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Bihar Board Class 10 Science 112 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set J

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Dipanwita Pramanik

Content Writer | Updated On - Nov 20, 2025

Bihar Board Class 10 Science 112 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set J is available for download. The Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB) conducted the Class 10 examination for a total duration of 3 hours, and the question paper was of a total of 100 marks.

Bihar Board Class 10 Science 112 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set J

Bihar Board Class 10 Science 112 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set J Download PDF Check Solutions
Bihar Board Class 10 Science 112 Question Paper with Solutions Set J 2025



Question 1:

An aqueous solution of acid conducts electricity because acid in water

  • (A) gets ionized.
  • (B) is soluble.
  • (C) is insoluble.
  • (D) none of these.
Correct Answer: (A) gets ionized.
View Solution



For a solution to conduct electricity, it must contain mobile charge carriers, which are ions.


When an acid is dissolved in water, it dissociates or ionizes to produce ions.


Specifically, it releases hydrogen ions (\(H^+\)) and a corresponding anion.


For example, hydrochloric acid (\(HCl\)) in water ionizes into \(H^+\) and \(Cl^-\) ions.


These free-moving ions are responsible for carrying the electric current through the solution.


Therefore, an aqueous solution of acid conducts electricity because the acid gets ionized in water.
Quick Tip: The ability of a solution to conduct electricity is a property of electrolytes. Acids, bases, and salts are common electrolytes because they produce ions when dissolved in a suitable solvent like water.


Question 2:

Which of the following is not an olfactory indicator ?

  • (A) Clove oil
  • (B) Vanilla
  • (C) Sweet potato
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (C) Sweet potato
View Solution



An olfactory indicator is a substance whose characteristic smell changes depending on whether it is mixed with an acidic or a basic solution.


Clove oil has a distinct smell which can be detected in an acidic solution but is lost in a basic solution. Hence, it is an olfactory indicator.


Vanilla extract has a pleasant smell which persists in an acidic solution but disappears in a basic solution. Hence, it is also an olfactory indicator.


Sweet potato is a food item and does not exhibit a characteristic change in odor that can be used to reliably distinguish between acids and bases.


Therefore, sweet potato is not an olfactory indicator.
Quick Tip: Besides clove oil and vanilla, finely chopped onion is another common example of an olfactory indicator. Its characteristic smell is destroyed by a strong base like sodium hydroxide.


Question 3:

Which acid is found in an ant's sting?

  • (A) Citric acid
  • (B) Acetic acid
  • (C) Methanoic acid
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Methanoic acid
View Solution



The stinging sensation from an ant bite is due to the injection of an acidic liquid into the skin.


This acid is commonly known as formic acid.


The systematic IUPAC name for formic acid is methanoic acid. Its chemical formula is \(HCOOH\).


Citric acid is found in citrus fruits like lemons, while acetic acid is the main component of vinegar.


Therefore, the acid found in an ant's sting is methanoic acid.
Quick Tip: To get relief from the pain caused by an ant sting (which is acidic), one can apply a mild base like baking soda (\(NaHCO_3\)) paste on the affected area. The base neutralizes the acid.


Question 4:

Which metal is mixed with gold to make an alloy ?

  • (A) Fe
  • (B) Cu
  • (C) Zn
  • (D) Ag
Correct Answer: (B) Cu
View Solution



Pure gold (24 karat) is a very soft metal, which makes it unsuitable for making durable jewelry.


To increase its hardness and strength, gold is mixed with other metals to form an alloy.


Common metals used for this purpose include copper (Cu), silver (Ag), zinc (Zn), and nickel (Ni).


Copper (Cu) is one of the most frequently used metals. It significantly increases the hardness and also gives the alloy a reddish tint, creating rose gold.


While other metals from the options like silver (Ag) and zinc (Zn) can also be used, copper (Cu) is a primary choice for making gold alloys.


Therefore, Cu is the most appropriate answer.
Quick Tip: The purity of gold is measured in karats. 22-karat gold means it contains 22 parts of pure gold and 2 parts of an alloying metal like copper or silver. The alloy makes the jewelry more durable for everyday wear.


Question 5:

Silicon is a/an

  • (A) Non-metal
  • (B) Metal
  • (C) Alloy
  • (D) Metalloid
Correct Answer: (D) Metalloid
View Solution



Elements in the periodic table are classified as metals, non-metals, or metalloids.


Metalloids are elements that exhibit properties intermediate between those of metals and non-metals.


Silicon (Si) has a shiny, metallic luster but is brittle and a poor conductor of heat and electricity compared to metals.


Most importantly, Silicon is a semiconductor, meaning its electrical conductivity can be controlled, a property that is characteristic of metalloids and vital for the electronics industry.


An alloy is a mixture of metals, not a single element.


Therefore, Silicon is a metalloid.
Quick Tip: The metalloids form a "staircase" separating metals and non-metals on the periodic table. The most common examples to remember are Boron (B), Silicon (Si), Germanium (Ge), Arsenic (As), Antimony (Sb), and Tellurium (Te).


Question 6:

Magnesium is a member of which group of the periodic table ?

  • (A) Group VIII
  • (B) Group I
  • (C) Group II
  • (D) Nonmetallic element
Correct Answer: (C) Group II
View Solution



To find the group of an element, we can use its atomic number and write its electronic configuration.


The atomic number of Magnesium (Mg) is 12.


The electronic configuration of Magnesium is 2, 8, 2.


The number of electrons in the outermost shell (valence electrons) determines the group number for main group elements.


Magnesium has 2 valence electrons.


Elements with 2 valence electrons belong to Group 2 (or Group II) of the periodic table.


This group is also known as the alkaline earth metals.
Quick Tip: For elements in Groups 1, 2, and 13-18, the number of valence electrons is directly related to the group number. Group 1 elements (alkali metals) have 1 valence electron, and Group 2 elements (alkaline earth metals) have 2 valence electrons.


Question 7:

How many periods are there in the periodic table ?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 9
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 7
Correct Answer: (D) 7
View Solution



The modern periodic table organizes elements based on their atomic number.


The horizontal rows in the periodic table are known as periods.


The vertical columns are known as groups.


If we count the number of horizontal rows from the top (starting with Hydrogen) to the bottom, there are a total of 7 rows.


Each period corresponds to the filling of a new principal energy shell with electrons.


Therefore, there are 7 periods in the standard modern periodic table.
Quick Tip: The period number of an element signifies the principal quantum number (n) of its outermost electron shell. For example, any element in Period 3 will have its valence electrons in the third energy shell.


Question 8:

Which of the following is not an ancient method of water harvesting ?

  • (A) Katta
  • (B) Kulh
  • (C) Dug well
  • (D) Irish
Correct Answer: (D) Irish
View Solution



Water harvesting refers to the collection and storage of rainwater for later use.


Kattas are temporary check dams built across streams and rivers, a traditional method used in parts of India.


Kulhs are traditional irrigation channels found in hilly areas, especially in Himachal Pradesh, used to carry water from glaciers to villages.


Dug wells are one of the most ancient and common methods of accessing groundwater worldwide.


"Irish" refers to the nationality or people of Ireland. It is not a method of water harvesting.


Therefore, Irish is not an ancient method of water harvesting.
Quick Tip: Familiarize yourself with various traditional water harvesting systems across India, such as Khadins and Johads in Rajasthan, Bandharas and Tals in Maharashtra, and Ahar-Pynes in Bihar. This is a common topic in questions about natural resource management.


Question 9:

What was the objective of construction of Tehri Dam ?

  • (A) Electricity generation
  • (B) Land irrigation
  • (C) Water supply
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution



The Tehri Dam is a large, multi-purpose rock and earth-fill embankment dam on the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand, India.


Large dams are constructed with multiple objectives, not just a single purpose.


One of the primary objectives of the Tehri Dam is hydroelectricity generation.


It also provides water for the irrigation of a large area of agricultural land.


Additionally, it is a major source of drinking water supply to several urban areas, including Delhi.


Since it serves all the purposes listed in the options, the correct answer is 'All of these'.
Quick Tip: Most modern large dams are "multipurpose river valley projects" designed to provide benefits in several areas like flood control, irrigation, power generation, navigation, and pisciculture (fish farming).


Question 10:

What is the new concept of waste management ?

  • (A) Reuse
  • (B) Recycle
  • (C) Reduce
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution



The modern concept of effective waste management is widely summarized by the "3 Rs".


These three 'R's stand for Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle.


Reduce: To lessen the amount of waste generated in the first place.


Reuse: To use items again for the same or a different purpose instead of throwing them away.


Recycle: To process waste materials into new products to prevent waste of potentially useful materials.


Since the new concept of waste management includes all three principles, the correct answer is 'All of these'.
Quick Tip: The waste management hierarchy is often presented as a pyramid. The most preferred option, 'Reduce', is at the top, followed by 'Reuse', then 'Recycle'. The least preferred option, 'Disposal' (e.g., in a landfill), is at the bottom.


Question 11:

Which of the following is a renewable resource ?

  • (A) Coal
  • (B) Forest
  • (C) Petroleum
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Forest
View Solution



Renewable resources are those that can be replenished or regenerated naturally over a relatively short period.


Coal and Petroleum are fossil fuels, which are formed over millions of years from the remains of ancient organisms. They are consumed much faster than they are formed, making them non-renewable resources.


A forest is a collection of trees and other vegetation. While individual trees are cut down, new trees can be planted (afforestation), and they can grow back within a human lifetime.


Therefore, when managed sustainably, a forest is considered a renewable resource.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between resources that are inexhaustible (like solar and wind energy) and those that are renewable but can be depleted if overused (like forests and groundwater). Sustainable management is key for the latter.


Question 12:

Which of the following is the main component of biogas ?

  • (A) Carbon dioxide
  • (B) Hydrogen sulphide
  • (C) Water vapour
  • (D) Methane
Correct Answer: (D) Methane
View Solution



Biogas is produced from the anaerobic (in the absence of oxygen) breakdown of organic matter such as cattle dung, agricultural waste, and sewage.


It is a mixture of several gases.


The main component, which is responsible for its fuel properties, is methane (\(CH_4\)), typically comprising 50% to 75% of the gas.


Other components include carbon dioxide (\(CO_2\)) (25% to 50%), and trace amounts of other gases like hydrogen sulphide (\(H_2S\)) and water vapour (\(H_2O\)).


Since methane is present in the largest proportion, it is considered the main component of biogas.
Quick Tip: The calorific value (energy produced upon combustion) of biogas is directly dependent on its methane content. Higher methane percentage means higher fuel quality. Hydrogen sulphide in biogas is undesirable as it is corrosive and produces sulphur dioxide upon burning.


Question 13:

Peptic ulcer can be caused by

  • (A) Eating less food
  • (B) Eating normal food
  • (C) Prolonged starvation
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Prolonged starvation
View Solution



A peptic ulcer is a sore that develops on the inner lining of the stomach and the upper part of the small intestine.


The stomach naturally produces strong hydrochloric acid (\(HCl\)) to digest food.


During prolonged starvation or irregular eating habits, the stomach continues to secrete this acid even when there is no food to be digested.


This excess acid can erode the protective mucous layer of the stomach wall, leading to the formation of an ulcer.


While the primary cause is now known to be the bacterium *Helicobacter pylori*, lifestyle factors like stress and prolonged starvation are considered significant contributing factors. Among the given options, prolonged starvation is the most plausible cause.



\begin{quicktipbox
Remember the two main causes of peptic ulcers for modern science exams: 1) Infection with the bacterium *Helicobacter pylori* and 2) Long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like aspirin and ibuprofen.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember the two main causes of peptic ulcers for modern science exams: 1) Infection with the bacterium *Helicobacter pylori* and 2) Long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like aspirin and ibuprofen.


Question 14:

Double circulation is not found in

  • (A) Frog
  • (B) Fish
  • (C) Bird
  • (D) Human
Correct Answer: (B) Fish
View Solution



Double circulation is a circulatory system where the blood flows through the heart twice for each complete circuit of the body.


Humans and birds have a four-chambered heart and exhibit complete double circulation (pulmonary and systemic circuits).


Frogs (amphibians) have a three-chambered heart and show incomplete double circulation, where oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix to some extent in the ventricle.


Fish have a two-chambered heart (one atrium and one ventricle). Blood is pumped from the heart to the gills for oxygenation and then flows to the rest of the body before returning to the heart. This is called single circulation, as blood passes through the heart only once per circuit.


Therefore, double circulation is not found in fish.



\begin{quicktipbox
The number of heart chambers is a key evolutionary trait: Fish have 2, Amphibians and most Reptiles have 3, and Birds and Mammals have 4. The transition from a 3-chambered to a 4-chambered heart allowed for the complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, supporting a more active, warm-blooded lifestyle.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The number of heart chambers is a key evolutionary trait: Fish have 2, Amphibians and most Reptiles have 3, and Birds and Mammals have 4. The transition from a 3-chambered to a 4-chambered heart allowed for the complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, supporting a more active, warm-blooded lifestyle.


Question 15:

From where does urea enter the blood ?

  • (A) Kidney
  • (B) Lungs
  • (C) Liver
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Liver
View Solution



Metabolism of proteins and amino acids in the body's cells produces ammonia (\(NH_3\)), which is highly toxic.


The liver plays a crucial role in detoxification. It takes up this toxic ammonia from the blood.


Through a series of biochemical reactions known as the urea cycle, the liver converts ammonia into a much less toxic compound called urea (\(CO(NH_2)_2\)).


This newly synthesized urea is then released from the liver cells back into the bloodstream.


The blood then transports the urea to the kidneys, where it is filtered out and excreted in urine.


Therefore, urea enters the blood from the liver.



\begin{quicktipbox
Trace the path of nitrogenous waste: Protein metabolism produces Ammonia (toxic) \(\rightarrow\) Liver converts Ammonia to Urea (less toxic) \(\rightarrow\) Urea enters Bloodstream \(\rightarrow\) Kidneys filter Urea from blood \(\rightarrow\) Urea is excreted in Urine.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Trace the path of nitrogenous waste: Protein metabolism produces Ammonia (toxic) \(\rightarrow\) Liver converts Ammonia to Urea (less toxic) \(\rightarrow\) Urea enters Bloodstream \(\rightarrow\) Kidneys filter Urea from blood \(\rightarrow\) Urea is excreted in Urine.


Question 16:

Where does glucose reabsorption occur ?

  • (A) In PCT
  • (B) In DCT
  • (C) In Henle's loop
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (A) In PCT
View Solution



Urine formation in the nephron begins with ultrafiltration in the glomerulus, where blood plasma is filtered into the Bowman's capsule.


This initial filtrate contains waste products as well as useful substances like glucose, amino acids, salts, and water.


The body needs to reabsorb these useful substances. This process is called selective reabsorption.


Nearly 100% of the glucose, along with most amino acids, vitamins, and other essential nutrients, is reabsorbed from the filtrate back into the blood in the first part of the renal tubule.


This part is known as the Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT).


Therefore, the primary site for glucose reabsorption is the PCT.



\begin{quicktipbox
If glucose is found in the urine (a condition called glycosuria), it usually indicates that the blood glucose level is excessively high, exceeding the reabsorptive capacity of the PCT. This is a classic symptom of diabetes mellitus.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: If glucose is found in the urine (a condition called glycosuria), it usually indicates that the blood glucose level is excessively high, exceeding the reabsorptive capacity of the PCT. This is a classic symptom of diabetes mellitus.


Question 17:

The mechanism for removing harmful substances formed as a result of various activities from the body is called

  • (A) Digestive system
  • (B) Circulatory system
  • (C) Excretory system
  • (D) Nervous system
Correct Answer: (C) Excretory system
View Solution



The process of removing metabolic wastes and other harmful, non-useful substances from the body is called excretion.


The digestive system is involved in breaking down food and absorbing nutrients.


The circulatory system is responsible for transporting oxygen, nutrients, and wastes throughout the body.


The nervous system is for coordination and control of the body's actions.


The organ system specifically designed to collect and remove these harmful metabolic wastes is the excretory system. In humans, this system includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra.


Therefore, the mechanism is carried out by the excretory system.



\begin{quicktipbox
Do not confuse excretion with egestion. Excretion is the removal of metabolic waste products (e.g., urea, carbon dioxide). Egestion (or defecation) is the removal of undigested food materials from the body, which is a function of the digestive system.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Do not confuse excretion with egestion. Excretion is the removal of metabolic waste products (e.g., urea, carbon dioxide). Egestion (or defecation) is the removal of undigested food materials from the body, which is a function of the digestive system.


Question 18:

What can happen due to spinal cord injury ?

  • (A) Goitre
  • (B) Dwarfism
  • (C) Diabetes
  • (D) Paralysis
Correct Answer: (D) Paralysis
View Solution



The spinal cord is a crucial part of the central nervous system that transmits nerve signals from the brain to the rest of the body and vice versa.


These signals control muscle movement and sensation.


An injury to the spinal cord can interrupt or block these nerve signals.


This disruption prevents the brain from communicating with the parts of the body below the injury site, leading to a loss of muscle function and sensation, which is known as paralysis.


Goitre, dwarfism, and diabetes are related to the endocrine system (thyroid gland, pituitary gland, and pancreas respectively), not the spinal cord.
Quick Tip: Associate different parts of the nervous system with their primary functions. The brain is for processing, the spinal cord is a major pathway for signals, and peripheral nerves connect to limbs and organs. Damage to the spinal cord affects the signal pathway.


Question 19:

The largest gland in the human body is

  • (A) Adrenal
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Ovary
  • (D) Pancreas
Correct Answer: (B) Liver
View Solution



A gland is an organ that produces and secretes substances for use in the body.


The liver is the largest internal organ and also the largest gland in the human body.


In an adult, it weighs approximately 1.5 kilograms.


It performs a wide range of functions, including producing bile (an exocrine function) and synthesizing proteins and hormones (an endocrine function).


The adrenal glands, ovaries, and pancreas are also important glands, but they are much smaller in size compared to the liver.
Quick Tip: Remember the distinction: The largest organ of the human body is the skin. The largest internal organ, and also the largest gland, is the liver. The pancreas is unique as it is both an exocrine (digestive enzymes) and endocrine (insulin, glucagon) gland.


Question 20:

Plant hormone is called

  • (A) Pheromone
  • (B) Phytohormone
  • (C) Enzyme
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Phytohormone
View Solution



Hormones are chemical messengers that regulate various physiological processes in organisms.


The specific term for hormones produced by plants is phytohormones. The prefix "phyto-" comes from the Greek word for "plant".


Examples of phytohormones include auxins, gibberellins, cytokinins, abscisic acid, and ethylene.


Pheromones are chemical signals used for communication between animals of the same species.


Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up biochemical reactions.


Therefore, the correct term for a plant hormone is phytohormone.
Quick Tip: Break down scientific terms into their roots. "Phyto" means plant, and "hormone" means to excite or set in motion. So, phytohormone literally means "plant exciter," which helps you remember its function as a chemical messenger in plants.


Question 21:

An example of vegetative propagation through leaves is

  • (A) Onion
  • (B) Potato
  • (C) Rose
  • (D) Bryophyllum
Correct Answer: (D) Bryophyllum
View Solution



Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in plants where new plants are produced from vegetative parts like roots, stems, or leaves.


Onion propagates through its modified stem, which is a bulb.


Potato propagates through its stem tubers, from the "eyes" which are axillary buds.


Rose is commonly propagated through stem cuttings.


Bryophyllum is a plant that is well-known for its ability to reproduce vegetatively from its leaves. Adventitious buds develop along the notches of the leaf margins, which can grow into new plantlets.


Therefore, Bryophyllum is the correct example.



\begin{quicktipbox
Associate specific plants with their method of vegetative propagation: Potato (stem tuber), Ginger (rhizome), Onion (bulb), Rose (stem cutting), Jasmine (layering), and Bryophyllum (leaves). These are common examples in exams.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Associate specific plants with their method of vegetative propagation: Potato (stem tuber), Ginger (rhizome), Onion (bulb), Rose (stem cutting), Jasmine (layering), and Bryophyllum (leaves). These are common examples in exams.


Question 22:

How many isomers of butane are possible ?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (A) 2
View Solution



Isomers are molecules that have the same molecular formula but a different arrangement of atoms in space.


The molecular formula for butane is \(C_4H_{10}\).


We can arrange the four carbon atoms in two different ways to form the carbon skeleton.


1. A straight chain: \(CH_3-CH_2-CH_2-CH_3\). This isomer is called n-butane (normal butane).


2. A branched chain: The central carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms. This isomer is called isobutane (or its IUPAC name, 2-methylpropane).


There are no other ways to connect the four carbon atoms to get a different structure.


Therefore, butane has exactly 2 structural isomers.



\begin{quicktipbox
Remember the number of structural isomers for the first few alkanes: Methane, Ethane, Propane (1 each), Butane (2), Pentane (3), and Hexane (5). This can be a time-saver in multiple-choice questions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember the number of structural isomers for the first few alkanes: Methane, Ethane, Propane (1 each), Butane (2), Pentane (3), and Hexane (5). This can be a time-saver in multiple-choice questions.


Question 23:

The shape of methane molecule is

  • (A) Linear
  • (B) Annular
  • (C) Tetrahedral
  • (D) Octahedral
Correct Answer: (C) Tetrahedral
View Solution



The molecular formula for methane is \(CH_4\).


It has a central carbon atom covalently bonded to four hydrogen atoms.


According to the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory, the four bonding electron pairs around the central carbon atom will arrange themselves in three-dimensional space to be as far apart as possible to minimize repulsion.


The geometric arrangement that maximizes the distance between four points is a tetrahedron.


In this tetrahedral shape, the H-C-H bond angle is 109.5°.


Therefore, the shape of the methane molecule is tetrahedral.



\begin{quicktipbox
Key molecular shapes to remember: Linear (\(CO_2\)), Trigonal Planar (\(BF_3\)), Tetrahedral (\(CH_4\)), Trigonal Pyramidal (\(NH_3\)), and Bent (\(H_2O\)). Understanding VSEPR theory helps predict these shapes based on electron pairs.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Key molecular shapes to remember: Linear (\(CO_2\)), Trigonal Planar (\(BF_3\)), Tetrahedral (\(CH_4\)), Trigonal Pyramidal (\(NH_3\)), and Bent (\(H_2O\)). Understanding VSEPR theory helps predict these shapes based on electron pairs.


Question 24:

The valency of carbon in organic compounds is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
View Solution



Valency is the combining capacity of an atom. It is the number of chemical bonds an atom can form.


Carbon has an atomic number of 6, and its electronic configuration is 2, 4.


It has 4 electrons in its outermost (valence) shell.


To achieve a stable noble gas configuration (an octet), carbon needs to gain, lose, or share 4 electrons.


Carbon achieves this by forming four covalent bonds with other atoms.


This property of having a valency of four is called tetravalency.


In virtually all organic compounds, carbon forms four bonds. Therefore, its valency is 4.



\begin{quicktipbox
Carbon's tetravalency, along with its ability to form strong bonds with itself (catenation), is the reason for the existence of the vast number of organic compounds.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Carbon's tetravalency, along with its ability to form strong bonds with itself (catenation), is the reason for the existence of the vast number of organic compounds.


Question 25:

Which of the following is saturated hydrocarbon ?

  • (A) Alkane
  • (B) Alkene
  • (C) Alkyne
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Alkane
View Solution



Hydrocarbons are compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen atoms.


Saturated hydrocarbons are those in which the carbon atoms are linked only by single covalent bonds. This means the carbon atoms are "saturated" with the maximum possible number of hydrogen atoms.


Alkanes are the class of hydrocarbons that contain only carbon-carbon single bonds. Their general formula is \(C_nH_{2n+2}\).


Alkenes contain at least one carbon-carbon double bond (\(C=C\)), and alkynes contain at least one carbon-carbon triple bond (\(C \equiv C\)). The presence of double or triple bonds makes them unsaturated hydrocarbons.


Therefore, alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons.



\begin{quicktipbox
Think of "saturated" as "full". A saturated hydrocarbon has the maximum number of hydrogen atoms it can hold, with no room for more. An unsaturated hydrocarbon has double or triple bonds that could "break open" to add more atoms.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Think of "saturated" as "full". A saturated hydrocarbon has the maximum number of hydrogen atoms it can hold, with no room for more. An unsaturated hydrocarbon has double or triple bonds that could "break open" to add more atoms.


Question 26:

IUPAC name of ethylene is

  • (A) Ethane
  • (B) Ethyne
  • (C) Ethene
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Ethene
View Solution



"Ethylene" is the common name for the hydrocarbon with the chemical formula \(C_2H_4\).


The IUPAC (International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry) system of nomenclature has specific rules.


The root word for a two-carbon chain is "eth-".


The molecule contains a carbon-carbon double bond, which is indicated by the suffix "-ene".


Combining the root word and the suffix gives the IUPAC name "Ethene".


Ethane (\(C_2H_6\)) is the corresponding alkane (single bonds), and ethyne (\(C_2H_2\)) is the corresponding alkyne (triple bond).



\begin{quicktipbox
Memorize the IUPAC suffixes for hydrocarbons: "-ane" for single bonds (alkanes), "-ene" for double bonds (alkenes), and "-yne" for triple bonds (alkynes). This is fundamental to organic chemistry nomenclature.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Memorize the IUPAC suffixes for hydrocarbons: "-ane" for single bonds (alkanes), "-ene" for double bonds (alkenes), and "-yne" for triple bonds (alkynes). This is fundamental to organic chemistry nomenclature.


Question 27:

Which was a defect of Mendeleev's periodic table ?

  • (A) Not giving proper place to oxygen
  • (B) Not giving proper place to Cl
  • (C) Not giving proper place to hydrogen
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Not giving proper place to hydrogen
View Solution



Mendeleev's periodic table was a monumental achievement, but it had some limitations or defects.


One of the major defects was the position of hydrogen.


Hydrogen's properties resemble those of the alkali metals (Group 1) because it has one valence electron and can form a positive ion (\(H^+\)).


However, its properties also resemble those of the halogens (Group 17) because it is a non-metal and needs only one electron to complete its valence shell, forming a hydride ion (\(H^-\)).


Mendeleev could not assign a fixed and proper position for hydrogen, and this anomaly remains in the modern periodic table as well.


The positions of elements like oxygen and chlorine were relatively well-defined in his table.



\begin{quicktipbox
The main defects of Mendeleev's table were: 1) Anomalous pairs of elements (e.g., Co placed before Ni despite higher atomic weight), 2) Position of isotopes (no separate places), and 3) Ambiguous position of hydrogen.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The main defects of Mendeleev's table were: 1) Anomalous pairs of elements (e.g., Co placed before Ni despite higher atomic weight), 2) Position of isotopes (no separate places), and 3) Ambiguous position of hydrogen.


Question 28:

Who among the following propounded the laws of octave ?

  • (A) Mendeleev
  • (B) Newlands
  • (C) Lother Meyer
  • (D) Dobereiner
Correct Answer: (B) Newlands
View Solution



In 1866, John Newlands, an English chemist, arranged the then-known elements in order of increasing atomic mass.


He observed that the properties of every eighth element were similar to the properties of the first element.


He compared this periodicity to the octaves found in music (Sa, Re, Ga, Ma, Pa, Dha, Ni), where the eighth note is a repetition of the first.


This relationship was called Newlands' Law of Octaves.


Dobereiner proposed triads, and Mendeleev created the first comprehensive periodic table.
Quick Tip: Remember the progression of periodic classification: Dobereiner's Triads \(\rightarrow\) Newlands' Law of Octaves \(\rightarrow\) Mendeleev's Periodic Table (based on atomic mass) \(\rightarrow\) Modern Periodic Table (based on atomic number).


Question 29:

Which of the following compounds would be the most basic ?

  • (A) \(SO_2\)
  • (B) \(Na_2O\)
  • (C) \(Al_2O_3\)
  • (D) \(NO_2\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(Na_2O\)
View Solution



The basic or acidic nature of an oxide depends on the element it is formed from.


Oxides of non-metals are generally acidic. Sulphur (S) and Nitrogen (N) are non-metals, so \(SO_2\) and \(NO_2\) are acidic oxides.


Oxides of metals are generally basic. Sodium (Na) is a highly reactive alkali metal, so Sodium Oxide (\(Na_2O\)) is a strongly basic oxide. It reacts with water to form a strong base, NaOH.


Some metal oxides, like Aluminium Oxide (\(Al_2O_3\)), are amphoteric, meaning they can react with both acids and bases.


Comparing the options, \(Na_2O\) is the most basic compound.
Quick Tip: As you move from left to right across a period in the periodic table, the metallic character of elements decreases and the basic character of their oxides decreases (and acidic character increases). Sodium (Na) is in Group 1, making its oxide highly basic.


Question 30:

A group of rays is called

  • (A) Light beam
  • (B) Ray beam
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
View Solution



In optics, a ray is an idealized narrow line of light.


A collection or bundle of such light rays traveling together is called a beam of light.


In Hindi, 'Prakash' means Light and 'Kiran' means Ray. 'Punj' means beam or bundle.


So, 'Prakash Punj' translates to 'Light Beam' and 'Kiran Punj' translates to 'Ray Beam'.


Both terms are used to describe a group of light rays. 'Light Beam' is the more common term, while 'Ray Beam' is also a valid description of a bundle of rays.


Therefore, both (A) and (B) are acceptable answers.
Quick Tip: Remember the three types of light beams: a parallel beam (rays are parallel), a convergent beam (rays meet at a point), and a divergent beam (rays spread out from a point).


Question 31:

The light rays travel in

  • (A) any direction
  • (B) oblique line
  • (C) a straight line
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (C) a straight line
View Solution



Light has a property known as the rectilinear propagation of light.


This principle states that in a homogeneous transparent medium, light travels in a straight line.


This is why objects cast sharp shadows. A ray of light will not bend or curve on its own in a uniform medium.


Light only changes its direction when it is reflected by a surface, refracted when entering a different medium, or diffracted when passing through a narrow opening.


Therefore, light rays travel in a straight line.
Quick Tip: The concept of rectilinear propagation of light is the basic principle behind the working of a pinhole camera, where a straight-line path of light from the object forms an inverted image on the screen.


Question 32:

Which type of mirror is a concave mirror ?

  • (A) Divergent
  • (B) Convergent
  • (C) Both convergent and divergent
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Convergent
View Solution



A concave mirror has a reflecting surface that is curved inwards.


When parallel rays of light coming from a distant object strike the surface of a concave mirror, they are reflected.


After reflection, all these parallel rays meet or converge at a single point on the principal axis. This point is called the principal focus.


Since the concave mirror brings parallel light rays together, it is known as a converging mirror.


In contrast, a convex mirror spreads out the light rays and is known as a diverging mirror.
Quick Tip: Remember the lens-mirror analogy: A concave mirror acts like a convex lens (both are converging), and a convex mirror acts like a concave lens (both are diverging). This can help you remember their properties.


Question 33:

Which of the following types of mirror is used in the headlight of a car ?

  • (A) Convex mirror
  • (B) Concave mirror
  • (C) Plane mirror
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Concave mirror
View Solution



The purpose of a car headlight is to project a strong, parallel beam of light to illuminate the road ahead.


Concave mirrors have the property that if a light source is placed at their principal focus, the rays of light, after reflecting from the mirror's surface, travel out as a parallel beam.


This results in a powerful beam of light that can travel a long distance.


Convex mirrors would diverge the light, and plane mirrors would not focus it into a beam.


Therefore, a concave mirror is used as the reflector in car headlights.



\begin{quicktipbox
Know the common applications of mirrors: Concave mirrors (shaving mirrors, dentists' mirrors, car headlights, solar furnaces) and Convex mirrors (rear-view mirrors in vehicles, security mirrors in shops).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Know the common applications of mirrors: Concave mirrors (shaving mirrors, dentists' mirrors, car headlights, solar furnaces) and Convex mirrors (rear-view mirrors in vehicles, security mirrors in shops).


Question 34:

The focal length of a concave mirror is

  • (A) Positive
  • (B) Negative
  • (C) both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Negative
View Solution



According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention used in optics, distances are measured from the pole (P) of the mirror.


The direction of the incident light is taken as the positive direction.


Distances measured in the same direction as the incident light are positive, and those measured in the opposite direction are negative.


For a concave mirror, the principal focus (F) is located in front of the reflecting surface.


Therefore, the distance from the pole to the focus (the focal length, f) is measured against the direction of incident light.


Hence, the focal length of a concave mirror is always taken as negative.
Quick Tip: A simple rule to remember: For mirrors, concave has a negative focal length (f < 0) and convex has a positive focal length (f > 0). For lenses, the opposite is true: convex has a positive focal length and concave has a negative focal length.


Question 35:

Which mirror always forms an image smaller than the object ?

  • (A) Concave
  • (B) Plane
  • (C) Convex
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Convex
View Solution



Let's analyze the image formation by each type of mirror.


A plane mirror always forms a virtual, erect image that is exactly the same size as the object (magnification = 1).


A concave mirror can form images that are magnified, the same size, or diminished, depending on the position of the object relative to the focus and center of curvature.


A convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished (smaller than the object) image, regardless of where the object is placed in front of it.


Therefore, a convex mirror always forms an image smaller than the object.
Quick Tip: The property of a convex mirror to always form a smaller, erect image and provide a wider field of view is the reason it is used as a rear-view (or side-view) mirror in vehicles.


Question 36:

The speed of light in air as compared to vacuum is

  • (A) Less
  • (B) More
  • (C) Same
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Less
View Solution



The speed of light is maximum in a vacuum, denoted by 'c', which is approximately \(3 \times 10^8\) m/s.


When light enters any medium from a vacuum, its speed decreases.


The refractive index (n) of a medium is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum (c) to the speed of light in the medium (v), i.e., n = c/v.


The refractive index of air is slightly greater than 1 (approx. 1.0003).


Since n > 1 for air, it means c/v > 1, which implies c > v.


Thus, the speed of light in air (v) is slightly less than the speed of light in a vacuum (c).
Quick Tip: For most school-level calculations, the speed of light in air is approximated as being equal to the speed of light in a vacuum. However, when a direct comparison is asked, remember that light travels fastest in a vacuum and slows down in any other medium.


Question 37:

Which phenomenon exhibited by light is demonstrated in the twinkling of stars ?

  • (A) Reflection
  • (B) Dispersion
  • (C) Scattering
  • (D) Refraction
Correct Answer: (D) Refraction
View Solution



Stars are very distant point sources of light.


The light from a star travels through the Earth's atmosphere before it reaches our eyes.


The Earth's atmosphere is not uniform; it has layers of different densities and temperatures, which are constantly changing.


As starlight passes through these different layers, it is continuously bent or refracted.


Because the atmospheric conditions keep changing, the path of the light ray changes randomly. This causes the apparent position of the star to shift slightly and the amount of light entering the eye to fluctuate.


This continuous change in apparent position and brightness is perceived as the twinkling of stars. This phenomenon is called atmospheric refraction.



\begin{quicktipbox
Planets do not twinkle because they are much closer to Earth and appear as extended sources of light (a collection of many point sources). The fluctuations in light from individual points average out, and the overall brightness remains constant.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Planets do not twinkle because they are much closer to Earth and appear as extended sources of light (a collection of many point sources). The fluctuations in light from individual points average out, and the overall brightness remains constant.


Question 38:

Bile juice is secreted by

  • (A) Oral cavity
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Small intestine
  • (D) Stomach
Correct Answer: (B) Liver
View Solution



Bile juice is a digestive fluid essential for the digestion and absorption of fats and fat-soluble vitamins in the small intestine.


This fluid is produced continuously by the liver, which is the largest gland in the human body.


After production in the liver, the bile is stored and concentrated in a small organ called the gallbladder.


When fat-containing food enters the small intestine, the gallbladder releases the stored bile into the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine).


Therefore, the bile juice is secreted by the liver.
Quick Tip: Remember the path of bile: Produced in the Liver \(\rightarrow\) Stored in the Gallbladder \(\rightarrow\) Released into the Small Intestine. Bile does not contain digestive enzymes; its main function is the emulsification of fats (breaking large fat globules into smaller ones).


Question 39:

What is the function of the villi located in small intestine ?

  • (A) Blocking absorption
  • (B) Reducing the surface area of absorption
  • (C) Increasing the surface area of absorption
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Increasing the surface area of absorption
View Solution



The final digestion and absorption of nutrients primarily occur in the small intestine.


To make this process efficient, the inner lining of the small intestine is not flat.


It is covered with millions of tiny, finger-like projections called villi (singular: villus).


These villi drastically increase the internal surface area of the small intestine.


A larger surface area allows for a much faster and more efficient absorption of digested nutrients into the bloodstream.


Therefore, the main function of villi is to increase the surface area for absorption.
Quick Tip: Each villus is further covered by even smaller projections called microvilli, collectively forming a "brush border." This combination of folds, villi, and microvilli increases the absorption surface area by about 600 times.


Question 40:

The posterior part of the oral cavity is

  • (A) Esophagus
  • (B) Pharynx
  • (C) Duodenum
  • (D) Pancreas
Correct Answer: (B) Pharynx
View Solution



The oral cavity is the mouth. The posterior part refers to the area at the back of the mouth.


Food, after being chewed and mixed with saliva in the oral cavity, moves to the back of the throat.


This region at the back of the throat is the pharynx, which serves as a common passageway for both food (to the esophagus) and air (to the larynx).


The esophagus is the tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. The duodenum is the first section of the small intestine. The pancreas is a gland located behind the stomach.


Therefore, the pharynx is the posterior part of the oral cavity.
Quick Tip: Trace the path of food: Oral Cavity \(\rightarrow\) Pharynx \(\rightarrow\) Esophagus \(\rightarrow\) Stomach \(\rightarrow\) Small Intestine (Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum) \(\rightarrow\) Large Intestine. Knowing this sequence helps answer many questions about the digestive system.


Question 41:

The transfer of \(O_2\) from outside environment to cells and removal of \(CO_2\) is referred to as

  • (A) Exhalation
  • (B) Respiration
  • (C) Inhalation
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Respiration
View Solution



The question describes the entire process of gas exchange between an organism and its environment, specifically getting oxygen to the cells and removing carbon dioxide.


Inhalation is only the act of taking air in.


Exhalation is only the act of breathing air out.


Respiration, in a physiological sense, is the overall process that includes breathing (inhalation and exhalation), the transport of gases by blood, and the exchange of gases between the blood and the cells.


The term "Respiration" best describes the complete process mentioned in the question.


Note: There seems to be a mismatch in the provided paper between the Hindi and English options for (A). However, based on the complete description, "Respiration" is the most scientifically accurate term among the choices.
Quick Tip: Differentiate between breathing and respiration. Breathing is the physical process of moving air in and out of the lungs. Respiration is a more complex process that includes breathing, gas transport, and cellular respiration (the chemical process inside cells that uses oxygen to produce energy).


Question 42:

The basic source of oxygen in photosynthesis is

  • (A) Chlorophyll
  • (B) \(CO_2\)
  • (C) Water
  • (D) Solar energy
Correct Answer: (C) Water
View Solution



The overall balanced chemical equation for photosynthesis is:
\(6CO_2 + 6H_2O \xrightarrow{Sunlight} C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2\)


Experiments using isotopes of oxygen (like \(^{18}O\)) have shown that the oxygen gas (\(O_2\)) released during photosynthesis comes from the water (\(H_2O\)) molecules, not from the carbon dioxide (\(CO_2\)) molecules.


During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, water molecules are split in a process called photolysis.


This splitting releases electrons, protons (\(H^+\)), and oxygen atoms, which then combine to form oxygen gas.


Therefore, the source of oxygen evolved in photosynthesis is water.
Quick Tip: Remember this key fact: In photosynthesis, the carbon and oxygen atoms from \(CO_2\) are used to make glucose (\(C_6H_{12}O_6\)), while the oxygen released as a byproduct comes entirely from the splitting of water (\(H_2O\)).


Question 43:

Which of the following is known as the 'energy currency' of the cell ?

  • (A) ATP
  • (B) ADP
  • (C) DTP
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) ATP
View Solution



Cellular activities like muscle contraction, nerve impulse transmission, and protein synthesis require energy.


This energy is supplied by a molecule called Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP).


Energy released during cellular respiration is used to form ATP from Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP) and an inorganic phosphate (\(P_i\)).

\(ADP + P_i + Energy \rightarrow ATP\)


The energy is stored in the high-energy phosphate bonds of the ATP molecule. When the cell needs energy, ATP is broken down back into ADP and \(P_i\), releasing the stored energy.


Because ATP is used to store and transfer energy for cellular work, it is known as the 'energy currency' of the cell.



\begin{quicktipbox
Think of ATP as the rechargeable battery of the cell. Cellular respiration charges the battery (ADP \(\rightarrow\) ATP), and cellular work discharges it (ATP \(\rightarrow\) ADP).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Think of ATP as the rechargeable battery of the cell. Cellular respiration charges the battery (ADP \(\rightarrow\) ATP), and cellular work discharges it (ATP \(\rightarrow\) ADP).


Question 44:

Xylem in plant is responsible for

  • (A) Carrying of food
  • (B) Carrying of oxygen
  • (C) Carrying of amino acid
  • (D) Carrying of water
Correct Answer: (D) Carrying of water
View Solution



Plants have two main types of vascular (transport) tissues: xylem and phloem.


Xylem is responsible for the transport of water and dissolved minerals from the roots, where they are absorbed from the soil, to all other parts of the plant, such as the stem and leaves.


This transport is unidirectional, i.e., upwards from the roots.


The transport of food (sugars, like sucrose) produced during photosynthesis is carried out by the phloem tissue. This transport is bidirectional.


Therefore, xylem is responsible for the carrying of water.



\begin{quicktipbox
A simple mnemonic to remember: Xylem transports water (both have 'w' sound implicitly or explicitly, like 'xylem' and 'water'), and Phloem transports food (both start with sounds similar to 'f').
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: A simple mnemonic to remember: Xylem transports water (both have 'w' sound implicitly or explicitly, like 'xylem' and 'water'), and Phloem transports food (both start with sounds similar to 'f').


Question 45:

Apart from plasma, which of the following is found in blood ?

  • (A) White Blood Cells (WBC)
  • (B) Red Blood Cells (RBC)
  • (C) Blood platelets
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution



Blood is composed of two main components: plasma and formed elements.


Plasma is the liquid matrix of the blood, making up about 55% of its volume.


The formed elements are the cells and cell fragments suspended in the plasma, making up the remaining 45%.


These formed elements include:

1. Red Blood Cells (RBCs or erythrocytes), which carry oxygen.

2. White Blood Cells (WBCs or leukocytes), which are part of the immune system.

3. Blood Platelets (thrombocytes), which are involved in blood clotting.


Since RBCs, WBCs, and platelets are all found in the blood apart from plasma, the correct answer is 'All of these'.
Quick Tip: Remember the main components of blood and their functions: Plasma (transport medium), RBCs (oxygen transport), WBCs (defense/immunity), and Platelets (clotting).


Question 46:

If the focal length of the lens is f and power is P then

  • (A) f + P = 0.5
  • (B) f x P = 1
  • (C) P + f = 1
  • (D) P + f = 2
Correct Answer: (B) f x P = 1
View Solution



The power (P) of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length (f).


The formula is given by: \(P = \frac{1}{f}\).


A crucial condition for this formula is that the focal length 'f' must be expressed in meters (m). The unit of power 'P' is then the dioptre (D).


By rearranging the formula, we can multiply both sides by 'f':

\(P \times f = \frac{1}{f} \times f\)


This simplifies to: \(P \times f = 1\).


Therefore, the correct relationship is f x P = 1.



\begin{quicktipbox
Always be careful with units when calculating the power of a lens. If the focal length is given in centimeters (cm), you must first convert it to meters by dividing by 100 before using the formula P = 1/f. Alternatively, you can use the formula P (in D) = 100 / f (in cm).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Always be careful with units when calculating the power of a lens. If the focal length is given in centimeters (cm), you must first convert it to meters by dividing by 100 before using the formula P = 1/f. Alternatively, you can use the formula P (in D) = 100 / f (in cm).


Question 47:

Which part of camera acts like the retina of the eye ?

  • (A) Aperture
  • (B) Lens
  • (C) Film
  • (D) Shutter
Correct Answer: (C) Film
View Solution



We can draw an analogy between the human eye and a camera.


The lens of the eye focuses light to form an image, similar to the lens in a camera.


The iris/pupil of the eye controls the amount of light entering, similar to the aperture in a camera.


The retina is the light-sensitive screen at the back of the eye where the image is formed.


In a traditional camera, the film is the light-sensitive material that captures the image formed by the lens. In a modern digital camera, this role is played by the image sensor (like a CCD or CMOS sensor).


Therefore, the film (or image sensor) in a camera acts like the retina of the eye.



\begin{quicktipbox
Memorize the key analogies between the eye and a camera: Eye Lens \(\leftrightarrow\) Camera Lens; Iris/Pupil \(\leftrightarrow\) Aperture; Retina \(\leftrightarrow\) Film/Sensor; Eyelid \(\leftrightarrow\) Shutter.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Memorize the key analogies between the eye and a camera: Eye Lens \(\leftrightarrow\) Camera Lens; Iris/Pupil \(\leftrightarrow\) Aperture; Retina \(\leftrightarrow\) Film/Sensor; Eyelid \(\leftrightarrow\) Shutter.


Question 48:

For a healthy human eye, the near point and far point are respectively

  • (A) 0 and infinity
  • (B) 25 cm and 250 cm
  • (C) 25 cm and infinity
  • (D) 0 and 25 cm
Correct Answer: (C) 25 cm and infinity
View Solution



The near point of an eye is the minimum distance at which an object can be seen clearly without any strain. For a normal, healthy eye, this distance is about 25 cm.


The far point of an eye is the maximum distance at which an object can be seen clearly. For a normal, healthy eye, the far point is at infinity, meaning it can see distant objects clearly.


Therefore, the near point and far point for a healthy human eye are 25 cm and infinity, respectively.
Quick Tip: The range of vision for a normal human eye is from 25 cm to infinity. Any defect in this range leads to vision problems like myopia (nearsightedness) or hypermetropia (farsightedness).


Question 49:

To an astronaut standing on the moon, the sky appears to be

  • (A) Red
  • (B) Blue
  • (C) Black
  • (D) White
Correct Answer: (C) Black
View Solution



The color of the sky on Earth appears blue due to a phenomenon called Rayleigh scattering.


The Earth's atmosphere contains tiny particles of air and dust that scatter sunlight. Blue light, having a shorter wavelength, is scattered more effectively than red light.


The Moon has no atmosphere.


In the absence of an atmosphere, there are no particles to scatter the sunlight.


Without scattering, the light from the sun travels in a straight line, and the vast expanse of space appears dark or black to an observer.


Therefore, an astronaut on the moon sees a black sky.
Quick Tip: Remember: Color of the sky = Scattering of light. No atmosphere = No scattering = Black sky. This principle applies to space in general, not just the Moon.


Question 50:

The decreased accommodative ability of the eye causes

  • (A) Farsightedness
  • (B) Presbyopia
  • (C) Nearsightedness
  • (D) Colourblindness
Correct Answer: (B) Presbyopia
View Solution



The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length to see both nearby and distant objects clearly is called the power of accommodation.


This adjustment is done by the ciliary muscles.


With aging, the ciliary muscles weaken, and the eye lens loses some of its flexibility.


This leads to a decrease in the eye's ability to accommodate, making it difficult to focus on nearby objects.


This age-related vision defect is called presbyopia.


Farsightedness (hypermetropia) and nearsightedness (myopia) are typically caused by the shape of the eyeball or the focal length of the lens, not necessarily by decreased accommodation ability due to age.
Quick Tip: Associate presbyopia with "old age sight." It's the reason why many elderly people need reading glasses. It is often corrected using bifocal lenses, which have both concave and convex parts.


Question 51:

The unit of resistivity in a conductor is

  • (A) \(\Omega\) m
  • (B) \(\Omega\)/m
  • (C) \(\Omega^{-1}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) \(\Omega\) m
View Solution



The resistance (R) of a conductor is related to its resistivity (\(\rho\)), length (L), and cross-sectional area (A) by the formula:
\(R = \rho \frac{L}{A}\)


To find the unit of resistivity (\(\rho\)), we can rearrange the formula:
\(\rho = \frac{R \times A}{L}\)


Now, let's substitute the SI units for each quantity:

The unit of resistance (R) is the ohm (\(\Omega\)).

The unit of area (A) is the square meter (\(m^2\)).

The unit of length (L) is the meter (m).


Substituting these into the rearranged formula:

Unit of \(\rho = \frac{\Omega \times m^2}{m} = \Omega \cdot m\)


Therefore, the SI unit of resistivity is the ohm-meter (\(\Omega\) m).
Quick Tip: Don't confuse resistance with resistivity. Resistance is a property of a specific object (e.g., a particular wire) and is measured in ohms (\(\Omega\)). Resistivity is an intrinsic property of the material itself (e.g., copper) and is measured in ohm-meters (\(\Omega\) m).


Question 52:

How many calories are there in 1 joule ?

  • (A) 0.23
  • (B) 0.19
  • (C) 0.21
  • (D) 0.25
Correct Answer: (A) 0.23
View Solution



The joule (J) is the SI unit of energy, while the calorie (cal) is another common unit of energy.


The standard conversion factor is:

1 calorie = 4.184 joules (approximately)


To find how many calories are in 1 joule, we need to find the reciprocal of this value:

1 joule = \(\frac{1}{4.184}\) calories


Calculating this value:

1 joule \(\approx\) 0.239 calories


Looking at the options, 0.23 is the closest value.
Quick Tip: For quick mental calculations, it's useful to remember the approximation: 1 cal \(\approx\) 4.2 J. This means 1 J is a little less than 1/4 of a calorie (1/4 = 0.25). This can help you quickly select the correct option, which should be slightly less than 0.25.


Question 53:

The filament in an electric bulb is made of which of the following metals ?

  • (A) Iron
  • (B) Aluminium
  • (C) Tungsten
  • (D) Copper
Correct Answer: (C) Tungsten
View Solution



The working principle of an incandescent electric bulb is that the filament gets heated to a very high temperature and starts glowing (incandescence).


The material used for the filament must have two key properties:

1. A very high melting point, so it does not melt at the high operating temperatures.

2. High resistivity, so it offers significant resistance to the current, causing it to heat up effectively.


Tungsten (W) is used because it has an extremely high melting point (approximately 3422 °C), which is the highest among all pure metals. It also has high resistivity.


Iron, Aluminium, and Copper have much lower melting points and would melt at the temperatures required for the bulb to glow brightly.



\begin{quicktipbox
The key property that makes tungsten ideal for a light bulb filament is its very high melting point. This allows it to be heated to incandescence without melting.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The key property that makes tungsten ideal for a light bulb filament is its very high melting point. This allows it to be heated to incandescence without melting.


Question 54:

In which state is the Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant located ?

  • (A) Karnataka
  • (B) Tamil Nadu
  • (C) Uttar Pradesh
  • (D) Gujarat
Correct Answer: (B) Tamil Nadu
View Solution



The Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant is officially known as the Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS).


It is located in Kalpakkam, about 80 kilometers south of Chennai, the capital city.


The city of Chennai is in the state of Tamil Nadu.


Therefore, the Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant is located in the state of Tamil Nadu.
Quick Tip: It's helpful to know the locations of India's major nuclear power plants: Tarapur (Maharashtra), Rawatbhata (Rajasthan), Kakrapar (Gujarat), Narora (Uttar Pradesh), Kaiga (Karnataka), and Kalpakkam/Kudankulam (Tamil Nadu).


Question 55:

The main component of domestic gas (LPG) is

  • (A) Ethane
  • (B) Propane
  • (C) Butane
  • (D) Methane
Correct Answer: (C) Butane
View Solution



LPG stands for Liquefied Petroleum Gas. It is used as a fuel for cooking and heating in households.


LPG is a mixture of flammable hydrocarbon gases.


The main components are propane (\(C_3H_8\)) and butane (\(C_4H_{10}\)).


While the exact composition can vary, in many countries, including India, butane is the major component of LPG used for domestic purposes.


Methane (\(CH_4\)) is the main component of Natural Gas and Compressed Natural Gas (CNG).


Given the options, Butane is the best answer for the main component of domestic LPG.



\begin{quicktipbox
Remember the primary components of common fuel gases: LPG (Propane and Butane), CNG (Methane), and Biogas (Methane).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember the primary components of common fuel gases: LPG (Propane and Butane), CNG (Methane), and Biogas (Methane).


Question 56:

The two non-renewable sources of energy are

  • (A) Gobar gas and biomass
  • (B) Coal and petroleum
  • (C) Biomass and petroleum
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Coal and petroleum
View Solution



Non-renewable sources of energy are those that are finite and cannot be replenished on a human timescale. They are consumed much faster than they are formed.


Let's analyze the options:

(A) Gobar gas (biogas) and biomass are derived from organic matter and are considered renewable.

(B) Coal and petroleum are fossil fuels, formed over millions of years. They are classic examples of non-renewable resources.

(C) This option contains a mix: Biomass is renewable, while petroleum is non-renewable.


Therefore, the pair consisting of two non-renewable sources is Coal and petroleum.
Quick Tip: Classify energy sources into two main categories: Renewable (solar, wind, hydro, geothermal, biomass) which are replenished naturally, and Non-renewable (coal, petroleum, natural gas, nuclear) which are finite.


Question 57:

Which type of reaction is respiration ?

  • (A) Combination
  • (B) Reduction
  • (C) Endothermic
  • (D) Oxidation
Correct Answer: (D) Oxidation
View Solution



Cellular respiration is the biochemical process where glucose (\(C_6H_{12}O_6\)) is broken down to release energy.


The overall equation for aerobic respiration is:
\(C_6H_{12}O_6 + 6O_2 \rightarrow 6CO_2 + 6H_2O + Energy (ATP)\)


In this reaction, glucose loses hydrogen atoms and is converted to carbon dioxide. The loss of hydrogen (or gain of oxygen) is the definition of oxidation.


Additionally, the process releases a large amount of energy, so it is an exothermic reaction, not endothermic (which absorbs energy).


It is a decomposition or catabolic reaction, not a combination reaction.


Thus, among the given choices, respiration is best described as an oxidation reaction.



\begin{quicktipbox
Respiration and photosynthesis are complementary processes. Respiration is an exothermic oxidation process (breaks down glucose), while photosynthesis is an endothermic reduction process (builds up glucose).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Respiration and photosynthesis are complementary processes. Respiration is an exothermic oxidation process (breaks down glucose), while photosynthesis is an endothermic reduction process (builds up glucose).


Question 58:

Compounds formed by transfer of electrons are called

  • (A) Organic
  • (B) Covalent
  • (C) Electrovalent
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Electrovalent
View Solution



Chemical compounds are formed through different types of chemical bonds.


Covalent compounds are formed by the sharing of electrons between atoms.


Ionic compounds are formed by the complete transfer of one or more electrons from a metal atom to a non-metal atom.


The metal atom loses electrons to become a positive ion (cation), and the non-metal atom gains electrons to become a negative ion (anion).


The electrostatic force of attraction between these oppositely charged ions forms an ionic bond.


Compounds containing ionic bonds are also known as electrovalent compounds.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: Sharing electrons = Covalent bond (e.g., \(CH_4\), \(H_2O\)). Transferring electrons = Ionic/Electrovalent bond (e.g., \(NaCl\), \(MgCl_2\)).


Question 59:

Which of the following reactions is an example of decomposition reaction ?

  • (A) \(H_2 + I_2 \rightarrow 2HI\)
  • (B) \(NH_4CNO \rightarrow H_2NCONH_2\)
  • (C) \(NaOH + HCl \rightarrow NaCl + H_2O\)
  • (D) \(2KClO_3 \rightarrow 2KCl + 3O_2\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(2KClO_3 \rightarrow 2KCl + 3O_2\)
View Solution



A decomposition reaction is a type of chemical reaction in which a single compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances.


Let's analyze the options:

(A) \(H_2 + I_2 \rightarrow 2HI\) is a combination reaction, where two substances combine to form a single product.

(B) \(NH_4CNO \rightarrow H_2NCONH_2\) is an isomerization reaction, where the atoms within a molecule are rearranged.

(C) \(NaOH + HCl \rightarrow NaCl + H_2O\) is a neutralization reaction, a type of double displacement reaction.

(D) \(2KClO_3 \rightarrow 2KCl + 3O_2\) shows a single reactant, potassium chlorate (\(KClO_3\)), breaking down into two simpler products, potassium chloride (\(KCl\)) and oxygen (\(O_2\)). This fits the definition of a decomposition reaction.
Quick Tip: Identify reaction types by the number of reactants and products. Combination: A + B \(\rightarrow\) C. Decomposition: C \(\rightarrow\) A + B. Displacement: A + BC \(\rightarrow\) AC + B. Double Displacement: AB + CD \(\rightarrow\) AD + CB.


Question 60:

In which of the following is tartaric acid found ?

  • (A) Orange
  • (B) Tamarind
  • (C) Tomato
  • (D) Vinegar
Correct Answer: (B) Tamarind
View Solution



Different natural food sources contain different types of acids.


Orange and other citrus fruits are rich in citric acid.


Tomato contains oxalic acid.


Vinegar is essentially a dilute solution of acetic acid.


Tamarind (Imli) is a natural source of tartaric acid. Tartaric acid is also found in grapes.


Therefore, tartaric acid is found in tamarind.
Quick Tip: Memorizing a list of common natural acids is very helpful for competitive exams. Key examples: Curd (lactic acid), Lemon (citric acid), Ant sting (methanoic acid), Tamarind (tartaric acid), Tomato (oxalic acid), Vinegar (acetic acid).


Question 61:

What is the chemical name of slaked lime ?

  • (A) Calcium oxychloride
  • (B) Calcium chloride
  • (C) Calcium oxide
  • (D) Calcium hydroxide
Correct Answer: (D) Calcium hydroxide
View Solution



"Slaked lime" is the common name for the chemical compound that is formed when quicklime reacts with water.


Quicklime is calcium oxide (\(CaO\)).


The reaction is: \(CaO + H_2O \rightarrow Ca(OH)_2\)


The product, \(Ca(OH)_2\), is chemically named calcium hydroxide.


Calcium oxychloride is bleaching powder (\(CaOCl_2\)). Calcium chloride is \(CaCl_2\). Calcium oxide is \(CaO\).


Therefore, the chemical name of slaked lime is calcium hydroxide.
Quick Tip: Remember the three key calcium compounds: Calcium Carbonate (\(CaCO_3\), limestone), Calcium Oxide (\(CaO\), quicklime), and Calcium Hydroxide (\(Ca(OH)_2\), slaked lime). Heating limestone gives quicklime, and adding water to quicklime gives slaked lime.


Question 62:

The changes that take place during adolescence are called

  • (A) Diversity
  • (B) Germination
  • (C) Puberty
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) Puberty
View Solution



Adolescence is the period of transition from childhood to adulthood.


During this period, the human body undergoes several physical and physiological changes that lead to sexual maturity.


This process of becoming sexually mature is known as puberty.


Changes during puberty include the development of secondary sexual characteristics, growth spurts, and the onset of reproductive capability.


Germination is the process of a seed sprouting. Diversity refers to variation.


Therefore, the changes during adolescence are called puberty.
Quick Tip: Adolescence is the overall period (roughly ages 10-19), while puberty is the specific set of biological events within adolescence that leads to reproductive maturity.


Question 63:

Which of the following is an effective measure used in family planning ?

  • (A) Diaphragm
  • (B) Condom
  • (C) Copper T and loop
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution



Family planning involves using various contraceptive methods to prevent pregnancy.


Let's analyze the options provided:

(A) A diaphragm is a barrier method of contraception that is placed inside the vagina to cover the cervix and prevent sperm from entering the uterus.

(B) A condom is also a barrier method that prevents the mixing of seminal fluid and vaginal fluids.

(C) Copper T and loops are Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs) that are placed inside the uterus to prevent implantation of the embryo.


Since all the mentioned methods are effective measures used for family planning, the correct answer is 'All of these'.



\begin{quicktipbox
Contraceptive methods can be categorized into: Barrier methods (condoms, diaphragms), Chemical methods (spermicides, oral pills), Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs like Copper T), and Surgical methods (vasectomy, tubectomy).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Contraceptive methods can be categorized into: Barrier methods (condoms, diaphragms), Chemical methods (spermicides, oral pills), Intra-Uterine Devices (IUDs like Copper T), and Surgical methods (vasectomy, tubectomy).


Question 64:

What is the meaning of atavism ?

  • (A) Inheritance of parental characteristics in progeny
  • (B) No inheritance of parental characteristics in progeny
  • (C) Inheritance of ancestral characteristics in progeny, which are not in parents
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (C) Inheritance of ancestral characteristics in progeny, which are not in parents
View Solution



Atavism is an evolutionary term. It refers to the reappearance of a trait that was present in a distant ancestor but was lost in the intermediate generations.


Let's look at the options:

(A) Inheritance of parental characteristics is the normal process of heredity, not atavism.

(B) No inheritance would mean the end of a lineage's traits.

(C) This option accurately describes atavism: a progeny inherits a characteristic from a distant ancestor, a trait which its immediate parents did not possess. An example is the occasional birth of a human with a small tail.


Therefore, the correct meaning of atavism is the inheritance of ancestral characteristics not present in the immediate parents.
Quick Tip: Think of atavism as a "throwback" to an ancestral form. It occurs because the genes for these ancestral traits are often preserved in the DNA but are dormant or inactive, and a rare genetic change can reactivate them.


Question 65:

The genetic structure of an organism is called

  • (A) Phenotype
  • (B) Genotype
  • (C) Heredity
  • (D) Diversity
Correct Answer: (C) Heredity
View Solution



Let's analyze the terms to understand the context of the question.

(A) Phenotype refers to the observable physical properties of an organism.

(B) Genotype is the specific genetic makeup or set of genes of an organism. This is the most direct answer to "genetic structure".

(C) Heredity (आनुवंशिकता) is the broader biological process of passing genetic information from parents to offspring. The genetic structure (genotype) is the very basis of this process.

The question asks what the genetic structure is called. While genotype is the precise term, the provided answer key points to Heredity. This implies a broader interpretation. The genetic structure is the fundamental unit that governs Heredity. The study and understanding of the genetic structure are central to the concept of Heredity. In this context, the genetic structure is seen as the embodiment of an organism's heredity.
Quick Tip: While "genotype" is the direct technical term for the genetic makeup, "heredity" is the overall process of passing that makeup to the next generation. For exams, if both are options, carefully consider the wording. Genotype = The code itself. Heredity = The process of passing the code.


Question 66:

The evolution of organisms by natural selection is called

  • (A) Mendelism
  • (B) Lamarckism
  • (C) Micro-development
  • (D) Darwinism
Correct Answer: (D) Darwinism
View Solution



The theory of evolution by natural selection is the cornerstone of modern biology.


This theory was independently proposed by Charles Darwin in his landmark book "On the Origin of Species" in 1859.


The theory posits that organisms with traits better suited to their environment are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass those advantageous traits to their offspring.


This process is called natural selection, and the theory as a whole is widely known as Darwinism.


Lamarckism proposed the inheritance of acquired characteristics. Mendelism refers to the laws of genetic inheritance discovered by Gregor Mendel.
Quick Tip: Associate the scientist with their main theory: Darwin \(\rightarrow\) Natural Selection (Darwinism). Lamarck \(\rightarrow\) Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics (Lamarckism). Mendel \(\rightarrow\) Laws of Inheritance (Mendelism).


Question 67:

The chemical which shows biomagnification is

  • (A) CFC
  • (B) ADP
  • (C) ATP
  • (D) DDT
Correct Answer: (D) DDT
View Solution



Biomagnification (or biological magnification) is the process where the concentration of certain persistent chemicals increases in the tissues of organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain.


For biomagnification to occur, a substance must be long-lived, mobile, soluble in fats, and biologically active.


ATP and ADP are energy currency molecules within cells and are part of the normal metabolic cycle; they do not biomagnify.


CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) are known for causing ozone layer depletion but are not typically associated with biomagnification in food chains.


DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) is a persistent, fat-soluble insecticide. It is not easily broken down in the environment or in organisms. As it moves up the food chain, its concentration increases in each trophic level, causing significant harm to top predators like birds of prey.


Therefore, DDT is a classic example of a chemical that shows biomagnification.



\begin{quicktipbox
Look for persistent, fat-soluble pollutants when asked about biomagnification. Common examples include pesticides like DDT and heavy metals like mercury.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Look for persistent, fat-soluble pollutants when asked about biomagnification. Common examples include pesticides like DDT and heavy metals like mercury.


Question 68:

Primary consumers are called

  • (A) Decomposer
  • (B) Omnivorous
  • (C) Carnivorous
  • (D) Vegetarian
Correct Answer: (A) Decomposer
View Solution



In an ecosystem, energy flows from producers to consumers.


Primary consumers are organisms that feed on producers (plants). They are also known as herbivores (vegetarians).


However, there are two main food chains: the grazing food chain (starting with plants) and the detritus food chain (starting with dead organic matter).


In the detritus food chain, decomposers (like bacteria and fungi) are the first level of consumers, breaking down dead producers and consumers.


In this context, decomposers can be considered a type of "primary" consumer that acts on dead organic matter from the producer level.


Given the provided answer key, this question interprets the flow of energy through the detritus pathway, where decomposers are the initial consumers.
Quick Tip: Typically, primary consumers are herbivores. However, be aware of the detritus food chain where decomposers are the first consumers of dead organic material. This question relies on a less common interpretation.


Question 69:

CFC is widely used in

  • (A) Jet engines
  • (B) Refrigerators
  • (C) Air conditioners
  • (D) All of these
Correct Answer: (D) All of these
View Solution



CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) are chemical compounds that were valued for their low toxicity and stability.


They were widely used as refrigerants in cooling systems.


Therefore, they were used extensively in both refrigerators (B) and air conditioners (C).


While not used as fuel, CFCs (specifically halons, which are related compounds) were also used in fire extinguishing systems, including those in aircraft and jet engines.


Given their use in refrigeration, air conditioning, and specialized applications related to aircraft, "All of these" is the most comprehensive answer in this context.
Quick Tip: CFCs are most famous for their role in depleting the ozone layer. Their use has been phased out under the Montreal Protocol. The primary uses to remember are as refrigerants and as propellants in aerosol cans.


Question 70:

A horizontal magnet hanging freely in air always comes to rest in

  • (A) Any direction
  • (B) East-West direction
  • (C) North-South direction
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C) North-South direction
View Solution



The Earth itself behaves like a giant magnet, with its own magnetic field.


This magnetic field has a north pole and a south pole.


A freely suspended magnet (like a compass needle) aligns itself with the Earth's magnetic field lines.


The north pole of the magnet is attracted towards the Earth's geographic North Pole (which is a magnetic south pole), and the south pole of the magnet points towards the Earth's geographic South Pole.


Therefore, a freely suspended magnet always comes to rest in the North-South direction.
Quick Tip: This directional property of magnets is the fundamental principle behind the magnetic compass, which has been used for navigation for centuries.


Question 71:

If a compass is placed near a wire carrying electric current, then the compass needle

  • (A) Will be deflected
  • (B) The current carrying wire will be deflected
  • (C) Will not be deflected
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Will be deflected
View Solution



This is related to Oersted's discovery.


An electric current flowing through a conductor (wire) produces a magnetic field around it.


A compass needle is a small magnet that aligns itself with any magnetic field it is placed in.


When the compass is placed near the current-carrying wire, the magnetic field produced by the current exerts a force on the compass needle.


This force causes the needle to deflect from its usual North-South alignment.


Therefore, the compass needle will be deflected.
Quick Tip: The direction of the magnetic field around a straight current-carrying wire can be found using the Right-Hand Thumb Rule. If you point your thumb in the direction of the current, your fingers will curl in the direction of the magnetic field lines.


Question 72:

Faraday made many revolutionary discoveries, including

  • (A) Electromagnetic induction
  • (B) Law of electrolysis
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Electromagnetic induction
View Solution



Michael Faraday was a brilliant scientist who made significant contributions to both physics and chemistry.


He discovered the laws of electrolysis, which form the basis of electrochemistry.


He also discovered electromagnetic induction, the principle that a changing magnetic field can induce an electric current in a conductor.


While both were revolutionary, the discovery of electromagnetic induction is arguably his most famous and impactful discovery in physics, as it laid the foundation for the development of electric generators, transformers, and motors.


Given that a single best answer must be chosen from the options, electromagnetic induction is highlighted as the key discovery.
Quick Tip: Electromagnetic Induction is the principle behind electric power generation. Moving a magnet near a coil of wire (or vice versa) induces a current, converting mechanical energy into electrical energy.


Question 73:

An electric motor converts

  • (A) Chemical energy into electrical energy
  • (B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
  • (C) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
  • (D) Electrical energy into chemical energy
Correct Answer: (B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
View Solution



An electric motor is a device designed to produce motion from electricity.


It works on the principle that a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field experiences a force, which causes it to rotate.


The input to the motor is electrical energy from a power source.


The output of the motor is the rotational motion of its shaft, which is a form of mechanical energy.


Therefore, an electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.



\begin{quicktipbox
Remember the energy conversions for motors and generators: Motor: Electrical \(\rightarrow\) Mechanical. Generator: Mechanical \(\rightarrow\) Electrical. They are essentially opposite devices.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember the energy conversions for motors and generators: Motor: Electrical \(\rightarrow\) Mechanical. Generator: Mechanical \(\rightarrow\) Electrical. They are essentially opposite devices.


Question 74:

In Fleming's left-hand rule, the index finger of the left hand indicates

  • (A) Direction of magnetic field
  • (B) Direction of electric force applied on the conductor
  • (C) Direction of electric current flowing in the conductor
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Direction of magnetic field
View Solution



Fleming's left-hand rule is used to determine the direction of the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field (the principle of the electric motor).


The rule involves extending the thumb, the index finger (forefinger), and the middle finger of the left hand so that they are mutually perpendicular.


According to the rule:

- The Thumb points in the direction of the Force (or Motion).

- The Forefinger (Index finger) points in the direction of the Magnetic Field.

- The Middle finger points in the direction of the Current.


Therefore, the index finger indicates the direction of the magnetic field.
Quick Tip: Use the mnemonic "FBI" for Fleming's Left-Hand Rule: F (Force - Thumb), B (Magnetic Field - Forefinger), I (Current - Middle Finger). This helps to quickly recall which finger represents which quantity.


Question 75:

When electric current flows through a conducting wire, what type of magnetic field is generated above and below the wire ?

  • (A) Opposite type
  • (B) Similar type
  • (C) Not of any kind
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Opposite type
View Solution



According to the Right-Hand Grip Rule, a current-carrying wire generates a magnetic field in the form of concentric circles around the wire.


Imagine a horizontal wire with current flowing from left to right.


If you place your right thumb in the direction of the current, your fingers will curl around the wire.


Above the wire, your fingers point into the page.


Below the wire, your fingers point out of the page.


The directions "into the page" and "out of the page" are opposite to each other.


Therefore, the magnetic field generated above and below the wire are of the opposite type (in opposite directions).
Quick Tip: Always use the Right-Hand Grip (or Thumb) Rule to determine the direction of the magnetic field around a straight conductor. This is a fundamental concept for understanding the magnetic effects of current.


Question 76:

What type of energy source is hydroelectric energy ?

  • (A) Renewable
  • (B) Non-renewable
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) Renewable
View Solution



Hydroelectric energy is generated from the kinetic energy of flowing water or the potential energy of water stored at a height.


The water used in this process is part of the Earth's water cycle.


The water cycle is driven by solar energy, which causes evaporation, condensation, and precipitation (rain), constantly replenishing the water in rivers and reservoirs.


Since the source of energy (water flow) is naturally replenished on a human timescale, hydroelectric energy is considered a renewable source of energy.


Non-renewable sources, like coal and oil, are finite and are not replenished.
Quick Tip: Renewable energy sources are those that are derived from natural processes that are replenished constantly. Major examples include solar, wind, hydro, geothermal, and biomass energy.


Question 77:

Which gas is responsible for global warming ?

  • (A) Nitrogen
  • (B) Carbon dioxide
  • (C) Oxygen
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) Carbon dioxide
View Solution



Global warming is the long-term heating of Earth's climate system observed since the pre-industrial period due to human activities.


It is primarily caused by the enhanced greenhouse effect, where certain gases in the atmosphere trap heat radiated from the Earth's surface.


These gases are called greenhouse gases.


While there are several greenhouse gases (including methane, nitrous oxide, and water vapor), carbon dioxide (\(CO_2\)) is the most significant one responsible for global warming due to its abundance and long atmospheric lifetime from human activities like burning fossil fuels.


Nitrogen and oxygen, the main components of air, are not significant greenhouse gases.



\begin{quicktipbox
The primary human activity contributing to the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide is the combustion of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas) for energy and transportation.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The primary human activity contributing to the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide is the combustion of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas) for energy and transportation.


Question 78:

Why do planets not twinkle ? Explain.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Planets do not twinkle due to the following reasons:


1. Proximity to Earth: Planets are much closer to the Earth compared to stars.


2. Extended Light Source: Because they are closer, planets appear as extended sources of light (a collection of many point sources), not as single point sources like distant stars.


3. Averaging Effect: The light coming from different points of the planet passes through different paths in the atmosphere. The dimming effect from some paths is cancelled out by the brightening effect from other paths.


4. Constant Brightness: This averaging out of atmospheric refraction effects results in the total amount of light entering our eye remaining nearly constant. Therefore, the planets do not appear to twinkle.
Quick Tip: The key difference is the apparent size: Stars are point sources, so their single light path is easily disturbed. Planets are extended sources, so the disturbances to their many light paths average out.


Question 79:

What is called absolute refractive index ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The absolute refractive index of a medium is a measure of how much the speed of light is reduced inside that medium.


It is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum (c) to the speed of light in the given medium (v).


The formula is given by: \(n = \frac{c}{v}\)


Where:

'n' is the absolute refractive index.

'c' is the speed of light in vacuum (approximately \(3 \times 10^8\) m/s).

'v' is the speed of light in the medium.


Since the speed of light is maximum in a vacuum, the value of the absolute refractive index is always greater than or equal to 1.
Quick Tip: When the term "refractive index" is used without specifying the second medium, it is generally assumed to be the absolute refractive index (i.e., with respect to vacuum).


Question 80:

What is farsightedness ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Farsightedness, also known as hypermetropia, is a defect of vision in which a person can see distant objects clearly but finds it difficult to see nearby objects distinctly.


Causes: This defect arises because:

1. The focal length of the eye lens is too long.

2. The eyeball has become too short.


Due to these reasons, the image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina, not on the retina itself, resulting in a blurred vision for near objects.


Correction: This defect can be corrected by using spectacles with a convex lens of appropriate power. The convex lens converges the light rays so that the final image is formed on the retina.
Quick Tip: Remember: Farsightedness (Hypermetropia) is corrected by a convex lens. A simple way to recall this is that people with this defect need more converging power, which is provided by a convex lens.


Question 81:

What do you understand by electromagnetic induction ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon of producing an induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) and hence an electric current in a closed circuit by changing the magnetic field linked with it.


This discovery was made by Michael Faraday in 1831.


The change in the magnetic field (or magnetic flux) can be produced in several ways:

1. By moving a magnet towards or away from a coil.

2. By moving a coil towards or away from a magnet.

3. By changing the current in a nearby coil (as in a transformer).


This principle is fundamental to the operation of electric generators, dynamos, and transformers.
Quick Tip: The key concept in electromagnetic induction is "change". A current is induced only when the magnetic field through the coil is changing. A stationary magnet near a stationary coil will not induce any current.


Question 82:

Why is inert gas filled in electric bulb ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



An inert gas, such as argon or nitrogen, is filled in an incandescent electric bulb for the following reasons:


1. To Prevent Oxidation: The filament of the bulb is made of tungsten, which gets heated to a very high temperature (around 2500 °C) to glow. If oxygen were present inside the bulb, the hot tungsten would rapidly react with it (oxidize) and burn out.


2. To Reduce Evaporation: A vacuum could also prevent oxidation, but at such high temperatures, the tungsten filament would evaporate (a process called sublimation). This would thin the filament and shorten its lifespan.


3. To Increase Lifespan and Efficiency: The inert gas provides pressure inside the bulb, which suppresses the evaporation of tungsten. This allows the filament to be operated at a higher temperature for a longer period, making the bulb brighter and increasing its operational life.
Quick Tip: Inert gases are used because they are chemically non-reactive. They create a protective atmosphere that prevents the hot tungsten filament from being destroyed by oxidation or rapid evaporation.


Question 83:

What do you understand by potential difference ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Potential difference between two points in an electric circuit is defined as the work done to move a unit positive charge from one point to the other.


It is the "pressure" or "force" that causes electric current to flow.


The formula is given by:

Potential Difference (\(V\)) = \(\frac{Work Done (W)}{Charge (Q)}\) or \(V = \frac{W}{Q}\)


The SI unit of potential difference is the volt (V).


One volt is defined as the potential difference between two points when one joule of work is done to move a charge of one coulomb from one point to the other.


It is measured by an instrument called a voltmeter, which is always connected in parallel across the points where the potential difference is to be measured.
Quick Tip: Think of the water analogy: Potential difference is like the difference in water pressure between two points in a pipe. This pressure difference makes the water flow, just as potential difference makes the electric current flow.


Question 84:

What is called the best source of energy ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



While no single source of energy is perfect, an ideal or "best" source of energy would have the following characteristics:


1. High Calorific Value: It should produce a large amount of energy per unit mass or volume.

2. Easily Available and Accessible: It should be available in abundance and easy to obtain.

3. Economical: It should be inexpensive and affordable.

4. Easy to Store and Transport: It should be convenient to store and move from one place to another.

5. Safe to Handle: It should be safe to use and should not pose significant risks.

6. Environmentally Friendly: It should cause little to no pollution and have a minimal impact on the environment.


Based on these criteria, sources like solar and wind energy are often considered good long-term options, but the "best" source can depend on the specific application and location.
Quick Tip: When evaluating a source of energy, consider not only its cost and availability but also its environmental impact. Sustainability is a key factor in determining a "good" energy source for the future.


Question 85:

What is dynamo ? What is its use ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



What is a dynamo?

A dynamo is a device that works on the principle of electromagnetic induction. It is a type of electric generator, especially one that generates direct current (DC).


What is its use?

The main use of a dynamo is to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy.


When the coil of the dynamo is rotated in a magnetic field (mechanical energy input), a current is induced in the coil (electrical energy output).


For example, dynamos were commonly used in older bicycles to power the lights. The rotation of the wheel provided the mechanical energy to turn the dynamo, which then generated electricity to light the lamp.
Quick Tip: A dynamo is essentially the opposite of an electric motor. A motor uses electricity to create motion (Electrical \(\rightarrow\) Mechanical), while a dynamo uses motion to create electricity (Mechanical \(\rightarrow\) Electrical).


Question 86:

What are defects of vision ? What are their types ? How are the defects resolved ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Defects of vision are conditions where the eye cannot focus the image of an object clearly on the retina, resulting in blurred vision.


The three common defects of vision are:


1. Myopia (Nearsightedness):

\textit{Description: A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant objects distinctly. The far point of the eye is nearer than infinity. The image of a distant object is formed in front of the retina.

\textit{Causes: (i) Excessive curvature of the eye lens (lens is too converging), or (ii) Elongation of the eyeball.

\textit{Correction: This defect is corrected by using spectacles with a concave lens of a suitable focal length. The concave lens diverges the incoming light rays, which then appear to come from the eye's far point and are focused correctly on the retina.


2. Hypermetropia (Farsightedness):

\textit{Description: A person with hypermetropia can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly. The near point is farther away than 25 cm. The image of a nearby object is formed behind the retina.

\textit{Causes: (i) The focal length of the eye lens is too long (lens has low converging power), or (ii) The eyeball has become too short.

\textit{Correction: This defect is corrected by using spectacles with a convex lens of a suitable power. The convex lens provides additional converging power required for forming the image on the retina.


3. Presbyopia:

\textit{Description: This is the defect of vision due to which an elderly person finds it difficult to see nearby objects comfortably and clearly. It is also called old-age hypermetropia.

\textit{Causes: It arises due to the gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens with age.

\textit{Correction: It is corrected using a convex lens for reading. Sometimes a person may suffer from both myopia and hypermetropia. Such people require bifocal lenses, which consist of both concave (upper part) and convex (lower part) lenses.
Quick Tip: A simple mnemonic for correction: Myopia (nearsightedness) needs a concave lens. Hypermetropia (farsightedness) needs a convex lens. Think "My Cave" (Myopia-Concave).


Question 87:

Describe the structure and working method of a biogas plant.

Correct Answer:
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A biogas plant is a device that facilitates the anaerobic decomposition of biomass (like cattle dung) to produce biogas and manure.


Structure:

A typical fixed-dome biogas plant consists of the following parts:

1. Mixing Tank: Located above ground level, where the raw material (e.g., cow dung) is mixed with water to form a slurry.

2. Inlet Pipe: Connects the mixing tank to the digester.

3. Digester: A large, underground, airtight tank made of bricks. It has a dome-like roof. The anaerobic decomposition takes place here.

4. Gas Outlet Pipe: A pipe at the top of the dome to draw out the produced biogas.

5. Overflow Tank: A tank connected to the digester to collect the spent slurry (manure).

\textit{(A simple labelled diagram of a fixed-dome biogas plant should be drawn here showing these parts).


Working Method:

1. Preparation of Slurry: A slurry is prepared by mixing cattle dung and water in equal proportions in the mixing tank.

2. Feeding the Digester: The slurry is fed into the digester through the inlet pipe. The initial feeding is done until the digester is about three-fourths full.

3. Anaerobic Decomposition: In the absence of oxygen inside the digester, anaerobic microorganisms (methanogenic bacteria) decompose the complex organic compounds present in the slurry. This process takes 50-60 days.

4. Gas Production: As decomposition proceeds, biogas is produced. Biogas is mainly a mixture of methane (\(CH_4\), up to 75%), carbon dioxide (\(CO_2\)), and traces of hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide.

5. Gas Collection: The biogas, being lighter, collects in the dome of the digester. As more gas collects, it exerts pressure on the slurry.

6. Removal of Spent Slurry: The pressure of the gas forces the spent slurry into the overflow tank through an outlet opening. This spent slurry is rich in nitrogen and phosphorus and is used as an excellent manure.

7. Use of Biogas: The biogas is drawn through the gas outlet pipe and used as a clean fuel for cooking and lighting.
Quick Tip: The key to biogas production is anaerobic (without oxygen) decomposition. The dome structure is important as it traps the gas produced and the gas pressure itself helps to push out the used slurry.


Question 88:

Write three information obtained from chemical equation.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A balanced chemical equation provides several pieces of information. Three key pieces are:


1. Reactants and Products: It tells us the chemical formulas of the substances that react (reactants) and the substances that are formed (products). For example, in \(2H_2 + O_2 \rightarrow 2H_2O\), we know hydrogen and oxygen are reactants and water is the product.


2. Stoichiometry (Molar Ratios): The coefficients in a balanced equation represent the relative number of moles of reactants and products. In the above example, it tells us that 2 moles of hydrogen react with 1 mole of oxygen to produce 2 moles of water. This allows for quantitative calculations.


3. Physical States: It often indicates the physical state of each substance. This is shown by symbols in parentheses: (s) for solid, (l) for liquid, (g) for gas, and (aq) for an aqueous solution. For example, \(2H_2(g) + O_2(g) \rightarrow 2H_2O(l)\).
Quick Tip: A balanced chemical equation is like a recipe for a chemical reaction. It tells you the ingredients (reactants), the final dish (products), and the exact proportions (stoichiometric coefficients) needed.


Question 89:

Why is an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate alkaline ?

Correct Answer:
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An aqueous solution of sodium carbonate (\(Na_2CO_3\)) is alkaline due to salt hydrolysis.


1. Nature of the Salt: Sodium carbonate is a salt formed from a strong base, sodium hydroxide (NaOH), and a weak acid, carbonic acid (\(H_2CO_3\)).


2. Dissociation in Water: When dissolved in water, it dissociates completely into its ions:
\(Na_2CO_3(s) \rightarrow 2Na^+(aq) + CO_3^{2-}(aq)\)


3. Hydrolysis: The carbonate ion (\(CO_3^{2-}\)), being the conjugate base of a weak acid, reacts with water (hydrolyzes).
\(CO_3^{2-}(aq) + H_2O(l) \rightleftharpoons HCO_3^-(aq) + OH^-(aq)\)


4. Result: This reaction produces hydroxide ions (\(OH^-\)). The increase in the concentration of \(OH^-\) ions in the solution makes it alkaline (or basic), with a pH greater than 7. The sodium ions (\(Na^+\)) do not react with water as they come from a strong base.
Quick Tip: Remember the rule for salt hydrolysis: Salt of (Strong Base + Weak Acid) gives a basic solution. Salt of (Weak Base + Strong Acid) gives an acidic solution. Salt of (Strong Base + Strong Acid) gives a neutral solution.


Question 90:

What is an indicator? Write the name of an indicator.

Correct Answer:
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What is an indicator?

An indicator is a chemical substance that undergoes a distinct observable change, usually a color change, when the conditions in its solution change. In the context of acid-base chemistry, an indicator is used to determine whether a substance is acidic, basic, or neutral.


They are typically weak organic acids or bases.


Name of an indicator:

A common and well-known indicator is Litmus.


Litmus is a natural indicator extracted from lichens. It turns red in acidic solutions and blue in basic (alkaline) solutions. It is available as a solution or as paper strips (red and blue litmus paper).


Other examples include Phenolphthalein and Methyl Orange.
Quick Tip: Remember the color changes for common indicators: Litmus (Red in Acid, Blue in Base), Phenolphthalein (Colorless in Acid, Pink in Base), Methyl Orange (Red in Acid, Yellow in Base).


Question 91:

What is the difference between an atom and an ion ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The main differences between an atom and an ion are as follows:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|
\hline
Atom & Ion

\hline
It is the smallest particle of an element. & It is formed when an atom loses or gains electrons.

It is electrically neutral. & It is an electrically charged particle (positive or negative).

The number of protons equals the number of electrons. & The number of protons is not equal to the number of electrons.

It may or may not exist independently. & It cannot exist independently; it exists in solution.

It is generally unstable (except noble gases). & It is generally stable (has a complete octet).

\hline
\end{tabular


For example, a sodium atom (Na) is neutral with 11 protons and 11 electrons. A sodium ion (\(Na^+\)) is positive with 11 protons and 10 electrons.
Quick Tip: The key difference is charge. Atoms are neutral. Ions are charged. Positive ions (cations) are formed by losing electrons. Negative ions (anions) are formed by gaining electrons.


Question 92:

Define ores.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Ores are naturally occurring rocks or minerals from which one or more metals can be extracted conveniently and profitably.


For a mineral to be considered an ore, it must satisfy two conditions:

1. It must contain a sufficient concentration (a high percentage) of the desired metal.

2. The extraction of the metal from the mineral must be economically viable (i.e., the cost of extraction should be less than the value of the metal obtained).


An important point to remember is that all ores are minerals, but not all minerals are ores.


For example, Bauxite (\(Al_2O_3 \cdot 2H_2O\)) is the primary ore of aluminum because aluminum can be extracted from it profitably.
Quick Tip: Think of it this way: A mineral is just a rock with a metal in it. An ore is a special kind of mineral that has enough metal to make it worthwhile to dig it up and extract the metal.


Question 93:

Why have detergents replaced soap ?

Correct Answer:
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Detergents have largely replaced soaps for cleaning purposes, especially for washing clothes, mainly because of their effectiveness in hard water.


1. Problem with Soap in Hard Water: Hard water contains dissolved salts of calcium (\(Ca^{2+}\)) and magnesium (\(Mg^{2+}\)) ions. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids. When soap is used in hard water, it reacts with the calcium and magnesium ions to form an insoluble, sticky precipitate called scum.

This scum reduces the cleaning action of the soap and leaves a deposit on the clothes.


2. Advantage of Detergents: Detergents are sodium salts of long-chain alkyl sulphonates or alkyl benzene sulphonates. The calcium and magnesium salts of these are soluble in water. Therefore, detergents do not form scum with hard water.


Conclusion: Because detergents can produce lather and clean effectively in both soft and hard water, they are considered superior cleaning agents to soaps and have replaced them in most washing applications.
Quick Tip: The key difference is behavior in hard water: Soaps + Hard Water \(\rightarrow\) Scum. Detergents + Hard Water \(\rightarrow\) No Scum. This is the primary reason for the shift from soaps to detergents.


Question 94:

What are fossil fuels ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Fossil fuels are combustible materials formed over millions of years from the fossilized remains of dead plants and animals.


They are formed by natural processes such as the anaerobic decomposition of buried dead organisms. The intense heat and pressure from being buried deep within the Earth's crust converted this organic matter into fuel.


They are a non-renewable source of energy because they take millions of years to form and are consumed much faster than they are created.


The three main types of fossil fuels are:

1. Coal: A solid fuel formed from the remains of ancient trees and other land vegetation.

2. Petroleum (Crude Oil): A liquid fuel formed from the remains of tiny marine animals and plants.

3. Natural Gas: A gaseous fuel (mainly methane) often found alongside petroleum deposits.
Quick Tip: The word "fossil" is the key. Fossil fuels are literally fuels made from ancient fossils. This also helps you remember that they are non-renewable because you can't make millions of years pass quickly.


Question 95:

What do you understand by short and long periods of periodic table ?

Correct Answer:
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Periods are the horizontal rows in the modern periodic table. They are classified as short and long based on the number of elements they contain.


Short Periods:

The first three periods of the periodic table are called short periods.

- Period 1: Contains only 2 elements (Hydrogen and Helium). It is the shortest period.

- Period 2: Contains 8 elements (Lithium to Neon).

- Period 3: Contains 8 elements (Sodium to Argon).

These periods are considered short because they involve the filling of only s and p subshells.


Long Periods:

The periods from 4 to 7 are called long periods.

- Period 4: Contains 18 elements (Potassium to Krypton).

- Period 5: Contains 18 elements (Rubidium to Xenon).

- Period 6: Contains 32 elements (Caesium to Radon). It includes the Lanthanide series.

- Period 7: Contains 32 elements (Francium to Oganesson). It includes the Actinide series.

These periods are long because they involve the filling of s, p, and d subshells (in periods 4 and 5) or s, p, d, and f subshells (in periods 6 and 7).
Quick Tip: The length of a period is determined by the number of electrons the energy shells can accommodate. Short periods fill up to 8 electrons (s and p orbitals), while long periods fill up to 18 or 32 electrons (s, p, d, and f orbitals).


Question 96:

Differentiate between metals and non-metals on the basis of physical and chemical properties.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The differentiation between metals and non-metals is as follows:


A. On the basis of Physical Properties

\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|
\hline
Property & Metals & Non-metals

\hline
Lustre & They have a shiny surface (metallic lustre). & They have a dull surface (except iodine).

Hardness & They are generally hard (except Na, K). & They are generally soft (except diamond).

State & They are solids at room temp (except Hg). & They exist as solids, liquids, or gases.

Malleability & They can be beaten into thin sheets. & They are non-malleable (brittle).

Ductility & They can be drawn into thin wires. & They are non-ductile.

Conductivity & They are good conductors of heat and electricity. & They are poor conductors (except graphite).

Density & They generally have high densities. & They generally have low densities.

\hline
\end{tabular


B. On the basis of Chemical Properties

\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|
\hline
Property & Metals & Non-metals

\hline
Valence Electrons & They usually have 1, 2, or 3 valence electrons. & They usually have 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 valence electrons.

Ion Formation & They lose electrons to form positive ions (cations). & They gain electrons to form negative ions (anions).

Nature of Oxides & Their oxides are generally basic or amphoteric. & Their oxides are generally acidic or neutral.

Reaction with Acids & They react with dilute acids to release hydrogen gas. & They generally do not react with dilute acids.

\hline
\end{tabular
Quick Tip: The most fundamental chemical difference is their tendency with electrons: Metals are electron donors (form cations), while Non-metals are electron acceptors (form anions). This explains most of their other chemical properties.


Question 97:

What is energy crisis ? Mention the measures to resolve it.

Correct Answer:
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What is Energy Crisis?

An energy crisis is a situation in which there is a significant shortfall in the supply of energy resources relative to the growing demand. It is characterized by energy shortages and rising prices. The crisis primarily stems from our over-dependence on finite, non-renewable energy sources like fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) which are being depleted at a rapid rate.


Measures to Resolve the Energy Crisis:

The energy crisis can be resolved by a two-pronged approach: conserving existing resources and developing alternative sources.


1. Conservation of Energy: We must reduce the wasteful consumption of energy.

- Using energy-efficient appliances (like LED bulbs and star-rated devices).

- Promoting the use of public transportation, carpooling, or cycling to save fuel.

- Switching off lights, fans, and other electrical appliances when not in use.

- Improving insulation in buildings to reduce heating and cooling costs.


2. Switching to Renewable Energy Sources: We must reduce our dependency on fossil fuels by harnessing renewable energy.

- Solar Energy: Installing solar panels for electricity generation and solar water heaters.

- Wind Energy: Setting up wind farms to generate electricity.

- Hydroelectric Energy: Building dams to generate electricity from flowing water.

- Biomass Energy: Using biogas plants to produce fuel from organic waste.


3. Improving Technology: Research and development of more efficient technologies for energy extraction, generation, and use.


4. Public Awareness: Creating awareness among people about the severity of the energy crisis and educating them on ways to save energy.
Quick Tip: The mantra to solve the energy crisis is: "Energy Saved is Energy Generated." Conservation is the quickest, cheapest, and cleanest way to address the problem, while we simultaneously transition to sustainable, renewable energy sources.


Question 98:

Write the names of four organelles of a cell.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Four important organelles found in a eukaryotic cell are:

1. Nucleus: Often called the "control center" of the cell, it contains the cell's genetic material (DNA) and controls its growth, metabolism, and reproduction.

2. Mitochondrion (plural: Mitochondria): Known as the "powerhouse" of the cell, it is the site of cellular respiration where glucose is broken down to produce ATP (energy currency).

3. Ribosome: These are the sites of protein synthesis. They can be found floating in the cytoplasm or attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.

4. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER): A network of membranes involved in protein and lipid synthesis. It can be smooth (SER) or rough (RER, studded with ribosomes).
Quick Tip: Other important organelles include the Golgi Apparatus (packaging and transport), Lysosomes (digestion and waste removal), Vacuoles (storage), and Chloroplasts (site of photosynthesis in plant cells).


Question 99:

Define respiration.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Respiration is the metabolic process in living organisms through which energy is released from the breakdown of complex organic substances (like glucose).


It can be broadly defined in two ways:

1. Physiological Respiration (Breathing): The process of gas exchange where an organism takes in oxygen from the environment and releases carbon dioxide.

2. Cellular Respiration: The biochemical process that occurs within the cells, where glucose is oxidized to produce carbon dioxide, water, and a large amount of energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate).


The overall equation for aerobic cellular respiration is:
\(C_6H_{12}O_6\) (Glucose) + \(6O_2\) (Oxygen) \(\rightarrow\) \(6CO_2\) (Carbon Dioxide) + \(6H_2O\) (Water) + Energy (ATP)
Quick Tip: Do not confuse respiration with breathing. Breathing is just the physical act of inhaling and exhaling. Respiration is the chemical reaction inside the cells that actually produces the energy for life processes.


Question 100:

What is the difference between xylem and phloem ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Xylem and phloem are the two vascular tissues in plants that are responsible for transport. The key differences are:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|
\hline
Feature & Xylem & Phloem

\hline
Function & Transports water and dissolved minerals. & Transports food (sugars like sucrose).

Direction of Flow & Unidirectional (upwards from roots to leaves). & Bidirectional (from leaves to other parts like roots, fruits).

Nature of Cells & Composed mainly of dead cells (tracheids, vessels). & Composed mainly of living cells (sieve tubes, companion cells).

Driving Force & Passive transport, driven by transpiration pull. & Active transport, requires energy (ATP).

\hline
\end{tabular
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember their functions: Xylem moves water and minerals up, while Phloem moves food (phood) all around the plant.


Question 101:

What is excretion? Write the names of its two main parts.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



What is excretion?

Excretion is the biological process by which metabolic waste products and other non-useful, potentially harmful substances are removed from the body of an organism. It is essential for maintaining homeostasis (a stable internal environment).


In humans, the main excretory product is urea, which is formed from the breakdown of proteins.


Two main parts of the excretory system:

The human excretory system consists of several organs. Two of its main parts are:

1. Kidneys: A pair of bean-shaped organs that filter waste products from the blood to produce urine. They are the primary organs of excretion.

2. Urinary Bladder: A muscular sac that stores urine received from the kidneys before it is eliminated from the body.


(Other parts include the ureters and the urethra).
Quick Tip: Excretion is not the same as egestion (defecation). Excretion removes metabolic waste (like urea from blood), while egestion removes undigested food from the digestive tract.


Question 102:

What is phototropism ?

Correct Answer:
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Phototropism is the directional growth of a plant in response to a light stimulus. The word comes from 'photo' meaning light and 'tropism' meaning turning.


There are two types of phototropism:

1. Positive Phototropism: The growth of a plant part towards the source of light. Plant shoots and stems exhibit positive phototropism, which helps them maximize light absorption for photosynthesis.

2. Negative Phototropism: The growth of a plant part away from the source of light. Plant roots typically show negative phototropism, growing downwards into the soil away from light.


This response is controlled by the plant hormone auxin. Light causes auxin to accumulate on the shaded side of the stem, which promotes cell elongation on that side, causing the stem to bend towards the light.
Quick Tip: Remember that tropic movements are directional. For phototropism, the direction is determined by the location of the light source. Shoots grow towards light (+), roots grow away from light (-).


Question 103:

What is pollination ?

Correct Answer:
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Pollination is the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther (the male part of a flower) to the stigma (the female part of a flower).


This transfer is a crucial step in the sexual reproduction of flowering plants, as it precedes fertilization.


There are two main types of pollination:

1. Self-Pollination: The transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or another flower on the same plant.

2. Cross-Pollination: The transfer of pollen from the anther of a flower on one plant to the stigma of a flower on a different plant of the same species.


Pollination can be carried out by various agents, including wind, water, insects (like bees and butterflies), birds, and bats.
Quick Tip: Pollination is simply the transfer of pollen. Fertilization, which happens after pollination, is the fusion of the male gamete (from the pollen) with the female gamete (in the ovule).


Question 104:

How is DNA the basis of heredity ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is the fundamental basis of heredity for the following reasons:

1. Carrier of Genetic Information: DNA is the molecule that carries the genetic instructions for the development, functioning, growth, and reproduction of all known organisms. This information is stored in the sequence of its nucleotide bases (A, T, C, G).

2. Genes as Functional Units: A specific segment of DNA that codes for a functional product, either RNA or a protein, is called a gene. Proteins are responsible for expressing specific traits (e.g., eye color, blood type).

3. Self-Replication: DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself through a process called replication. This ensures that the genetic information is passed on faithfully from a parent cell to its daughter cells during cell division.

4. Transmission to Offspring: During sexual reproduction, each parent contributes half of their DNA to the offspring. This transmission of DNA from one generation to the next is the essence of heredity.


In summary, DNA contains the blueprint for an organism's traits and has the mechanism to pass this blueprint on to the next generation.
Quick Tip: Think of DNA as a detailed instruction manual. Heredity is the process of passing a copy of this manual from parents to their children, ensuring the children have the instructions to build and operate their bodies.


Question 105:

What are the harmful effects of aerosol chemicals ?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The most harmful aerosol chemicals that were widely used in the past are Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). Their harmful effects are primarily on the environment:


1. Ozone Layer Depletion: This is the most significant harmful effect.

- When CFCs are released into the atmosphere, they rise to the stratosphere.

- There, ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun breaks them down, releasing highly reactive chlorine atoms.

- These chlorine atoms act as catalysts, destroying thousands of ozone (\(O_3\)) molecules.

- The depletion of the ozone layer allows more harmful UV-B radiation to reach the Earth's surface.


2. Consequences of Ozone Depletion: The increased UV radiation can cause:

- Higher rates of skin cancer and eye cataracts in humans.

- Weakening of the human immune system.

- Damage to crops and a reduction in agricultural productivity.

- Harm to marine ecosystems, particularly plankton, which are at the base of the food chain.


3. Contribution to Global Warming: CFCs are also potent greenhouse gases. They are very effective at trapping heat in the atmosphere, thus contributing to the greenhouse effect and global warming.
Quick Tip: When you see "aerosol chemicals," immediately think of CFCs and their primary harmful effect: destroying the ozone layer in the stratosphere.


Question 106:

What is photosynthesis ? Describe it with a suitable diagram.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



What is Photosynthesis?

Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy. During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water are used in the presence of chlorophyll and sunlight to synthesize glucose (a sugar/food) and release oxygen as a byproduct.


It is the primary process that sustains life on Earth by producing food and oxygen.


The overall balanced chemical equation for photosynthesis is:
\(6CO_2\) (Carbon Dioxide) + \(6H_2O\) (Water) \(\xrightarrow{Sunlight, Chlorophyll}\) \(C_6H_{12}O_6\) (Glucose) + \(6O_2\) (Oxygen)


Description and Diagram:

Photosynthesis mainly occurs in the leaves of plants, inside specialized organelles called chloroplasts.


\textit{(A labelled diagram of the cross-section of a leaf should be drawn here. The diagram should show: Cuticle, Upper Epidermis, Palisade Mesophyll with chloroplasts, Spongy Mesophyll, Air Spaces, Guard Cells, Stomata, and Vascular Bundle (Xylem and Phloem). Arrows should indicate the entry of sunlight and \(CO_2\) and the exit of \(O_2\).)


The main events that occur during photosynthesis are:

1. Absorption of Light Energy: The green pigment chlorophyll, present in the chloroplasts of leaf cells, absorbs energy from sunlight.

2. Conversion of Energy and Photolysis: The absorbed light energy is converted into chemical energy. This energy is used to split water molecules (\(H_2O\)) into hydrogen and oxygen. This process is called photolysis of water. Oxygen is released as a byproduct through the stomata.

3. Reduction of Carbon Dioxide: Carbon dioxide (\(CO_2\)), which enters the leaf through the stomata, is reduced using the chemical energy produced in the previous step to form carbohydrates (glucose). This glucose is then used by the plant for energy or stored as starch.
Quick Tip: Remember the three key events of photosynthesis in order: 1. Light Absorption, 2. Energy Conversion & Water Splitting, 3. CO2 Reduction. The entire process is about converting light energy into the chemical energy of food.


Question 107:

Explain recycling of waste materials with examples.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Recycling of Waste Materials:

Recycling is the process of collecting and processing waste materials that would otherwise be thrown away as trash and turning them into new products. It is a vital part of the "Reduce, Reuse, Recycle" waste management hierarchy.


Importance of Recycling:

- It conserves natural resources like timber, water, and minerals.

- It saves energy, as manufacturing from recycled materials is often less energy-intensive.

- It reduces the amount of waste sent to landfills and incinerators.

- It prevents pollution by reducing the need to collect new raw materials.


Examples of Recycling:

1. Paper:

- \textit{Process: Waste paper products like newspapers, magazines, and cardboard boxes are collected. They are then processed at a mill where they are cleaned, mixed with water to form a pulp, and then remade into new paper products like newsprint or cardboard.

- \textit{Benefit: Recycling one ton of paper can save about 17 trees, 7,000 gallons of water, and significant amounts of energy.


2. Plastics:

- \textit{Process: Plastic waste, such as PET bottles, is collected, sorted by plastic type, cleaned, shredded into flakes, melted, and formed into small pellets. These pellets can then be used to manufacture new products.

- \textit{Example Products: Recycled plastics are used to make items like fleece jackets, carpets, plastic lumber, and new bottles.


3. Glass:

- \textit{Process: Used glass bottles and jars are collected, sorted by color, crushed into small pieces called 'cullet', melted in a furnace, and then molded into new glass containers.

- \textit{Benefit: Recycling glass is highly efficient. A glass bottle can be recycled indefinitely without any loss in quality. It also reduces the need to quarry for sand, soda ash, and limestone.


4. Metals:

- \textit{Process: Metal items like aluminum cans and steel containers are collected, shredded, cleaned, melted down, and then recast to make new metal products.

- \textit{Benefit: Recycling aluminum is particularly beneficial, as it uses only about 5% of the energy required to produce new aluminum from its ore (bauxite).
Quick Tip: Recycling is not just about throwing things in a different bin. It's an industrial process that turns old products into raw materials for new products, thus closing the "loop" in a product's life cycle and promoting a more sustainable, circular economy.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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