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Bihar Board Class 10 Science 212 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set F

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Dipanwita Pramanik

Content Writer | Updated On - Nov 20, 2025

Bihar Board Class 10 Science 212 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set F  is available for download. The Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB) conducted the Class 10 examination for a total duration of 3 hours, and the question paper was of a total of 100 marks.

Bihar Board Class 10 Science 212 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set F 

Bihar Board Class 10 Science 212 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set F  Download PDF Check Solutions
Bihar Board Class 10 Science 212 Question Paper with Solutions 2025 Set F

Question 1:

The hormone that controls the symptoms of puberty in adolescents is

  • (A) Thyroxine
  • (B) Estrogen
  • (C) Testosterone
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Testosterone
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Puberty is the process of physical maturation where an adolescent's body becomes capable of reproduction.


This process is driven by sex hormones.


In males, the testes produce testosterone, which is the primary male sex hormone.


Testosterone is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in males, such as a deepening voice, growth of facial and body hair, and muscle development.


In females, the primary hormone is estrogen, but testosterone is the most significant hormone for male puberty symptoms.


Given the options, Testosterone is the correct Solution as it is a key hormone controlling puberty in adolescents, especially males.
Quick Tip: Remember the primary sex hormones: Testosterone for males (androgens) and Estrogen for females. Both hormones are responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics during puberty.


Question 2:

At what stage of foetus does safe abortion occur?

  • (A) Blastula
  • (B) Organ formation
  • (C) Mature embryo
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Mature embryo
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Safe medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) or abortion is legally and medically considered safest during the first trimester, which is up to 12 weeks of pregnancy.


Let's evaluate the stages:


(A) Blastula is a very early stage (around 5-9 days post-fertilization), often before pregnancy is even confirmed.


(B) Organ formation (organogenesis) occurs mainly between the 3rd and 8th weeks, which is within the safe period.


(C) The embryonic period lasts until the end of the 8th week. A "Mature embryo" would be at this 8-week mark, where basic organ systems are formed. This is well within the first trimester and a common time for such procedures.


Comparing the options, an abortion is performed on a developing embryo/fetus. The term "Mature embryo" best represents the developmental stage within the first trimester when safe abortions are typically performed.
Quick Tip: The first trimester (up to 12 weeks of pregnancy) is the safest period for a medical abortion. Risks increase significantly in the second and third trimesters.


Question 3:

Which of the following is an artificial ecosystem?

  • (A) Park
  • (B) Aquarium
  • (C) Garden
  • (D) All of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Aquarium
Correct Answer:
View Solution



An artificial ecosystem is a man-made system of plants, animals, and their environment.


These ecosystems are created and maintained by humans and cannot sustain themselves without human intervention.


(A) Park and (C) Garden are man-made but are open systems that interact with the natural environment (sunlight, rain, local wildlife).


(B) An aquarium is a completely enclosed and controlled environment. Humans regulate the light, temperature, water quality, and food supply. The organisms within are also selected by humans.


Therefore, an aquarium is the most distinct and clear example of an artificial ecosystem.
Quick Tip: Artificial ecosystems, also known as man-made ecosystems, include aquariums, crop fields, and gardens. A key feature is the high degree of human control and energy input required to maintain them.


Question 4:

Which substance cannot be decomposed in the environment?

  • (A) Dry leaves
  • (B) Food
  • (C) Dead organism
  • (D) Plastic
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) Plastic
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Decomposition is the natural process where organic materials are broken down by microorganisms like bacteria and fungi.


Substances that can be broken down by this process are called biodegradable.


Substances that cannot be broken down by natural organisms are called non-biodegradable.


(A) Dry leaves, (B) Food, and (C) Dead organism are all organic and biodegradable materials.


(D) Plastic is a synthetic polymer that is not recognized by decomposer organisms and persists in the environment for a very long time.


Hence, plastic is a non-biodegradable substance that cannot be decomposed.
Quick Tip: Biodegradable materials are of biological origin (e.g., paper, wood, food waste). Non-biodegradable materials are typically synthetic (e.g., plastic, glass, metal) and cause long-term pollution.


Question 5:

The correct food chain is

  • (A) Fish → Grass → Cow
  • (B) Goat → Grass → Deer
  • (C) Grass → Deer → Lion
  • (D) Bird → Snake → Grass
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Grass → Deer → Lion
Correct Answer:
View Solution



A food chain shows how energy is transferred from one living organism to another.


It must start with a producer (an organism that makes its own food, like a plant).


The arrow (→) indicates the direction of energy flow, meaning "is eaten by".


Let's check the options:

(A) Fish → Grass → Cow: Illogical. Cows don't eat fish.


(B) Goat → Grass → Deer: Incorrect order. It starts with a consumer. Also, deer don't eat goats.


(C) Grass → Deer → Lion: Correct. Grass (producer) is eaten by a deer (primary consumer), which is then eaten by a lion (secondary consumer).


(D) Bird → Snake → Grass: Incorrect order. It must start with the producer (Grass).
Quick Tip: A food chain always begins with a producer (like grass) and is followed by consumers. The arrows point from the organism being eaten to the organism that eats it.


Question 6:

The substances which get decomposed by biological process are

  • (A) Non-biodegradable
  • (B) Inert
  • (C) Biodegradable
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Biodegradable
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The question asks for the term used to describe substances that are decomposed by biological processes.


Biological processes of decomposition are carried out by living organisms, primarily microorganisms like bacteria and fungi.


The definition of a biodegradable substance is one that can be broken down or decomposed by the action of living organisms.


(A) Non-biodegradable substances are those that cannot be decomposed by biological processes.


(B) Inert substances are chemically inactive.


Therefore, the correct term is biodegradable.
Quick Tip: The prefix "bio-" refers to life or living organisms. "Degrade" means to break down. So, "biodegradable" literally means "can be broken down by life".


Question 7:

Waste can be managed by which of the following?

  • (A) Burning it out of the city
  • (B) Using in filling pits
  • (C) Recycling of some wastes
  • (D) All of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) All of these
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Waste management refers to the collection, transport, processing, and disposal of waste materials.


Let's examine the options as methods of waste management:


(A) Burning it out of the city (Incineration) is a method used to reduce the volume of waste.


(B) Using in filling pits (Landfill) is a common method for disposing of solid waste.


(C) Recycling of some wastes is a key part of modern waste management, where materials are reprocessed to make new products.


Since all three options are valid methods of waste management, the correct Solution is (D) All of these.
Quick Tip: The "3 Rs" of waste management are Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle. These are strategies to minimize waste and its environmental impact. Incineration and landfills are also common disposal methods.


Question 8:

Which disease can be caused in humans by the ultraviolet rays of the sun?

  • (A) Lung cancer
  • (B) T. B.
  • (C) Oral cancer
  • (D) Skin cancer
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) Skin cancer
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Ultraviolet (UV) radiation is a component of sunlight.


Overexposure to UV rays can damage the DNA in skin cells.


This DNA damage can lead to mutations that cause the skin cells to grow out of control, resulting in cancer.


Therefore, exposure to the ultraviolet rays of the sun is a primary cause of skin cancer.


Other options like lung cancer, tuberculosis (T.B.), and oral cancer are not directly caused by UV radiation.
Quick Tip: The ozone layer in the Earth's stratosphere absorbs most of the sun's harmful UV radiation. Depletion of the ozone layer increases the risk of diseases like skin cancer and cataracts.


Question 9:

Which quantity is electric potential?

  • (A) Scalar quantity
  • (B) Vector quantity
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Scalar quantity
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Physical quantities are classified as either scalar or vector.


A scalar quantity is one that has only magnitude (a numerical value) but no direction. Examples include mass, time, temperature, and energy.


A vector quantity has both magnitude and direction. Examples include force, velocity, and acceleration.


Electric potential (or voltage) at a point is defined as the work done per unit charge in bringing a charge from infinity to that point.


Work and charge are both scalar quantities. The ratio of two scalars is a scalar.


Therefore, electric potential is a scalar quantity. It has a magnitude (e.g., 12 Volts) but no associated direction.
Quick Tip: Remember the difference: Scalar has magnitude only (e.g., speed = 60 km/h). Vector has magnitude and direction (e.g., velocity = 60 km/h North). Electric potential is a scalar, but the electric field is a vector.


Question 10:

The action of electric motor is based on

  • (A) Electric current and magnetic effect
  • (B) Rotation of armature
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Electric current and magnetic effect
Correct Answer:
View Solution



An electric motor is a device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy (rotation).


The fundamental principle on which an electric motor operates is the magnetic effect of electric current.


This principle states that when a conductor carrying an electric current is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a mechanical force.


In a motor, a coil of wire (the armature) is placed in a magnetic field. When current flows through the coil, the force on the wires causes the coil to rotate.


Option (B), the rotation of the armature, is the result or the action of the motor, not the underlying principle it is based on.


Therefore, the action of an electric motor is based on the magnetic effect produced by an electric current.
Quick Tip: Remember the energy conversions: An electric motor converts electrical energy to mechanical energy. An electric generator does the opposite, converting mechanical energy to electrical energy (based on electromagnetic induction).


Question 11:

From which of the following does the induced current get direction?

  • (A) By Lenz's law
  • (B) By left hand rule
  • (C) By right hand rule
  • (D) By Ohm's law
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) By Lenz's law
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The direction of the induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) and hence the induced current in a conductor is governed by Lenz's Law.


Lenz's Law is a consequence of the principle of conservation of energy.


It states that the direction of the induced current will be such that it opposes the change in magnetic flux that produced it.


While Fleming's Right-Hand Rule is a practical way to find the direction, Lenz's law is the fundamental principle that explains why the current flows in that particular direction.


Therefore, Lenz's law is the fundamental basis for determining the direction of induced current.
Quick Tip: Remember the distinction: Fleming's Right-Hand Rule is a tool for finding the direction of induced current in a generator. Lenz's Law is the fundamental principle of energy conservation that dictates this direction. The Left-Hand Rule is for the force on a current-carrying wire in a magnetic field (motor principle).


Question 12:

The frequency of alternating electric current produced in India is

  • (A) 80 Hz
  • (B) 70 Hz
  • (C) 60 Hz
  • (D) 50 Hz
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) 50 Hz
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The frequency of an alternating current (AC) is the number of cycles it completes per second. The unit of frequency is Hertz (Hz).


Different countries have standardized different frequencies for their power grids.


In India, and many other countries in Europe, Asia, and Africa, the standard frequency for AC electricity supply is 50 Hz.


In North America and some other regions, the standard frequency is 60 Hz.


Therefore, the frequency of AC produced in India is 50 Hz.
Quick Tip: This is a factual value to memorize. India's standard AC supply is 220-240 Volts at 50 Hz. In the USA, it's 120 Volts at 60 Hz.


Question 13:

What will be the resistance of the wire when its length increases?

  • (A) Decreases
  • (B) Increases
  • (C) Remains constant
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Increases
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The resistance (R) of a wire is given by the formula R = \(\rho \frac{L}{A}\).


Here, \(\rho\) (rho) is the resistivity of the material, L is the length of the wire, and A is the cross-sectional area.


From the formula, it is clear that the resistance (R) is directly proportional to the length (L) of the wire, assuming resistivity and area are constant.


R \(\propto\) L


Therefore, if the length of the wire increases, its resistance will also increase.
Quick Tip: Remember the relationships for resistance: 1. Directly proportional to length (longer wire = more resistance). 2. Inversely proportional to cross-sectional area (thicker wire = less resistance).


Question 14:

Electrical resistivity of silver at 20°C is

  • (A) \(49 \times 10^{-6}\) \(\Omega\)m
  • (B) \(1.60 \times 10^{-8}\) \(\Omega\)m
  • (C) \(10^{12}\) \(\Omega\)m
  • (D) \(6.84 \times 10^{-8}\) \(\Omega\)m
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) \(1.60 \times 10^{-8}\) \(\Omega\)m
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Electrical resistivity is an intrinsic property of a material that measures how strongly it resists the flow of electric current.


Metals are good conductors and have very low resistivity values.


Silver is the best known electrical conductor among all metals.


The standard value for the electrical resistivity of silver at room temperature (20°C) is approximately \(1.59 \times 10^{-8}\) \(\Omega\)m, which is rounded to \(1.60 \times 10^{-8}\) \(\Omega\)m.


This value is the lowest among common conducting materials, confirming its high conductivity.
Quick Tip: It's helpful to remember the relative conductivity of common metals. The order from most conductive to least is Silver > Copper > Gold > Aluminum. This means silver has the lowest resistivity.


Question 15:

Which gas is not released when fossil fuels are burnt?

  • (A) Oxygen gas
  • (B) Carbon dioxide gas
  • (C) Sulphur dioxide gas
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Oxygen gas
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Burning, or combustion, is a chemical reaction between a substance (the fuel) and an oxidant, usually oxygen, to produce heat and light.


Fossil fuels (like coal, oil, and natural gas) are hydrocarbons, containing primarily carbon and hydrogen.


The process of burning consumes oxygen from the atmosphere; it does not release it.


For example, the combustion of methane (a fossil fuel) is: \(CH_4 + 2O_2 \rightarrow CO_2 + 2H_2O\).


Oxygen (\(O_2\)) is a reactant (it gets used up), not a product.


Burning fossil fuels releases gases like carbon dioxide (\(CO_2\)), and if impurities like sulfur are present, sulfur dioxide (\(SO_2\)) is also released.


Therefore, oxygen gas is not released during the burning of fossil fuels.
Quick Tip: Combustion is a process that consumes oxygen. Any question asking what is released during burning will not have oxygen as the Solution, unless it's a very specific, non-standard chemical reaction.


Question 16:

Which of the following is the main component of biogas?

  • (A) \(H_2S\)
  • (B) \(H_2\)
  • (C) \(CO_2\)
  • (D) \(CH_4\)
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) \(CH_4\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Biogas is produced from the anaerobic (in the absence of oxygen) decomposition of organic matter like animal waste or plant material.


The composition of biogas can vary, but it primarily consists of methane and carbon dioxide.


The main component, which is responsible for its fuel value, is methane (\(CH_4\)).


Biogas is typically composed of 50-75% methane (\(CH_4\)), 25-50% carbon dioxide (\(CO_2\)), and trace amounts of other gases like hydrogen sulfide (\(H_2S\)) and hydrogen (\(H_2\)).


Since methane is present in the highest concentration, it is considered the main component of biogas.
Quick Tip: Remember that the flammable component of both biogas and natural gas is methane (\(CH_4\)). This makes it the most important and main component when considering them as fuels.


Question 17:

Tincture iodine solution is prepared in

  • (A) Ethyl alcohol
  • (B) Chloroform
  • (C) Carbon tetrachloride
  • (D) Ether
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Ethyl alcohol
Correct Answer:
View Solution



A tincture is a solution where the solvent is typically ethanol (ethyl alcohol).


Tincture of iodine is a common antiseptic.


It is prepared by dissolving iodine (the solute) in a mixture of ethanol and water.


Sometimes potassium iodide or sodium iodide is also added to increase the solubility of the iodine.


The primary solvent used to create the tincture is ethyl alcohol.
Quick Tip: The word "tincture" in chemistry or pharmacy almost always implies that alcohol (specifically, ethanol) is the solvent used to extract or dissolve the active ingredients.


Question 18:

The IUPAC name of \(CH_3CH_2CH_2OH\) is

  • (A) 2-propanol
  • (B) Propyl alcohol
  • (C) 1-propanol
  • (D) 3-propanol
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) 1-propanol
Correct Answer:
View Solution



To find the IUPAC name, we follow a set of rules:


1. Identify the longest carbon chain containing the functional group. The chain has three carbon atoms, so the root word is "prop-".


2. Identify the functional group. The functional group is -OH, which is an alcohol. The suffix for an alcohol is "-ol". So the parent name is "propanol".


3. Number the carbon chain to give the functional group the lowest possible number. We number from the right side: \(C^3H_3-C^2H_2-C^1H_2OH\).


4. The -OH group is attached to carbon number 1.


5. Therefore, the full IUPAC name is propan-1-ol, or simply 1-propanol.


Propyl alcohol is its common name, not the IUPAC name.
Quick Tip: IUPAC Naming Steps for Alcohols: 1. Find the longest carbon chain (root name). 2. Add the suffix "-ol". 3. Number the chain to give the -OH group the lowest number. 4. State the number before the "-ol" (e.g., propan-1-ol) or before the root name (e.g., 1-propanol).


Question 19:

Which of the following is liquid at room temperature?

  • (A) Ethanol
  • (B) Methane
  • (C) Ethane
  • (D) Ethyne
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Ethanol
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Room temperature is generally considered to be around 20-25°C. We need to check the physical state of each substance at this temperature.


(A) Ethanol (\(C_2H_5OH\)): It is a liquid with a boiling point of 78.37°C, which is well above room temperature.


(B) Methane (\(CH_4\)): It is the simplest alkane and is a gas at room temperature. Its boiling point is -161.6°C.


(C) Ethane (\(C_2H_6\)): It is an alkane and is a gas at room temperature. Its boiling point is -88.6°C.


(D) Ethyne (\(C_2H_2\)): It is the simplest alkyne and is a gas at room temperature. Its boiling point is -84°C.


Therefore, among the given options, only ethanol is a liquid at room temperature.
Quick Tip: Small hydrocarbon molecules (like methane, ethane, ethyne) are typically gases at room temperature. The presence of the hydroxyl (-OH) group in ethanol leads to hydrogen bonding, which increases intermolecular forces and makes it a liquid.


Question 20:

Benzene reacts with nitric acid in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid to form

  • (A) Nitrobenzene
  • (B) Phenol
  • (C) Toluene
  • (D) Benzoic acid
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Nitrobenzene
Correct Answer:
View Solution



This reaction is a classic example of an electrophilic aromatic substitution, specifically the nitration of benzene.


The reactants are benzene (\(C_6H_6\)), nitric acid (\(HNO_3\)), and concentrated sulfuric acid (\(H_2SO_4\)) which acts as a catalyst.


The sulfuric acid protonates the nitric acid, leading to the formation of the nitronium ion (\(NO_2^+\)), which is a strong electrophile.


The electrophile (\(NO_2^+\)) then attacks the benzene ring, replacing one of the hydrogen atoms.


The product formed is benzene with a nitro group (\(NO_2\)) attached, which is called nitrobenzene (\(C_6H_5NO_2\)).


The overall reaction is: \(C_6H_6 + HNO_3 \xrightarrow{H_2SO_4} C_6H_5NO_2 + H_2O\).
Quick Tip: The combination of concentrated nitric acid and concentrated sulfuric acid is known as "nitrating mixture." It is used to add a nitro group (\(NO_2\)) to an aromatic ring.


Question 21:

Which of the following compounds can be used as fuel?

  • (A) Ethanol
  • (B) Propanol
  • (C) Ethanoic acid
  • (D) All of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Ethanol
Correct Answer:
View Solution



A fuel is a substance that undergoes combustion to release a significant amount of energy.


(A) Ethanol (\(C_2H_5OH\)) is an alcohol that is widely used as a biofuel, often blended with gasoline (e.g., gasohol). It burns cleanly to produce carbon dioxide and water.


(B) Propanol (\(C_3H_7OH\)) is also an alcohol and can be burned as a fuel, similar to ethanol.


(C) Ethanoic acid (\(CH_3COOH\)) is a carboxylic acid. While it can combust, it is not typically used as a fuel.


The question asks which compound can be used as a fuel. Both Ethanol and Propanol can be. However, Ethanol is a far more common and significant biofuel. In multiple-choice questions of this type, the most prominent example is often the intended Solution. Given that 'All of these' is incorrect (due to Ethanoic acid), and Ethanol is a major biofuel, it is the best choice.
Quick Tip: Alcohols with short carbon chains, like methanol, ethanol, and propanol, are flammable and can be used as fuels. Ethanol is the most well-known because of its use in alcoholic beverages and as a major biofuel additive.


Question 22:

Which of the following groups form the Dobereiner's triad?

  • (A) N, P, As
  • (B) F, Cl, Br
  • (C) Ca, Sr, Ba
  • (D) Be, Mg, Ca
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Ca, Sr, Ba
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Dobereiner's law of triads stated that elements could be grouped into sets of three (triads) based on similar chemical properties.


He also observed that in a triad, the atomic mass of the middle element was approximately the arithmetic mean of the atomic masses of the other two elements.


Let's check the options:


(A) N, P, As: These are in the same group, but not a classic Dobereiner triad. Avg mass of N and As = (14+75)/2 = 44.5. Mass of P is 31. Not a triad.


(B) F, Cl, Br: These are halogens with similar properties. Avg mass of F and Br = (19+80)/2 = 49.5. Mass of Cl is 35.5. This does not fit the mass rule well. (Note: The original triad was Cl, Br, I).


(C) Ca, Sr, Ba: These are alkaline earth metals with similar properties. Atomic mass of Ca ≈ 40, Ba ≈ 137. The average is (40 + 137) / 2 = 88.5. The atomic mass of the middle element, Sr, is ≈ 88. This is a perfect example of a Dobereiner's triad.


(D) Be, Mg, Ca: These are in the same group, but not a triad. Avg mass of Be and Ca = (9+40)/2 = 24.5. Mass of Mg is 24.3. While close, (C) is the classic example.

Self-correction based on re-evaluating the provided Solution key in the PDF. The checkmark in the PDF is on (B) F, Cl, Br. This is a known discrepancy in some exam questions. The triad is supposed to be Cl, Br, I. However, if forced to choose based on the provided key being (B), the justification would be based on similar chemical properties alone, as F, Cl, and Br are all halogens.
Quick Tip: The three original Dobereiner's triads are (Li, Na, K), (Ca, Sr, Ba), and (Cl, Br, I). Be aware that exam questions may sometimes list similar but technically incorrect triads like (F, Cl, Br), focusing only on the "group of three with similar properties" aspect.


Question 23:

The molecular formula of ozone is

  • (A) \(O_2\)
  • (B) \(O_3\)
  • (C) \(O_4\)
  • (D) \(O_5\)
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) \(O_3\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Ozone is an allotrope of oxygen.


An allotrope is a different structural form of the same element.


The common form of oxygen in the atmosphere that we breathe is diatomic oxygen, with the molecular formula \(O_2\).


Ozone is a molecule made up of three oxygen atoms bonded together.


Therefore, the molecular formula of ozone is \(O_3\).
Quick Tip: Remember the two main allotropes of oxygen: Diatomic oxygen (\(O_2\)) is essential for respiration, while triatomic oxygen (\(O_3\)), or ozone, forms the protective ozone layer in the stratosphere.


Question 24:

How many bonds are found between the two atoms of a molecule of oxygen gas?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) 2
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Oxygen gas consists of diatomic molecules, with the formula \(O_2\).


An oxygen atom (atomic number 8) has 6 valence electrons.


To achieve a stable octet (8 valence electrons), each oxygen atom needs to gain 2 more electrons.


The two oxygen atoms achieve this by sharing two pairs of electrons between them.


The sharing of one pair of electrons forms a single covalent bond.


Since two pairs of electrons are shared, a double covalent bond is formed between the two oxygen atoms (O=O).


Therefore, there are 2 bonds between the two atoms in a molecule of oxygen gas.
Quick Tip: Remember the bonding in common diatomic molecules: - Nitrogen (\(N_2\)) has a triple bond. - Oxygen (\(O_2\)) has a double bond. - Hydrogen (\(H_2\)) and Halogens (\(F_2, Cl_2\)) have single bonds.


Question 25:

Elements from group 13 to 18 are called

  • (A) Elements of d-block
  • (B) Elements of p-block
  • (C) Elements of s-block
  • (D) Elements of f-block
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Elements of p-block
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The modern periodic table is divided into blocks based on the orbital into which the last valence electron enters.


The blocks are named s, p, d, and f.


- s-block elements: Groups 1 and 2. The last electron enters the s-orbital.


- p-block elements: Groups 13 to 18. The last electron enters the p-orbital.


- d-block elements: Groups 3 to 12 (transition metals). The last electron enters the d-orbital.


- f-block elements: Lanthanides and Actinides (placed below the main table). The last electron enters the f-orbital.


Therefore, elements from group 13 to 18 are called p-block elements.
Quick Tip: A quick way to remember the blocks on the periodic table: s-block is on the far left (Groups 1-2), p-block is on the far right (Groups 13-18), d-block is in the middle (Groups 3-12), and f-block is at the bottom.


Question 26:

Which of the following elements has the highest number of valence electrons?

  • (A) Al
  • (B) P
  • (C) Na
  • (D) Si
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) P
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Valence electrons are the electrons in the outermost shell of an atom. For main group elements, the number of valence electrons corresponds to the last digit of their group number or (Group Number - 10) for groups 13-18.


Let's find the number of valence electrons for each element:


(A) Aluminum (Al) is in Group 13. It has 3 valence electrons.


(B) Phosphorus (P) is in Group 15. It has 5 valence electrons.


(C) Sodium (Na) is in Group 1. It has 1 valence electron.


(D) Silicon (Si) is in Group 14. It has 4 valence electrons.


Comparing the values (1, 3, 4, 5), Phosphorus (P) has the highest number of valence electrons, which is 5.
Quick Tip: For main group elements (Groups 1, 2, and 13-18), you can quickly find the number of valence electrons from the group number. For Group 1, it's 1; Group 2, it's 2; Group 13, it's 3; Group 14, it's 4, and so on.


Question 27:

Which of the following is a pollution free source of energy?

  • (A) Solar energy
  • (B) Hydro-electric energy
  • (C) Wind energy
  • (D) All of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) All of these
Correct Answer:
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A pollution-free source of energy is one that does not release pollutants like greenhouse gases or harmful particulate matter during its operation.


(A) Solar energy: Converts sunlight into electricity (photovoltaics) or heat. It produces no emissions during operation.


(B) Hydro-electric energy: Uses the kinetic energy of flowing water to generate electricity. It produces no emissions during operation.


(C) Wind energy: Uses the kinetic energy of wind to turn turbines and generate electricity. It produces no emissions during operation.


All three are forms of renewable energy and are considered clean or pollution-free because they do not involve the combustion of fossil fuels.


Therefore, "All of these" is the correct Solution.
Quick Tip: While renewable sources like solar, wind, and hydro are pollution-free during operation, it's important to remember that their manufacturing and installation can have an environmental impact. However, in the context of energy generation, they are considered "clean".


Question 28:

Which of the following is responsible for the depletion of ozone layer?

  • (A) Sulphur
  • (B) Carbon dioxide
  • (C) Carbon
  • (D) Chlorofluorocarbon
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) Chlorofluorocarbon
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The ozone layer is a region in Earth's stratosphere that absorbs most of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet radiation.


Ozone depletion refers to the thinning of this protective layer.


The primary cause of ozone depletion is the release of man-made chemicals known as ozone-depleting substances (ODS).


The most significant of these are Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).


In the stratosphere, UV radiation breaks down CFCs, releasing chlorine atoms. These chlorine atoms then act as catalysts to destroy ozone molecules (\(O_3\)).


Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas that causes global warming but does not directly deplete the ozone layer.


Therefore, Chlorofluorocarbons are the main substances responsible for ozone layer depletion.
Quick Tip: Remember the difference: Greenhouse gases (like \(CO_2\)) trap heat, causing global warming. Ozone-depleting substances (like CFCs) destroy the ozone layer, increasing UV radiation exposure.


Question 29:

'Ahar and Pyne' is the water harvesting system of which state?

  • (A) Bihar
  • (B) Uttar Pradesh
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) Madhya Pradesh
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Bihar
Correct Answer:
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'Ahar and Pyne' is a traditional floodwater harvesting system.


This system is indigenous to South Bihar.


Ahars are reservoirs with embankments on three sides, built at the end of diversion channels called pynes.


Pynes are artificial channels that divert river water during floods to the fields or to the ahars for storage.


This system is a sophisticated method of water management for irrigation and flood control that has been used for centuries in the region.


Therefore, this system is from the state of Bihar.
Quick Tip: It is useful to be familiar with some of India's traditional water harvesting systems: - Khadins and Johads in Rajasthan. - Bandharas and Tals in Maharashtra. - Bundhis in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. - Ahar-Pynes in Bihar.


Question 30:

Which of the following is a natural resource?

  • (A) Soil
  • (B) Water
  • (C) Air
  • (D) All of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) All of these
Correct Answer:
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Natural resources are materials or substances that occur in nature and can be used for economic gain.


They are not man-made and are essential for life on Earth.


Let's examine the options:


(A) Soil is the upper layer of earth in which plants grow, a vital natural resource for agriculture.


(B) Water is a naturally occurring liquid, essential for all known forms of life.


(C) Air is the mixture of gases that surrounds the Earth, essential for respiration.


Since soil, water, and air all occur naturally and are vital for life, they are all considered natural resources.


Therefore, "All of these" is the correct Solution.
Quick Tip: Natural resources are broadly classified into renewable (like air, water, solar energy) and non-renewable (like fossil fuels, minerals). Soil, water, and air are fundamental renewable natural resources.


Question 31:

Which of the following is a forest based industry?

  • (A) Lac industry
  • (B) Paper industry
  • (C) Timber industry
  • (D) All of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) All of these
Correct Answer:
View Solution



A forest-based industry is one that uses raw materials obtained from forests.


(A) The lac industry uses lac, a resinous secretion from lac insects that live on certain trees. This is a forest product.


(B) The paper industry uses wood pulp, which is primarily derived from forest trees.


(C) The timber industry involves the harvesting and processing of wood (timber) from forests for construction and furniture.


Since lac, paper, and timber are all derived from forest resources, all the listed industries are forest-based.
Quick Tip: Forest products are categorized into major products (timber) and minor products (bamboo, gums, resins, lac, etc.). Industries based on any of these are considered forest-based industries.


Question 32:

We can get iodine in adequate quantity from which of the following?

  • (A) Rice
  • (B) Salt
  • (C) Sugar
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Salt
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Iodine is a micronutrient essential for the synthesis of thyroid hormones in the human body.


Iodine deficiency can lead to disorders like goiter.


To combat this, a public health measure involves fortifying a commonly consumed food item with iodine.


Common table salt (sodium chloride) is widely used for this purpose, and this fortified salt is known as iodized salt.


While some seafood is naturally rich in iodine, among the given staple options, iodized salt is the designated source for adequate iodine intake.
Quick Tip: The process of adding micronutrients like iodine, iron, or vitamins to staple foods is called fortification. Iodized salt is one of the most successful examples of food fortification globally.


Question 33:

Which of the following is the primary source of energy in fossil fuels?

  • (A) Moon
  • (B) Nuclear fusion
  • (C) Sun
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Sun
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Fossil fuels like coal, petroleum, and natural gas are formed from the remains of ancient plants and animals that lived millions of years ago.


These ancient plants captured energy from the sun through the process of photosynthesis and stored it in their organic matter.


Animals ate these plants, incorporating this stored energy into their own bodies.


When these organisms died, their remains were buried and converted into fossil fuels under heat and pressure over millions of years.


Therefore, the energy stored in fossil fuels is essentially ancient solar energy that was captured by living organisms. The Sun is the primary source.
Quick Tip: Most of the energy sources on Earth (fossil fuels, wind, hydropower, biomass) are indirect forms of solar energy. The main exceptions are geothermal energy (from the Earth's core), nuclear energy (from atomic nuclei), and tidal energy (from the moon's gravity).


Question 34:

In which of the following forms is energy available in the oceans?

  • (A) Tidal energy
  • (B) Wave energy
  • (C) Oceanic thermal energy
  • (D) All of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) All of these
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Oceans are a vast reservoir of energy in various forms.


(A) Tidal energy is derived from the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sun.


(B) Wave energy is derived from the kinetic energy of ocean waves, which are primarily generated by wind blowing over the sea surface.


(C) Oceanic thermal energy (OTEC) is derived from the temperature difference between the warm surface water and the cold deep ocean water.


All three are recognized forms of energy that can be harnessed from the oceans.
Quick Tip: Remember the three main types of ocean energy: Tidal energy (from gravity), Wave energy (from wind), and Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) (from solar heating).


Question 35:

In which state is Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant located?

  • (A) Rajasthan
  • (B) Gujarat
  • (C) Maharashtra
  • (D) Bihar
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Maharashtra
Correct Answer:
View Solution



This is a question of general knowledge regarding major infrastructure in India.


The Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS) was the first commercial nuclear power station built in India.


It is located in Tarapur, Palghar district, in the state of Maharashtra.


Therefore, the correct location is Maharashtra.
Quick Tip: It is helpful to memorize the locations of a few key nuclear power plants in India: Tarapur (Maharashtra), Rawatbhata (Rajasthan), Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Narora (Uttar Pradesh), and Kaiga (Karnataka).


Question 36:

The substances that take part in a reaction are called

  • (A) Reducing agents
  • (B) Reactants
  • (C) Oxidising agents
  • (D) Products
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Reactants
Correct Answer:
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By definition, a chemical reaction involves the transformation of one set of chemical substances into another.


The initial substances that enter into the reaction and are consumed are called reactants.


The new substances that are formed as a result of the reaction are called products.


Reducing and oxidising agents are specific types of reactants involved in redox reactions.


The general term for all substances that take part in a reaction is reactants.
Quick Tip: In a chemical equation written as A + B → C + D, the substances on the left side of the arrow (A and B) are the reactants, and the substances on the right side (C and D) are the products.


Question 37:

The reaction, in which heat is also generated along with the formation of product, is called

  • (A) Endothermic
  • (B) Oxidation
  • (C) Photosynthesis
  • (D) Exothermic
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) Exothermic
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Chemical reactions are often accompanied by an energy change, usually in the form of heat.


A reaction that releases energy into the surroundings, typically as heat, is called an exothermic reaction. The term "exo" means "out."


A reaction that absorbs energy from the surroundings is called an endothermic reaction. The term "endo" means "in."


Since the question describes a reaction that generates heat, it is an exothermic reaction.


Oxidation is a type of reaction, and photosynthesis is a specific endothermic process.
Quick Tip: Common examples of exothermic reactions include all forms of combustion (burning) and the process of respiration. A key example of an endothermic reaction is photosynthesis.


Question 38:

Oxidation is a reaction in which there is

  • (A) Dissociation of hydrogen
  • (B) Loss of electrons
  • (C) Addition of oxygen
  • (D) All of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) All of these
Correct Answer:
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Oxidation can be defined in several ways:


1. Classical definition: Oxidation is the addition of oxygen to a substance or the removal of hydrogen from a substance. "Dissociation of hydrogen" is equivalent to removal of hydrogen. So, (A) and (C) are correct.


2. Electronic concept: Oxidation is the process of losing one or more electrons. So, (B) is correct.


Since the addition of oxygen, removal (dissociation) of hydrogen, and loss of electrons are all valid definitions of oxidation, the correct Solution is (D) All of these.
Quick Tip: Use the mnemonic OIL RIG: Oxidation Is Loss (of electrons), Reduction Is Gain (of electrons). This is the most comprehensive definition of oxidation and reduction.


Question 39:

Which of the following is a synthetic indicator?

  • (A) Turmeric
  • (B) Litmus paper
  • (C) Methyl orange
  • (D) Red cabbage
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Methyl orange
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Indicators are substances that change color in the presence of an acid or a base. They can be natural or synthetic.


Natural indicators are obtained from natural sources like plants. Turmeric, litmus (from lichens), and red cabbage extract are all natural indicators.


Synthetic indicators are man-made chemicals prepared in a laboratory.


Methyl orange and phenolphthalein are two common examples of synthetic indicators used in chemistry labs.


Therefore, methyl orange is the synthetic indicator among the given options.
Quick Tip: Memorize the two most common synthetic indicators and their color changes: - Methyl Orange: Red in acid, Yellow in base (M-R-Y). - Phenolphthalein: Colorless in acid, Pink in base (P-C-P).


Question 40:

Which substance turns red litmus paper blue in aqueous solution?

  • (A) Alkali
  • (B) Acid
  • (C) Salt
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Alkali
Correct Answer:
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Litmus paper is an indicator used to test for acidity or basicity.


Acids turn blue litmus paper red.


Bases turn red litmus paper blue.


An alkali is defined as a base that is soluble in water. In its aqueous solution, an alkali produces hydroxide ions (\(OH^-\)), which are responsible for its basic properties.


Therefore, an alkali in an aqueous solution will turn red litmus paper blue.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember the litmus test for bases is the letter 'B': Bases turn red litmus Blue. For acids, remember that the 'd' in red comes after the 'c' in acid (alphabetically), so acids make litmus red.


Question 41:

Oiled paper is

  • (A) Opaque
  • (B) Transparent
  • (C) Translucent
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Translucent
Correct Answer:
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Materials can be classified based on how they interact with light.


- Opaque materials do not allow any light to pass through them (e.g., a wall).


- Transparent materials allow light to pass through them completely, and objects can be seen clearly (e.g., clear glass).


- Translucent materials allow some light to pass through but scatter it, so objects cannot be seen clearly (e.g., frosted glass).


When paper is oiled, the oil fills the tiny gaps between the paper fibers. This reduces the scattering of light, allowing more light to pass through than plain paper. However, it still scatters the light, making it translucent.
Quick Tip: Think about practical examples: a window is transparent, a book is opaque, and tracing paper or oiled paper is translucent.


Question 42:

Which of the following is the beam of light coming from the sun?

  • (A) Converged light beam
  • (B) Parallel light beam
  • (C) Diverged light beam
  • (D) All of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Parallel light beam
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The sun is a very large source of light, but it is extremely far away from the Earth.


Although the sun emits light rays in all directions (a divergent beam), the distance is so great that by the time the rays reach the Earth, they are traveling almost parallel to each other.


For all practical purposes in optics, rays of light coming from a very distant object like the sun are considered to be a parallel beam.


A converged beam comes to a point, and a diverged beam spreads out from a point.
Quick Tip: In ray diagrams, light from an object placed at "infinity" (any very large distance, like the sun) is always represented by a set of parallel rays.


Question 43:

Which of the following is the imaginary image formed in a convex mirror?

  • (A) Inverted and magnified
  • (B) Straight and small
  • (C) Straight and magnified
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Straight and small
Correct Answer:
View Solution



A convex mirror is a diverging mirror. It always forms an image with specific characteristics, regardless of where the object is placed in front of it.


The properties of the image formed by a convex mirror are:

1. Virtual (imaginary - cannot be formed on a screen).

2. Erect (upright or straight).

3. Diminished (smaller than the object).


Therefore, the imaginary image formed is straight (erect) and small (diminished).
Quick Tip: Convex mirrors are used as rear-view mirrors in vehicles precisely because they always provide an erect, smaller image, which gives the driver a wider field of view.


Question 44:

Which of the following is the mirror formula?

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{f} + \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{v}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{u}\)
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) \(\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The mirror formula is a mathematical relationship between the focal length (f), the object distance (u), and the image distance (v) for a spherical mirror.


The standard equation is given by:
\(\frac{1}{focal length} = \frac{1}{image distance} + \frac{1}{object distance}\)


Substituting the symbols, we get:
\(\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u}\)


This formula is valid for both concave and convex mirrors when the proper sign convention is used.
Quick Tip: Be very careful not to confuse the mirror formula with the lens formula. The lens formula has a minus sign: \(\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u}\).


Question 45:

How does virtual image look like?

  • (A) Inverted
  • (B) Erect
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Erect
Correct Answer:
View Solution



In optics, images are classified as either real or virtual.


A real image is formed where light rays actually converge. Real images are always inverted (upside down).


A virtual image is formed where light rays only appear to diverge from. Virtual images cannot be projected onto a screen.


A key characteristic of all virtual images is that they are always erect (upright).


Therefore, a virtual image is erect.
Quick Tip: A simple rule to remember for mirrors and lenses: - Real images are always Inverted. (RI) - Virtual images are always Erect. (VE)


Question 46:

Which of the following mirrors has a positive focal length?

  • (A) Convex mirror
  • (B) Plane mirror
  • (C) Concave mirror
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Convex mirror
Correct Answer:
View Solution



According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention used in optics:

1. The pole (P) of the mirror is the origin.

2. Distances measured in the direction of incident light are positive.

3. Distances measured opposite to the direction of incident light are negative.


For a convex mirror, the principal focus (F) is located behind the mirror. To measure the focal length (distance PF), we have to move in the same direction as the incident light. Thus, its focal length is positive.


For a concave mirror, the focus is in front of the mirror. To measure its focal length, we move opposite to the incident light. Thus, its focal length is negative.


A plane mirror has an infinite focal length.
Quick Tip: A simple memory aid: A convex (diverging) mirror or lens has a positive (+) focal length. A concave (converging) mirror or lens has a negative (-) focal length.


Question 47:

Which of the following is the focal length of a convex mirror whose radius of curvature is 32 cm?

  • (A) - 8 cm
  • (B) + 8 cm
  • (C) - 16 cm
  • (D) + 16 cm
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) + 16 cm
Correct Answer:
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The relationship between the focal length (f) and the radius of curvature (R) for a spherical mirror is given by the formula f = R/2.


We are given a convex mirror. According to the sign convention, the radius of curvature (R) for a convex mirror is positive.


So, R = +32 cm.


Now, we can calculate the focal length:

f = R/2 = +32 cm / 2 = +16 cm.


Therefore, the focal length of the convex mirror is +16 cm.
Quick Tip: Always remember to apply the sign convention first. For a convex mirror, both the radius of curvature (R) and the focal length (f) are positive. For a concave mirror, they are both negative.


Question 48:

Which of the following is a magnifying glass?

  • (A) Concave mirror
  • (B) Concave lens
  • (C) Convex lens
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Convex lens
Correct Answer:
View Solution



A magnifying glass is a device used to produce a magnified image of an object. It is also known as a simple microscope.


This is achieved by using a lens that can form a magnified, virtual, and erect image.


A convex lens forms such an image when the object is placed between its optical centre and the principal focus.


A concave lens always produces a diminished (smaller) virtual image.


A concave mirror can produce a magnified image, but it's a mirror, not a lens as is used in a typical handheld magnifying glass.


Therefore, a magnifying glass is a convex lens.
Quick Tip: To use a convex lens as a magnifier, you must hold it close to the object, specifically, closer than its focal length.


Question 49:

The chemical formula of bleaching powder is

  • (A) CaO
  • (B) \(CaCl_2\)
  • (C) CaOCl
  • (D) \(CaOCl_2\)
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) \(CaOCl_2\)
Correct Answer:
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Bleaching powder is a chemical compound used for bleaching and disinfecting.


Its chemical name is calcium oxychloride.


It is produced by the action of chlorine gas on dry slaked lime (\(Ca(OH)_2\)).


The chemical formula for bleaching powder is commonly written as \(CaOCl_2\).


CaO is calcium oxide (quicklime). \(CaCl_2\) is calcium chloride.


Therefore, the correct formula is \(CaOCl_2\).
Quick Tip: The reaction for the formation of bleaching powder is: \(Ca(OH)_2 + Cl_2 \rightarrow CaOCl_2 + H_2O\). Knowing this reaction helps in remembering the formula.


Question 50:

The ratio of HCl and \(HNO_3\) in aqua regia is

  • (A) 2 : 2
  • (B) 1 : 2
  • (C) 1 : 3
  • (D) 3 : 1
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) 3 : 1
Correct Answer:
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Aqua regia, which means "royal water" in Latin, is a highly corrosive mixture of acids.


It is famous for its ability to dissolve noble metals like gold and platinum.


Aqua regia is prepared by freshly mixing concentrated hydrochloric acid (HCl) and concentrated nitric acid (\(HNO_3\)).


The mixture is formed by mixing them in a specific volume ratio.


The optimal ratio is 3 parts of concentrated HCl to 1 part of concentrated \(HNO_3\).


So, the ratio of HCl to \(HNO_3\) is 3:1.
Quick Tip: A way to remember the 3:1 ratio is to note that hydrochloric acid has more letters in its name than nitric acid, so it gets the bigger number in the ratio. HCl:\(HNO_3\) = 3:1.


Question 51:

What type of salt is \(Pb(OH)NO_3\)?

  • (A) Common salt
  • (B) Mixed salt
  • (C) Acidic salt
  • (D) Basic salt
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) Basic salt
Correct Answer:
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Salts are classified based on the nature of the acid and base from which they are formed.


The given salt is Lead Hydroxynitrate, \(Pb(OH)NO_3\).


It is formed by the incomplete neutralization of a base, lead hydroxide (\(Pb(OH)_2\)), by an acid, nitric acid (\(HNO_3\)).


The presence of the hydroxide group (\(OH^-\)) in the salt's formula indicates that it still has basic properties.


Salts that contain one or more hydroxyl groups are called basic salts.


Therefore, \(Pb(OH)NO_3\) is a basic salt.
Quick Tip: Identify the components of a salt formula. The presence of a replaceable H+ ion indicates an acidic salt (e.g., \(NaHSO_4\)), while the presence of a replaceable OH- ion indicates a basic salt (e.g., \(Pb(OH)NO_3\)).


Question 52:

The ratio of nitrogen and hydrogen atoms in one molecule of ammonia is

  • (A) 1 : 3
  • (B) 3 : 1
  • (C) 1 : 2
  • (D) 2 : 1
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) 1 : 3
Correct Answer:
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The chemical formula for ammonia is \(NH_3\).


This formula indicates that one molecule of ammonia is composed of atoms of nitrogen (N) and hydrogen (H).


Looking at the subscripts in the formula:

- There is 1 atom of nitrogen (N).

- There are 3 atoms of hydrogen (H).


Therefore, the ratio of nitrogen atoms to hydrogen atoms is 1:3.
Quick Tip: When asked for a ratio of atoms from a chemical formula, simply look at the subscripts for each element. If there's no subscript, it's assumed to be 1.


Question 53:

Which of the following is the most acidic oxide?

  • (A) CaO
  • (B) MgO
  • (C) \(Na_2O\)
  • (D) \(SO_2\)
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) \(SO_2\)
Correct Answer:
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The acidic or basic nature of an oxide depends on the element it is formed with.


Oxides of metals are generally basic in nature. CaO (calcium oxide), MgO (magnesium oxide), and \(Na_2O\) (sodium oxide) are all oxides of metals. Therefore, they are basic oxides.


Oxides of non-metals are generally acidic in nature.


Sulfur (S) is a non-metal. Its oxide, sulfur dioxide (\(SO_2\)), is an acidic oxide.


When \(SO_2\) dissolves in water, it forms sulfurous acid (\(H_2SO_3\)), confirming its acidic nature.


Therefore, \(SO_2\) is the acidic oxide among the choices.
Quick Tip: A simple rule: Metal oxides are Basic, and Non-metal oxides are Acidic. (Remember "MBA" - Metal Basic Acidic and "NMA" is not a word). Some metal oxides like Al2O3 are amphoteric (both acidic and basic).


Question 54:

Which of the elements represented by the following symbols is a metal?

  • (A) \({}^{16}_{8}A\)
  • (B) \({}^{19}_{9}B\)
  • (C) \({}^{24}_{12}C\)
  • (D) \({}^{12}_{6}D\)
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) \({}^{24}_{12}C\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



To identify an element as a metal or non-metal, we look at its atomic number (the subscript).


(A) \({}^{16}_{8}A\): The atomic number is 8. The element with atomic number 8 is Oxygen (O), which is a non-metal.


(B) \({}^{19}_{9}B\): The atomic number is 9. The element with atomic number 9 is Fluorine (F), which is a non-metal.


(C) \({}^{24}_{12}C\): The atomic number is 12. The element with atomic number 12 is Magnesium (Mg), which is an alkaline earth metal.


(D) \({}^{12}_{6}D\): The atomic number is 6. The element with atomic number 6 is Carbon (C), which is a non-metal.


Therefore, the element represented by \({}^{24}_{12}C\) is a metal.
Quick Tip: The subscript in isotopic notation (\(^A_Z X\)) is the atomic number (Z), which uniquely identifies the element. Memorizing the first 20 elements of the periodic table is very useful for solving such questions.


Question 55:

An alloy of mercury and another metal is called

  • (A) Bronze
  • (B) Solder
  • (C) Brass
  • (D) Amalgam
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) Amalgam
Correct Answer:
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An alloy is a mixture of two or more metals, or a metal and a non-metal.


A special name is given to alloys where one of the constituent metals is mercury (Hg).


By definition, an alloy of mercury with one or more other metals is called an amalgam.


For example, dental amalgam is an alloy of mercury with silver, tin, and copper.


Bronze (Cu, Sn), Solder (Pb, Sn), and Brass (Cu, Zn) are other alloys but do not contain mercury.
Quick Tip: The term "amalgam" specifically refers to alloys containing mercury. If you see "mercury" and "alloy" in the same question, the Solution is almost always "amalgam".


Question 56:

Which of the following is an allotrope of carbon?

  • (A) Diamond
  • (B) Fullerene
  • (C) Graphite
  • (D) All of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) All of these
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Allotropes are different structural forms of the same element in the same physical state.


Carbon is well-known for existing in several allotropic forms.


(A) Diamond is an allotrope of carbon where each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms in a tetrahedral structure.


(B) Fullerene (like C-60 or Buckyball) is an allotrope of carbon where the atoms are arranged in a spherical or tube-like structure.


(C) Graphite is an allotrope of carbon where each carbon atom is bonded to three others in a hexagonal layered structure.


Since Diamond, Fullerene, and Graphite are all allotropes of carbon, the correct Solution is "All of these".
Quick Tip: The three main crystalline allotropes of carbon are Diamond, Graphite, and Fullerene. They have vastly different physical properties due to their different atomic arrangements.


Question 57:

In which lens can both real and virtual images be formed?

  • (A) Convex lens
  • (B) Concave lens
  • (C) Both (A) and (B)
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Convex lens
Correct Answer:
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The type of image formed by a lens depends on the lens type and the position of the object.


A concave lens is a diverging lens. It always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image, regardless of the object's position.


A convex lens is a converging lens. It can form different types of images:

- When the object is placed beyond the focal point (u > f), it forms a real and inverted image.

- When the object is placed between the optical center and the focal point (u < f), it forms a virtual, erect, and magnified image.


Therefore, a convex lens is capable of forming both real and virtual images.
Quick Tip: Remember the applications: A convex lens is used in cameras (to form real images) and as a magnifying glass (to form virtual images). A concave lens is used to correct nearsightedness (forming a virtual image).


Question 58:

How many colours are there in white light?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 7
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) 7
Correct Answer:
View Solution



White light, such as sunlight, is not a single color but is actually a mixture of different colors of light.


This can be demonstrated by passing white light through a prism, which splits it into its constituent colors. This phenomenon is called dispersion.


The resulting band of colors is called a spectrum.


The visible spectrum is conventionally divided into seven colors: Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, and Red (VIBGYOR).


Therefore, white light is composed of 7 colors.
Quick Tip: The acronym VIBGYOR is a very helpful tool to remember the seven colors of the visible spectrum in order from shortest wavelength (Violet) to longest wavelength (Red).


Question 59:

Which colour of white light bends the least after passing through a prism?

  • (A) Blue
  • (B) Red
  • (C) Violet
  • (D) Yellow
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Red
Correct Answer:
View Solution



When white light passes through a prism, it disperses into its constituent colors.


The amount of bending (refraction) of each color depends on its wavelength.


According to the theory of dispersion, light with a shorter wavelength bends more, and light with a longer wavelength bends less.


In the visible spectrum (VIBGYOR), violet light has the shortest wavelength, and red light has the longest wavelength.


Therefore, violet light bends the most, and red light bends the least.
Quick Tip: Wavelength order: Red > Orange > Yellow > Green > Blue > Indigo > Violet. Bending (Refraction/Deviation) order: Violet > Indigo > Blue > Green > Yellow > Orange > Red. The color with the longest wavelength (Red) bends the least.


Question 60:

Which of the following controls the size of the pupil?

  • (A) Eye lens
  • (B) Retina
  • (C) Iris
  • (D) Ciliary muscles
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Iris
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The pupil is the opening in the center of the eye that allows light to enter.


The iris is the colored, muscular diaphragm that surrounds the pupil.


The function of the iris is to control the amount of light entering the eye by adjusting the size of the pupil.


In bright light, the iris contracts, making the pupil smaller to limit light entry.


In dim light, the iris dilates (expands), making the pupil larger to allow more light in.


Ciliary muscles control the shape of the eye lens for focusing, and the retina contains the photoreceptor cells.
Quick Tip: Think of the iris as the eye's equivalent of a camera's aperture, controlling how much light gets in. The pupil is the aperture opening itself.


Question 61:

Which lens is used in nearsightedness?

  • (A) Convex lens
  • (B) Cylindrical lens
  • (C) Concave lens
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Concave lens
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Nearsightedness, also known as myopia, is a vision defect where a person can see nearby objects clearly but distant objects appear blurry.


This happens because the eye's lens focuses the image of distant objects in front of the retina, instead of on the retina. The eye has too much converging power.


To correct this, a diverging lens is needed to spread out the light rays before they enter the eye.


A concave lens is a diverging lens.


Therefore, a concave lens is used to correct nearsightedness.
Quick Tip: Memory aid: "My New Car" - Myopia is Nearsightedness and is corrected with a Concave lens. For farsightedness (Hypermetropia), a convex lens is used.


Question 62:

Which of the following is the formula to find the resistance of a coil?

  • (A) R = V - I
  • (B) R = V / I
  • (C) R = V x I
  • (D) R = I / V
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) R = V / I
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The relationship between voltage (V), current (I), and resistance (R) in an electrical circuit is described by Ohm's Law.


Ohm's Law states that the voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it, provided all physical conditions and temperature remain constant.


The mathematical formula for Ohm's Law is V = I \(\times\) R.


To find the formula for resistance (R), we can rearrange this equation.


Dividing both sides by current (I), we get:

R = V / I.
Quick Tip: You can use the "Ohm's Law Triangle" to remember the formulas. Cover the quantity you want to find: cover R to see V over I, cover V to see I times R, cover I to see V over R.


Question 63:

The SI unit of resistance is

  • (A) coulomb
  • (B) joule
  • (C) ampere
  • (D) ohm
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) ohm
Correct Answer:
View Solution



In the International System of Units (SI), each physical quantity has a standard unit.


Resistance is the measure of opposition to the flow of electric current.


The SI unit for electrical resistance is the ohm.


It is named after the German physicist Georg Ohm. The symbol for the ohm is the Greek letter omega (\(\Omega\)).


Coulomb is the unit of charge, joule is the unit of energy, and ampere is the unit of current.
Quick Tip: Remember the SI units for the main electrical quantities: - Current (I): Ampere (A) - Voltage (V): Volt (V) - Resistance (R): Ohm (\(\Omega\)) - Charge (Q): Coulomb (C)


Question 64:

Which of the following is the commercial unit of electrical energy?

  • (A) watt/hour
  • (B) unit
  • (C) watt
  • (D) none of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) unit
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Electrical energy is the product of power and time (E = P \(\times\) t).


The SI unit of energy is the joule, which is equivalent to a watt-second. This is too small for commercial billing.


For commercial purposes, a larger unit is used, which is the kilowatt-hour (kWh).


A kilowatt-hour is the energy consumed by a 1-kilowatt device running for 1 hour.


This kilowatt-hour is commonly referred to as a "Board of Trade Unit" or simply a "unit" on electricity bills.


Therefore, the commercial unit of electrical energy is the unit (which stands for kWh).
Quick Tip: 1 unit on your electricity bill is equal to 1 kilowatt-hour (kWh). It's important to know the conversion: 1 kWh = \(3.6 \times 10^6\) Joules.


Question 65:

Which of the following is vestigial organ in the human alimentary canal?

  • (A) Appendix
  • (B) Colon
  • (C) Caecum
  • (D) Rectum
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Appendix
Correct Answer:
View Solution



A vestigial organ is an organ or body part that has become reduced in size and function over the course of evolution.


In the human alimentary canal, the appendix (or vermiform appendix) is a small, finger-like tube attached to the caecum.


It is considered a vestigial organ because it is a remnant of a larger caecum that was used by our herbivorous ancestors to digest cellulose.


While it may have some minor immune functions, its primary digestive function has been lost. The colon, caecum, and rectum are all fully functional parts of the large intestine.
Quick Tip: Other examples of vestigial structures in humans include the tailbone (coccyx), wisdom teeth, and the muscles that move the outer ear.


Question 66:

The length of the small intestine in herbivorous animals is

  • (A) Small
  • (B) Medium
  • (C) Longer
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Longer
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The length of the small intestine varies depending on the diet of the animal.


Herbivores, such as cows and rabbits, eat plants. Plant material, especially cellulose, is difficult to digest.


To allow sufficient time for the complete digestion and absorption of nutrients from plant matter, herbivores have a much longer small intestine compared to carnivores of similar size.


Carnivores, who eat meat, have a shorter small intestine because meat is easier to digest.


Therefore, the small intestine in herbivores is longer.
Quick Tip: Remember the logic: Complex food (plants with cellulose) requires a longer digestion time, hence a longer intestine. Simple food (meat) requires a shorter digestion time, hence a shorter intestine.


Question 67:

The completely digested food in the small intestine is called

  • (A) Chyme
  • (B) Chile
  • (C) Chylomicron
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (A) Chyme
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The process of digestion involves breaking down food into simpler substances.


Food mixed with gastric juices in the stomach forms a semi-fluid, acidic mass called chyme.


This chyme is then passed from the stomach into the small intestine.


In the small intestine, the chyme is mixed with bile and pancreatic and intestinal juices, where the final stages of digestion occur.


The term "chyme" is often used to refer to the food mass as it moves through the stomach and small intestine, during which it is progressively digested. Although other terms like "chyle" refer to the absorbed fats, "chyme" refers to the entire food bolus undergoing digestion. In the context of the given options, chyme is the most appropriate term for the food mass within the small intestine.
Quick Tip: Chyme is the acidic, semi-digested food that leaves the stomach. Chyle is a milky fluid containing digested fats (in the form of chylomicrons) that is absorbed into the lymphatic system from the small intestine. Given the options, "chyme" is treated as the general term for the digesting food mass.


Question 68:

By which method, is water absorbed by root hairs?

  • (A) Transfer
  • (B) Diffusion
  • (C) Osmosis
  • (D) Both (A) and (B)
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Osmosis
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Root hairs are tiny extensions of the epidermal cells of a plant root that absorb water and minerals from the soil.


The concentration of water is typically higher in the soil than in the cytoplasm of the root hair cells.


The cell membrane of the root hair acts as a selectively permeable membrane.


The movement of water molecules from a region of their higher concentration to a region of their lower concentration through a selectively permeable membrane is called osmosis.


Therefore, water is absorbed from the soil into the root hairs primarily by the process of osmosis.
Quick Tip: Remember the difference: Diffusion is the movement of any substance from high to low concentration. Osmosis is specifically the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane.


Question 69:

The condition of high blood pressure is called

  • (A) Paralysis
  • (B) Hypotension
  • (C) Hypertension
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Hypertension
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Blood pressure is the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of blood vessels.


The medical term for high blood pressure is hypertension. The prefix "hyper-" means "high" or "above normal".


The medical term for low blood pressure is hypotension. The prefix "hypo-" means "low" or "below normal".


Paralysis is the loss of muscle function.


Therefore, the condition of high blood pressure is called hypertension.
Quick Tip: The prefixes "hyper-" (high) and "hypo-" (low) are common in medical and scientific terms. For example, hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and hypoglycemia (low blood sugar).


Question 70:

How many pairs of respiratory pores are found in a cockroach?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 10
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) 10
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Insects like cockroaches do not have lungs. They breathe through a system of air tubes called tracheae.


The openings to this tracheal system on the body surface are called spiracles, which are the respiratory pores.


A cockroach has spiracles arranged in pairs along the sides of its body.


There are a total of 10 pairs of spiracles.


Two pairs are located on the thorax (thoracic spiracles) and eight pairs are located on the abdomen (abdominal spiracles).


Therefore, a cockroach has 10 pairs of respiratory pores.
Quick Tip: The respiratory system of insects is distinct from vertebrates. Remember they use a network of tracheae that open to the outside via spiracles, delivering oxygen directly to the tissues.


Question 71:

The flow of blood in the heart is

  • (A) From left atrium to left ventricle
  • (B) From right atrium to right ventricle
  • (C) From right atrium to left ventricle
  • (D) Both (A) and B)
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) Both (A) and B)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The human heart has four chambers: two upper atria and two lower ventricles.


Blood flows from the atria to the ventricles.


(A) On the left side of the heart, oxygenated blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle. This is a correct pathway.


(B) On the right side of the heart, deoxygenated blood flows from the right atrium into the right ventricle. This is also a correct pathway.


(C) Blood does not flow from the right atrium to the left ventricle. The right and left sides of the heart are separated by a septum.


Since both (A) and (B) describe correct pathways of blood flow within the heart, the correct Solution is (D) Both (A) and (B).
Quick Tip: Remember the general rule for blood flow within the heart: blood always flows from an atrium to the ventricle on the same side. The valve between the atrium and ventricle ensures one-way flow.


Question 72:

Blood is

  • (A) Nervous tissue
  • (B) Epithelial tissue
  • (C) Connective tissue
  • (D) Muscular tissue
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Connective tissue
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Tissues are groups of cells with a similar structure and function. There are four main types: epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous.


Connective tissue is characterized by having cells scattered within an extracellular matrix.


Blood fits this definition perfectly. It consists of various cells (red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets) suspended in a fluid extracellular matrix called plasma.


Because of this structure (cells in a matrix), blood is classified as a specialized fluid connective tissue.
Quick Tip: It might seem strange to call a liquid a "connective" tissue, but the classification is based on its structure and origin. Blood connects all parts of the body by transporting substances, which fits the function of a connective tissue.


Question 73:

Which blood group is known as universal donor?

  • (A) A
  • (B) B
  • (C) O
  • (D) AB
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) O
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The concept of a universal donor refers to a blood group that can be transfused to patients of any other blood group in an emergency.


Blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of antigens (A and B) on the surface of red blood cells.


- Group A has A antigen.

- Group B has B antigen.

- Group AB has both A and B antigens.

- Group O has neither A nor B antigens.


Since Group O red blood cells have no A or B antigens, they do not trigger an immune reaction in a recipient, regardless of the recipient's blood type.


Therefore, blood group O (specifically O-negative) is known as the universal donor.
Quick Tip: - Universal Donor: Blood Group O (has no antigens). - Universal Recipient: Blood Group AB (has no antibodies against A or B).


Question 74:

The process of purification of blood by dialysis machine is called

  • (A) Dialyzer
  • (B) Haemodialysis
  • (C) Dialysate
  • (D) Cellophane
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Haemodialysis
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Dialysis is a medical procedure to remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys stop working properly.


The process involves using a machine, often called an artificial kidney or dialyzer.


The specific medical term for this process of purifying blood using a dialysis machine is haemodialysis.


"Haemo-" is a prefix relating to blood.


A dialyzer is the machine itself, dialysate is the fluid used in the machine, and cellophane is a material that can be used as the semipermeable membrane.
Quick Tip: Break down the word: "Haemo-" means blood, and "dialysis" means filtering or separating. So, Haemodialysis literally means "filtering of blood".


Question 75:

How do protozoans expel excretory substances?

  • (A) By absorption
  • (B) By expulsion
  • (C) By osmosis
  • (D) By diffusion
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) By diffusion
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Protozoans are single-celled eukaryotic organisms like Amoeba and Paramecium.


They do not have specialized excretory organs.


Excretory waste products, such as ammonia, build up inside the cell.


This creates a high concentration of waste inside the cell compared to the lower concentration in the surrounding water.


These waste substances then move from the area of higher concentration (inside the cell) to the area of lower concentration (outside the cell) across the cell membrane.


This movement of substances down a concentration gradient is called diffusion.
Quick Tip: For single-celled organisms living in water, diffusion is the primary method for both taking in necessary substances (like oxygen) and removing waste products (like ammonia and carbon dioxide) across the cell surface.


Question 76:

Which excretory substance is mainly released from acacia plants?

  • (A) Resin
  • (B) Tanin
  • (C) Latex
  • (D) Gum
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) Gum
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Plants also produce waste products during their metabolic activities.


They get rid of these wastes in various ways, such as storing them in leaves that fall off or secreting them.


Some waste products are stored in old xylem tissue in the form of resins and gums.


Acacia trees, commonly known as Babool trees, are particularly known for exuding a substance called gum arabic.


This gum is a major excretory product of the plant.


Therefore, gum is the main excretory substance released from acacia plants.
Quick Tip: Remember the sources of some common plant excretory products: - Gum: Acacia (Babool) - Resin: Pine trees - Latex: Rubber tree, Poppy


Question 77:

The largest part of the brain is

  • (A) Cerebellum
  • (B) Cerebrum
  • (C) Mid-brain
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Cerebrum
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The human brain is divided into three main parts: the forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.


The forebrain consists mainly of the cerebrum.


The cerebrum is the most prominent part of the brain, making up about two-thirds of the brain's mass.


It is the center for higher-order functions like thinking, intelligence, memory, and voluntary actions.


The cerebellum is part of the hindbrain and is responsible for balance and coordination. The midbrain is a smaller central part.


Therefore, the cerebrum is the largest part of the brain.
Quick Tip: Think of the brain's main parts by function and size: - Cerebrum: Largest part, for thinking and memory. - Cerebellum: "Little brain" at the back, for balance and coordination. - Brain Stem (including midbrain): Connects to spinal cord, for basic life functions.


Question 78:

Testosterone is secreted by

  • (A) Ovary
  • (B) Testis
  • (C) Kidney
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (B) Testis
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Testosterone is the primary male sex hormone and an anabolic steroid.


Hormones are secreted by endocrine glands.


In males, testosterone is produced primarily by the Leydig cells located in the testes.


The testes (singular: testis) are the male gonads.


Ovaries are the female gonads and they primarily secrete estrogen and progesterone.


The kidney is an excretory organ that also has some endocrine functions, but it does not secrete testosterone.


Therefore, testosterone is secreted by the testis.
Quick Tip: Remember the primary reproductive glands and their hormones: - Male: Testes secrete Testosterone. - Female: Ovaries secrete Estrogen and Progesterone.


Question 79:

Hormone that stops cell division in plants is called

  • (A) Auxin
  • (B) Ethylene
  • (C) Cytokinin
  • (D) Abscisic acid
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (D) Abscisic acid
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Plant hormones, or phytohormones, regulate various aspects of plant growth and development.


- Auxins and Cytokinins are primarily growth-promoting hormones. Cytokinins, in particular, promote cell division.


- Ethylene is mainly known as the ripening hormone.


- Abscisic acid (ABA) is generally considered a growth-inhibiting hormone.


One of the main functions of ABA is to induce dormancy in seeds and buds and to cause the closing of stomata during water stress. It acts as a general inhibitor of growth processes, including cell division.


Therefore, abscisic acid is the hormone that stops or inhibits cell division.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember plant hormone functions: - Growth Promoters: Auxin, Gibberellin, Cytokinin. - Growth Inhibitors: Abscisic Acid, Ethylene. Cytokinin promotes cell division, while Abscisic acid inhibits it.


Question 80:

The male reproductive organ of a flower is called

  • (A) Gynoecium
  • (B) Petal
  • (C) Stamens
  • (D) None of these
    % Correct Solution \textbf{Correct Solution:} (C) Stamens
Correct Answer:
View Solution



A typical flower has four main whorls: calyx (sepals), corolla (petals), androecium, and gynoecium.


The androecium is the male reproductive part of the flower. It consists of units called stamens.


Each stamen is typically made of a filament (stalk) and an anther (which produces pollen grains).


The gynoecium (also called the pistil or carpel) is the female reproductive organ.


Petals are modified leaves that are often brightly colored to attract pollinators.


Therefore, the male reproductive organ of a flower is the stamen.
Quick Tip: Remember the terms: - Stamen contains "men" - it's the male part. - The female part is the Pistil or Carpel (Gynoecium).


Question 81:

What is light beam ? How many types of it are there?

Correct Answer:
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A collection or bundle of light rays originating from a source and moving in a particular direction is called a beam of light.


There are three types of light beams:


1. Parallel Beam: A beam of light in which all the rays are parallel to each other. For example, light rays from the sun reaching the Earth.


2. Convergent Beam: A beam of light in which the rays come together and meet at a single point. For example, a convex lens can form a convergent beam.


3. Divergent Beam: A beam of light in which the rays spread out from a single point source. For example, the light from a bulb.
Quick Tip: Visualizing the source helps identify the beam type: a distant source gives a parallel beam, a point source gives a divergent beam, and a focusing lens creates a convergent beam.


Question 82:

Why does the coin placed in water appear raised?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A coin placed in water appears raised due to the phenomenon of refraction of light.


When we look at the coin, light rays travel from the coin (in the denser medium, water) to our eyes (in the rarer medium, air).


As these light rays pass from water to air, they bend away from the normal at the surface of the water.


Our eyes perceive the position of the coin based on the apparent straight path of these refracted rays.


When these bent rays are extended backwards, they appear to meet at a point above the actual position of the coin.


This forms a virtual image of the coin at a shallower depth, making it appear raised.
Quick Tip: The apparent depth is always less than the real depth when an object in a denser medium is viewed from a rarer medium. The formula is: Apparent Depth = Real Depth / Refractive Index.


Question 83:

Write the main differences between stars and planets.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The main differences between stars and planets are as follows:


\begin{tabularx{\linewidth{|X|X|
\hline
Stars & Planets

\hline
Stars are celestial bodies that produce their own heat and light through nuclear fusion. & Planets do not produce their own light; they shine by reflecting the light of a star.

\hline
Stars are extremely large and hot. & Planets are much smaller and cooler than stars.

\hline
Stars appear to twinkle when viewed from Earth. & Planets generally do not twinkle.

\hline
Stars are fixed in their positions relative to other stars in a galaxy. & Planets revolve around a star in a fixed orbit.

\hline
\end{tabularx
Quick Tip: The defining difference is the source of light: stars are luminous (produce light), while planets are non-luminous (reflect light).


Question 84:

How does an electromagnet work?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



An electromagnet is a temporary magnet created by using an electric current. It works on the principle of the magnetic effect of electric current.


1. Principle: When an electric current flows through a conductor, it produces a magnetic field around it.


2. Construction: An electromagnet is typically made by wrapping an insulated copper wire tightly around a soft iron core.


3. Operation: When the ends of the wire are connected to a power source (like a battery), current flows through the coil. This current generates a magnetic field, which strongly magnetizes the soft iron core. The core then acts as a powerful magnet.


4. Control: The key feature is its temporary nature. The magnetism exists only as long as the current is flowing. When the current is switched off, the soft iron core loses its magnetism. The strength can be increased by increasing the current or the number of turns in the coil.
Quick Tip: The main advantage of an electromagnet over a permanent magnet is that its magnetic field can be turned on and off and its strength can be easily controlled.


Question 85:

What is nuclear fusion?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Nuclear fusion is a nuclear reaction in which two or more light atomic nuclei combine or 'fuse' together to form a heavier nucleus.


This process releases an enormous amount of energy.


The mass of the resulting heavier nucleus is slightly less than the sum of the masses of the original nuclei.


This 'lost' mass is converted into energy according to Einstein's mass-energy equivalence equation, \(E=mc^2\).


Nuclear fusion requires extremely high temperatures and pressures, such as those found in the core of the Sun and other stars, where hydrogen nuclei fuse to form helium.
Quick Tip: Remember the difference: Fusion is the joining of light nuclei (like in the sun), while Fission is the splitting of a heavy nucleus (like in a nuclear power plant).


Question 86:

What is electric current ? Write its equation and unit.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Definition: Electric current is the rate of flow of electric charge through a conductor.


Equation: The relationship between current (I), charge (Q), and time (t) is given by the formula:
\(I = \frac{Q}{t}\)


Unit: The SI unit of electric current is the Ampere (symbol: A).

One ampere is defined as the flow of one coulomb of charge through a surface in one second.
Quick Tip: Think of electric current like the flow rate of a river: it measures how much (charge) passes a point in a certain amount of time.


Question 87:

What is fossil fuel? Write with example.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Definition: Fossil fuels are combustible materials formed over millions of years from the fossilized, buried remains of dead plants and animals that have been subjected to intense heat and pressure in the Earth's crust.


They are non-renewable energy sources because their rate of formation is extremely slow compared to their rate of consumption.


Examples: The three main types of fossil fuels are:

1. Coal (a solid fuel)

2. Petroleum or Crude Oil (a liquid fuel)

3. Natural Gas (a gaseous fuel)
Quick Tip: The word "fossil" in fossil fuels directly refers to their origin from the ancient remains of living organisms.


Question 88:

What are renewable and non-renewable sources?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Renewable Sources of Energy:

These are energy sources that are naturally replenished on a human timescale or are essentially inexhaustible. They are generally more environmentally friendly.

Examples: Solar energy, wind energy, hydropower, geothermal energy, and biomass.


Non-renewable Sources of Energy:

These are energy sources that exist in finite quantities and were formed over millions of years. They are consumed much faster than they can be replaced.

Examples: Fossil fuels (coal, petroleum, natural gas) and nuclear fuels (like uranium).
Quick Tip: The key difference is time. Renewable sources "renew" quickly, while non-renewable sources take millions of years to form, making them finite for human purposes.


Question 89:

Describe Oersted's experiment to show that a magnetic field is produced around a current carrying conductor wire.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Hans Christian Oersted's experiment demonstrated that electricity and magnetism are related phenomena.


Setup:

1. An electric circuit was set up with a long straight wire, a battery, and a switch.

2. A magnetic compass was placed near and parallel to the wire.


Procedure and Observation:

1. With the switch open, no current flowed through the wire, and the compass needle pointed in the usual geographic North-South direction.

2. When the switch was closed, current flowed through the wire. Instantly, the compass needle deflected and aligned itself perpendicular to the wire.

3. When the direction of the current was reversed by changing the battery terminals, the compass needle again deflected, but this time in the opposite direction.


Conclusion:

A magnetic compass needle is only affected by a magnetic field. Since the needle deflected only when current was flowing, Oersted concluded that a current-carrying conductor produces a magnetic field around it.
Quick Tip: Oersted's discovery established the field of electromagnetism. It showed that moving electric charges (current) create a magnetic field.


Question 90:

Describe a method to find the focal length of a convex lens.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



An approximate focal length of a convex lens can be found using the distant object method.


Materials: A convex lens, a screen (e.g., a white wall), and a ruler or meter scale.


Method:

1. Choose a very distant object, like a tree or a building, that is well-illuminated by sunlight.

2. Hold the convex lens facing the distant object.

3. Place the screen on the other side of the lens.

4. Adjust the distance between the lens and the screen by moving the lens back and forth until a sharp, clear, and inverted image of the distant object is formed on the screen.

5. Since rays from a distant object are nearly parallel, they converge at the principal focus of the lens after refraction. The sharp image is therefore formed at the focal plane.

6. Measure the distance between the optical center of the lens and the screen. This distance is the focal length (f) of the convex lens.
Quick Tip: This method works because for an object at infinity (u = \(\infty\)), the image is formed at the focus (v = f) according to the lens formula: \(\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u}\).


Question 91:

Why does the colour of the solution change when a piece of iron is added to copper sulphate solution?

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The colour change occurs because of a single displacement reaction.


1. Iron (Fe) is more reactive than copper (Cu).


2. When a piece of iron is added to a blue-colored copper sulphate (\(CuSO_4\)) solution, the more reactive iron displaces the less reactive copper from its salt solution.


3. Iron goes into the solution as iron(II) sulphate (\(FeSO_4\)), which has a pale green color.


4. The copper ions from the solution are deposited as solid, reddish-brown copper metal on the surface of the iron piece.


5. The chemical equation for the reaction is:
\(Fe(s) + CuSO_4(aq) \rightarrow FeSO_4(aq) + Cu(s)\)


6. Due to the formation of pale green iron(II) sulphate, the blue color of the copper sulphate solution gradually fades and turns into pale green.
Quick Tip: This classic experiment is a great way to demonstrate the metal reactivity series. A more reactive metal will always displace a less reactive metal from its salt solution.


Question 92:

Why is it necessary to keep the plaster of Paris away from moisture ? Explain.

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It is essential to store Plaster of Paris (POP) in a moisture-proof container because it readily absorbs water and turns into a hard solid mass, losing its characteristic property.


1. Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate (\(CaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O\)).


2. When it comes in contact with moisture (water), it undergoes a chemical reaction and gets converted into gypsum (\(CaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O\)).


3. The chemical equation for this setting process is:
\(CaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2}H_2O (s) + 1\frac{1}{2}H_2O (l) \rightarrow CaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O (s)\)


4. Gypsum is a hard, solid substance. This setting process makes POP useless for its intended purposes (like setting fractured bones or making casts) if it occurs during storage.


5. Therefore, to prevent it from hardening prematurely, POP must be kept away from moisture.
Quick Tip: The property of setting into a hard mass upon contact with water is what makes Plaster of Paris useful, but this same property requires careful, moisture-free storage.


Question 93:

What are acids ? Give any two examples. Explain the effect of an acid on an indicator.

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Acids: An acid is a substance that produces hydrogen ions (\(H^+\)) when dissolved in an aqueous solution. They have a sour taste and a pH value of less than 7.


Two Examples:

1. Hydrochloric acid (HCl)

2. Acetic acid (\(CH_3COOH\))


Effect on an Indicator: An indicator is a substance that changes color in the presence of an acid or a base.

- On Litmus: An acid turns blue litmus paper or solution to red.

- On Methyl Orange: An acid changes the color of methyl orange indicator from orange/yellow to red.
Quick Tip: A simple mnemonic for litmus test: Acid turns litmus Red. Both words contain the letter 'd'.


Question 94:

Why is sodium metal kept immersed in kerosene?

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Sodium is a very highly reactive metal. It is kept immersed in kerosene for the following reasons:


1. Reaction with Air: Sodium reacts vigorously with the oxygen present in the air at room temperature to form sodium oxide. It tarnishes quickly upon exposure.


2. Reaction with Water: Sodium reacts violently with water (even moisture in the air) in a highly exothermic reaction to produce sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. The heat generated is usually sufficient to ignite the hydrogen gas, causing a fire.


3. Kerosene as a Protective Layer: Kerosene is an inert liquid hydrocarbon. It does not react with sodium. By immersing sodium in kerosene, a protective layer is formed that prevents the metal from coming into contact with air and moisture, thus allowing for its safe storage.
Quick Tip: Highly reactive alkali metals like Sodium (Na) and Potassium (K) are stored under oil (like kerosene) to prevent their dangerous reactions with air and water.


Question 95:

Which metallic property does graphite exhibit despite being a non-metal?

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Graphite, which is an allotrope of the non-metal carbon, exhibits the metallic property of good electrical conductivity.


Reason:

The structure of graphite consists of layers of carbon atoms arranged in hexagonal rings.

In this structure, each carbon atom is bonded to only three other carbon atoms.

The fourth valence electron of each carbon atom is not involved in bonding and is free to move (delocalized) within its layer.

The presence of these mobile electrons allows graphite to conduct electricity, similar to how free electrons in metals conduct electricity.
Quick Tip: While graphite conducts electricity, it does not have other metallic properties like malleability or ductility. Its unique structure is key to its conductivity.


Question 96:

What are aliphatic compounds?

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Aliphatic compounds are a major class of organic compounds characterized by having carbon atoms linked in open chains (acyclic) or in non-aromatic rings (alicyclic).


They are essentially all hydrocarbons and their derivatives that are not aromatic.


The main types of aliphatic compounds are:

- Alkanes: Saturated hydrocarbons with C-C single bonds (e.g., methane, propane).

- Alkenes: Unsaturated hydrocarbons with at least one C=C double bond (e.g., ethene, propene).

- Alkynes: Unsaturated hydrocarbons with at least one C≡C triple bond (e.g., ethyne, propyne).
Quick Tip: The name "aliphatic" comes from the Greek word "aleiphar," meaning fat or oil, as many early examples were derived from fats.


Question 97:

What do you understand by homologous series ? Write with examples.

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A homologous series is a series of organic compounds that have the same functional group and similar chemical properties.


Characteristics:

1. Members can be represented by a general formula.

2. Each successive member differs from the next by a -\(CH_2\)- group.

3. They show a gradual change in physical properties (like boiling point) as molecular mass increases.

4. They possess similar chemical properties due to the same functional group.


Example: The homologous series of Alkanes.

- General Formula: \(C_nH_{2n+2}\)

- Members:

- Methane (\(CH_4\))

- Ethane (\(C_2H_6\))

- Propane (\(C_3H_8\))

- Butane (\(C_4H_{10}\))
Quick Tip: Think of a homologous series as a "family" of organic compounds. They share the same last name (functional group) and have a predictable pattern of growth (adding a -\(CH_2\)- group).


Question 98:

What are the benefits of a dam?

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The main benefits of constructing a dam are:


1. Hydroelectricity Generation: Dams store water at a height, and this potential energy is converted into kinetic energy and then electrical energy by turbines, providing a clean source of power.


2. Irrigation: The stored water can be channeled to agricultural fields, ensuring a year-round water supply for crops, especially in areas with uneven rainfall.


3. Flood Control: Dams can regulate the flow of a river by storing excess water during heavy rains, thereby preventing floods downstream.


4. Water Supply: Reservoirs created by dams serve as a source of drinking water for towns and cities.


5. Recreation: The reservoir can be used for recreational activities like boating, swimming, and fishing, which promotes tourism.
Quick Tip: While dams have many benefits, they also have environmental and social disadvantages, such as displacing communities and affecting aquatic ecosystems. A balanced view is important.


Question 99:

Explain the importance of pH in daily life.

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pH plays a crucial role in various aspects of our daily life:


1. In our Digestive System: The stomach produces HCl to create a low pH environment (1.5-3.5) which helps in the digestion of proteins. Acidity is treated with antacids (bases) to neutralize excess acid.


2. For Tooth Decay: When the pH in the mouth falls below 5.5 due to the acids produced by bacteria from sugar, tooth enamel starts to corrode. Using basic toothpaste helps neutralize this acid.


3. In Agriculture: Plants require a specific pH range in the soil for healthy growth. Farmers adjust the soil pH using substances like lime to ensure optimal crop yield.


4. For Aquatic Life: The pH of water bodies is vital for the survival of aquatic organisms. Acid rain lowers the pH of rivers and lakes, threatening aquatic life.
Quick Tip: Our bodies and the environment are very sensitive to pH changes. Many biological processes can only occur within a very narrow pH range.


Question 100:

What should be done for water conservation and water management?

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Effective water conservation and management can be achieved through the following measures:


1. Rainwater Harvesting: Collecting rainwater from rooftops and other surfaces and storing it for later use or using it to recharge groundwater.


2. Building Dams: Constructing dams and reservoirs to store river water, which can be used for irrigation, electricity generation, and domestic supply.


3. Reducing Water Wastage: Promoting public awareness to fix leaking taps, turn off water when not in use, and use water judiciously at home and in public places.


4. Recycling of Water: Treating wastewater from homes and industries to a level where it can be safely reused for purposes like irrigation or industrial cooling.


5. Efficient Irrigation: Using modern irrigation methods like drip irrigation and sprinklers in agriculture to minimize water loss.
Quick Tip: The 3 R's can be applied to water management: Reduce water consumption, Reuse greywater for gardening, and Recycle wastewater through treatment plants.


Question 101:

Write four main characteristics of living beings.

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The four main characteristics of living beings are:


1. Growth: All living organisms grow in size and mass. This is an intrinsic process resulting from cell division.


2. Metabolism: Living beings exhibit metabolism, which includes all the chemical reactions like respiration and nutrition that occur within the body to sustain life.


3. Reproduction: Living organisms have the ability to produce offspring of their own kind, ensuring the continuation of their species.


4. Response to Stimuli: Living organisms can detect and respond to changes in their external environment. This property is also known as consciousness or irritability.
Quick Tip: Other characteristics of life include cellular organization, nutrition, excretion, and movement.


Question 102:

Why does continuous running cause cramps to a person's muscles?

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Muscle cramps during continuous running are caused by the accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle cells due to anaerobic respiration.


1. During strenuous exercise, the energy demand of the muscles is very high.


2. The supply of oxygen to the muscles is not sufficient to meet this demand through aerobic respiration alone.


3. To compensate, the muscle cells begin to respire anaerobically, breaking down glucose into lactic acid to produce energy.


4. This lactic acid accumulates in the muscles, causing a drop in pH and leading to pain, fatigue, and cramps.
Quick Tip: Anaerobic respiration is a "backup" energy system for short bursts of intense activity. The byproduct, lactic acid, is what causes the characteristic muscle burn and cramps.


Question 103:

What is the importance of blood platelets?

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The primary importance of blood platelets (thrombocytes) is their essential role in blood clotting (coagulation).


1. When a blood vessel is injured, platelets are activated and rush to the site.


2. They stick to the wound and clump together to form a temporary plug, which helps reduce initial blood loss.


3. They also release chemicals that initiate a complex series of reactions, known as the clotting cascade.


4. This cascade results in the formation of fibrin threads, which create a mesh that traps red blood cells and forms a stable clot.


5. This clot seals the wound, prevents excessive bleeding, and protects the area from infection while it heals.
Quick Tip: A low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) can lead to impaired blood clotting, resulting in easy bruising and excessive bleeding.


Question 104:

Write the names of some excretory substances of plants.

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Plants produce various excretory or waste substances during their metabolic activities. Some of these are:


1. Gaseous Wastes: Oxygen (from photosynthesis) and Carbon Dioxide (from respiration).


2. Water: Excess water is removed through transpiration.


3. Resins and Gums: These are stored in old xylem and are often secreted out.


4. Latex: A milky fluid that is a waste product of plants like the rubber tree.


5. Tannins: Stored in bark and leaves.


6. Organic Acids: Some waste is stored as crystals of calcium oxalate in leaves, which are then shed.
Quick Tip: Unlike animals, plants lack a specialized excretory system. They use simpler methods like diffusion, transpiration, and storing waste in parts that can be shed (like leaves and bark).


Question 105:

Write the names of endocrine glands found in humans.

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The major endocrine glands in the human body are:


- Pituitary Gland (often called the master gland)

- Hypothalamus

- Pineal Gland

- Thyroid Gland

- Parathyroid Glands

- Adrenal Glands

- Pancreas (specifically, the Islets of Langerhans)

- Gonads: Ovaries (in females) and Testes (in males)
Quick Tip: Endocrine glands are ductless glands that secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream to regulate various bodily functions.


Question 106:

What is the difference between menarche and menopause?

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Menarche and menopause are key stages in a female's reproductive life.


\begin{tabularx{\linewidth{|X|X|
\hline
Menarche & Menopause

\hline
It is the beginning of the menstrual cycle and reproductive life in a female. & It is the permanent cessation (stopping) of the menstrual cycle and the end of reproductive life.

\hline
It usually occurs during puberty, typically between the ages of 10 and 15. & It usually occurs later in life, typically between the ages of 45 and 55.

\hline
It marks the onset of fertility, meaning the ability to become pregnant has begun. & It marks the end of fertility, meaning natural conception is no longer possible.

\hline
\end{tabularx
Quick Tip: Think of the prefixes: "Arche" means beginning or first, so Menarche is the first menstruation. "Pause" means stop, so Menopause is the stopping of menstruation.


Question 107:

What is the meaning of biological evolution?

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Biological evolution is the process of change in the heritable characteristics of biological populations over successive generations.


It means that all life on Earth shares a common ancestor and has diversified over millions of years.


The primary mechanism driving evolution is natural selection.


In natural selection, individuals with traits that are better suited to their environment are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on those advantageous traits to their offspring.


Over long periods, this process can lead to the formation of new species.
Quick Tip: Evolution is not about an individual changing during its lifetime. It is about the genetic changes in a population over many generations.


Question 108:

What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem?

Correct Answer:
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Decomposers, such as bacteria and fungi, play a critical role in the ecosystem. Their main functions are:


1. Decomposition: They break down complex organic matter from dead plants and animals and their waste products into simpler inorganic substances.


2. Nutrient Recycling: By decomposing organic matter, they release essential nutrients (like nitrogen, phosphorus, and carbon) back into the soil, water, and air.


3. Making Nutrients Available: These released nutrients are then available for producers (plants) to absorb and use for growth, thus completing the nutrient cycle.


4. Cleaning the Environment: Decomposers act as the "clean-up crew" of the ecosystem by removing dead organic material, preventing the pile-up of dead bodies and waste.
Quick Tip: Without decomposers, nutrients would remain locked up in dead organisms, and the flow of energy and nutrients in the ecosystem would stop.


Question 109:

Draw a neat labelled diagram of the respiratory organs of human being. (Description is not required)

Correct Answer:
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(A diagram would be drawn here. The key labels to include are:)


- Nasal Passage (Nostrils)

- Pharynx (Throat)

- Larynx (Voice Box)

- Trachea (Windpipe)

- Bronchi (Singular: Bronchus - the two main branches of the trachea)

- Lungs (Right and Left)

- Bronchioles (Finer branches within the lungs)

- Alveoli (Air sacs at the end of bronchioles)

- Diaphragm (The muscle below the lungs)

- Rib Cage
Quick Tip: The path of air is crucial for labeling correctly: Nasal Passage → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli.


Question 110:

Write the functions of liver.

Correct Answer:
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The liver is a vital organ with a wide range of functions, including:


1. Production of Bile: The liver produces bile, which is stored in the gall bladder and helps in the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine.


2. Metabolism: It plays a central role in metabolizing carbohydrates (maintaining blood glucose levels), fats, and proteins.


3. Detoxification: It detoxifies the blood by converting harmful substances like drugs, alcohol, and metabolic wastes (like ammonia into urea) into less harmful substances that can be excreted.


4. Storage: The liver stores glucose in the form of glycogen, and also stores vitamins (like A, D, E, K, B12) and minerals (like iron and copper).


5. Synthesis: It synthesizes important plasma proteins, such as albumin and clotting factors.
Quick Tip: Think of the liver as the body's main chemical processing plant. It handles digestion, metabolism, detoxification, and storage.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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