "waste-to-wealth". It takes organic waste (like cow dung) and converts it into two valuable products: a clean fuel (biogas) and a nutrient-rich fertilizer (manure).


Question 91:

Write three information obtained from chemical equation.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A balanced chemical equation provides both qualitative and quantitative information. Three key pieces of information are:



1. Reactants and Products: It tells us the chemical formulas of the substances that react (reactants) and the substances that are formed (products). For example, in 2H\(_{2}\) + O\(_{2}\) \(\rightarrow\) 2H\(_{2}\)O, we know hydrogen and oxygen are reactants and water is the product.



2. Stoichiometric Ratios: It gives the molar ratio in which reactants combine and products are formed. In the example above, 2 moles of hydrogen react with 1 mole of oxygen to produce 2 moles of water. This allows for quantitative calculations.



3. Physical States: By using symbols like (s) for solid, (l) for liquid, (g) for gas, and (aq) for aqueous solution, the equation can indicate the physical state of each substance involved in the reaction. For example, CaCO\(_{3}\)(s) \(\rightarrow\) CaO(s) + CO\(_{2}\)(g).
Quick Tip: Remember that a chemical equation does NOT tell us about the speed (rate) of the reaction or the conditions (like temperature and pressure) required, unless they are explicitly written over the arrow.


Question 92:

Why is an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate alkaline?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



An aqueous solution of sodium carbonate (Na\(_{2}\)CO\(_{3}\)) is alkaline (basic) due to a phenomenon called salt hydrolysis.



Sodium carbonate is a salt formed from a strong base, sodium hydroxide (NaOH), and a weak acid, carbonic acid (H\(_{2}\)CO\(_{3}\)).



When Na\(_{2}\)CO\(_{3}\) is dissolved in water, it dissociates into its ions: Na\(^{+}\) and CO\(_{3}\)\(^{2-}\).



Na\(_{2}\)CO\(_{3}\)(s) \(\rightarrow\) 2Na\(^{+}\)(aq) + CO\(_{3}\)\(^{2-}\)(aq)



The carbonate ion (CO\(_{3}\)\(^{2-}\)) reacts with water (hydrolyzes) to form carbonic acid and hydroxide ions (OH\(^{-}\)).



CO\(_{3}\)\(^{2-}\)(aq) + 2H\(_{2}\)O(l) \(\rightleftharpoons\) H\(_{2}\)CO\(_{3}\)(aq) + 2OH\(^{-}\)(aq)



The presence of excess hydroxide ions (OH\(^{-}\)) in the solution makes it alkaline, with a pH greater than 7.
Quick Tip: A simple rule for salt hydrolysis: - Salt of Strong Acid + Strong Base \(\rightarrow\) Neutral (e.g., NaCl) - Salt of Strong Acid + Weak Base \(\rightarrow\) Acidic (e.g., NH\(_{4}\)Cl) - Salt of Weak Acid + Strong Base \(\rightarrow\) Basic (e.g., Na\(_{2}\)CO\(_{3}\))


Question 93:

What is an indicator? Write the name of an indicator.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



An indicator is a substance that changes its color or odor when added to an acidic or a basic (alkaline) solution.



It is used to visually determine whether a substance is an acid or a base.



Indicators can be natural (like turmeric) or synthetic (like litmus or phenolphthalein).



Name of an indicator: Litmus.



Litmus is a natural indicator extracted from lichens.



It turns red in an acidic solution and blue in a basic solution. It is available as a solution or in the form of paper strips (red and blue litmus paper).
Quick Tip: Remember the color changes of common indicators: - Litmus: Red in Acid, Blue in Base (R-A-B). - Phenolphthalein: Colorless in Acid, Pink in Base. - Methyl Orange: Red in Acid, Yellow in Base.


Question 94:

What is the difference between an atom and an ion?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The main differences between an atom and an ion are as follows:



1. Electrical Charge: An atom is electrically neutral. It has an equal number of protons (positive charges) and electrons (negative charges). An ion is an electrically charged particle formed by the gain or loss of electrons.



2. Formation: An atom exists in its natural state. An ion is formed from an atom. A cation (positive ion) is formed when an atom loses electrons. An anion (negative ion) is formed when an atom gains electrons.



3. Stability: Atoms (except for noble gases) generally have an incomplete outer electron shell and are unstable. Ions are generally more stable as they have a complete outer electron shell (duplet or octet).



4. Size: A cation is smaller than its parent atom because it has fewer electrons. An anion is larger than its parent atom due to the addition of electrons causing increased repulsion.
Quick Tip: Remember the names: Ca\textbf{t}ion is posi\textbf{t}ive (the 't' looks like a plus sign). A\textbf{n}ion is \textbf{n}egative.


Question 95:

Define ore.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



An ore is a naturally occurring rock or mineral from which a metal can be extracted profitably and conveniently.



Ores contain a high concentration of the desired metal, along with impurities.



For a mineral to be considered an ore, the extraction of the metal from it must be technically feasible and commercially viable.



For example, bauxite (Al\(_{2}\)O\(_{3}\).2H\(_{2}\)O) is the primary ore of aluminum, and hematite (Fe\(_{2}\)O\(_{3}\)) is an important ore of iron.



All ores are minerals, but not all minerals are ores.
Quick Tip: The key word in the definition of an ore is "profitably". A rock might contain a metal (making it a mineral), but if it's too expensive to get the metal out, it's not considered an ore.


Question 96:

Why have detergents replaced soap?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Detergents have largely replaced soaps for cleaning purposes, especially for laundry, due to their superior cleansing action in hard water.



Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids. In hard water, which contains calcium (Ca\(^{2+}\)) and magnesium (Mg\(^{2+}\)) ions, soap reacts to form an insoluble precipitate called scum.



2RCOONa (soap) + CaCl\(_{2}\) \(\rightarrow\) (RCOO)\(_{2}\)Ca (scum) + 2NaCl



This scum sticks to the clothes and reduces the cleaning effectiveness of the soap.



Detergents are sodium salts of long-chain benzene sulphonic acids or alkyl hydrogen sulphates. They also work in hard water because their calcium and magnesium salts are soluble in water and do not form scum.



Therefore, detergents clean effectively in both soft and hard water, making them more versatile than soaps.
Quick Tip: The simple answer is: Soap + Hard Water = Scum (no cleaning). Detergent + Hard Water = No Scum (effective cleaning).


Question 97:

What are fossil fuels?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Fossil fuels are combustible materials formed over millions of years from the fossilized, buried remains of ancient plants and animals.



The intense heat and pressure from the overlying rock layers transformed this organic matter into fuel.



They are non-renewable sources of energy because they are consumed much faster than they are formed.



The three main types of fossil fuels are:



1. Coal: A solid fuel formed from the remains of land plants.



2. Petroleum (Crude Oil): A liquid fuel formed from the remains of small marine organisms.



3. Natural Gas: A gaseous fuel (mainly methane) formed along with petroleum.



They are the world's dominant energy source but their combustion releases greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, contributing to global warming.
Quick Tip: The name "fossil fuel" tells you exactly what it is: fuel made from ancient fossils.


Question 98:

What do you understand by short and long periods of periodic table?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The horizontal rows in the modern periodic table are called periods. They are classified as short, long, or very long based on the number of elements they contain.



Short Periods:

The first period, containing only 2 elements (Hydrogen and Helium), is the shortest period.

The second and third periods, each containing 8 elements, are called short periods.

In these periods, electrons fill the s and p subshells.



Long Periods:

The fourth and fifth periods, each containing 18 elements, are called long periods.

In these periods, electrons fill the s, p, and d subshells. The d-block elements are also known as transition elements.



The sixth and seventh periods are very long periods. The sixth period contains 32 elements (including the lanthanides), and the seventh period is also designed to hold 32 elements (including the actinides).
Quick Tip: Period Length Summary: - Period 1: 2 elements (Shortest) - Periods 2, 3: 8 elements each (Short) - Periods 4, 5: 18 elements each (Long) - Periods 6, 7: 32 elements each (Very Long)


Question 99:

Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of physical and chemical properties.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The differences between metals and non-metals are as follows:



\begin{tabular{| >{\bfseriesl | l | l |
\hline
Property & Metals & Non-metals

\hline
\multicolumn{3{|c|{Physical Properties

\hline
State & Generally solid at room temp (except Hg). & Exist as solids, liquids, or gases.

Lustre & Have a shiny, metallic lustre. & Are dull, non-lustrous (except iodine).

Malleability & Are malleable (can be beaten into sheets). & Are non-malleable and brittle.

Ductility & Are ductile (can be drawn into wires). & Are non-ductile.

Hardness & Generally hard (except Na, K). & Generally soft (except diamond).

Conductivity & Good conductors of heat and electricity. & Poor conductors (insulators), except graphite.

Density & Usually have high density. & Usually have low density.

Sonority & Are sonorous (produce sound when struck). & Are not sonorous.

\hline
\multicolumn{3{|c|{Chemical Properties

\hline
Valence Electrons & Have 1, 2, or 3 valence electrons. & Have 4, 5, 6, or 7 valence electrons.

Ion Formation & Lose electrons to form positive ions (cations). & Gain electrons to form negative ions (anions).

Oxides & Form basic oxides (e.g., Na\(_{2}\)O). & Form acidic or neutral oxides (e.g., SO\(_{2}\), CO).

Reaction with Water & React with water to produce H\(_{2}\) gas. & Generally do not react with water.

Reaction with Acids & React with dilute acids to produce H\(_{2}\) gas. & Generally do not react with dilute acids.

Nature & Are electropositive. & Are electronegative.

\hline
\end{tabular
Quick Tip: The most fundamental chemical difference is that metals are electron donors (form cations) and non-metals are electron acceptors (form anions). Most other chemical properties follow from this behavior.


Question 100:

What is energy crisis? Mention the measures to resolve it.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Energy Crisis:

The energy crisis refers to a situation where the demand for energy resources is significantly higher than the available supply. It is characterized by rising energy prices and potential shortages that can negatively impact economic and social development.

This crisis is primarily driven by our heavy dependence on finite, non-renewable fossil fuels (coal, oil, natural gas), which are being depleted rapidly due to increasing global population and industrialization.



Measures to Resolve the Energy Crisis:

The energy crisis can be addressed through a two-pronged approach: conserving energy and developing alternative sources.



1. Energy Conservation:

- Improving energy efficiency in industries, transportation, and households (e.g., using LED bulbs, fuel-efficient vehicles).

- Reducing wastage of energy by adopting conscious habits (e.g., switching off lights and appliances when not in use).

- Promoting the use of public transport to reduce fuel consumption.



2. Development of Alternative Energy Sources:

- Solar Energy: Tapping the vast energy from the sun using solar panels (for electricity) and solar heaters (for heating water).

- Wind Energy: Harnessing wind power using windmills to generate electricity, especially in coastal and windy regions.

- Hydroelectric Energy: Generating electricity from the flow of water in rivers by constructing dams.

- Biomass Energy: Using organic waste, such as agricultural residue and cow dung (in biogas plants), as a source of fuel.

- Geothermal Energy: Utilizing the heat from the Earth's interior to generate electricity.

- Nuclear Energy: Generating a large amount of energy through nuclear fission, though it involves challenges of waste disposal and safety.



By combining these measures, we can reduce our reliance on fossil fuels and move towards a sustainable energy future.
Quick Tip: The solution to the energy crisis can be summarized as: "Use less, waste less, and switch to renewable sources." Conservation is the quickest and cheapest way to address the problem.


Question 101:

Write the names of four organelles of a cell.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Four important organelles found in a eukaryotic cell are:



1. Mitochondrion: Known as the "powerhouse of the cell," it is the site of cellular respiration and ATP (energy) production.



2. Nucleus: The "control center" of the cell, which contains the cell's genetic material (DNA) and controls cell growth and reproduction.



3. Ribosome: The site of protein synthesis. They can be found freely in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.



4. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER): A network of membranes involved in protein and lipid synthesis. It exists in two forms: Rough ER (with ribosomes) and Smooth ER (without ribosomes).
Quick Tip: Think of a cell as a factory. The Nucleus is the CEO's office (with blueprints/DNA), Mitochondria are the power plants, Ribosomes are the workers building products (proteins), and the ER is the assembly line.


Question 102:

Define respiration.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Respiration is the biochemical process in which the cells of an organism obtain energy by breaking down food molecules (like glucose) and releasing the stored chemical energy.



This process involves the exchange of gases: taking in oxygen from the environment and releasing carbon dioxide as a waste product.



There are two main types of respiration:



1. Aerobic Respiration: Occurs in the presence of oxygen, completely breaks down glucose, and releases a large amount of energy (ATP).

C\(_{6}\)H\(_{12}\)O\(_{6}\) + 6O\(_{2}\) \(\rightarrow\) 6CO\(_{2}\) + 6H\(_{2}\)O + Energy



2. Anaerobic Respiration: Occurs in the absence of oxygen, results in the incomplete breakdown of glucose, and releases a smaller amount of energy.
Quick Tip: Remember that respiration is a cellular process that happens in every living cell to produce energy. It is not the same as breathing, which is just the physical act of moving air in and out of the lungs.


Question 103:

What is the difference between xylem and phloem?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The main differences between xylem and phloem, the two vascular tissues in plants, are:



\begin{tabular{| >{\bfseriesl | l | l |
\hline
Feature & Xylem & Phloem

\hline
Function & Conducts water and minerals. & Transports food (sucrose).

Direction of Flow & Unidirectional (from roots to leaves). & Bidirectional (from leaves to other parts).

Living/Dead Cells & Composed mainly of dead cells. & Composed mainly of living cells.

Components & Tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma, fibers. & Sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma, fibers.

Location in Stem & Located towards the center of vascular bundle. & Located towards the outer side of vascular bundle.

Mechanical Strength & Provides significant mechanical support. & Provides less mechanical support.

\hline
\end{tabular
Quick Tip: A simple memory aid: Xylem transports water ('w' is close to 'x' in the alphabet). Phloem transports food ('f' sound in phloem). Xylem flow is one-way up, like a straw. Phloem flow is two-way, like a delivery truck.


Question 104:

What is excretion? Write the names of its two main parts.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Excretion:

Excretion is the biological process of removing metabolic waste products and other non-useful, toxic substances from the body of an organism.

These waste products, such as urea, uric acid, and excess salts, are produced during cellular activities.

The main purpose of excretion is to maintain a constant internal environment, a process known as homeostasis.



Two Main Parts of the Human Excretory System:

The human excretory system consists of several organs. Two of its main parts are:

1. Kidneys: A pair of bean-shaped organs that filter waste products from the blood and produce urine. They are the primary excretory organs.

2. Urinary Bladder: A muscular sac that stores urine received from the kidneys before it is expelled from the body.
Quick Tip: Do not confuse excretion with egestion. Excretion is the removal of metabolic waste (e.g., urine), while egestion is the removal of undigested food waste from the digestive system (e.g., feces).


Question 105:

What is phototropism?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Phototropism is the directional growth of a plant in response to a light stimulus.



The word comes from "photo" (meaning light) and "tropism" (meaning a turning or growth movement).



There are two types of phototropism:



1. Positive Phototropism: The growth of a plant part towards the light source. Plant shoots and stems exhibit positive phototropism, allowing leaves to maximize light absorption for photosynthesis.



2. Negative Phototropism: The growth of a plant part away from the light source. Plant roots typically show negative phototropism, growing downwards into the soil away from light.



This response is mediated by the plant hormone auxin.
Quick Tip: Remember the different types of tropisms by their stimuli: Photo- (Light), Geo- (Gravity), Hydro- (Water), Thigmo- (Touch). "Positive" means growing towards the stimulus, "Negative" means growing away from it.


Question 106:

What is pollination?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Pollination is the process of transferring pollen grains from the male part of a flower (the anther) to the female part of a flower (the stigma).



This transfer is a crucial step in the sexual reproduction of flowering plants, as it leads to fertilization and the subsequent development of seeds and fruits.



There are two main types of pollination:



1. Self-pollination: The transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or another flower on the same plant.



2. Cross-pollination: The transfer of pollen from the anther of a flower on one plant to the stigma of a flower on another plant of the same species.



Pollination can be carried out by various agents, including wind, water, insects, birds, and bats.
Quick Tip: Think of pollination as the plant equivalent of mating. It's the process of getting the male gamete (in pollen) to the female part of the flower to enable fertilization.


Question 107:

How is DNA the basis of heredity?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is the basis of heredity because it contains the genetic instructions for the development, functioning, growth, and reproduction of all known organisms.



1. Stores Genetic Information: DNA is a long molecule made up of a sequence of four chemical bases (A, T, C, G). The specific sequence of these bases forms a code that carries instructions, known as genes, for making proteins.



2. Controls Traits: These proteins control all the characteristics or traits of an organism, such as eye color, height, and blood type.



3. Replication: DNA has the unique ability to make exact copies of itself. During cell division, the DNA is replicated, ensuring that each new cell receives a complete and identical set of genetic instructions.



4. Transmission to Offspring: During sexual reproduction, each parent passes half of their DNA to their offspring. This is how traits are inherited from one generation to the next, ensuring the continuity of genetic information.
Quick Tip: Think of DNA as a detailed instruction manual for building and running an organism. Heredity is the process of passing a copy of this manual from parents to children.


Question 108:

What are the harmful effects of aerosol chemicals?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Aerosol chemicals, particularly Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which were widely used in the past, have significant harmful effects on the environment and human health.



1. Ozone Layer Depletion: This is the most well-known harmful effect. When CFCs are released into the atmosphere, they rise to the stratosphere. There, ultraviolet (UV) radiation breaks them down, releasing chlorine atoms. A single chlorine atom can destroy thousands of ozone molecules. The depletion of the ozone layer allows more harmful UV-B radiation to reach the Earth's surface.



2. Increased Health Risks: Increased exposure to UV-B radiation can lead to higher rates of skin cancer, cataracts, and a weakened immune system in humans.



3. Global Warming: CFCs are also potent greenhouse gases. They trap heat in the atmosphere, contributing to the overall warming of the planet.



4. Air Pollution: Modern aerosol sprays can contain volatile organic compounds (VOCs) that contribute to the formation of ground-level ozone (smog), which is a respiratory irritant.
Quick Tip: When you see "aerosol chemicals" in an environmental context, the first thing to think of is CFCs and their destructive effect on the ozone layer.


Question 109:

What is photosynthesis? Describe it with a suitable diagram.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Photosynthesis:

Photosynthesis is the process used by plants, algae, and some bacteria to convert light energy into chemical energy in the form of glucose (sugar). During this process, carbon dioxide and water are used as raw materials, and oxygen is released as a byproduct. It is the foundation of nearly all life on Earth.



The overall balanced chemical equation for photosynthesis is:

6CO\(_{2}\) (Carbon Dioxide) + 6H\(_{2}\)O (Water) \(\xrightarrow{Sunlight, Chlorophyll}\) C\(_{6}\)H\(_{12}\)O\(_{6}\) (Glucose) + 6O\(_{2}\) (Oxygen)



Description of the Process:

The process of photosynthesis occurs in two main stages:

1. Light-Dependent Reactions: These reactions take place in the thylakoid membranes of the chloroplasts and require sunlight. Light energy is captured by chlorophyll and used to split water molecules (photolysis). This produces oxygen gas (released as a byproduct), ATP (energy currency), and NADPH (an electron carrier).

2. Light-Independent Reactions (Calvin Cycle): These reactions occur in the stroma of the chloroplasts and do not directly require light. The ATP and NADPH produced in the light stage are used to convert carbon dioxide from the atmosphere into glucose. This glucose can be used by the plant for energy or stored as starch.



Description of a Suitable Diagram:

A suitable diagram would illustrate the inputs and outputs of photosynthesis in a plant cell or a leaf cross-section.

- It would show a chloroplast, the organelle where photosynthesis occurs.

- Arrows would indicate the inputs: Sunlight striking the leaf, Carbon Dioxide (CO\(_{2}\)) entering through small pores called stomata, and Water (H\(_{2}\)O) coming up from the roots via the xylem.

- Arrows would indicate the outputs: Oxygen (O\(_{2}\)) being released from the stomata, and Glucose (C\(_{6}\)H\(_{12}\)O\(_{6}\)) being produced and transported throughout the plant via the phloem.

- The diagram would label the key components: sun, leaf, chloroplast, stomata, xylem, and phloem.
Quick Tip: Remember the simple inputs and outputs of photosynthesis: Inputs: Carbon Dioxide, Water, Sunlight. Outputs: Glucose (food), Oxygen. The key ingredient inside the plant is chlorophyll, which captures the sunlight.


Question 110:

Explain recycling of waste materials with examples.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Recycling of Waste Materials:

Recycling is the process of collecting and processing materials that would otherwise be thrown away as trash and turning them into new products. It is a key component of modern waste management and the "Reduce, Reuse, Recycle" hierarchy.

Recycling helps to conserve natural resources, save energy, reduce air and water pollution, decrease the need for landfills, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.



The process generally involves three steps:

1. Collection and Processing: Waste materials are collected (e.g., through curbside bins) and then sorted, cleaned, and processed at a recycling facility.

2. Manufacturing: The processed materials are then used as raw materials to manufacture new products.

3. Purchasing New Products Made from Recycled Materials: This final step is crucial as it creates a market for the recycled goods and closes the recycling loop.



Examples of Recycling:

1. Paper Recycling:

- Used paper and cardboard are collected and mixed with water and chemicals to break them down into a pulp.

- The pulp is cleaned, de-inked, and then pressed, dried, and rolled to make new paper products like newspaper, office paper, and cardboard boxes.

- This conserves trees and uses less energy and water than making paper from virgin wood pulp.



2. Plastic Recycling:

- Plastic waste (like PET bottles and HDPE containers) is sorted by type, shredded, washed, and melted down into pellets.

- These pellets can then be used to manufacture a wide range of new products, including new bottles, fleece jackets, carpeting, and plastic lumber for benches and decking.



3. Glass Recycling:

- Used glass bottles and jars are crushed into a raw material called "cullet".

- The cullet is melted in a furnace and then molded into new glass containers.

- Glass can be recycled endlessly without any loss in quality or purity.



4. Metal Recycling:

- Metals like aluminum (from cans) and steel (from food cans and appliances) are collected, shredded, and melted in large furnaces.

- The molten metal is then poured into molds to create ingots, which are used to make new products. Recycling aluminum saves about 95% of the energy required to make it from raw materials.
Quick Tip: Think of recycling as giving waste materials a "second life". Instead of ending up in a landfill, they are transformed back into useful raw materials to create new things, saving resources and energy.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

Ask your question

Subscribe To Our News Letter

Get Latest Notification Of Colleges, Exams and News

© 2026 Patronum Web Private Limited