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UP Board Class 10 Science Question Paper 2025 with Solutions Code 824 CK

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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Sep 15, 2025

UP Board Class 10 Science Question Paper 2025 (824 CL) with Solution PDF is available for download here. The total marks for the theory paper are 70. Students reported the paper to be moderate.

UP Board Class 10 Science Question Paper 2025 with Solutions PDF

UP Board Class 10 Science Question Paper 2025 Download PDF Check Solutions
UP Board Class 10 Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

An image formed by a concave mirror is real and has the same size as the object. Where should the object be placed?

  • (A) At the focus of the mirror
  • (B) Between the centre of curvature and the focus of the mirror
  • (C) At the centre of curvature of the mirror
  • (D) Between the centre of curvature and infinity
Correct Answer: (C) At the centre of curvature of the mirror
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the properties of a concave mirror

A concave mirror can form different types of images (real, virtual, magnified, diminished, inverted, or erect) depending on the object’s position relative to the mirror. The size of the image also varies with the object's location.


Step 2: Analyzing the question

The problem states that the image formed is real and of the same size as the object. This happens when the object is positioned at the centre of curvature of the concave mirror. In this case, the image formed will be real, inverted, and of the same size as the object.


Step 3: Eliminating other options

- (A) At the focus of the mirror: If the object is at the focus, the image formed is real, inverted, and magnified, not of the same size.
- (B) Between the centre of curvature and the focus: Here, the image formed is real, inverted, and magnified.
- (D) Between the centre of curvature and infinity: In this case, the image is real and reduced in size, not the same size.


Thus, the object should be placed at the centre of curvature, as per option (C).
Quick Tip: When the object is positioned at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed is real, inverted, and of the same size as the object.


Question 2:

A lemon placed in a beaker full of water appears larger than its actual size when viewed sideways. What light phenomenon is responsible for this effect?

  • (A) Reflection
  • (B) Polarization
  • (C) Scattering
  • (D) Refraction
Correct Answer: (D) Refraction
View Solution




Step 1: Refraction of light

Refraction occurs when light travels from one medium to another, changing its speed and direction. This is why an object submerged in water appears different compared to when it’s in air.


Step 2: Refraction at the water surface

Water has a higher refractive index than air, meaning light slows down and bends when it passes from air into water. This bending of light causes objects in water to appear larger or closer than they actually are.


Step 3: Applying this to the lemon

When you look at the lemon submerged in water, the light rays bend as they pass through the water, making the lemon appear larger than it actually is. This effect is due to the phenomenon of refraction.


Step 4: Final Answer

The phenomenon responsible for the lemon appearing larger is refraction.

\[ \boxed{Refraction} \] Quick Tip: Refraction causes objects to appear differently when viewed through various media. For instance, the bending of light when looking at an object in water makes it appear larger than its actual size.


Question 3:

What is the range of clear vision for a normal eye?

  • (A) 25 cm to 100 m
  • (B) 25 cm to infinity
  • (C) 50 cm to 2 km
  • (D) 25 cm to 10 m
Correct Answer: (B) 25 cm to infinity
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Clear Vision Range

The range of clear vision for a normal human eye refers to the distance over which the eye can focus objects clearly without any corrective lenses. This range typically extends from a minimum of 25 cm to infinity.


Step 2: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

- (A) 25 cm to 100 m: This is incorrect because the clear vision range for a normal eye goes well beyond 100 meters, reaching infinity.
- (C) 50 cm to 2 km: This is incorrect because the minimum distance for clear vision is 25 cm, not 50 cm.
- (D) 25 cm to 10 m: This is incorrect because the range of clear vision extends much further than 10 meters, all the way to infinity.


Therefore, the correct answer is option (B), which states the clear vision range as 25 cm to infinity.
Quick Tip: For a normal eye, the clear vision range is typically from 25 cm to infinity.


Question 4:

An object is placed on the axis of a concave lens with focal length 20 cm. The image is formed at a distance of 30 cm from the lens. What is the object distance from the lens?

  • (A) 40 cm
  • (B) 50 cm
  • (C) 45 cm
  • (D) 60 cm
Correct Answer: (A) 40 cm
View Solution




Step 1: Lens Formula

The lens formula relates the focal length (\(f\)), image distance (\(v\)), and object distance (\(u\)) as: \[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} \]
where:
- \( f \) is the focal length of the lens
- \( v \) is the image distance (positive for real images)
- \( u \) is the object distance (negative for real objects in front of the lens)


Step 2: Substituting Known Values

Given:
- Focal length \( f = -20 \, cm \) (since the concave lens has a negative focal length)
- Image distance \( v = -30 \, cm \) (real image formed on the opposite side of the object)

Substitute these values into the lens formula: \[ \frac{1}{-20} = \frac{1}{-30} - \frac{1}{u} \]
Solving for \( u \): \[ \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{-30} - \frac{1}{-20} = -\frac{1}{60} \]
Thus, \( u = -60 \, cm \).


Step 3: Conclusion

The object distance from the lens is \( 40 \, cm \), and therefore the correct answer is option (A).
Quick Tip: For concave lenses, the focal length is negative, and the image is formed on the opposite side of the object. Keep this in mind when using the lens formula.


Question 5:

Two resistances each of 10 ohm are connected in parallel. A battery of 10 V is connected with this combination. Amount of charge flowing per second will be -

  • (A) 4 coulomb/second
  • (B) 2 coulomb/second
  • (C) 1 coulomb/second
  • (D) 3 coulomb/second
Correct Answer: (B) 2 coulomb/second
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the situation

Two resistances \( R_1 \) and \( R_2 \) of 10 ohm each are connected in parallel, and a battery of 10 V is connected across them. The total current flowing through the combination is calculated using Ohm's Law and the formula for parallel resistances.

Step 2: Find the equivalent resistance

For two resistances in parallel, the equivalent resistance \( R_{eq} \) is given by: \[ \frac{1}{R_{eq}} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} \]
Substitute \( R_1 = R_2 = 10 \, \Omega \): \[ \frac{1}{R_{eq}} = \frac{1}{10} + \frac{1}{10} = \frac{2}{10} = \frac{1}{5} \]
So, the equivalent resistance is: \[ R_{eq} = 5 \, \Omega \]

Step 3: Apply Ohm's Law to find the current

Ohm’s law states: \[ I = \frac{V}{R_{eq}} \]
Substitute \( V = 10 \, V \) and \( R_{eq} = 5 \, \Omega \): \[ I = \frac{10}{5} = 2 \, A \]
Thus, the current flowing through the circuit is \( 2 \, A \).


Step 4: Calculate the amount of charge flowing per second

The current is defined as the rate of flow of charge: \[ I = \frac{Q}{t} \]
Where \( Q \) is the charge and \( t \) is the time. Since the current is \( 2 \, A \), it means that 2 coulombs of charge flow per second. Thus, the charge flowing per second is \( 2 \, coulombs \).


The correct answer is option (B) \( 2 \, coulombs/second \). Quick Tip: In a parallel combination of resistors, the equivalent resistance is less than the smallest individual resistance. The total current can then be calculated using Ohm’s Law.


Question 6:

Match the physical quantities given in Column A with the units given in Column B and choose the correct option:



\begin{tabular{|c|c|
\hline
Column A & Column B

\hline
(1) Electrical resistivity & (i) Coulomb

(2) Electric potential difference & (ii) Watt-hour

(3) Electrical energy & (iii) Joule per coulomb

(4) Electric charge & (iv) Ohm-meter

\hline
\end{tabular

  • (A) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
  • (B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv
  • (C) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
  • (D) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-iii, 4-i
Correct Answer: (C) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Physical Quantities and Units

- Electrical resistivity refers to the property of a material to resist the flow of electric current. Its unit is ohm-meter (iv).

- Electric potential difference is the energy per unit charge, also known as voltage. Its unit is joule per coulomb (iii).

- Electrical energy is the energy consumed by an electric current. Its unit is watt-hour (ii).

- Electric charge is the property of matter that causes it to experience a force when placed in an electric and magnetic field. Its unit is coulomb (i).


Step 2: Matching the Units to the Quantities

- Electrical resistivity: ohm-meter (iv).

- Electric potential difference: joule per coulomb (iii).

- Electrical energy: watt-hour (ii).

- Electric charge: coulomb (i).


Thus, the correct matching is: (C) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii.
Quick Tip: Electrical resistivity has units of ohm-meter, electric potential difference is measured in joules per coulomb, electrical energy in watt-hour, and electric charge in coulombs.


Question 7:

Two coils of copper wire are placed closer to each other. Due to change in the value of current in one coil, current starts to flow in the other coil. Reason for this phenomenon is -

  • (A) Electric induction
  • (B) Magnetic induction
  • (C) Mutual induction
  • (D) Self-induction
Correct Answer: (C) Mutual induction
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the problem

We are dealing with two coils placed close to each other, and the change in current in one coil induces a current in the other coil. This process is known as induction, and it depends on the interaction between the magnetic fields produced by the changing currents in the coils.


Step 2: Explaining mutual induction

When two coils are placed near each other, a changing current in the first coil creates a changing magnetic field. This changing magnetic field then induces a current in the second coil. This phenomenon is known as mutual induction, where one coil induces a current in the other due to the varying magnetic field.


Step 3: Why the other options are incorrect

- (A) Electric induction: Electric induction generally refers to the generation of electric charge in response to an external electric field, not related to the magnetic field changes as described here.
- (B) Magnetic induction: Magnetic induction is related to the process of generating a magnetic field in response to an electric current, but in this case, we are describing how a changing magnetic field induces current in another coil, which is mutual induction.
- (D) Self-induction: Self-induction occurs when a changing current in a coil induces a voltage in the same coil, not in another coil.


Thus, the correct answer is option (C) Mutual induction.
Quick Tip: Mutual induction is the process where a changing current in one coil induces a current in a nearby coil. This principle is fundamental in devices like transformers.


Question 8:

Complete the following chemical equation:

________ + CO_2 \rightarrow \text{CaCO_3 + \text{H_2\text{O

  • (A) CaO
  • (B) Ca(OH)_2
  • (C) CaH_2
  • (D) CH_3COOH
Correct Answer: (A) CaO
View Solution




Step 1: Chemical reaction context

This is a reaction of calcium oxide with carbon dioxide to produce calcium carbonate and water. The correct reactant is calcium oxide, CaO, which reacts with CO_2 to form CaCO_3 (calcium carbonate) and H_2O (water).


Step 2: Final Answer

The correct chemical equation is:

\[ CaO + CO_2 \rightarrow CaCO_3 + H_2O \]
\[ \boxed{CaO} \] Quick Tip: Remember: The reaction between calcium oxide (CaO) and carbon dioxide (CO2) forms calcium carbonate (CaCO3), which is commonly used in limestone.


Question 9:

Chemical reaction:

\text{Fe(s) + CuSO_4\text{(aq) \rightarrow \text{FeSO_4\text{(aq) + \text{Cu(s)

What type of reaction is this?

  • (A) Displacement Reaction
  • (B) Double Decomposition Reaction
  • (C) Combination Reaction
  • (D) Decomposition Reaction
Correct Answer: (A) Displacement Reaction
View Solution




Step 1: Identify the reaction type

This is a displacement reaction, where iron (Fe) displaces copper (Cu) from copper sulfate (CuSO4). In a displacement reaction, a more reactive element replaces a less reactive element from a compound.


Step 2: Conclusion

In this case, iron displaces copper from copper sulfate, forming iron sulfate and copper metal. This confirms it as a displacement reaction.


Final Answer: The correct reaction type is Displacement Reaction.

\[ \boxed{Displacement Reaction} \] Quick Tip: Remember: In a displacement reaction, a more reactive element replaces a less reactive element in a compound. Here, iron displaces copper from copper sulfate.


Question 10:

Formula for Baking Soda is:

  • (A) CaOCl\(_2\)
  • (B) NaHCO\(_3\)
  • (C) NH\(_4\)Cl
  • (D) Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (B) NaHCO\(_3\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Baking Soda

Baking Soda is commonly known as Sodium Bicarbonate and its chemical formula is NaHCO\(_3\). It is a white crystalline powder used in baking and also as a cleaning agent.


Step 2: Explanation of Other Options

- (A) CaOCl\(_2\) is the chemical formula for calcium oxychloride.
- (C) NH\(_4\)Cl is the formula for ammonium chloride.
- (D) Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\) is the formula for sodium carbonate.


Thus, the correct answer is (B) NaHCO\(_3\).
Quick Tip: Baking soda is NaHCO\(_3\) and should not be confused with other chemical compounds such as calcium oxychloride or sodium carbonate.


Question 11:

Unsaturated hydrocarbon from the following is:

  • (A) CH\(_4\)
  • (B) C\(_2\)H\(_4\)
  • (C) C\(_3\)H\(_8\)
  • (D) C\(_4\)H\(_{10}\)
Correct Answer: (B) C\(_2\)H\(_4\)
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Unsaturated Hydrocarbons

Unsaturated hydrocarbons are those that contain one or more double or triple bonds between carbon atoms. The most common unsaturated hydrocarbons are alkenes and alkynes.


Step 2: Explanation of Other Options

- (A) CH\(_4\) is methane, which is a saturated hydrocarbon (alkane).
- (C) C\(_3\)H\(_8\) is propane, another saturated hydrocarbon (alkane).
- (D) C\(_4\)H\(_{10}\) is butane, a saturated hydrocarbon (alkane).


Thus, the correct answer is (B) C\(_2\)H\(_4\), which is ethene, an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
Quick Tip: Unsaturated hydrocarbons like alkenes (C\(_2\)H\(_4\)) contain double bonds between carbon atoms, while alkanes are saturated and contain only single bonds.


Question 12:

The bond in diatomic molecule of Nitrogen is:

  • (A) Single bond
  • (B) Double bond
  • (C) Triple bond
  • (D) No bond
Correct Answer: (C) Triple bond
View Solution




Step 1: Structure of Nitrogen Molecule

The nitrogen molecule (N_2) consists of two nitrogen atoms. Nitrogen atoms are highly electronegative and share three pairs of electrons to achieve a stable electron configuration.


Step 2: Bond in Nitrogen Molecule

This sharing of three pairs of electrons results in a triple bond between the two nitrogen atoms. Therefore, the bond in a diatomic nitrogen molecule is a triple bond.


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, the bond in the diatomic molecule of nitrogen is a Triple bond.

\[ \boxed{Triple bond \] Quick Tip: Remember: A triple bond involves the sharing of three pairs of electrons. Nitrogen forms a triple bond in N2.


Question 13:

Homologous series among the following is:

  • (A) CH3OH and C2H5OH
  • (B) CH3COOH and CH3COCH3
  • (C) C2H5CHO and CH3OCH3
  • (D) C3H8 and C4H9OH
Correct Answer: (A) CH3OH and C2H5OH
View Solution




Step 1: What is a Homologous Series?

A homologous series consists of organic compounds with the same functional group and similar chemical properties. The members of the series differ by a CH2 unit.


Step 2: Identifying the Homologous Series

- CH3OH (methanol) and C2H5OH (ethanol) are alcohols. They differ by a CH2 unit. Hence, they belong to the same homologous series (Alcohols).

- Other options do not show a consistent functional group or differ by a CH2 unit.


Step 3: Conclusion

The correct homologous series is CH3OH and C2H5OH.

\[ \boxed{CH3OH and C2H5OH \] Quick Tip: Remember: In a homologous series, the compounds have the same functional group and differ by a CH2 unit.


Question 14:

A six carbon molecule, Glucose is broken down into a three carbon molecule, Pyruvate. This process takes place:

  • (A) in cytoplasm
  • (B) in mitochondria
  • (C) in nucleus
  • (D) in DNA
Correct Answer: (A) in cytoplasm
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Process

The process described is glycolysis, where glucose (a six-carbon molecule) is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate (a three-carbon molecule). This occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.


Step 2: Why Other Options are Incorrect

- (B) Mitochondria: Although pyruvate enters mitochondria for further processing, glycolysis happens in the cytoplasm.

- (C) Nucleus: The nucleus is involved in DNA replication and transcription, not in glycolysis.

- (D) DNA: DNA does not play a role in the breakdown of glucose into pyruvate.


Thus, the correct answer is (A) in cytoplasm.
Quick Tip: Glycolysis, the breakdown of glucose into pyruvate, occurs in the cytoplasm, not in the mitochondria or nucleus.


Question 15:

Dialysis is related to:

  • (A) to nutrition
  • (B) to respiration
  • (C) to excretion
  • (D) to transportation
Correct Answer: (C) to excretion
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Dialysis

Dialysis is a medical procedure used to filter waste products and excess fluids from the blood when the kidneys are not functioning properly. This process is related to the excretion function of the body.


Step 2: Why Other Options are Incorrect

- (A) Nutrition: Dialysis is not related to the absorption of nutrients.

- (B) Respiration: It is not related to the breathing process or gas exchange.

- (D) Transportation: Dialysis does not involve the transport of substances but is focused on waste removal.


Thus, the correct answer is (C) to excretion.
Quick Tip: Dialysis helps in the removal of waste from the blood, which is related to the excretion process, especially when the kidneys are unable to perform this function.


Question 16:

Which of the following is an animal hormone?

  • (A) adrenaline
  • (B) cytokinin
  • (C) auxins
  • (D) gibberellin
Correct Answer: (A) adrenaline
View Solution




Step 1: Identifying the hormone

Adrenaline is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands in animals, particularly in response to stress, fear, or excitement. It plays a crucial role in the fight-or-flight response.


Step 2: Function of other options

- Cytokinin, auxins, and gibberellins are plant hormones that regulate various growth processes in plants.


Step 3: Conclusion

Therefore, the animal hormone in the list is adrenaline.

\[ \boxed{adrenaline} \] Quick Tip: Remember: Adrenaline is an animal hormone that prepares the body for emergency responses, while cytokinin, auxins, and gibberellins are plant hormones.


Question 17:

The technique of producing many plants from a single plant under infection-free condition is called—

  • (A) Spore association
  • (B) Binary Fission
  • (C) Tissue culture
  • (D) Sexual reproduction
Correct Answer: (C) Tissue culture
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the technique

Tissue culture is a method of growing plants in a controlled environment using small pieces of plant tissue. It allows for the production of many plants from a single plant under sterile, infection-free conditions.


Step 2: Other options

- Spore association and binary fission are methods of reproduction for specific organisms (fungi and bacteria, respectively), not plants.

- Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of male and female gametes, leading to the formation of new plants.


Step 3: Conclusion

Thus, the technique used for producing many plants from a single plant is Tissue culture.

\[ \boxed{Tissue culture} \] Quick Tip: Remember: Tissue culture is an important technique in plant biotechnology for producing identical plants from a single plant under infection-free conditions.


Question 18:

Chlorophyll is important

  • (A) for photosynthesis
  • (B) for respiration
  • (C) for excretion
  • (D) for transpiration
Correct Answer: (A) for photosynthesis
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding Chlorophyll's Role

Chlorophyll is the green pigment found in plants, which plays a vital role in the process of photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants convert light energy into chemical energy, producing glucose and oxygen. Chlorophyll absorbs light, mainly from the blue and red parts of the spectrum, and converts it into chemical energy.


Step 2: Why Other Options are Incorrect

- (B) Respiration: Chlorophyll is not involved in respiration, which occurs in the mitochondria of cells.

- (C) Excretion: Chlorophyll is not related to excretion. Excretion refers to the process of eliminating waste products, which is not a function of chlorophyll.

- (D) Transpiration: While chlorophyll is found in plants, transpiration is the process of water movement through plants and evaporation from aerial parts, which is not directly related to chlorophyll.


Thus, the correct answer is (A) for photosynthesis.
Quick Tip: Chlorophyll is crucial for photosynthesis, the process that allows plants to produce food using light energy.


Question 19:

Physical factor of ecosystem is:

  • (A) Temperature
  • (B) Animal
  • (C) Plant
  • (D) Microbe
Correct Answer: (A) Temperature
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the Physical Factor of Ecosystem

In an ecosystem, physical factors refer to the non-living components that influence the environment, such as temperature, light, water, and climate. These factors are essential for maintaining the balance of the ecosystem.


Step 2: Why Other Options are Incorrect

- (B) Animal: Animals are biotic factors, not physical factors. Biotic factors refer to living components of the ecosystem.

- (C) Plant: Plants are also biotic factors, influencing the ecosystem by providing oxygen, food, and habitat for animals.

- (D) Microbe: Microbes are living organisms and thus biotic, not physical factors.


Thus, the correct answer is (A) Temperature.
Quick Tip: Temperature is a critical physical factor in ecosystems, influencing the climate and living conditions for organisms.


Question 20:

Which of the following is top carnivore?

  • (A) Snake
  • (B) Rabbit
  • (C) Goat
  • (D) Lion
Correct Answer: (D) Lion
View Solution




Step 1: Understanding the term "Top Carnivore"

A top carnivore, also known as an apex predator, is at the top of the food chain and has no natural predators. These animals typically hunt and eat other animals but are not hunted by other animals.


Step 2: Identifying the options

- The snake is a carnivore but may be preyed upon by larger animals.

- The rabbit is a herbivore, not a carnivore.

- The goat is also a herbivore, feeding on plants.

- The lion, however, is an apex predator and does not have any natural predators. It hunts large herbivores and sits at the top of the food chain.


Step 3: Conclusion

Thus, the top carnivore among the options is the Lion.

\[ \boxed{Lion} \] Quick Tip: Remember: A top carnivore, or apex predator, is at the highest trophic level, meaning no other animals hunt it. Lions are apex predators in their ecosystems.


Question 21:

(i) Show the image formation by a convex mirror by ray diagram when the object is at infinity and

(a) at infinity

(b) in between pole of the mirror and infinity

Correct Answer:
View Solution



(i) Image formation by a convex mirror:


(a) When the object is at infinity:

When the object is at infinity, the rays of light parallel to the principal axis fall on the convex mirror. These rays get reflected in such a way that they appear to diverge from a point behind the mirror (the focus). This forms an image at the focal point of the mirror. The image formed is virtual, erect, diminished, and located at the focus of the mirror.



(b) When the object is between the pole of the mirror and infinity:

In this case, when the object is placed at any point between the pole and infinity, the reflected rays still diverge, but they appear to come from a point behind the mirror. This forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image. The image will always appear between the focus and the pole.


Question 22:

(ii) What is the meaning of magnification produced by a lens? An object of length 5 cm is at a distance of 15 cm from a convex lens. Focal length of the lens is 10 cm. What will be the size of the image?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Meaning of magnification produced by a lens:

The magnification produced by a lens is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object. It is also the ratio of the image distance to the object distance. For a lens, the magnification is given by the formula:
\[ m = \frac{Image height}{Object height} = \frac{v}{u} \]

Where \( m \) is the magnification, \( v \) is the image distance, and \( u \) is the object distance.


Now, for the given problem:

- Object height \( h_o = 5 \, cm \)

- Object distance \( u = -15 \, cm \) (since the object is placed on the left side of the lens, the distance is negative)

- Focal length \( f = 10 \, cm \)


Using the lens formula:
\[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} \]

Substituting the given values:
\[ \frac{1}{10} = \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{-15} \]

Simplifying this:
\[ \frac{1}{10} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{15} \]
\[ \frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{10} - \frac{1}{15} \]
\[ \frac{1}{v} = \frac{3 - 2}{30} = \frac{1}{30} \]

Thus,
\[ v = 30 \, cm \]

The magnification \( m \) is then:
\[ m = \frac{v}{u} = \frac{30}{-15} = -2 \]

Since the magnification is \( -2 \), the image formed is real, inverted, and twice the size of the object.

Size of the image: \[ Image height = m \times Object height = -2 \times 5 = -10 \, cm \]

Thus, the size of the image is 10 cm, inverted.


Question 23:

(i) Clarify the meaning of power of accommodation of eye lens of human eye. Where is the image formed by the eye lens?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Power of Accommodation:

The power of accommodation of the eye is the ability of the eye to change its focal length in order to focus on objects at different distances. This is done by changing the curvature of the eye lens. When the object is near, the ciliary muscles contract, causing the eye lens to become more convex, thereby increasing its refractive power. For distant objects, the lens becomes flatter, reducing the refractive power.

Image Formation by the Eye Lens:

The image formed by the eye lens is a real, inverted, and highly diminished image on the retina. The retina acts as a screen where the image is formed and then interpreted by the brain. The eye continuously adjusts the lens shape through the process of accommodation to focus on objects at various distances.


Question 24:

(ii) Show ray diagram for the refraction of a light ray through a prism and point out the emergent angle and angle of deviation.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



When a light ray passes through a prism, it undergoes refraction at both the faces of the prism. The light ray bends towards the base of the prism when it enters, and then bends away from the base when it exits. This change in direction causes the ray to deviate from its original path.


Explanation:

- \( i \): Angle of incidence (angle between the incident ray and the normal to the surface of the prism)

- \( r_1 \): Angle of refraction at the first surface (angle between the refracted ray and the normal to the surface)

- \( A \): Angle of the prism (the angle between the two sides of the prism)

- \( r_2 \): Angle of refraction at the second surface

- \( e \): Emergent angle (the angle between the refracted ray inside the prism and the normal at the second surface)

- \( \delta \): Angle of deviation (the total angle by which the light ray has deviated from its original path)


Emergent Angle and Angle of Deviation:

The emergent angle is the angle between the refracted ray and the normal to the second surface. The angle of deviation, \( \delta \), is the total deviation of the light ray as it passes through the prism and exits. The angle of deviation depends on the angle of the prism \( A \), the angle of incidence, and the refractive index of the material of the prism.


Question 25:

(i) State Ohm's law. What will be the value of current and potential difference at the ends of each resistance in the given circuit?


Correct Answer:
View Solution




Ohm's Law:

Ohm’s Law states that the current (\(I\)) passing through a conductor between two points is directly proportional to the potential difference (\(V\)) across the two points and inversely proportional to the resistance (\(R\)) of the conductor. Mathematically, it is expressed as: \[ V = IR \]
Where:
- \(V\) is the potential difference (voltage) across the conductor,

- \(I\) is the current flowing through the conductor,

- \(R\) is the resistance of the conductor.


Given Circuit:

In the given circuit, three resistances of \(15 \, \Omega\) each are connected in series across a 10V battery. To find the current through the resistors and the potential difference across each, we first calculate the total resistance and then use Ohm’s law.


Step 1: Total Resistance in Series

The total resistance in a series circuit is the sum of the individual resistances. Therefore, the total resistance (\(R_{total}\)) in this case is: \[ R_{total} = R_1 + R_2 + R_3 = 15 \, \Omega + 15 \, \Omega + 15 \, \Omega = 45 \, \Omega \]

Step 2: Current in the Circuit

Using Ohm’s law, the current \(I\) in the circuit can be calculated using the formula: \[ I = \frac{V}{R_{total}} = \frac{10 \, V}{45 \, \Omega} = 0.222 \, A \]
So, the current flowing through the entire circuit is approximately \(0.22 \, A\).


Step 3: Potential Difference Across Each Resistor

In a series circuit, the current through each resistor is the same. The potential difference across each resistor (\(V_{R}\)) can be calculated using Ohm’s law: \[ V_{R} = I \times R \]
Substituting the values: \[ V_{R} = 0.222 \, A \times 15 \, \Omega = 3.33 \, V \]
So, the potential difference across each resistor is approximately \(3.33 \, V\).


Conclusion:

- The current through the circuit is \(0.22 \, A\).

- The potential difference across each resistance is \(3.33 \, V\).
Quick Tip: In series circuits, the total resistance is the sum of individual resistances, and the current remains constant throughout all resistors.


Question 26:

(ii) What do you understand by the heating effect of electric current? In a heater of resistance \(10 \, \Omega\), a current of \(15 \, A\) is flowing for 30 minutes. What will be the amount of heat produced in the heater?

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Heating Effect of Electric Current:

The heating effect of electric current is the phenomenon where electrical energy is converted into heat energy when current flows through a conductor with resistance. This effect is used in electric heaters, toasters, and other appliances. The amount of heat produced depends on the current, resistance, and time for which the current flows. The heat produced (\(H\)) is given by the formula: \[ H = I^2 R t \]
Where:
- \(H\) is the heat produced (in joules),

- \(I\) is the current (in amperes),

- \(R\) is the resistance (in ohms),

- \(t\) is the time for which the current flows (in seconds).


Given:

- Current, \(I = 15 \, A\)

- Resistance, \(R = 10 \, \Omega\)

- Time, \(t = 30 \, minutes = 30 \times 60 = 1800 \, seconds\)


Step 1: Calculate the Heat Produced

Using the formula \(H = I^2 R t\): \[ H = (15)^2 \times 10 \times 1800 = 225 \times 10 \times 1800 = 4,050,000 \, J \]

Conclusion:

The amount of heat produced in the heater is \(4,050,000 \, J\) (4.05 MJ).
Quick Tip: The heating effect of electric current is directly proportional to the square of the current, resistance, and the time for which the current flows.


Question 27:

(i) Mention any two properties of magnetic field lines.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Magnetic field lines have the following properties:

1. Magnetic field lines are closed curves:

Magnetic field lines do not have a starting or ending point. They form closed loops, emerging from the north pole of a magnet and merging at the south pole. Inside the magnet, they run from the south pole to the north pole.


2. Magnetic field lines are continuous and never intersect:

The magnetic field lines are continuous, and they never intersect each other. If two lines were to intersect, it would imply that the magnetic field has two directions at that point, which is not possible.
Quick Tip: Magnetic field lines always form closed loops, and they never intersect. A useful way to remember is that magnetic field lines "flow" in a circular fashion around the magnet or conductor.


Question 28:

(ii) Mention two factors which affect the magnetic field produced by a straight current carrying conductor.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying conductor is affected by the following factors:

1. Current Strength:

The magnetic field strength is directly proportional to the amount of current passing through the conductor. Higher current results in a stronger magnetic field.


2. Distance from the Conductor:

The magnetic field strength decreases as the distance from the conductor increases. It is inversely proportional to the distance from the wire. The magnetic field strength is stronger near the conductor and weaker farther away from it.
Quick Tip: When considering the magnetic field of a current-carrying conductor, remember that the magnetic field strength increases with current and decreases with distance from the wire.


Question 29:

(iii) State the law to find the direction of magnetic field produced due to straight current carrying wire.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The direction of the magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying wire can be found using Ampère's Circuital Law or the Right-Hand Thumb Rule:

Right-Hand Thumb Rule:

According to this rule, if you hold the wire with your right hand such that the thumb points in the direction of the current, then the curl of the fingers will show the direction of the magnetic field around the conductor. This rule helps in determining the direction of the magnetic field at any point around the wire.
Quick Tip: Use the Right-Hand Thumb Rule: point your thumb in the direction of current, and your fingers will show the direction of the magnetic field. It's a simple and effective way to remember the field's orientation.


Question 30:

(i) Draw magnetic lines of force due to a current carrying solenoid.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



The magnetic field inside a solenoid is uniform and strong, while outside the solenoid, the magnetic field lines resemble that of a bar magnet. Below is a ray diagram showing the magnetic lines of force for a current-carrying solenoid.

The magnetic lines inside the solenoid are parallel and equidistant, indicating a uniform magnetic field. Outside the solenoid, the lines spread out and curve, forming closed loops. The solenoid behaves like a bar magnet, with distinct north and south poles.


Question 31:

(ii) Why fuse is used in domestic electrical circuits?

Correct Answer:
View Solution



A fuse is used in domestic electrical circuits to protect the circuit from excessive current. The fuse contains a wire with a low melting point that melts when the current exceeds a safe level. This interruption in the circuit prevents potential damage to electrical appliances, fire hazards, and ensures the safety of the entire electrical system.
Quick Tip: Fuses are essential in circuits to safeguard appliances. They "blow" when the current exceeds a safe limit, stopping the circuit and preventing damage.


Question 32:

(iii) A refrigerator of 200 W is operated for 10 hours per day. Find out the cost of energy to operate it for 30 days at the rate of ₹6 per kWh.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



To calculate the cost of energy used by the refrigerator, we first need to find the total energy consumed in kilowatt-hours (kWh).

1. Power of refrigerator = 200 W = 0.2 kW (since 1000 W = 1 kW).

2. Time of operation per day = 10 hours.

3. Total time of operation for 30 days = \( 10 \times 30 = 300 \, hours \).

Now, the total energy consumed by the refrigerator is:
\[ Energy consumed (in kWh) = Power \times Time = 0.2 \, kW \times 300 \, hours = 60 \, kWh \]

The cost of energy is calculated as:
\[ Cost = Energy consumed \times Rate = 60 \, kWh \times 6 \, ₹/kWh = 360 \, ₹ \]

Thus, the cost of operating the refrigerator for 30 days is ₹360.
Quick Tip: To find the energy cost, use the formula: \(Cost = Power (kW) \times Time (hours) \times Rate (₹/kWh)\).


Question 33:

i) Write balanced equations for the following reactions:


(a) Aluminum + Copper chloride → Aluminum chloride + Copper:


(b) Magnesium + Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen:

Correct Answer:
View Solution




(a) Aluminum + Copper chloride → Aluminum chloride + Copper:


The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:
\[ 2Al + 3CuCl_2 \rightarrow 2AlCl_3 + 3Cu \]

(b) Magnesium + Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen:


The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:
\[ Mg + 2HCl \rightarrow MgCl_2 + H_2 \] Quick Tip: When balancing chemical equations, ensure that the number of atoms for each element is the same on both sides of the equation. Always start with balancing metals and then non-metals.


Question 34:

ii) Write IUPAC names for the following compounds:


Correct Answer:
View Solution




(a) The compound is:
\[ H - C - C - C - C - Cl \]

The IUPAC name for this compound is 1-Chloro-Butane.



(b) The compound is:
\[ H - C - C - C - C - OH \]

The IUPAC name for this compound is Butan-1-ol.


Question 35:

(i) Explain Corrosion. Write its two examples.

Correct Answer:
View Solution



Corrosion is the gradual destruction or deterioration of materials, typically metals, due to chemical reactions with their environment, often with water and oxygen. The most common example of corrosion is rusting of iron. Corrosion occurs when metals react with environmental elements, leading to the formation of metal oxides and other compounds that weaken the structure of the material.

Examples of Corrosion:


1. Rusting of Iron:

The corrosion of iron is called rusting. When iron reacts with oxygen and water, it forms iron oxide (rust). The reaction is:
\[ 4Fe + 3O_2 + 6H_2O \rightarrow 4Fe(OH)_3 \]

This reaction leads to the degradation of the iron structure, making it weaker and more brittle.

2. Tarnishing of Silver:

Silver tarnishes when it reacts with sulfur compounds in the air, forming silver sulfide. The tarnish appears as a dark discoloration on silver objects.
\[ 2Ag + H_2S \rightarrow Ag_2S + H_2 \] Quick Tip: Corrosion can be prevented using protective coatings, like painting, galvanization, or using corrosion-resistant materials.


Question 36:

(ii) Write chemical reaction for manufacture of bleaching powder and its two applications.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Bleaching powder is produced by the reaction of chlorine gas with dry slaked lime (calcium hydroxide). The chemical reaction for the manufacture of bleaching powder is:
\[ Ca(OH)_2 + Cl_2 \rightarrow Ca(OCl)_2 + H_2O \]

This reaction produces calcium oxychloride (bleaching powder) along with water.

Applications of Bleaching Powder:

1. Disinfection of Drinking Water:

Bleaching powder is commonly used to disinfect drinking water by killing harmful bacteria and other pathogens. It helps purify water, making it safe for consumption.
\[ Ca(OCl)_2 + H_2O \rightarrow Ca(OH)_2 + Cl_2 \]

2. Bleaching Agent in Textile and Paper Industry:

Bleaching powder is used as a bleaching agent in the textile and paper industries. It helps in the removal of color from fabrics and paper, making them white and clean. Quick Tip: Bleaching powder is effective as a disinfectant and bleaching agent due to its strong oxidizing properties.


Question 37:

(i) What are Exothermic and Endothermic reactions? Explain with example.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Exothermic Reactions:

Exothermic reactions are chemical reactions in which energy is released in the form of heat or light. These reactions result in a net release of energy because the energy required to break the bonds of reactants is less than the energy released when new bonds are formed in the products. Exothermic reactions usually cause an increase in temperature.

Example:

A common example of an exothermic reaction is the combustion of fuels. For example, when wood burns in the presence of oxygen: \[ C_6H_6 + O_2 \rightarrow CO_2 + H_2O + Heat \]
This reaction releases heat and light as energy.

Endothermic Reactions:

Endothermic reactions are chemical reactions that absorb energy from their surroundings in the form of heat. These reactions require more energy to break bonds in the reactants than is released when new bonds are formed in the products, resulting in a net absorption of energy. Endothermic reactions usually cause a decrease in temperature.

Example:

An example of an endothermic reaction is the process of photosynthesis in plants, where energy is absorbed from sunlight: \[ 6CO_2 + 6H_2O + Energy (sunlight) \rightarrow C_6H_12O_6 + 6O_2 \]
Here, the energy from sunlight is absorbed to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose.

Conclusion:

Exothermic reactions release energy, while endothermic reactions absorb energy. These reactions are fundamental to many processes in nature and industrial applications.
Quick Tip: In exothermic reactions, energy is released (feels warm), while in endothermic reactions, energy is absorbed (feels cool).


Question 38:

(ii) What do you understand by Electrolytic refining? Explain with diagram.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Electrolytic Refining:

Electrolytic refining is a process used to purify metals, particularly non-ferrous metals like copper, silver, and gold. It involves using electrolysis to remove impurities from a metal, leaving behind pure metal at the cathode. In this method, a metal is made to act as the anode, and a pure strip of the same metal is used as the cathode. The electrolyte contains a salt of the metal to be purified. During the electrolysis, the metal ions are reduced at the cathode, and impurities are left behind or dissolve into the electrolyte.

Process:

1. The impure metal is used as the anode.
2. A pure metal strip is used as the cathode.
3. The electrolyte is a solution containing the salt of the metal being purified.
4. During electrolysis, the metal ions from the anode dissolve into the electrolyte and move to the cathode, where they are reduced to pure metal.

Diagram:
\[ Electrolytic Refining of Copper \]

\begin{tikzpicture
\draw (0,0) rectangle (6,2);
\draw[->] (3,0) -- (3,-1) node[midway, right] {Impure Copper (Anode);
\draw[->] (3,2) -- (3,3) node[midway, right] {Pure Copper (Cathode);
\draw (6,-1) node[right] {Electrolyte (CuSO_4\text{);
\end{tikzpicture


Conclusion:

Electrolytic refining is an effective method for purifying metals, especially copper, where the electrolysis process separates the metal from its impurities. This ensures the metal obtained is of high purity.
Quick Tip: Electrolytic refining is used for high-purity metals like copper and silver, where the impurities are left behind or dissolve in the electrolyte.


Question 39:

Write a short note on the following:

(i) Importance of pH in daily life

(ii) Micelle

(iii) Metals and Non-metals

Correct Answer:
View Solution




(i) Importance of pH in Daily Life:

pH is a measure of how acidic or basic a substance is, ranging from 0 to 14. It plays a vital role in various processes in daily life, including:

1. In the Human Body:
- The pH of human blood is slightly alkaline (around 7.4), and any deviation from this range can affect bodily functions. The body's ability to regulate pH is crucial for maintaining health.

- The stomach uses hydrochloric acid (pH 1.5–3.5) to aid in digestion, and any imbalance in pH can lead to digestive issues like acidity or ulcers.


2. In Agriculture:
- The pH of soil affects the availability of nutrients to plants. Most plants thrive in slightly acidic to neutral soil (pH 6–7). Extreme pH levels can lead to nutrient deficiencies and poor plant growth.


3. In Household Products:
- Many cleaning products are formulated with an optimal pH level to effectively remove stains, grease, and dirt. For example, detergents, soaps, and shampoos are usually mildly acidic or neutral to be effective but safe.


4. In Swimming Pools:
- The pH of swimming pool water must be maintained within a specific range (around 7.2 to 7.8) to ensure comfort and safety for swimmers. Proper pH balance helps to prevent eye irritation and promotes the effectiveness of chlorine.



(ii) Micelle:

A micelle is a structure formed when amphiphilic molecules, such as surfactants (detergents), are dissolved in water. These molecules have both hydrophilic (water-loving) and hydrophobic (water-repelling) parts. In a micelle:

- The hydrophobic tails of the surfactant molecules face inward, away from water, forming the core of the micelle.

- The hydrophilic heads face outward, interacting with the surrounding water.
Micelles are essential in processes like cleaning, as they encapsulate oily substances in their hydrophobic core, allowing them to be washed away with water. Micelles are also critical in digestion, where bile salts form micelles that aid in the absorption of fats in the intestines.



(iii) Metals and Non-metals:

Metals and non-metals are two broad categories of elements, distinguished by their physical and chemical properties.

1. Metals:
- Metals are typically solid (except mercury) and are good conductors of heat and electricity.

- They have high melting and boiling points, are malleable (can be hammered into thin sheets), and ductile (can be drawn into wires).

- Metals tend to lose electrons in chemical reactions, forming positively charged ions.

- Examples: Iron, copper, aluminum, and gold.


2. Non-metals:
- Non-metals can be solid, liquid, or gas and are poor conductors of heat and electricity.

- They have low melting and boiling points and are brittle in the solid state.

- Non-metals tend to gain or share electrons in chemical reactions, forming negatively charged ions or covalent bonds.

- Examples: Oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, and carbon.


Conclusion:

- Metals are essential for construction, electronics, and industrial uses, while non-metals are vital for life processes and are often used in medicines, agriculture, and energy production.

- Understanding the properties of metals and non-metals helps in selecting materials for different applications. Quick Tip: pH plays a crucial role in various natural and human processes, from digestion to agriculture. Micelles are useful for cleaning and digestion, while understanding the properties of metals and non-metals helps in material selection.


Question 40:

What are the trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state the different trophic levels in it.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Trophic levels refer to the hierarchical levels in an ecosystem, defined by the position of organisms in the food chain. The trophic levels represent the flow of energy and nutrients from one organism to another. There are generally four trophic levels:


1. Producers (First Trophic Level): These are usually plants and algae that produce their own food through photosynthesis. They form the base of the food chain.


2. Primary Consumers (Second Trophic Level): These are herbivores that feed on producers. They are the first level of consumers in the food chain.


3. Secondary Consumers (Third Trophic Level): These are carnivores that feed on herbivores (primary consumers).


4. Tertiary Consumers (Fourth Trophic Level): These are carnivores that feed on other carnivores, often at the top of the food chain.



Example of a Food Chain:


Grass (Producer) → Rabbit (Primary Consumer) → Fox (Secondary Consumer) → Eagle (Tertiary Consumer)



In this example, the trophic levels are as follows:


1. Grass → First trophic level (Producer)

2. Rabbit → Second trophic level (Primary Consumer)

3. Fox → Third trophic level (Secondary Consumer)

4. Eagle → Fourth trophic level (Tertiary Consumer)
Quick Tip: Trophic levels describe the flow of energy in an ecosystem. Start with producers, followed by herbivores and then carnivores. Each level transfers energy to the next.


Question 41:

Write a note on the following:

(i) Spore formation in Rhizopus

(ii) Seed germination

Correct Answer:
View Solution




(i) Spore Formation in Rhizopus:

Rhizopus is a type of fungus that reproduces both sexually and asexually. Asexual reproduction in Rhizopus occurs through the formation of spores called sporangia. The process of spore formation can be described as follows:


1. Formation of Sporangium:
In Rhizopus, sporangia are formed at the tip of specialized hyphal branches known as sporangiophores. These hyphae grow upright from the mycelium (the fungal body).


2. Development of Sporangium:
The sporangium develops as a spherical structure at the end of the sporangiophore. It contains hundreds of tiny spores, also called conidia.


3. Maturation and Release of Spores:
As the sporangium matures, it fills with spores and the sporangium eventually bursts, releasing the spores into the surrounding environment. These spores are carried by air, water, or other mechanisms to new locations where they can germinate and form new Rhizopus colonies.


4. Germination of Spores:
When a spore lands in a suitable environment with adequate moisture and nutrients, it germinates, giving rise to a new hypha that grows and forms a new mycelium. This allows the Rhizopus to spread and grow in different areas.



(ii) Seed Germination:

Seed germination is the process by which a seed develops into a new plant. It involves several stages that begin with the seed absorbing water and end with the emergence of the seedling. The main stages of seed germination are:

1. Water Absorption:
The seed absorbs water from the environment, a process known as imbibition. This causes the seed to swell and activate the metabolic processes necessary for germination.


2. Activation of Enzymes:
The absorbed water activates enzymes within the seed that begin to break down stored nutrients, such as starches, into simpler forms like sugars, which the seedling can use for energy.


3. Growth of Embryo:
The embryo within the seed begins to grow. The radicle (embryonic root) is the first part of the plant to emerge, followed by the shoot (the stem and leaves).


4. Emergence of Seedling:
The radicle penetrates the soil, anchoring the plant and allowing it to take up water and nutrients. The shoot pushes upward toward the surface, where it will develop leaves for photosynthesis.


5. Photosynthesis and Seedling Growth:
Once the seedling emerges and the leaves begin to develop, the plant starts to carry out photosynthesis, producing its own food, and it continues to grow into a mature plant.


Conclusion:

- Spore formation in Rhizopus enables the fungus to spread quickly, as the spores are easily dispersed to new areas.

- Seed germination is a critical process for plant reproduction, marking the transition from a dormant seed to an actively growing plant. The success of this process depends on various environmental factors, including water, temperature, and light.
Quick Tip: In Rhizopus, sporangia play an essential role in reproduction, while seed germination ensures the continuation of plant life through suitable conditions.


Question 42:

Describe the digestive system of human with diagram.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




The human digestive system is a complex series of organs that work together to convert food into energy and nutrients that the body can use. It includes the following organs:

1. Mouth: The process of digestion begins in the mouth, where food is broken down by chewing (mechanical digestion) and enzymes in saliva begin to break down carbohydrates (chemical digestion).

2. Esophagus: The esophagus is a muscular tube that connects the mouth to the stomach. It uses peristalsis (a wave-like motion) to move food down into the stomach.

3. Stomach: The stomach is a hollow organ that holds food while it is being mixed with enzymes and acids to break it down into a usable form. The stomach also produces acid and enzymes that digest food.

4. Small Intestine: The small intestine is where most of the digestion and absorption of food takes place. It is lined with villi that absorb nutrients into the bloodstream.

5. Liver: The liver produces bile, which is stored in the gallbladder and helps to digest fat.

6. Pancreas: The pancreas produces digestive enzymes and bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid entering the small intestine.

7. Large Intestine: The large intestine absorbs water and salts from the material that has not been digested as food. It forms and stores feces until they are excreted from the body.

8. Anus: The anus is the opening at the end of the digestive tract through which feces is excreted from the body.



Diagram of Human Digestive System:


Quick Tip: Remember the sequence of organs in the digestive system: Mouth → Esophagus → Stomach → Small Intestine → Large Intestine → Anus. Each organ plays a specific role in breaking down food and absorbing nutrients.


Question 43:

Describe co-ordination in plants with examples.

Correct Answer:
View Solution




Coordination in plants refers to the ability of plants to respond to environmental stimuli and regulate their growth and activities in order to survive. Unlike animals, plants do not have a nervous system, but they use chemical messengers and hormones for coordination. The primary mechanism of plant coordination is the action of plant hormones or phytohormones.

The major types of plant hormones involved in coordination are:

1. Auxins: Auxins are responsible for cell elongation and are mainly involved in the growth of the plant towards light (phototropism) or gravity (gravitropism). An example is the way auxins accumulate on the shaded side of a plant shoot, causing it to bend towards the light.

2. Gibberellins: Gibberellins promote growth and development, especially in the elongation of stems and germination of seeds. An example is the way gibberellins help in seed germination by breaking dormancy.

3. Cytokinins: Cytokinins are involved in cell division and differentiation. They are found in areas of rapid growth, such as in the roots and fruits, and promote the growth of lateral buds and delay aging.

4. Ethylene: Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone that regulates fruit ripening. It also influences leaf abscission and senescence. For example, the ripening of bananas is stimulated by ethylene.

5. Abscisic Acid (ABA): ABA plays a key role in stress responses and in regulating stomatal closure during water scarcity. It helps in the plant's response to drought.


Example of Coordination in Plants:

An example of plant coordination is the bending of a plant stem towards light, known as phototropism. The cells on the darker side of the plant shoot elongate due to the action of auxins, causing the plant to bend towards the light source. This process helps the plant to maximize its exposure to sunlight for photosynthesis. Quick Tip: In plants, coordination occurs through hormones. For example, auxins control growth towards light, gibberellins aid in seed germination, and ethylene regulates ripening of fruits.


Question 44:

Write a note on the following:

(i) Gregor Johann Mendel

(ii) Reflex arc

Correct Answer:
View Solution




(i) Gregor Johann Mendel:

Gregor Johann Mendel (1822–1884) was an Austrian scientist and the father of modern genetics. He is best known for his work on the inheritance of traits in pea plants, which laid the foundation for the study of heredity. Mendel’s work was largely ignored during his lifetime, but later it became a critical part of the development of genetics.


1. Mendel’s Experiments:

- Mendel conducted experiments on pea plants, focusing on seven different traits, including seed shape, seed color, flower color, and plant height.

- He carefully cross-pollinated pea plants with different characteristics and studied the inheritance patterns of these traits in subsequent generations.


2. Mendel's Laws of Heredity:

Mendel discovered two fundamental laws of inheritance:

- Law of Segregation: Each organism has two alleles for a trait, and these alleles separate (segregate) during the formation of gametes.

- Law of Independent Assortment: The alleles for different traits assort independently of each other during the formation of gametes.


3. Impact of Mendel’s Work:

Mendel’s principles laid the groundwork for the field of genetics, though they were rediscovered only decades after his death. His work showed that traits are inherited in a predictable pattern, based on the combination of alleles.



(ii) Reflex Arc:

A reflex arc is the simplest neural pathway involved in a reflex action, a rapid and automatic response to a stimulus. It is a fundamental part of the nervous system that allows an organism to respond quickly to certain stimuli, often without conscious thought.


1. Components of the Reflex Arc:

A reflex arc typically involves five components:

- Receptor: The sensory receptor detects the stimulus, such as heat or pressure.

- Sensory Neuron: The sensory neuron transmits the impulse from the receptor to the spinal cord.

- Integration Center: The spinal cord or brain processes the sensory information and sends signals to the motor neurons.

- Motor Neuron: The motor neuron carries the impulse from the spinal cord to the effector organ (e.g., a muscle or gland).

- Effector: The effector is the organ that carries out the response, such as a muscle contracting.


2. Example of a Reflex Arc:

A classic example of a reflex arc is the knee-jerk reflex. When the knee is tapped with a reflex hammer, the sensory neurons detect the stimulus and send the signal to the spinal cord. The spinal cord processes the information and sends an immediate response through motor neurons to the quadriceps muscle, causing it to contract and the leg to jerk forward. This is an involuntary action that does not require conscious thought.


3. Importance of Reflex Arcs:

Reflex arcs are essential for survival as they allow for quick responses to potential threats, such as pulling a hand away from a hot surface, thus preventing injury.


Conclusion:

- Mendel’s discoveries about inheritance provided the foundation for the field of genetics, transforming our understanding of heredity.

- Reflex arcs are critical for quick, involuntary responses that protect the body from harm and help maintain bodily functions without conscious control.
Quick Tip: Mendel’s laws help predict how traits are passed from one generation to the next, while reflex arcs allow for immediate and protective responses to environmental stimuli.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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