Identify the amino acids given below and select the correct option:


\begin{tabular{ccc
Structure A & Structure B & Structure C

COOH & COOH & COOH

\(|\) & \(|\) & \(|\)

\(H-C-NH_2\) & \(H-C-NH_2\) & \(H-C-NH_2\)

\(|\) & \(|\) & \(|\)

\(CH_3\) & \(H\) & \(CH_2-OH\)

\end{tabular

• (A) A - Glycine, B - Serine, C - Alanine
• (B) A - Alanine, B - Serine, C - Glycine
• (C) A - Alanine, B - Glycine, C - Serine
• (D) A - Serine, B - Alanine, C - Glycine

Identify ``X'' name of enzyme; and ``Y'' enzyme class number by observing the reaction given below:
\[ Glutamic acid + NH_3 + ATP \xrightarrow{X} Glutamine + ADP + iP \]

• (A) X - Glutamine oxidase, Y - 2
• (B) X - Glutamine synthetase, Y - 6
• (C) X - Glutamine reductase, Y - 4
• (D) X - Glutamine carboxylase, Y - 5

Identify the correct pair from the following lists:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|l|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 1 (Fruit Type) & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 2 (Example) & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 3 (Ovary Position)
\hline
I & Berry & A & Citrus & W & Inferior ovary
\hline
II & Pepo & B & Apple & X & Inferior ovary
\hline
III & Pome & C & Cucumber & Y & Inferior ovary
\hline
IV & Hesperidium & D & Guava & Z & Superior ovary
\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) I - D - W, \quad II - C - X, \quad III - A - Z, \quad IV - B - Y
• (B) I - D - W, \quad II - C - X, \quad III - B - Y, \quad IV - A - Z
• (C) I - A - W, \quad II - C - X, \quad III - B - Y, \quad IV - D - Z
• (D) I - C - W, \quad II - D - Y, \quad III - A - X, \quad IV - B - Z

Study the following table regarding Mendel's traits and choose the correct match:


\begin{tabular{|c|l|c|c|
\hline
& Character & Dominant & Recessive
\hline
I & Shape of seed & Round & Wrinkled
\hline
II & Colour of pod & Yellow & Green
\hline
III & Position of flower & Terminal & Axial
\hline
IV & Colour of seed coat & Yellow & Green
\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) I \& II
• (B) II \& III
• (C) III \& IV
• (D) I \& IV

Loosely arranged parenchyma cells in Lenticels:

• (A) Epithem
• (B) Hydathode
• (C) Stomata
• (D) Complementary cells

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Members of genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.

Reason (R): Fungal symbiont facilitates the absorption of manganese by the plant from the soil.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Which hormone promotes flowering in pineapple and induce parthenocarpy in tomato?

• (A) Ethylene
• (B) Auxin
• (C) Gibberellin
• (D) Cytokinin

Match the following:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|l|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 1 (Plant Name) & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 2 (Aestivation/Ovary) & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 3 (Placentation)
\hline
I & Mustard & A & Tubular corolla (Epigynous) & W & Parietal
\hline
II & Pea & B & Twisted corolla (Hypogynous) & X & Basal
\hline
III & China rose & C & Vexillary corolla & Y & Axile
\hline
IV & Sunflower & D & Valvate corolla & Z & Marginal
\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) I - D - W, \quad II - C - Z, \quad III - A - X, \quad IV - B - Y
• (B) I - D - W, \quad II - C - Z, \quad III - B - Y, \quad IV - A - X
• (C) I - A - Z, \quad II - D - Y, \quad III - B - X, \quad IV - C - W
• (D) I - C - X, \quad II - D - Y, \quad III - A - W, \quad IV - B - Z

Diplontic life cycle is shown by:

• (A) Volvox
• (B) Polysiphonia
• (C) Laminaria
• (D) Fucus

How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 1600 seeds in an angiospermic plant?

• (A) 1600
• (B) 1800
• (C) 3200
• (D) 2000

RNA interference involves:

• (A) Synthesis of cDNA and RNA using reverse transcriptase
• (B) Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA
• (C) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
• (D) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA

Choose the correct statement from the following:

• (A) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy
• (B) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy
• (C) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy and geitonogamy
• (D) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy

Resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew were induced by mutations in:

• (A) Cotton
• (B) Maize
• (C) Bhendi
• (D) Mung bean

Tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) is crossed with tall plant with green seeds (Ttyy). Find out proportions of offspring in F\(_1\) generation:

• (A) \(\frac{3}{8}\) Tall plants with green seeds, \(\frac{1}{8}\) Dwarf plants with green seeds
• (B) \(\frac{2}{8}\) Tall plants with green seeds, \(\frac{1}{8}\) Dwarf plants with green seeds
• (C) \(\frac{1}{8}\) Tall plants with green seeds, \(\frac{3}{8}\) Dwarf plants with green seeds
• (D) \(\frac{2}{8}\) Tall plants with green seeds, \(\frac{2}{8}\) Dwarf plants with green seeds

Mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA intermediate:

• (A) Plasmids
• (B) Cosmids
• (C) Transposons
• (D) Phages

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Telocentric chromosome contains one arm.

Reason (R): Telocentric chromosome shows middle centromere.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Floral formula of mustard flower:

• (A) Br, Brl, \(\oplus\), \(\male\female\), K\(_{4}\), C\(_{4}\), A\(_{2+4}\), G\(_{2}\)
• (B) Br, ebrl, %, \(\male\female\), K\(_{4}\), C\(_{2+2}\), A\(_{2+4}\), G\(_{(2)}\)
• (C) Ebr, Ebrl, \(\oplus\), \(\male\female\), K\(_{2+2}\), C\(_{4}\), A\(_{2+4}\), G\(_{(2)}\)
• (D) Ebr, Ebrl, \(\oplus\), \(\male\female\), K\(_{2-2}\), C\(_{4}\), A\(_{4+2}\), G\(_{2}\)

Identify the functions not related to Cytoskeleton?

I. Mechanical support

II. Cell motility

III. Intercellular transport

IV. Mesosome formation

• (A) I \& II
• (B) I \& III
• (C) II \& III
• (D) III \& IV

Match the following:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|l|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 1 (Deficient Micronutrient) & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 2 (Plant) & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 3 (Disease name)
\hline
I & Copper & A & Pecan & W & Dieback
\hline
II & Boron & B & Cauliflower & X & Heart-rot
\hline
III & Molybdenum & C & Beet & Y & Whiptail
\hline
IV & Nickel & D & Citrus & Z & Mouse ear
\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) I - D - W, \quad II - C - X, \quad III - B - Y, \quad IV - A - Z
• (B) I - D - W, \quad II - C - X, \quad III - A - Z, \quad IV - B - Y
• (C) I - C - X, \quad II - D - W, \quad III - B - Y, \quad IV - A - Z
• (D) I - A - Z, \quad II - D - W, \quad III - B - Y, \quad IV - C - X

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The middle lamella is a first formed layer of cell wall.

Reason (R): The middle lamellum develops from cell membrane during cell division.

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Identify correct matching of the following diseases:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 1 (Disease/Symptom) & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 2 (Example)
\hline
A & Scrapie & I & Tulip
\hline
B & Vein clearing & II & Cocoa
\hline
C & Malformation & III & Bhendi
\hline
D & Breaking of flowers & IV & Sheep
\hline
\end{tabular

\textit{(Note: The question header in the source image mentioned "viral diseases observed in plants" which appears to be a context error as Scrapie is an animal prion disease, but the matching task is clear.)

• (A) A - II, \quad B - I, \quad C - IV, \quad D - III
• (B) A - IV, \quad B - III, \quad C - I, \quad D - II
• (C) A - IV, \quad B - III, \quad C - II, \quad D - I
• (D) A - III, \quad B - IV, \quad C - II, \quad D - I

Match the list-1 with list-2 and select the correct option:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 1 & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 2
\hline
A & Operator site & I & Binding site for RNA polymerase
\hline
B & Promotor site & II & Binding site for repressor molecule
\hline
C & Regulator gene & III & Codes for protein/Enzyme
\hline
D & Structural gene & IV & Codes for repressor molecule
\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) A - II, \quad B - I, \quad C - IV, \quad D - III
• (B) A - II, \quad B - I, \quad C - III, \quad D - IV
• (C) A - I, \quad B - IV, \quad C - II, \quad D - III
• (D) A - III, \quad B - II, \quad C - I, \quad D - IV

Which of the following figures correctly shows the replication fork formed during DNA replication?

• (A)
• (B)
• (C)
• (D)

According to photosynthesis equation to produce 180g glucose and 193g oxygen, plant will absorb ``X'' g of carbondioxide and ``Y'' g water and consume ``Z'' K.cal of solar energy. `X', `Y' and `Z' are respectively

• (A) X - 108 g, \quad Y - 264 g, \quad Z - 766.2 K.cal
• (B) X - 204 g, \quad Y - 180 g, \quad Z - 567.2 K.cal
• (C) X - 264 g, \quad Y - 108 g, \quad Z - 677.2 K.cal
• (D) X - 246 g, \quad Y - 164 g, \quad Z - 477.2 K.cal

Match the following RNA polymerase with their transcribed product:


\begin{tabular{|c|l|c|l|
\hline
A & RNA Polymerase I & I & tRNA

\hline
B & RNA Polymerase II & II & rRNA

\hline
C & RNA Polymerase III & III & hn RNA

& & & (precursor of mRNA)

\hline
\end{tabular

Select the correct option from the following:

• (A) A - I, \quad B - III, \quad C - II
• (B) A - I, \quad B - II, \quad C - III
• (C) A - II, \quad B - III, \quad C - I
• (D) A - III, \quad B - II, \quad C - I

Capsule is found in

• (A) Capsicum
• (B) Lycopersicon
• (C) Solanum
• (D) Nicotiana

The fertilization in angiosperms is

• (A) Parthenogamous oogamy
• (B) Zooidogamous oogamy
• (C) Siphonogamous oogamy
• (D) Siphonogamous zooidogamy

The given diagram is longitudinal section of an embryo of grass plant. Identify A, B, C and D parts

• (A) A - Epicotyl, \quad B - Coleoptile, \quad C - Radicle, \quad D - Root cap
• (B) A - Scutellum, \quad B - Shoot apex, \quad C - Epiblast, \quad D - Root cap
• (C) A - Shoot apex, \quad B - Coleoptile, \quad C - hypoblast, \quad D - Radicle
• (D) A - Scutellum, \quad B - Shoot apex, \quad C - Mesoblast, \quad D - Coleorhiza

24 PGAL molecules are formed in \(C_3\) plant. Calculate the number of \(CO_2\) used and the number of G3P used for regeneration of RUBP molecules?

• (A) 12 \(CO_2\) \& 24 G3P
• (B) 24 \(CO_2\) \& 48 G3P
• (C) 12 \(CO_2\) \& 20 G3P
• (D) 20 \(CO_2\) \& 12 G3P

Match the list-1 with list-2 and select the correct option:


\begin{tabular{|c|l|c|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{List-1 (Subphases of prophase I) & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List-2 (Characters)

\hline
A & Diakinesis & I & Synaptonemal complex formation

\hline
B & Pachytene & II & Terminalisation of chiasmata

\hline
C & Zygotene & III & Chromatin looks like thin threads

\hline
D & Leptotene & IV & Appearance of recombination nodule

\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) A - IV, \quad B - II, \quad C - III, \quad D - I
• (B) A - I, \quad B - III, \quad C - II, \quad D - IV
• (C) A - II, \quad B - IV, \quad C - III, \quad D - I
• (D) A - II, \quad B - IV, \quad C - I, \quad D - III

Study the following table which shows divisions of algae and their main characters, identify A, B, C and D


\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|l|
\hline
Classes & Common name & Major pigments & Stored food & Cell wall

\hline
Chlorophyceae & Green algae & Chlorophyll a, b & Starch & A

\hline
Phaeophyceae & Brown algae & B & C & Cellulose and algin

\hline
Rhodophyceae & Red algae & D & Floridean starch & Cellulose, pectin, polysulphate esters

\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) A-Cellulose, pectin; B-Chlorophyll a, c, Fucoxanthin; C-Mannitol, Laminarin; D-Chlorophyll a, d, Phycoerythrin
• (B) A-Cellulose, Algin; B-Phycoerythrin; C-Floridean starch; D-Fucoxanthin
• (C) A-Polysulphate esters; B-Phycocyanin; C-Starch; D-Fucoxanthin
• (D) A-Chitin, Algin; B-Carotene; C-Starch; D-Chlorophyll a, c, Fucoxanthin

How many ATP are formed through (ETS) Electro Transport System alone from

A) Glycolysis

B) Oxidative decarboxylation of 2 molecules of pyruvic acid

C) 2 Acetyl coenzyme A molecules respectively

• (A) A-4, \quad B-6, \quad C-22
• (B) A-4, \quad B-6, \quad C-24
• (C) A-6, \quad B-4, \quad C-20
• (D) A-4, \quad B-6, \quad C-8

Chemical bonds cut by restriction endonucleases:

• (A) Hydrogen bonds
• (B) Glycosidic bonds
• (C) Phosphodiester bonds
• (D) Peptide bonds

Chromosomes number in endosperm cell of ``X'' plant and the chromosomes number of gamete of plant ``Y'' are equal. Plants X and Y respectively are

• (A) Apple and Rice
• (B) Maize and potato
• (C) Onion and Rice
• (D) Onion and potato

Given diagram shows a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis. Maximum crossing over will occur between genes

• (A) A and a; D and d
• (B) C and d; c and D
• (C) B and c; b and C
• (D) A and a; d and D

Identify correct statements from the following:

I. In pineapple fruit is syconus and fleshy peduncle is edible

II. In rice fruit is caryopsis and endosperm is edible

III. In coconut fruit is drupe and mesocarp is edible

IV. In cashew fruit is nut and cotyledons, false fruit are edible

• (A) II \& III
• (B) I \& II
• (C) I \& IV
• (D) II \& IV

During biological nitrogen fixation in root nodules ratio of protons, electrons and ATP required is

• (A) 1:2:1
• (B) 1:1:2
• (C) 2:1:1
• (D) 1:2:3

Structurally Centrale diatoms are ``X'' symmetrical and Pennales diatoms are ``Y'' symmetrical. `X' and `Y' respectively are

• (A) X - Bilateral, Y - Radial
• (B) X - Radial, Y - Bilateral
• (C) X - Polyhedral, Y - Radial
• (D) X - Helical, Y - Bilateral

In the given scheme of ``Respiratory electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation'' identify A, B, C and D

• (A) A-Cytochrome C reductase; B-NADH dehydrogenase; C-Succinic dehydrogenase; D-Cytochrome C oxidase
• (B) A-Succinic dehydrogenase; B-Cytochrome C reductase; C-NADH dehydrogenase; D-Cytochrome C oxidase
• (C) A-NADH dehydrogenase; B-Cytochrome C reductase; C-Succinic dehydrogenase; D-Cytochrome C oxidase
• (D) A-Cytochrome C oxidase; B-Succinic dehydrogenase; C-Cytochrome C reductase; D-NADH dehydrogenase

Identify the mismatched pair

• (A) NADP reductase enzyme \(\rightarrow\) Stroma lamellae
• (B) PEP case \(\rightarrow\) Mesophyll cell
• (C) RuBisCO \(\rightarrow\) Bundle sheath cell
• (D) ATP synthetase enzyme \(\rightarrow\) Chloroplast

Microanatomy deals with

• (A) Study of arrangement of internal organs of organism
• (B) Study of minute structures on the body of an animal
• (C) Study of structure and arrangement of tissues in organs
• (D) Study of cells and cell organelles

Choose the threatened species in India from the following:

I. \textit{Corvus splendens

II. \textit{Panthera tigris

III. \textit{Oryctolagus cuniculus

IV. \textit{Antelope cervicapra

V. \textit{Loris tardigradus

VI. \textit{Macaca mullata

• (A) I, III, V
• (B) II, IV, V
• (C) I, III, VI
• (D) II, III, IV

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Kidneys of vertebrates are called retroperitoneal organs.

Reason (R): They are lined by visceral peritoneum only on their ventral side.

The correct answer is

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Mammary glands are of this type:

• (A) Endocrine glands
• (B) Merocrine glands
• (C) Holocrine glands
• (D) Apocrine glands

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Leucocytes are capable of reaching extra vascular areas by diapedesis.

Statement-II: Slight increase of WBC count is called leukemia.

The correct answer is

• (A) Both statements I and II are true
• (B) Both statements I and II are false
• (C) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
• (D) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

Study the following and pick up the correct combinations:


\begin{tabular{|c|l|l|l|
\hline
S.No & Group & Feature & Example
\hline
I & Scyphozoa & Only medusoid zooids & Aurelia
\hline
II & Anthozoa & Polyp and Medusa & Adamsia
\hline
III & Hydrozoa & Only polypoid zooid & Obelia
\hline
IV & Hirudinea & Suckers & Pontobdella
\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) II, III
• (B) I, IV
• (C) I, II
• (D) III, IV

In Pheretima, gizzard lies in this segment(s):

• (A) 1 - 3
• (B) 4
• (C) 5 - 7
• (D) 8

The reptile that is considered as living fossil is included in the order:

• (A) Chelonia
• (B) Crocodilia
• (C) Squamata
• (D) Rhynchocephalia

Match the following:


\begin{tabular{|c|l|c|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 1 & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 2
\hline
A & Lamelliform gills & I & Aves
\hline
B & Filamentous gills & II & Reptiles
\hline
C & Three chambered heart & III & Mammalia
\hline
D & Enucleate RBC & IV & Cartilaginous fishes
\hline
& & V & Bony fishes
\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) A - IV, B - V, C - II, D - III
• (B) A - III, B - II, C - V, D - IV
• (C) A - I, B - IV, C - V, D - II
• (D) A - IV, B - V, C - I, D - III

Gliding locomotion in protozoans is effected by:

• (A) Myonemes
• (B) Flagella
• (C) Cilia
• (D) Pseudopodia

Causative organism of Dum-dum fever in human beings is:

• (A) Trypanosoma gambiense
• (B) Ancylostoma duodenale
• (C) Leishmania tropica
• (D) Leishmania donovani

Study the following and pick up the incorrect statements:

I. \textit{Plasmodium secrete histolysin to penetrate into liver cells of man

II. Syngamy in \textit{Plasmodium is isogamy

III. \textit{Plasmodium malariae causes quartan malaria

IV. Malaria can be cured by quinine

• (A) I, III
• (B) II, IV
• (C) III, IV
• (D) I, II

Match the following:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 1 & \multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 2
\hline
A & Curved posterior end with cloaca having unequal pineal setae & I & \textit{Ascaris
\hline
B & Ovoviviparous & II & Microfilariae
\hline
C & Mouth with three chitinous lips & III & Male \textit{Wuchereria
\hline
D & Nocturnal periodicity & IV & Rhabditiform larva
\hline
& & V & Female \textit{Wuchereria
\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) A - II, B - I, C - V, D - III
• (B) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
• (C) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - V
• (D) A - III, B - V, C - I, D - II

Excessive consumption of this drug causes hallucinations

• (A) Cocaine
• (B) Morphine
• (C) Heroin
• (D) Ganja

These structures of cockroach prevents the food from falling and pushes it into preoral cavity

• (A) Labial palps
• (B) Maxillary palps
• (C) Galea
• (D) Lacinia

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): In cockroach, 6th abdominal ganglion is the largest ganglion.

Reason (R): It is formed by the fusion of ganglia of 7-10 abdominal segments.

The correct answer is

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Sensillae present on 1st, 2nd and 3rd tarsomeres of leg of cockroach are

• (A) Olfactory sensillae
• (B) Thermoreceptor sensillae
• (C) Gustatory sensillae
• (D) Chemoreceptor sensillae

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Salmon and Hilsa are catadromous fishes.

Statement-II: In limnetic zone rate of photosynthesis and rate of respiration are almost equal.

The correct answer is

• (A) Both statements I and II are true
• (B) Both statements I and II are false
• (C) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
• (D) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

In a food chain, primary carnivores occupy

• (A) First trophic level
• (B) Second trophic level
• (C) Third trophic level
• (D) Fourth trophic level

Snow blindness is caused by

• (A) UV-A rays
• (B) UV-B rays
• (C) UV-C rays
• (D) Infrared rays

Study the following and identify the correct statements:

I. Peptic cells of gastric glands secrete rennin

II. In liver of man, urea is synthesized

III. Pancreatic lipase is called steapsin

IV. Fundic region forms the major part of stomach

• (A) I only
• (B) I, II only
• (C) I, II, III only
• (D) I, II, III, IV

Volume of air remained in lungs after normal expiration is known as

• (A) Vital capacity
• (B) Residual volume
• (C) Functional residual capacity
• (D) Expiratory reserve volume

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): In cardiac cycle, whenever ventricles relax, the second sound dup is produced.

Reason (R): Closure of semilunar valves of pulmonary valve and aortic valve.

The correct answer is

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Selective reabsorption of components in glomerular filtrate is regulated in these parts of nephron

• (A) Proximal convoluted tubule and distal convoluted tubule
• (B) Loop of Henle and distal convoluted tubule
• (C) Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
• (D) Proximal convoluted tubule and Loop of Henle

These are the floating ribs in human rib cage

• (A) \(1^{st}\) pair to \(7^{th}\) pair
• (B) \(8^{th}\) pair to \(10^{th}\) pair
• (C) \(11^{th}\) pair and \(12^{th}\) pair
• (D) \(6^{th}\) pair to \(9^{th}\) pair

Match the following:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{Spinal nerves & \multicolumn{2{|c|{Number

\hline
A & Cervical nerves & I & 5 pairs

\hline
B & Thoracic nerves & II & 1 pair

\hline
C & Lumbar nerves & III & 12 pairs

\hline
D & Coccygeal nerves & IV & 33 pairs

\hline
& & V & 8 pairs

\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) A - V, B - III, C - I, D - II
• (B) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
• (C) A - V, B - IV, C - I, D - III
• (D) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - V

Consider the following statements

Assertion (A): Hypersecretion of insulin leads to insulin shock.

Reason (R): Hypoglycemia.

The correct answer is

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Match the following:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{Hormone & \multicolumn{2{|c|{Function

\hline
A & Melatonin & I & Basal metabolic rate

\hline
B & Thyroxine & II & Hyperglycemia

\hline
C & Aldosterone & III & Sleep-wake cycle

\hline
D & Glucagon & IV & Water-electrolyte balance

\hline
& & V & Somatotropin

\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
• (B) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - V
• (C) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
• (D) A - III, B - I, C - V, D - IV

The primary lymphoid organ is

• (A) Thymus gland
• (B) Tonsils
• (C) Peyer's patches
• (D) Spleen

In human female, the ovum is released from the Graafian follicle at this stage

• (A) Primary oocyte
• (B) Secondary oocyte
• (C) First polar body
• (D) Ootid

Choose the odd pair

• (A) Lactational amenorrhea - Natural method
• (B) Vault - Barrier method
• (C) Multiload 375 - Intrauterine device
• (D) Saheli - Contraceptive implant

Consider the following statements

Assertion (A): Skin colour in human beings is a polygenic trait.

Reason (R): Human skin colour is controlled by cumulative effect of genes.

The correct answer is

• (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
• (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
• (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
• (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Karyotype of Turner's syndrome is

• (A) 45, X [AA + XO]
• (B) 47, XXY [AA + XXY]
• (C) 47, XX + 13
• (D) 47, XX + 18

If a colour blind man marries a carrier woman for colour blindness, chances of their children to become colour blind is

• (A) 100%
• (B) 75%
• (C) 50%
• (D) 25%

Choose the correct pair

• (A) Eusthenopteron - Prochordates and fishes
• (B) Seymouria - Fishes and amphibians
• (C) Archaeopteryx - Amphibians and reptiles
• (D) Cynognathus - Reptiles and mammals

Study the following and choose the incorrect statements

I. In stabilizing selection, the organisms with average phenotype are preserved, whereas extreme individuals of both sides are eliminated

II. Movement of genes from one population to the other is called directional selection

III. Centripetal selection operates when homogeneous environment changes into a heterogeneous type

IV. Genetic drift is related to small populations

• (A) I, II
• (B) III, IV
• (C) II, III
• (D) I, IV

If speciation takes place due to geographical isolation, it is called

• (A) Allopatric speciation
• (B) Sympatric speciation
• (C) Anagenesis
• (D) Cladogenesis

Mating of superior male of one breed and superior female of another breed is called

• (A) Out crossing
• (B) Cross breeding
• (C) Close breeding
• (D) Line breeding

Indian carp is

• (A) Common carp
• (B) Mrigal carp
• (C) Grass carp
• (D) Silver carp

Prolonged P-R interval indicates

• (A) Bradycardia
• (B) Tachycardia
• (C) Hypokalemia
• (D) Hypercalcemia

The ratio of the relative strengths of weak nuclear force and gravitational force is

• (A) \(10^{39}:1\)
• (B) \(10^{13}:1\)
• (C) \(10^{11}:1\)
• (D) \(10^{26}:1\)

A physical quantity is represented by \(P = X^aY^bZ^c\). If the errors in the measurements of the physical quantities X, Y and Z are respectively a%, b% and c%, then the percentage error in the determination of quantity P is

• (A) \(a^2+b^2+c^2\)
• (B) \(a+b+c\)
• (C) \(a^2+b^2-c^2\)
• (D) \(a+b-c\)

A body X is allowed to fall freely from a height of 125 m from the ground and another body Y is thrown at the same instant vertically upwards with a velocity of \(50 ms^{-1}\) from the ground. The relative velocity of the body Y with respect to the body X when they cross each other is

• (A) \(125 ms^{-1}\)
• (B) \(100 ms^{-1}\)
• (C) \(50 ms^{-1}\)
• (D) \(25 ms^{-1}\)

Two vectors are given by \(\vec{A} = \hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{B} = 2\hat{i} - 4\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}\). The unit vector along \(\vec{A} + \vec{B}\) is

• (A) \(3\hat{i} - 6\hat{j} + 6\hat{k}\) (Note: Option incomplete/incorrect in source, calculating correct value)
• (B) \(\frac{\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}}{3}\)
• (C) \(\frac{\hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}}{7}\)
• (D) \(\frac{3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} + 5\hat{k}}{3}\)

A body of mass 3 kg is kept on a rough horizontal surface. A horizontal force of 20 N acting on the body produces an acceleration of \(4 ms^{-2}\) in the body. To double the acceleration of the body, the horizontal force applied is to be increased by

• (A) 100%
• (B) 40%
• (C) 60%
• (D) 30%

A body of mass 0.2 kg is falling freely from a height of 180 m from the ground. The ratio of the works done by the gravitational force in the first two seconds and in the next two seconds of motion of the body is

• (A) 1 : 3
• (B) 1 : 2
• (C) 2 : 3
• (D) 3 : 4

A body is allowed to fall freely under gravity from a height of 15 m from the ground. At a point in its path, if the kinetic energy of the body is 200% more than its potential energy, then the velocity of the body at that point is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 \(ms^{-2}\))

• (A) 6 \(ms^{-1}\)
• (B) 20 \(ms^{-1}\)
• (C) 10 \(ms^{-1}\)
• (D) 15 \(ms^{-1}\)

Six particles each of mass 100 g are placed at the six vertices of a regular hexagon of side \(10\sqrt{3}\) m. The moment of inertia of the system of particles about an axis passing through any two diagonally opposite vertices of the hexagon is

• (A) 75 \(kg m^2\)
• (B) 90 \(kg m^2\)
• (C) 25 \(kg m^2\)
• (D) 50 \(kg m^2\)

A solid sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 50 cm is rotating about its diameter with an angular speed of \(50 rad s^{-1}\). The angular momentum of the sphere is

• (A) 50 Js
• (B) 10 Js
• (C) 25 Js
• (D) 20 Js

The time period of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is \(2\pi\) second. If the maximum acceleration of the particle is \(10 ms^{-2}\), then the maximum velocity of the particle is

• (A) \(10 ms^{-1}\)
• (B) \(20 ms^{-1}\)
• (C) \(5 ms^{-1}\)
• (D) \(15 ms^{-1}\)

A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is placed inside a spherical shell of mass M and radius 4R such that their surfaces touch each other. The gravitational force due to the spherical shell and solid sphere on a body of unit mass placed at the centre of the spherical shell is (G = Universal gravitational constant)

• (A) \(\frac{25GM}{144R^2}\)
• (B) \(\frac{GM}{9R^2}\)
• (C) \(\frac{7GM}{144R^2}\)
• (D) Zero

A metal beam of length 1 m, breadth 2.5 cm and thickness 5 mm supported at its ends is loaded at its center by a weight of 25 N. The metal beam sags at the middle by an amount of (Young's modulus of the metal \(= 2\times10^{11} Nm^{-2}\))

• (A) 1 cm
• (B) 1 mm
• (C) 0.5 cm
• (D) 3 mm

Petrol (density \(= 750 \, kg m^{-3}\)) and diesel (density \(= 850 \, kg m^{-3}\)) enter into two identical venturimeters each with a velocity \(10 ms^{-1}\) as shown in the figure. If \(\Delta h_1\) is the difference in heights of petrol in the two vertical tubes of venturimeter A and if \(\Delta h_2\) is the difference in heights of diesel in the two vertical tubes of the venturimeter B, then \(\Delta h_1 : \Delta h_2 =\)

• (A) 15 : 17
• (B) 17 : 15
• (C) 1 : 1
• (D) 2 : 15

The pressure inside a mercury drop of diameter 2 mm is (Surface tension of mercury \(= 0.5 Nm^{-1}\) and atmospheric pressure \(= 10^5\) Pa)

• (A) \(1.020 \times 10^5\) Pa
• (B) \(1.005 \times 10^5\) Pa
• (C) \(1.100 \times 10^5\) Pa
• (D) \(1.010 \times 10^5\) Pa

Nitrogen and oxygen of volumes one litre each at atmospheric pressure are mixed in a closed container of volume three litres. If the process is isothermal, the ratio of final pressure of the mixture and atmospheric pressure is

• (A) 2/3
• (B) 3/2
• (C) 2
• (D) 1

If the coefficient of volume expansion of honey is \(150 \times 10^{-5} K^{-1}\), then the percentage change in its density for \(10^{\circ}C\) rise in its temperature is

• (A) 0.5
• (B) 1.5
• (C) 0.75
• (D) 0.15

The heat supplied to an ideal diatomic gas so that it expands from a volume of \(18 \times 10^{-3} m^3\) to \(37 \times 10^{-3} m^3\) at a constant pressure of 2 atmospheres is (Atmospheric pressure = \(10^5\) Pa)

• (A) 9500 J
• (B) 3800 J
• (C) 5700 J
• (D) 13300 J

A gaseous mixture contains 2 moles of monatomic gas and 2 moles of diatomic gas at a temperature of 500 K. The total internal energy of the gaseous mixture is

(Atmospheric pressure = \(10^5\) Pa and universal gas constant = \(8.3 \, J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\))

• (A) 28.6 kJ
• (B) 24.8 kJ
• (C) 33.2 kJ
• (D) 27.2 kJ

When a long hollow steel pipe is struck with a hammer at one end, two sounds are heard at the other end. If the time interval between the two sounds heard is 0.53 s, then the length of the pipe is

(Speed of sound in steel is 5100 \(ms^{-1}\) and speed of sound in air is 330 \(ms^{-1}\))

• (A) 153 m
• (B) 174 m
• (C) 187 m
• (D) 270 m

A radar sends sound waves of frequency 'f' towards an aeroplane moving away from it. If the difference in the frequencies of waves sent and received by the radar is 10% of 'f', then the speed of the aeroplane in \(ms^{-1}\) is nearly

(Speed of sound in air = 342 \(ms^{-1}\))

• (A) 15
• (B) 33
• (C) 30
• (D) 18

A ray of light is travelling from a medium of refractive index 1.414 to air. If the angle of incidence is \(48^{\circ}\), then the angle of deviation of the light ray is

• (A) \(84^{\circ}\)
• (B) \(42^{\circ}\)
• (C) \(68^{\circ}\)
• (D) \(102^{\circ}\)

A convex lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a liquid. If the focal length of the lens when immersed in the liquid is twice its focal length when it is in air, then the refractive index of the liquid is

• (A) 1.6
• (B) 1.4
• (C) 1.2
• (D) 1.3

The angle between the axes of the polarizer and the analyzer is \(60^{\circ}\). The ratio of the intensity of unpolarized light incident on the polarizer and the intensity of the polarized light emerging from the analyzer is

• (A) 1:1
• (B) 8:1
• (C) 4:1
• (D) 2:1

Two point charges \(+2\mu C\) and \(+8\mu C\) are placed at a distance of 15 cm apart in air. At a point on the line joining these two charges where the net electric field becomes zero, a third charge of \(+5\mu C\) is placed. The net electrostatic force acting on \(+5\mu C\) charge is

• (A) 16 N
• (B) 4 N
• (C) 8 N
• (D) Zero

Two points A and B are located at distances 4 cm and 5 cm respectively from a point charge \(+20\mu C\). The work done in taking a charge of \(+2\mu C\) from point A to point B is

• (A) 0.9 J
• (B) 3.6 J
• (C) 1.8 J
• (D) 1.2 J

Three resistors \(R_1, R_2\) and \(R_3\) when connected in parallel to a battery of negligible internal resistance, the currents through the three resistors are 2A, 3A and 6A respectively. If the resistors are connected in series to the same battery, the current in the circuit is

• (A) 1A
• (B) 2A
• (C) 3A
• (D) 11A

When an unknown resistance is connected in the left gap and a resistance of 15 \(\Omega\) is connected in the right gap of a meter bridge, the balancing point is found to be at 40 cm from the left end of the bridge wire. The emf of the battery of negligible internal resistance used in the circuit is 2 V. If the current drawn from the battery is 280 mA, the resistance of the bridge wire per unit length is

• (A) \(0.4 \Omega cm^{-1}\)
• (B) \(0.3 \Omega cm^{-1}\)
• (C) \(0.1 \Omega cm^{-1}\)
• (D) \(0.2 \Omega cm^{-1}\)

An electron moving along a straight line with a velocity of \(6.4 \times 10^7 ms^{-1}\) is subjected to a magnetic field of 3 mT. If the magnetic field is applied perpendicular to the direction of the initial path of the electron, then the radius of the circular path in which the electron moves under the influence of the magnetic field is

(Mass of electron \(= 9 \times 10^{-31}\) kg and charge of the electron \(= 1.6 \times 10^{-19}\) C)

• (A) 30 cm
• (B) 12 cm
• (C) 24 cm
• (D) 36 cm

A straight wire of length 90 cm carrying a current of 3 A is bent in the form of an equilateral triangular loop and is placed in a uniform magnetic field of \(8 \times 10^{-4}\) T such that the plane of the loop makes an angle of \(30^{\circ}\) with the direction of the magnetic field. The torque acting on the triangular loop is

• (A) \(81\sqrt{3} \times 10^{-6}\) Nm
• (B) \(27 \times 10^{-6}\) Nm
• (C) \(27\sqrt{3} \times 10^{-6}\) Nm
• (D) \(81 \times 10^{-6}\) Nm

If the permeability of a substance is \(616 \times 10^{-5} \, NA^{-2}\), then the susceptibility of the substance is

• (A) 3899
• (B) 5899
• (C) 4899
• (D) 6899

If the current passing through an inductor is increased by 20%, then the percentage increase in the energy stored in the inductor is

• (A) 44
• (B) 36
• (C) 20
• (D) 10

In an LCR series circuit, if \(\frac{1}{\omega C} \textless \omega L\), then the incorrect option among the following is

(\(\omega\)-angular frequency, C-capacitance and L-inductance)

• (A) Phase angle is negative
• (B) Power factor is zero
• (C) The circuit is predominantly inductive
• (D) Current in the circuit lags source voltage

For a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in free space along X-axis, the magnetic field at a particular point in space is \(\vec{B} = 2.1 \times 10^{-8} \hat{k} \, T\). The magnitude of the electric field at this point is

• (A) \(0.7 Vm^{-1}\)
• (B) \(18.9 Vm^{-1}\)
• (C) \(1.7 Vm^{-1}\)
• (D) \(6.3 Vm^{-1}\)

If electrons of mass 'm' and de Broglie wavelength '\(\lambda\)', incident on a metal plate in an X-ray tube, then the minimum wavelength of X-rays emitted is

(h = Planck's constant and c = Speed of light in vacuum)

• (A) \(\frac{4mc\lambda^2}{h}\)
• (B) \(\frac{2mc\lambda^2}{h}\)
• (C) \(\frac{mc\lambda^2}{4h}\)
• (D) \(\frac{mc\lambda^2}{2h}\)

If the potential energy of an electron in an orbit of hydrogen atom is \(-6.80\) eV, then the energy required to ionize the atom is

• (A) 6.80 eV
• (B) 13.6 eV
• (C) 3.40 eV
• (D) 10.2 eV

If the half life of an element is 10 minutes, then the time taken (in minutes) for the element to decay from 20% to 80% is

• (A) 20
• (B) 10
• (C) 5
• (D) 15

If mass of 5 neutrons is x, mass of 2 protons is y and the mass of the nucleus \(_{10}X^{20}\) is z, then the binding energy of the nucleus X is (Speed of light in vacuum is c)

• (A) \([10y+10x-z]c^2\)
• (B) \([z-5y-2x]c^2\)
• (C) \([5y+2x-z]c^2\)
• (D) \([z-10y-10x]c^2\)

If the breakdown voltage of a Zener diode is 7.2 V and the maximum power dissipated is 216 mW, then the maximum current through the Zener diode is

• (A) 30 mA
• (B) 4.16 mA
• (C) 3.33 mA
• (D) 2.4 mA

For a common emitter transistor amplifier, the voltage across the collector resistance is 2.8 V. If the current amplification factor of the transistor is 70 and the collector resistance is 2 k\(\Omega\), then the base current is

• (A) 20 \(\mu\)A
• (B) 30 \(\mu\)A
• (C) 10 \(\mu\)A
• (D) 40 \(\mu\)A

If the maximum and minimum amplitudes of an amplitude modulated wave are 9 V and 3 V respectively, then the modulation index is

• (A) 1/2
• (B) 3
• (C) 2
• (D) 1/3

Identify the correct statements:

I. In the visible spectrum, violet light has highest frequency and red light has lowest frequency.

II. When white light is passed through a prism, violet light is deviated the most and red light is deviated the least.

III. Hydrogen atoms in gas phase exhibit line spectrum.

• (A) I, II only
• (B) I, III only
• (C) II, III only
• (D) I, II, III

The emission spectrum of hydrogen contains a few lines. The energy (\(\Delta E\)) of one of the lines is \(0.4578 \times 10^{-18} J\). The \(n_1\) and \(n_2\) belonging to this line are respectively

• (A) 2, 5
• (B) 2, 4
• (C) 2, 3
• (D) 2, 6

Among the following the isoelectronic species are

I. \(Mg^{2+}, Al^{3+}, F^-\)

II. \(O^{2-}, F^-, N^{3-}\)

III. \(K^+, Ca^{2+}, Sc^{3+}\)

IV. \(Mn^{2+}, Fe^{3+}, V^{3+}\)

• (A) II, III only
• (B) I, II, III
• (C) II, III, IV only
• (D) I, III, IV

Which of the following sets are correctly matched?

\begin{tabular}{|l|l|l|}
\hline
& \textbf{Property} & \textbf{Order}
\hline
I & Atomic radius & \(C \textless B \textless Be \textless Li\)
\hline
II & First ionization enthalpy & \(Na \textless Al \textless Mg \textless Si\)
\hline
III & Electronegativity & \(Al \textless Si \textless C \textless N\)
\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) I, II, III
• (B) I, II Only
• (C) II, III Only
• (D) I, III Only

The correct order of bond angle of \(HgCl_2 (A)\), \(NH_3 (B)\), \(H_2O (C)\) is

• (A) \(A \textgreater C \textgreater B\)
• (B) \(B \textgreater A \textgreater C\)
• (C) \(B \textgreater C \textgreater A\)
• (D) \(A \textgreater B \textgreater C\)

Consider the following statements

Statement I: The electronic configuration of \(N_2\) in terms of molecular orbital theory is \(KK (\sigma 2s)^2 (\sigma^* 2s)^2 (\pi 2p_x)^2 (\pi 2p_y)^2 (\pi 2p_z)^2\).

Statement II: According to molecular orbital theory, the double bond in \(C_2\) molecule consists of two \(\pi\) bonds.

The correct answer is

• (A) Both statements I and II are correct
• (B) Both statements I and II are not correct
• (C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
• (D) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct

The isobar of one mole of an ideal gas was obtained at P atm. The slope of the isobar is \(0.82 L K^{-1}\). What is P (in atm)?

• (A) 10
• (B) 1
• (C) 0.1
• (D) 0.01

A hydrocarbon containing C and H has 75% (by weight) of carbon. 32g of this hydrocarbon was completely burnt in air. What is the weight (in kg) of \(CO_2\) formed?

• (A) 0.044
• (B) 0.088
• (C) 44
• (D) 88

Observe the following equation
\(H_2O_2(g) \rightarrow 2H(g) + 2O(g)\); \(\Delta_a H^\ominus = 1066 \, kJ mol^{-1}\).

If \(\Delta_{O-H} H^\ominus\) is \(464 \, kJ mol^{-1}\), then \(\Delta_{O-O} H^\ominus\) (in \(kJ mol^{-1}\)) value will be

• (A) 602
• (B) 138
• (C) 690
• (D) 276

At \(27^\circ C\), the \(K_a\) of acetic acid is \(1.8 \times 10^{-5}\). What is the percentage of ionization of 0.02M of this acid at \(27^\circ C\)?

• (A) 6
• (B) 3
• (C) 2
• (D) 1.5

Observe the following unbalanced equations:

(I) \(H_2O(l) + Na(s) \rightarrow\)

(II) \(H_2O(l) + F_2(g) \rightarrow\)

Identify the correct statement.

• (A) In (I), water is oxidized to \(H_2\) and in (II) water is reduced to \(O_2\).
• (B) In both (I) and (II), water is oxidized to \(O_2\).
• (C) In both (I) and (II), water is reduced to \(H_2\).
• (D) In (I), water is reduced to \(H_2\) and in (II) water is oxidized to \(O_2\).

Ions of an element X is required for interneuronal transmission. Ions of an element Y helps in the transport of sugars into cells. X and Y are respectively

• (A) Mg, K
• (B) Ca, Na
• (C) Ca, K
• (D) Mg, Na

The alloy of Li with 'X' is used to make armour plates. What is 'X'?

• (A) Pb
• (B) Al
• (C) Mg
• (D) Cu

An acid `X' is prepared by acidifying an aqueous solution of borax. Which of the following statements are true for `X'?

I. It is white liquid with soapy touch

II. It is sparingly soluble in water

III. It is strong monobasic acid

IV. It acts as Lewis acid

• (A) II, IV only
• (B) II, III, IV only
• (C) I, II, III only
• (D) I, III only

Among the following the neutral oxide is

• (A) \(GeO\)
• (B) \(CO\)
• (C) \(GeO_2\)
• (D) \(CO_2\)

Identify the correct statements about photochemical smog

I. PAN is one of the components of photochemical smog

II. It forms cracks in rubber

III. It is an oxidizing smog

• (A) I, II, III
• (B) I, II only
• (C) I, III only
• (D) II, III only

Aniline can be separated from a mixture of chloroform - aniline by a technique X and from aniline - water mixture by technique Y. X and Y respectively are

• (A) Distillation, Distillation
• (B) Steam distillation, Steam distillation
• (C) Steam distillation, Distillation
• (D) Distillation, Steam distillation

An alkene X (\(C_5H_{10}\)) on ozonolysis gave formaldehyde and butyraldehyde. The products from the reaction of X with (i) \(H_2O/H^{\oplus}\) and (ii) \(HBr((C_6H_5COO)_2\) are respectively

• (A)
• (B)
• (C)
• (D) \

In which of the following, the compounds are arranged in the correct order of acidic strength?

\begin{tabular}{|c|c|c|c|}
\hline
& \textbf{I} & \textbf{II} & \textbf{III}
\hline
& Ethulacetylene & Methylacetylene & Dimethylacetylene
\hline
\end{tabular}

• (A) II \textless III \textless I
• (B) II \textless I \textless III
• (C) III \textless I \textless II
• (D) III \textless II \textless I

What are X, Y, Z in the following reaction sequence?

• (A)
• (B)
• (C) Z
• (D)

Observe the following:
\(O_2, C_6H_6, Cu^{2+}, Cu^+, MnO, Fe_3O_4, MgFe_2O_4, NaCl, O_2^+\).

The number of diamagnetic and paramagnetic species is respectively

• (A) 2, 2
• (B) 3, 3
• (C) 3, 2
• (D) 2, 3

A 200 mL of 30% (V/V) of a solution is mixed with 500 mL of 40% (V/V) another solution. What is the volume percentage of resultant solution?

• (A) 33.14
• (B) 35.00
• (C) 26.24
• (D) 37.14

The equilibrium constant for the reaction \(M(s) + 2Ag^{+}(aq) \rightarrow M^{2+}(aq) + 2Ag(s)\) is \(10^{15}\). What is the Gibbs energy change (\(\Delta_r G^{\ominus}\) in KJ mol\(^{-1}\)) for this reaction?

(\(\frac{RT}{F} \times 2.303 = 0.06V\); F = 96500 C mol\(^{-1}\))

• (A) \(-86850\)
• (B) \(-96500\)
• (C) \(-86.85\)
• (D) \(-96.5\)

For a first order reaction (\(R \rightarrow P\)), a plot of \(\ln \frac{[R]_0}{[R]}\) on y-axis and time on x-axis gave a straight line passing through the origin. The slope of straight line is 'x'. The rate constant of this reaction is

• (A) \(2.303 x\)
• (B) \(x^{-1}\)
• (C) \(x\)
• (D) \(2.303\)

Observe the following colloids:

I. Gold

II. Detergent

III. Starch

IV. Soap

V. Synthetic rubber

VI. Sulphur

VII. Cellulose

The number of multimolecular colloids and macromolecular colloids in the above list is respectively

• (A) 2, 3
• (B) 1, 3
• (C) 3, 4
• (D) 4, 3

Which of the following involves electrolysis?

• (A) Hall-Heroult process
• (B) Van Arkel method
• (C) Mond process
• (D) Solvay process

Red phosphorus, when heated in a sealed tube at 803 K, gives 'X'. White phosphorus, when heated under high pressure at 473 K, gives 'Y'. X, Y respectively are

• (A) \(\beta\)-Black phosphorus, \(\alpha\)-Black phosphorus
• (B) \(\alpha\)-Black phosphorus, \(\beta\)-Black phosphorus
• (C) \(\alpha\)-Black phosphorus, \(\alpha\)-Black phosphorus
• (D) \(\beta\)-Black phosphorus, \(\beta\)-Black phosphorus

Oxoacids of phosphorus are formed in the following reactions. The acid formed in which of the following reactions does contain P - P bond?

• (A) White \(P_4 +\) alkali \(\rightarrow\)
• (B) \(P_4O_6 + H_2O \rightarrow\)
• (C) \(PCl_3 + H_3PO_3 \rightarrow\)
• (D) Red \(P_4 +\) alkali \(\rightarrow\)

Which of the following statements is not correct?

• (A) \(SbCl_5\) is more covalent than \(SbCl_3\)
• (B) \(SbCl_3\) undergoes hydrolysis
• (C) \(I_2O_5\) decomposes on heating
• (D) \(BrO_2\) is very powerful oxidizing agent

Which of the following change is not correct about the oxidizing property of \(KMnO_4\) in acidic medium?

• (A) \(S^{2-} \rightarrow S\)
• (B) \(Mn^{2+} \rightarrow MnO_2\)
• (C) \(SO_3^{2-} \rightarrow SO_4^{2-}\)
• (D) \(C_2O_4^{2-} \rightarrow CO_2\)

Arrange the given ligands \(H_2O (A), NCS^- (B), OH^- (C), N^{3-} (D)\) in the order of increasing field strength.

• (A) B, A, C, D
• (B) D, C, A, B
• (C) D, A, C, B
• (D) B, C, A, D

Consider the following statements

Statement - I : Natural rubber is a polymer of 2-chloro-1, 3-butadiene

Statement - II : 1, 3-Butadiene-styrene copolymer is synthetic rubber

The correct answer is

• (A) Both statements I and II are correct
• (B) Both statements I and II are not correct
• (C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
• (D) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct

Which of the following saccharides contain \(\beta\)-D-glucose units?


\begin{tabular{|c|c|c|c|
\hline
I & II & III & IV
\hline
Sucrose & Lactose & Cellulose & Amylose
\hline
\end{tabular

• (A) II, IV
• (B) II, III
• (C) I, III
• (D) I, IV

Observe the following reaction:
\(CH_3(CH_2)_{11}C_6H_5 \xrightarrow[(ii) NaOH(aq)]{(i) H_2SO_4} X\)

Which of the statements is not correct regarding X?

• (A) It is an anionic detergent
• (B) It is used in tooth pastes
• (C) It is a cationic detergent
• (D) Its anionic part is involved in cleansing action

An alcohol X(\(C_4H_{10}O\)) is converted to corresponding chloride Y by shaking it with conc. HCl at room temperature. Reaction of Y with Mg in dry ether and then with water gave Z. What are Y and Z?

• (A)
• (B)
• (C)
• (D)

An alcohol X(\(C_5H_{12}O\)) undergoes dehydration when passed over copper at 573 K. X can be prepared from which of the following reactants?

• (A) \(CH_3COCH_3, C_2H_5MgBr\)
• (B) \(HCHO, CH_3CH_2CH(CH_3)MgBr\)
• (C) \((CH_3)_2CHCH_2CHO, NaBH_4\)
• (D) \((CH_3)_2CHCH=CH_2, H_2O|H^+\)

Z forms 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone and gives yellow ppt with NaOH + \(I_2\). What are X and Y?

• (A) \(BH_3, H_2O_2/OH^-; CrO_3\)
• (B) \(BH_3, H_2O_2/OH^-; PCC\)
• (C) \(H_2O/H^+ ; CrO_3\)
• (D) \(H_2O/H^+ ; KMnO_4/OH^-, \Delta\)

Two reactions I and II are given below:



Correct statement regarding the reactions is

• (A) Both reactions I and II are feasible
• (B) Both reactions I and II are not feasible
• (C) Reaction I feasible, but Reaction II not feasible
• (D) Reaction I not feasible, but Reaction II feasible

Which of the following sets of reagents are required for the conversion of ethyl bromide to propanoic acid?

• (A) \(KCN, H_3O^+\)
• (B) \(Mg/dry ether; CO_2/dry ether; H_3O^+\)
• (C) \(I, II only\) (Looking at options layout in image, likely selecting from list I, II, III). Let's check the list: I. \(OH^-, KMnO_4/OH, H_3O^+\) (Alcohol oxidation route?) II. \(KCN, H_3O^+\) (Nitrile route) III. \(Mg/ether; CO_2; H_3O^+\) (Grignard route) Options in image: 1. I, II 2. II, III 3. I, III 4. I, II, III

What are X and Y in the following reaction sequence?
\(C_6H_5N_2Cl \xrightarrow[H_2O]{283K} X \xrightarrow[OH^-]{C_6H_5N_2Cl} Y\)

• (A)
• (B)
• (C)
• (D)