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Sanghamitra Deb

Content Writer | Updated On - Jan 20, 2026

MHT CET Question Papers are the most important study material for effective exam preparation. We at Zollege have provided all MHT CET Previous Year Papers with Solution PDFs here. MHT CET 2020 PCM exam was conducted successfully on October 20 by Shift 2.

Students can freely download the MHT CET previous year's question paper PDFs along with their solutions here.We strongly encourage MHT CET aspirants to scan through all the MHT CET Question Paper to know the overall difficulty level,MHT CET Syllabus and understand the changes in MHT CET Exam Pattern over the years.

MHT CET 2020 Oct 20 Shift 2 PCM Question Paper with Solution PDF

MHT CET 2020 PCM Question Paper PDF MHT CET 2020 PCM Solution PDF
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MHT CET 2023 May 9 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solution Pdf


Question 1:

The kinetic energy of a light body and a heavy body is same. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

  • (A) The light body has greater momentum.
  • (B) A body having high velocity has greater momentum.
  • (C) Both bodies have same momentum.
  • (D) The heavy body has greater momentum.
Correct Answer: (D) The heavy body has greater momentum.
View Solution



The relation between kinetic energy (\(K\)) and momentum (\(p\)) is given by \(K = \frac{p^2}{2m}\).


Rearranging for momentum, we get \(p = \sqrt{2mK}\).


Given that both bodies have the same kinetic energy \(K\), the momentum is directly proportional to the square root of the mass (\(p \propto \sqrt{m}\)).


Since the heavy body has a larger mass (\(m_{heavy} > m_{light}\)), it will have greater momentum.
Quick Tip: For constant Kinetic Energy, \(p \propto \sqrt{m}\). For constant Momentum, \(K \propto \frac{1}{m}\).


Question 2:

A simple pendulum has length 2m and a bob of mass 100 gram. It is whirled in a horizontal plane. If the string breaks under a tension of 10 N, the angle made by the string with vertical is (g = 10m/s\(^2\))

  • (A) \(\cos^{-1} (0 \cdot 4)\)
  • (B) \(\cos^{-1} (0 \cdot 1)\)
  • (C) \(\cos^{-1} (0 \cdot 05)\)
  • (D) \(\cos^{-1} (0 \cdot 2)\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\cos^{-1} (0 \cdot 1)\)
View Solution



This is a case of a conical pendulum. The vertical component of the tension balances the weight of the bob.


The equation for vertical equilibrium is \(T \cos \theta = mg\).


Given: Tension \(T = 10\) N, Mass \(m = 100 g = 0.1\) kg, \(g = 10 m/s^2\).


Substituting the values: \(10 \cdot \cos \theta = 0.1 \cdot 10\).

\(10 \cos \theta = 1\).

\(\cos \theta = \frac{1}{10} = 0.1\).


Therefore, \(\theta = \cos^{-1}(0.1)\).
Quick Tip: In a conical pendulum, the tension \(T\) is always greater than the weight \(mg\) because \(T = mg / \cos \theta\) and \(\cos \theta < 1\).


Question 3:

The current drawn from the battery in the given network is (Internal resistance of battery is neglected)


  • (A) 2.4 A
  • (B) 0.6 A
  • (C) 3.6 A
  • (D) 1.2 A
Correct Answer: (A) 2.4 A
View Solution



The circuit represents a Wheatstone bridge. Let's check if it is balanced.


The ratio of resistors in the upper arms relative to the input is \(3\Omega / 3\Omega = 1\). (Assuming standard bridge configuration). Or more simply, the ratio of left side resistors is \(3/3 = 1\) and right side is \(2/2 = 1\).


Since the bridge is balanced, no current flows through the central \(5\Omega\) resistor. It can be removed.


The circuit simplifies to two parallel branches connected to the 6V source.


Top branch resistance: \(R_1 = 3 + 2 = 5 \Omega\).


Bottom branch resistance: \(R_2 = 3 + 2 = 5 \Omega\).


Equivalent resistance \(R_{eq}\) of two \(5\Omega\) resistors in parallel is \(2.5 \Omega\).


Total current \(I = \frac{V}{R_{eq}} = \frac{6}{2.5} = \frac{12}{5} = 2.4\) A.
Quick Tip: Always check for the balanced Wheatstone bridge condition (\(R_1/R_2 = R_3/R_4\)) in complex resistor networks. If balanced, remove the central component.


Question 4:

In the expression \(A = B + \frac{C}{D + E}\), the dimensions of physical quantities B and C are \([L^1M^0T^{-1}]\) and \([L^1M^0T^0]\) respectively. The dimensions of quantities A, D and E are

  • (A) \([A] = [L^1M^0T^{-1}]\), \([D] = [T^1]\), \([E] = [T^1]\)
  • (B) \([A] = [L^0M^0T^{-1}]\), \([D] = [T^1]\), \([E] = [L^1T^1]\)
  • (C) \([A] = [L^1M^1T^0]\), \([D] = [T^2]\), \([E] = [L^1T^2]\)
  • (D) \([A] = [L^1M^0T^{-1}]\), \([D] = [M^1T^1]\), \([E] = [M^1T^1]\)
Correct Answer: (A) \([A] = [L^1M^0T^{-1}]\), \([D] = [T^1]\), \([E] = [T^1]\)
View Solution



By the principle of homogeneity, terms added together must have the same dimensions.


1. In the denominator \((D + E)\), \(D\) and \(E\) must have the same dimensions. So \([D] = [E]\).


2. The entire term \(\frac{C}{D+E}\) is added to \(B\), so it must have the same dimensions as \(B\).

\([B] = [L T^{-1}]\). Given \([C] = [L]\).


So, \(\frac{[L]}{[D]} = [L T^{-1}]\).


Solving for \([D]\): \([D] = \frac{[L]}{[L T^{-1}]} = [T^1]\).


Thus, \([D] = [T^1]\) and \([E] = [T^1]\).


3. Quantity \(A\) is the sum, so \([A] = [B] = [L^1 M^0 T^{-1}]\).


Comparing with options, (A) is the correct match.
Quick Tip: You can only add or subtract physical quantities if they have identical dimensions.


Question 5:

In the given circuit, current flowing through it is


  • (A) 5 A
  • (B) 4 A
  • (C) 2 A
  • (D) 3 A
Correct Answer: (A) 5 A
View Solution



The circuit shows two batteries connected in opposition (positive terminal to positive terminal).


The net EMF is the difference between the larger and smaller voltage: \(V_{net} = 200 V - 10 V = 190 V\).


The total resistance is \(R = 38 \Omega\).


Using Ohm's Law, Current \(I = \frac{V_{net}}{R}\).

\(I = \frac{190}{38} = 5\) A.
Quick Tip: When batteries are connected with same polarity terminals facing each other, their EMFs subtract.


Question 6:

Two satellites of masses 'm' and '4m' are revolving in a same orbit around the earth. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  • (A) They have periods in the ratio 1:4.
  • (B) They have same kinetic energy.
  • (C) They have same potential energy.
  • (D) They have same period.
Correct Answer: (D) They have same period.
View Solution



The time period of a satellite orbiting Earth is given by \(T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{r^3}{GM}}\), where \(M\) is the mass of Earth and \(r\) is the orbital radius.


This expression is independent of the mass of the satellite (\(m\)).


Since both satellites are in the same orbit, they have the same radius \(r\).


Therefore, they must have the same time period.


Note: Kinetic and Potential energies depend on the satellite's mass (\(m\)), so they would be different.
Quick Tip: Orbital parameters like speed, period, and height are independent of the satellite's mass. Energy depends on mass.


Question 7:

Choose the CORRECT statement from the following. Brewster's angle for a transparent medium is

  • (A) different for lights of different colours.
  • (B) different for lights of same colour.
  • (C) same for lights of different colours.
  • (D) independent of refractive index of the medium.
Correct Answer: (A) different for lights of different colours.
View Solution



Brewster's angle (\(\theta_p\)) is given by the relation \(\tan \theta_p = \mu\), where \(\mu\) is the refractive index of the medium.


According to Cauchy's relationship, the refractive index \(\mu\) varies with wavelength (color) of light (\(\mu = A + B/\lambda^2\)).


Since different colors have different wavelengths, they have different refractive indices.


Consequently, the Brewster's angle will be different for different colors of light.
Quick Tip: Refractive index \(\mu\) is inversely proportional to wavelength. Violet light has a higher \(\mu\) and thus a larger Brewster angle than Red light.


Question 8:

A vector \(\vec{A}\) having magnitude 6 units is added to vector \(\vec{B}\), which is along x-axis. The resultant of \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is along Y axis. If the magnitude of the resultant of \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is three times that of \(\vec{B}\) then magnitude of \(\vec{B}\) is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{1 \cdot 8}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2 \cdot 4}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3 \cdot 6}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{1 \cdot 2}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\sqrt{3 \cdot 6}\)
View Solution



Let vector \(\vec{B} = B \hat{i}\).


The resultant vector \(\vec{R}\) is along the Y-axis, so \(\vec{R} = R \hat{j}\).


From vector addition, \(\vec{A} + \vec{B} = \vec{R} \implies \vec{A} = \vec{R} - \vec{B} = R \hat{j} - B \hat{i}\).


The magnitude of \(\vec{A}\) is given as 6. So, \(A^2 = B^2 + R^2 = 6^2 = 36\).


We are given that the magnitude of the resultant is three times that of B, i.e., \(R = 3B\).


Substitute \(R = 3B\) into the magnitude equation: \(B^2 + (3B)^2 = 36\).

\(B^2 + 9B^2 = 36 \implies 10B^2 = 36\).

\(B^2 = 3.6\).

\(B = \sqrt{3.6}\).
Quick Tip: When vectors form a right-angled triangle (as components often do), use Pythagoras theorem: \(Hypotenuse^2 = Base^2 + Perpendicular^2\).


Question 9:

Let a force \(\vec{F} = -F\hat{k}\) acts on the origin of cartesian frame of reference. The moment of force about a point \((1, -1)\) will be

  • (A) \(-F(\hat{i} + \hat{j})\)
  • (B) \(-F(\hat{i} - \hat{j})\)
  • (C) \(F(\hat{i} - \hat{j})\)
  • (D) \(F(\hat{i} + \hat{j})\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(F(\hat{i} + \hat{j})\)
View Solution



The moment of force (torque) \(\vec{\tau}\) about a pivot point \(P\) is given by \(\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \vec{F}\).


Here, the force acts at the origin \(O(0,0,0)\) and the pivot is \(P(1, -1, 0)\).


The position vector \(\vec{r}\) is the vector from the pivot \(P\) to the point of application \(O\).

\(\vec{r} = \vec{r}_O - \vec{r}_P = (0 - 1)\hat{i} + (0 - (-1))\hat{j} = -\hat{i} + \hat{j}\).


The force is \(\vec{F} = -F\hat{k}\).


Calculating the cross product: \(\vec{\tau} = (-\hat{i} + \hat{j}) \times (-F\hat{k})\).

\(\vec{\tau} = (-\hat{i}) \times (-F\hat{k}) + (\hat{j}) \times (-F\hat{k})\).

\(\vec{\tau} = F(\hat{i} \times \hat{k}) - F(\hat{j} \times \hat{k})\).


Using \(\hat{i} \times \hat{k} = -\hat{j}\) and \(\hat{j} \times \hat{k} = \hat{i}\):

\(\vec{\tau} = F(-\hat{j}) - F(\hat{i}) = -F(\hat{i} + \hat{j})\).


Note: The calculated answer is \(-F(\hat{i} + \hat{j})\). However, the answer key provides \(F(\hat{i} + \hat{j})\). This suggests a potential sign convention difference in the question's definition of position vector (e.g., taking vector from force to pivot) or a typo in the question's force direction. Mathematically, the magnitude and vector components match the structure of option (D) if signs are inverted.
Quick Tip: Torque \(\vec{\tau} = \vec{r} \times \vec{F}\). Be careful with the direction of \(\vec{r}\), which points from the axis of rotation (pivot) to the point where the force is applied.


Question 10:

In an atom, electron of charge \((-e)\) performs U.C.M. around a stationary positively charged nucleus, with period of revolution 'T'. If 'r' is the radius of the orbit of the electron and 'v' is the orbital velocity, then the circulating current (I) is proportional to

  • (A) \(e^1 r^{-1} v^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(e^1 r^1 v^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(e^1 v^1 r^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(v^1 r^1 e^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(e^1 v^1 r^{-1}\)
View Solution



Current \(I\) is defined as the rate of flow of charge, \(I = q/T\).


Here, charge \(q = e\) and \(T\) is the time period of revolution.


The time period \(T\) is related to velocity and radius by \(T = \frac{2\pi r}{v}\).


Substituting \(T\) into the current equation: \(I = \frac{e}{(2\pi r / v)} = \frac{e v}{2\pi r}\).


Ignoring constants, the proportional relationship is \(I \propto e^1 v^1 r^{-1}\).
Quick Tip: For a revolving charge, the equivalent current is \(I = q f = \frac{q v}{2\pi r}\).


Question 11:

A body of mass 'm' moving with speed 3 m/s collides with a body of mass '2m' at rest. The coalesced mass will start to move with a speed of

  • (A) 3 m/s
  • (B) 6 m/s
  • (C) 9 m/s
  • (D) 1 m/s
Correct Answer: (D) 1 m/s
View Solution



This is a perfectly inelastic collision where the bodies stick together. Conservation of linear momentum applies.


Initial Momentum \(P_i = m_1 v_1 + m_2 v_2 = m(3) + 2m(0) = 3m\).


Final Mass \(M = m + 2m = 3m\).


Let the final velocity be \(v'\). Final Momentum \(P_f = (3m)v'\).


By conservation of momentum, \(P_i = P_f \implies 3m = 3m v'\).

\(v' = 1\) m/s.
Quick Tip: In inelastic collisions, momentum is conserved (\(m_1 u_1 + m_2 u_2 = (m_1 + m_2)v\)), but kinetic energy is not.


Question 12:

We have a sample of gas characterised by P, V and T and another sample of gas characterised by 2P, V/4, and 2T. What is the ratio of the number of molecules in the first and second samples?

  • (A) 2:1
  • (B) 4:1
  • (C) 8:1
  • (D) 16:1
Correct Answer: (B) 4:1
View Solution



Using the Ideal Gas Law \(PV = NkT\), the number of molecules is \(N = \frac{PV}{kT}\).


For the first sample: \(N_1 = \frac{PV}{kT}\).


For the second sample: \(N_2 = \frac{(2P)(V/4)}{k(2T)} = \frac{0.5 PV}{2kT} = \frac{1}{4} \frac{PV}{kT}\).


Substituting \(N_1\): \(N_2 = \frac{1}{4} N_1\).


The ratio \(N_1 : N_2 = 1 : (1/4) = 4 : 1\).
Quick Tip: Write the variables of the second state in terms of the first to easily find the ratio. \(N \propto \frac{PV}{T}\).


Question 13:

When a capacitor is connected in series LR circuit, the alternating current flowing in the circuit

  • (A) increases.
  • (B) decreases.
  • (C) remains constant.
  • (D) is zero.
Correct Answer: (A) increases.
View Solution



In a series LR circuit, the impedance is \(Z_{LR} = \sqrt{R^2 + X_L^2}\).


When a capacitor is added in series, it becomes an LCR circuit. The new impedance is \(Z_{LCR} = \sqrt{R^2 + (X_L - X_C)^2}\).


The term \((X_L - X_C)^2\) is generally smaller than \(X_L^2\) (assuming the circuit moves closer to resonance where \(X_L = X_C\)).


Since the impedance \(Z\) decreases, the current \(I = V/Z\) increases.
Quick Tip: Adding a capacitor to an inductive circuit partially cancels the inductive reactance, reducing total impedance and increasing current.


Question 14:

A black body radiates maximum energy at wavelength '\(\lambda\)' and its emissive power is 'E'. Now, due to change in temperature of that body, it radiates maximum energy at wavelength \(\frac{2\lambda}{3}\). At that temperature, emissive power is

  • (A) \(\frac{27E}{16}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{81E}{16}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{91E}{16}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{54E}{16}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{81E}{16}\)
View Solution



According to Wien's Displacement Law, \(\lambda_{max} T = constant\). Thus, \(T \propto \frac{1}{\lambda_{max}}\).


New wavelength \(\lambda' = \frac{2}{3}\lambda\). Therefore, new temperature \(T' = \frac{3}{2}T\).


According to Stefan-Boltzmann Law, Emissive Power \(E \propto T^4\).


New power \(E' \propto (T')^4 = (\frac{3}{2}T)^4\).

\(E' = (\frac{3}{2})^4 E = \frac{81}{16} E\).
Quick Tip: Combine Wien's Law (\(T \propto 1/\lambda\)) and Stefan's Law (\(E \propto T^4\)) to get \(E \propto 1/\lambda^4\).


Question 15:

The area of a coil is 'A'. The coil is placed in a magnetic field which changes from '\(B_0\)' to '\(4B_0\)' in time 't'. The magnitude of induced e.m.f. in the coil will be

  • (A) \(\frac{3AB_0}{t}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4AB_0}{t}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3B_0}{At}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4B_0}{At}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{3AB_0}{t}\)
View Solution



Faraday's Law of Induction states that induced EMF \(|\epsilon| = \frac{d\Phi}{dt}\).


Magnetic Flux \(\Phi = B \cdot A\).


Change in flux \(\Delta \Phi = A(B_{final} - B_{initial}) = A(4B_0 - B_0) = 3AB_0\).


The change occurs in time \(t\).


Induced EMF \(|\epsilon| = \frac{\Delta \Phi}{t} = \frac{3AB_0}{t}\).
Quick Tip: Induced EMF depends on the rate of change of magnetic flux (\(BA\)). If area A is constant, \(\epsilon = A \frac{dB}{dt}\).


Question 16:

A body is moving along the horizontal surface with a velocity of 4 m/s. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.2, the distance travelled by body before coming to rest is (g = 10 m/s\(^2\))

  • (A) 8 m
  • (B) 16 m
  • (C) 4 m
  • (D) 6 m
Correct Answer: (C) 4 m
View Solution



The retardation caused by friction is \(a = -\mu g\).


Given \(\mu = 0.2\) and \(g = 10\), magnitude \(|a| = 0.2 \times 10 = 2 m/s^2\).


Using the kinematic equation \(v^2 = u^2 + 2as\).


Final velocity \(v = 0\), Initial velocity \(u = 4\).

\(0 = 4^2 + 2(-2)s\).

\(16 = 4s \implies s = 4\) m.
Quick Tip: Stopping distance formula: \(s = \frac{u^2}{2\mu g}\).


Question 17:

The fundamental frequency of open pipe is 'n'. If it is closed from one end then frequency of the 2nd harmonic of closed pipe is higher by 200 Hz than 'n'. The value of 'n' is

  • (A) 800 Hz
  • (B) 200 Hz
  • (C) 100 Hz
  • (D) 400 Hz
Correct Answer: (D) 400 Hz
View Solution



Fundamental frequency of open pipe: \(n = \frac{v}{2L}\).


When closed at one end, the fundamental frequency is \(n_c = \frac{v}{4L}\).


The "2nd harmonic" of a closed pipe usually refers to the next available mode (the 1st overtone), which is the 3rd harmonic: \(f_3 = 3 \frac{v}{4L}\).


We can relate this to \(n\): \(f_3 = 3 \frac{v}{4L} = 1.5 \frac{v}{2L} = 1.5 n\).


Given that this frequency is 200 Hz higher than \(n\):

\(1.5 n - n = 200\).

\(0.5 n = 200\).

\(n = 400\) Hz.
Quick Tip: Open pipe harmonics: \(f, 2f, 3f...\). Closed pipe harmonics: \(f, 3f, 5f...\) (only odd multiples).


Question 18:

Identify the 'INCORRECT' statement from the following.

  • (A) Modulation index \(\mu\) is kept greater than one to avoid distortion.
  • (B) The receiving antenna is followed by amplifier, intermediate frequency (IF) stage and detector.
  • (C) AM detection is carried out using a rectifier and an envelop detector.
  • (D) Modulated signal is to be followed by power amplifier and then fed to an antenna.
Correct Answer: (A) Modulation index \(\mu\) is kept greater than one to avoid distortion.
View Solution



The modulation index \(\mu\) determines the quality of the AM signal.


To avoid distortion (overmodulation), \(\mu\) must be kept less than or equal to 1 (\(\mu \le 1\)).


If \(\mu > 1\), the signal is overmodulated, leading to distortion and loss of information.


Therefore, statement (A) is scientifically incorrect, which makes it the correct answer to the question.
Quick Tip: For Amplitude Modulation, \(0 < \mu \le 1\). \(\mu > 1\) causes overmodulation.


Question 19:

If two light waves reaching at a point produce destructive interference, then condition of phase difference is

  • (A) \(0, 2\pi, 4\pi, 6\pi .....\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3\pi}{4} .....\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3\pi}{2}, \frac{5\pi}{2} .....\)
  • (D) \(\pi, 3\pi, 5\pi .....\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\pi, 3\pi, 5\pi .....\)
View Solution



Destructive interference occurs when the crest of one wave meets the trough of another.


This requires the waves to be out of phase by an odd multiple of \(\pi\).


The condition for phase difference \(\Delta \phi\) is \(\Delta \phi = (2n + 1)\pi\), where \(n = 0, 1, 2...\).


This generates the sequence: \(\pi, 3\pi, 5\pi...\).


Option (A) corresponds to Constructive interference (even multiples of \(\pi\)).
Quick Tip: Constructive: \(\Delta \phi = 2n\pi\). Destructive: \(\Delta \phi = (2n+1)\pi\).


Question 20:

What would be the absolute pressure at depth 1km below the ocean? [Given: density of water \(= 10^3 kg/m^3, g = 10 m/s^2, 1 atmospheric pressure = 1.01 \times 10^5 N/m^2\)]

  • (A) \(10 \cdot 101 x 10^7 N/m^2\)
  • (B) \(10 \cdot 101 x 10^7 dyne/cm^2\)
  • (C) \(10 \cdot 101 x 10^6 dyne/cm^2\)
  • (D) \(10 \cdot 101 x 10^6 N/m^2\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(10 \cdot 101 \text{x} 10^6 \text{ N/m}^2\)
View Solution



Absolute Pressure \(P = P_{atm} + P_{gauge} = P_{atm} + h \rho g\).


Given \(h = 1 km = 1000\) m, \(\rho = 10^3\), \(g = 10\).

\(P_{gauge} = 1000 \times 10^3 \times 10 = 10^7 = 100 \times 10^5\) Pa.

\(P_{atm} = 1.01 \times 10^5\) Pa.

\(P_{total} = 1.01 \times 10^5 + 100 \times 10^5 = 101.01 \times 10^5\) Pa.


In scientific notation matching the answer: \(10.101 \times 10^6\) Pa.


This matches option (D) \(10 \cdot 101 \times 10^6 N/m^2\).
Quick Tip: Absolute pressure includes atmospheric pressure. Gauge pressure is just \(\rho g h\).


Question 21:

An alternating electric field of frequency '\(v\)' is applied across the dees of a cyclotron which is used to accelerate protons of mass 'm'. The radius of the dees is 'R'. The operating magnetic field used in cyclotron is 'B'. The kinetic energy of the proton beam is given by

  • (A) \(2m \pi^2 v^2 R^2\)
  • (B) \(2m \pi v^2 R^2\)
  • (C) \(m \pi^2 v^2 R^2\)
  • (D) \(m \pi v^2 R^2\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(2\text{m} \pi^2 v^2 \text{R}^2\)
View Solution



The velocity of the proton in the cyclotron is given by \(V = R \omega\), where \(\omega = 2\pi v\).


So, \(V = R (2\pi v) = 2\pi v R\).


The kinetic energy is \(K = \frac{1}{2} m V^2\).


Substituting the expression for velocity: \(K = \frac{1}{2} m (2\pi v R)^2\).

\(K = \frac{1}{2} m (4 \pi^2 v^2 R^2)\).

\(K = 2 m \pi^2 v^2 R^2\).
Quick Tip: Kinetic energy in a cyclotron in terms of frequency: \(K = 2 m \pi^2 v^2 R^2\). In terms of magnetic field: \(K = \frac{q^2 B^2 R^2}{2m}\).


Question 22:

What will be the resistance of the shunt when 5% of the main current is passed through a galvanometer of resistance G?

  • (A) \(\frac{G}{20}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{G}{21}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{G}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{G}{19}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{G}{19}\)
View Solution



Let \(I\) be the main current. The current through the galvanometer is \(I_g = 5%\) of \(I = 0.05 I\).


The remaining current flows through the shunt \(S\): \(I_s = I - I_g = I - 0.05 I = 0.95 I\).


Since the galvanometer and shunt are in parallel, the potential difference across them is the same: \(I_g G = I_s S\).


Substituting the currents: \((0.05 I) G = (0.95 I) S\).

\(0.05 G = 0.95 S\).

\(S = \frac{0.05}{0.95} G = \frac{1}{19} G = \frac{G}{19}\).
Quick Tip: Formula for shunt resistance: \(S = \frac{I_g}{I - I_g} G\). Here ratio \(I_g/I = 1/20\), so \(S = \frac{1}{19} G\).


Question 23:

An engine is moving on a circular path of radius 200 m with speed of 15 m/s. What will be the frequency heard by an observer who is at rest at the centre of the circular path, when engine blows the whistle with frequency 250 Hz?

  • (A) Less than 250 Hz
  • (B) Greater than 250 Hz
  • (C) 250 Hz
  • (D) zero
Correct Answer: (C) 250 Hz
View Solution



The observer is at the center of the circular path.


The velocity vector of the engine (source) is always tangential to the circle.


The line of sight from the source to the observer is along the radius.


The angle between the velocity vector and the line joining source and observer is always \(90^\circ\).


The component of source velocity along the line of sight is \(v_s \cos 90^\circ = 0\).


Since there is no relative velocity along the line joining them, there is no Doppler shift.


Frequency heard = Actual frequency = 250 Hz.
Quick Tip: Doppler effect only happens if there is a relative velocity component along the line joining the source and observer.


Question 24:

In an resonance tube experiment, a tuning fork resonates with air column of length 12 cm and again resonates when air column is 38 cm long. The end correction will be

  • (A) \(0 \cdot 25\) cm
  • (B) \(0 \cdot 5\) cm
  • (C) 1 cm
  • (D) \(0 \cdot 75\) cm
Correct Answer: (C) 1 cm
View Solution



For a closed organ pipe (resonance tube), the resonance lengths are given by \(L_1 + e = \frac{\lambda}{4}\) and \(L_2 + e = \frac{3\lambda}{4}\).


Subtracting the two equations: \((L_2 + e) - (L_1 + e) = \frac{3\lambda}{4} - \frac{\lambda}{4} = \frac{\lambda}{2}\).

\(38 - 12 = 26\) cm \(= \frac{\lambda}{2}\). So \(\lambda = 52\) cm.


Now substitute \(\lambda\) back into the first equation: \(12 + e = \frac{52}{4} = 13\).

\(e = 13 - 12 = 1\) cm.
Quick Tip: End correction formula: \(e = \frac{L_2 - 3L_1}{2}\). Check: \((38 - 36)/2 = 1\).


Question 25:

When the electron orbiting in hydrogen atom in its ground state moves to third excited state, the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it

  • (A) will decrease.
  • (B) remain same.
  • (C) will increase.
  • (D) will be zero.
Correct Answer: (C) will increase.
View Solution



The de-Broglie wavelength is given by \(\lambda = \frac{h}{p} = \frac{h}{mv}\).


In a hydrogen atom, the velocity of the electron in the \(n\)-th orbit is inversely proportional to \(n\) (\(v \propto \frac{1}{n}\)).


Therefore, the wavelength is proportional to \(n\) (\(\lambda \propto n\)).


Ground state corresponds to \(n=1\). Third excited state corresponds to \(n=4\).


As the electron moves from \(n=1\) to \(n=4\), the value of \(n\) increases, so the wavelength \(\lambda\) increases.
Quick Tip: Orbital velocity \(v_n \propto 1/n\). De-Broglie wavelength \(\lambda \propto 1/v \propto n\). Higher orbit \(\implies\) larger wavelength.


Question 26:

A particle is revolving in anticlockwise sense along the circumference of a circle of radius 'r' with linear velocity 'v', then the angle between 'v' and angular velocity '\(\omega\)' will be

  • (A) \(180^\circ\)
  • (B) \(90^\circ\)
  • (C) \(45^\circ\)
  • (D) \(0^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(90^\circ\)
View Solution



The linear velocity vector \(\vec{v}\) lies in the plane of the circle, tangential to the path.


The angular velocity vector \(\vec{\omega}\) is directed along the axis of rotation, perpendicular to the plane of the circle (by the right-hand rule).


Since \(\vec{v}\) is in the plane and \(\vec{\omega}\) is perpendicular to the plane, the angle between them is \(90^\circ\).
Quick Tip: Vectors in circular motion: \(\vec{r}\) (radial), \(\vec{v}\) (tangential), \(\vec{\omega}\) (axial). All three are mutually perpendicular.


Question 27:

If the spherical planet of mass 'M' and radius 'R' suddenly shrinks to half its size, its mass reduces to half. The new moment of inertia of the planet about its diameter is

  • (A) \(\frac{MR^2}{10}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{MR^2}{20}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3} MR^2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2}{5} MR^2\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{\text{MR}^2}{20}\)
View Solution



The moment of inertia of a solid sphere is \(I = \frac{2}{5} MR^2\).


New mass \(M' = M/2\).


New radius \(R' = R/2\).


New moment of inertia \(I' = \frac{2}{5} M' (R')^2\).

\(I' = \frac{2}{5} (\frac{M}{2}) (\frac{R}{2})^2 = \frac{2}{5} \cdot \frac{M}{2} \cdot \frac{R^2}{4}\).

\(I' = \frac{2}{5} M R^2 \cdot \frac{1}{8} = \frac{1}{8} (\frac{2}{5} MR^2)\).


Or simplifying directly: \(I' = \frac{2 M R^2}{5 \times 8} = \frac{M R^2}{20}\).
Quick Tip: Simply substitute the scaling factors into the formula: \(M \to 1/2, R \to 1/2 \implies I \propto (1/2)(1/2)^2 = 1/8\).


Question 28:

A particle starts from mean position and performs S.H.M. with period 6 second. At what time its kinetic energy is 50% of total energy? (\(\cos 45^\circ = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\))

  • (A) \(0 \cdot 75\) second
  • (B) 1 second
  • (C) \(0 \cdot 25\) second
  • (D) \(0 \cdot 50\) second
Correct Answer: (A) \(0 \cdot 75\) second
View Solution



Total Energy \(E\). Kinetic Energy \(K = 0.5 E\).


Potential Energy \(U = E - K = 0.5 E\). So \(K=U\).


Using \(U = \frac{1}{2} k x^2\) and \(E = \frac{1}{2} k A^2\), we have \(\frac{1}{2} k x^2 = \frac{1}{2} (\frac{1}{2} k A^2)\).

\(x^2 = A^2 / 2 \implies x = A/\sqrt{2}\).


Since particle starts from mean position, \(x = A \sin(\omega t)\).

\(A/\sqrt{2} = A \sin(\omega t) \implies \sin(\omega t) = 1/\sqrt{2}\).

\(\omega t = \pi / 4\).


Given \(T = 6\) s, \(\omega = 2\pi / T = \pi / 3\).

\((\pi/3) t = \pi / 4 \implies t = 3/4 = 0.75\) s.
Quick Tip: KE = PE at \(x = A/\sqrt{2}\). This occurs at phase angle \(\pi/4\) (or \(T/8\)).


Question 29:

The susceptibility of a magnetic material is positive and small. The material is

  • (A) diamagnetic and ferromagnetic.
  • (B) paramagnetic.
  • (C) ferromagnetic.
  • (D) diamagnetic.
Correct Answer: (B) paramagnetic.
View Solution



Magnetic susceptibility (\(\chi\)) classifies magnetic materials:


Diamagnetic: \(\chi\) is small and negative.


Paramagnetic: \(\chi\) is small and positive.


Ferromagnetic: \(\chi\) is very large and positive.


Since the problem states \(\chi\) is positive and small, the material is paramagnetic.
Quick Tip: Remember the signs: Para (+, small), Ferro (++, large), Dia (-, small).


Question 30:

Photoelectrons are emitted from a photosensitive surface for the light of wavelengths \(\lambda_1 = 360\) nm and \(\lambda_2 = 600\) nm. What is the ratio of work functions for lights of wavelength '\(\lambda_1\)' to '\(\lambda_2\)'?

  • (A) 6:1
  • (B) 1:6
  • (C) 5:3
  • (D) 3:5
Correct Answer: (C) 5:3
View Solution



The phrasing "ratio of work functions for lights" implies the energy corresponding to these wavelengths (or threshold work functions determined by them).


Energy of a photon is given by \(E = \frac{hc}{\lambda}\).


Therefore, Energy is inversely proportional to wavelength (\(E \propto \frac{1}{\lambda}\)).


Ratio \(E_1 : E_2 = \frac{1}{\lambda_1} : \frac{1}{\lambda_2} = \lambda_2 : \lambda_1\).


Substituting the values: \(600 : 360 = 60 : 36 = 10 : 6 = 5 : 3\).
Quick Tip: Energy is inversely proportional to wavelength. Shorter wavelength means higher energy.


Question 31:

Choose the correct relation between polarisation 'P' and electric susceptibility '\(\chi_e\)' of dielectric material. (E = electric field)

  • (A) \(P = \frac{\chi_e}{E^2}\)
  • (B) \(P = \frac{\chi_e}{E}\)
  • (C) \(P = \chi_e E\)
  • (D) \(P = \chi_e^2 E\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(P = \chi_e E\)
View Solution



The electric polarization \(\vec{P}\) is the dipole moment per unit volume.


For a linear isotropic dielectric, polarization is directly proportional to the electric field strength \(\vec{E}\).


The relationship is defined as \(\vec{P} = \epsilon_0 \chi_e \vec{E}\) (or simply proportional as \(P = \chi_e E\) in some conventions where constants are absorbed or implied).


Option (C) represents the correct linear relationship.
Quick Tip: Polarization is the induced response to an electric field, linearly related via susceptibility.


Question 32:

The radii of the first four Bohr orbits of hydrogen atom are related as

  • (A) \(1:2:3:4\)
  • (B) \(1:4:9:16\)
  • (C) \(1:\frac{1}{2}:\frac{1}{3}:\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (D) \(1:\frac{1}{4}:\frac{1}{9}:\frac{1}{16}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(1:4:9:16\)
View Solution



The radius of the \(n\)-th Bohr orbit is given by \(r_n = 0.53 \frac{n^2}{Z}\) \AA.


For hydrogen (\(Z=1\)), \(r_n \propto n^2\).


For \(n = 1, 2, 3, 4\), the radii are proportional to \(1^2 : 2^2 : 3^2 : 4^2\).


Ratio = \(1 : 4 : 9 : 16\).
Quick Tip: Bohr radius scales with \(n^2\). Energy scales with \(1/n^2\).


Question 33:

For a ray of light, the critical angle is minimum when it travels from

  • (A) air to glass.
  • (B) glass to water.
  • (C) water to glass.
  • (D) glass to air.
Correct Answer: (D) glass to air.
View Solution



The critical angle \(C\) is given by \(\sin C = \frac{\mu_2}{\mu_1}\), where light travels from denser medium (\(\mu_1\)) to rarer medium (\(\mu_2\)).


To minimize \(C\), \(\sin C\) must be minimized. This requires the ratio \(\frac{\mu_2}{\mu_1}\) to be as small as possible.


(A) Air to glass: Rarer to denser. No critical angle.


(B) Glass (\(\mu=1.5\)) to Water (\(\mu=1.33\)): Ratio \(= 1.33/1.5 \approx 0.88\).


(C) Water to Glass: Rarer to denser. No critical angle.


(D) Glass (\(\mu=1.5\)) to Air (\(\mu=1.0\)): Ratio \(= 1.0/1.5 \approx 0.66\).


The ratio is smallest for Glass to Air, so the critical angle is minimum.
Quick Tip: Larger difference in refractive indices \(\implies\) Smaller critical angle.


Question 34:

The correct statement about stationary wave is that

  • (A) displacement at node is zero and at antinode is maximum.
  • (B) displacement at node is maximum and at antinode is zero.
  • (C) displacement at node is maximum.
  • (D) displacement at antinode is minimum.
Correct Answer: (A) displacement at node is zero and at antinode is maximum.
View Solution



In a stationary (standing) wave, nodes are points of permanently zero displacement.


Antinodes are points where the displacement amplitude is maximum.


Therefore, statement (A) is correct.
Quick Tip: Node = No Displacement. Antinode = Max Amplitude.


Question 35:

Out of the following units, the WRONG unit of magnetic dipole moment is

  • (A) \(Nm^3 / Wb\)
  • (B) \(Am^2\)
  • (C) \(J - T\)
  • (D) \(N m / T\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\text{J} - \text{T}\)
View Solution



Magnetic Dipole Moment \(M\) has the standard unit Ampere-meter\(^2\) (\(Am^2\)). (Option B is correct).


From Torque \(\tau = MB \sin\theta\), \(M = \tau/B\). Unit: \(Nm/T\) or Joule/Tesla. (Option D is correct).


From Energy \(U = -M \cdot B\), \(M = U/B\). Unit: \(J/T\).


Option (A) is \(Nm^3 / Wb\). Since \(Wb = Tm^2\), this is \(Nm^3 / (Tm^2) = Nm/T = J/T\). (Option A is correct).


Option (C) is written as "\(J - T\)" which implies Joule-Tesla (product). The correct unit is Joule per Tesla.


Therefore, (C) is the wrong unit.
Quick Tip: Check dimensions: \(M = Energy / Field\). \(J \cdot T^{-1}\) is correct. \(J \cdot T\) is wrong.


Question 36:

The earth is assumed to be a charged conducting sphere having volume 'V' and surface area 'A'. The capacitance of the earth in free space is (\(\epsilon_0 =\) permittivity of free space)

  • (A) \(12\pi \epsilon_0 \frac{V}{A}\)
  • (B) \(4\pi \epsilon_0 \frac{V}{A}\)
  • (C) \(2\pi \epsilon_0 \frac{V}{A}\)
  • (D) \(8\pi \epsilon_0 \frac{V}{A}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(12\pi \epsilon_0 \frac{\text{V}}{\text{A}}\)
View Solution



Capacitance of a sphere of radius \(R\) is \(C = 4\pi \epsilon_0 R\).


Volume of sphere \(V = \frac{4}{3} \pi R^3\). Surface area \(A = 4\pi R^2\).


Ratio \(\frac{V}{A} = \frac{(4/3)\pi R^3}{4\pi R^2} = \frac{R}{3}\).


This gives \(R = \frac{3V}{A}\).


Substitute \(R\) into the capacitance formula: \(C = 4\pi \epsilon_0 (\frac{3V}{A}) = \frac{12\pi \epsilon_0 V}{A}\).
Quick Tip: Relate geometry first: For a sphere, \(R = 3 \times (Volume/Area)\).


Question 37:

A mass \(2\sqrt{3}\) kg is acted upon by two forces which are inclined to each other at \(60^\circ\) and each of magnitude 1N. The acceleration of that mass in SI system is \([\sin 30^\circ = \cos 60^\circ = 0 \cdot 5]\)

  • (A) \(0 \cdot 7 m/s^2\)
  • (B) \(0 \cdot 3 m/s^2\)
  • (C) \(0 \cdot 9 m/s^2\)
  • (D) \(0 \cdot 5 m/s^2\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(0 \cdot 5 \text{ m/s}^2\)
View Solution



Resultant force \(F_R = \sqrt{F_1^2 + F_2^2 + 2F_1 F_2 \cos \theta}\).


Given \(F_1 = F_2 = 1\) N, \(\theta = 60^\circ\).

\(F_R = \sqrt{1^2 + 1^2 + 2(1)(1) \cos 60^\circ} = \sqrt{1 + 1 + 2(0.5)} = \sqrt{3}\) N.


Acceleration \(a = \frac{F_R}{m} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2\sqrt{3}}\).

\(a = \frac{1}{2} = 0.5 m/s^2\).
Quick Tip: Resultant of two equal forces \(F\) at \(60^\circ\) is \(F\sqrt{3}\).


Question 38:

Two incident radiations having energies two times and ten times of the work function of a metal surface, produce photoelectric effect. The ratio of maximum velocities of emitted photo electrons respectively is

  • (A) 3:2
  • (B) 1:3
  • (C) 2:3
  • (D) 1:2
Correct Answer: (B) 1:3
View Solution



Let the work function be \(\Phi\).


Energy of first radiation \(E_1 = 2\Phi\). Kinetic Energy \(K_1 = E_1 - \Phi = 2\Phi - \Phi = \Phi\).


Energy of second radiation \(E_2 = 10\Phi\). Kinetic Energy \(K_2 = E_2 - \Phi = 10\Phi - \Phi = 9\Phi\).


Velocity \(v \propto \sqrt{K}\).


Ratio \(v_1 : v_2 = \sqrt{K_1} : \sqrt{K_2} = \sqrt{\Phi} : \sqrt{9\Phi} = 1 : 3\).
Quick Tip: Einstein's Photoelectric Equation: \(K_{max} = E - \Phi\). Determine K first, then ratio of velocities is square root of ratio of K.


Question 39:

A steel ring of radius 'r' is to be fitted over a wooden disc of radius 'R' (R > r). The force required to expand the ring so that it fits over the disc is [Y = Young's modulus of steel, A = area of cross section of wire]

  • (A) \(YA (\frac{R-r}{r})\)
  • (B) \(YA (\frac{r}{R-r})\)
  • (C) \(YA \frac{r}{R}\)
  • (D) \((\frac{YAR}{r})\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\text{YA} (\frac{\text{R}-\text{r}}{\text{r}})\)
View Solution



Initial circumference \(L = 2\pi r\). Final circumference \(L' = 2\pi R\).


Change in length \(\Delta L = 2\pi R - 2\pi r = 2\pi (R-r)\).


Strain = \(\frac{\Delta L}{L} = \frac{2\pi (R-r)}{2\pi r} = \frac{R-r}{r}\).


Young's Modulus \(Y = \frac{Stress}{Strain} = \frac{F/A}{Strain}\).


Force \(F = Y A \times Strain = Y A (\frac{R-r}{r})\).
Quick Tip: Strain is change in dimension over original dimension. Here original is the ring's radius \(r\).


Question 40:

To obtain a magnified image at distance of distinct vision (DDV) using a simple microscope, the object should be placed

  • (A) between the principal focus and optical centre of the lens.
  • (B) at the principal focus.
  • (C) slightly beyond the principal focus.
  • (D) at the distance of distinct vision.
Correct Answer: (A) between the principal focus and optical centre of the lens.
View Solution



A simple microscope is a convex lens.


To produce a virtual, erect, and magnified image on the same side as the object (which can be formed at the near point D), the object must be placed within the focal length.


Thus, the object position is between the optical centre and the principal focus.
Quick Tip: Simple microscope: Object \(u < f\). Image is virtual. Max magnification when \(v = D\).


Question 41:

A straight horizontal conducting rod of length 'L' and mass 'M' is suspended by two vertical wires at its ends. If 'I' is the current passing through the rod, then in order that tension in the wire is zero, the magnetic field set up normal to the conductor is (Neglect the mass of wire, g = acceleration due to gravity)

  • (A) \(\frac{IL}{Mg}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{Mg}{IL^2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{Mg}{I^2L}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{Mg}{IL}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{\text{Mg}}{\text{IL}}\)
View Solution



For the tension in the wires to be zero, the magnetic force must balance the weight of the rod.


Weight \(W = Mg\) acting downwards.


Magnetic Force \(F_m = BIL\) (since field is normal to conductor) acting upwards.


Equating forces: \(BIL = Mg\).


Solving for \(B\): \(B = \frac{Mg}{IL}\).
Quick Tip: For magnetic levitation, Magnetic Force = Gravitational Force (\(BIL = Mg\)).


Question 42:

When p-n junction diode is reverse biased, then the width of the barrier potential will

  • (A) increase and it will offer more resistance.
  • (B) decrease and it will offer zero resistance.
  • (C) remain constant and it will not offer resistance.
  • (D) decrease and it will offer more resistance.
Correct Answer: (A) increase and it will offer more resistance.
View Solution



In reverse bias, the positive terminal is connected to the n-side and negative to the p-side.


This pulls majority carriers away from the junction, increasing the width of the depletion layer.


The wider depletion layer represents a higher potential barrier and thus offers very high (ideally infinite) resistance to current flow.
Quick Tip: Reverse bias \(\to\) Depletion width increases \(\to\) Resistance increases. Forward bias \(\to\) Width decreases \(\to\) Resistance decreases.


Question 43:

Three liquids have same surface tension and densities \(\rho_1, \rho_2, and \rho_3 (\rho_1 > \rho_2 > \rho_3)\). In three identical capillaries, rise of liquid is same. The corresponding angles of contact \(\theta_1, \theta_2 and \theta_3\) are related as

  • (A) \(\theta_1 > \theta_2 > \theta_3\)
  • (B) \(\theta_1 < \theta_2 > \theta_3\)
  • (C) \(\theta_1 > \theta_2 < \theta_3\)
  • (D) \(\theta_1 < \theta_2 < \theta_3\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\theta_1 < \theta_2 < \theta_3\)
View Solution



Capillary rise height is given by \(h = \frac{2T \cos \theta}{r \rho g}\).


Given \(h, T, r, g\) are constant (or same) for all three liquids.


Rearranging the formula: \(\frac{\cos \theta}{\rho} = \frac{hrg}{2T} = constant\).


So, \(\cos \theta \propto \rho\).


Given \(\rho_1 > \rho_2 > \rho_3\), it implies \(\cos \theta_1 > \cos \theta_2 > \cos \theta_3\).


Since the cosine function is decreasing in the range \((0, \pi/2)\), a larger cosine value means a smaller angle.


Therefore, \(\theta_1 < \theta_2 < \theta_3\).
Quick Tip: \(\cos \theta \propto \rho\). Higher density requires a smaller contact angle to maintain the same capillary rise.


Question 44:

The moment of inertia of a uniform square plate about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through the centre is \(\frac{Ma^2}{6}\) where M is the mass and 'a' is the side of square plate. Moment of inertia of this plate about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its corner is

  • (A) \(\frac{Ma^2}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{Ma^2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3Ma^2}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2Ma^2}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{2\text{Ma}^2}{3}\)
View Solution



Given \(I_{center} = \frac{Ma^2}{6}\).


We use the Theorem of Parallel Axes: \(I_{corner} = I_{center} + Md^2\).


Distance \(d\) from the center to a corner is half the diagonal: \(d = \frac{\sqrt{a^2 + a^2}}{2} = \frac{a\sqrt{2}}{2} = \frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}\).

\(I_{corner} = \frac{Ma^2}{6} + M (\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}})^2 = \frac{Ma^2}{6} + \frac{Ma^2}{2}\).

\(I_{corner} = \frac{Ma^2 + 3Ma^2}{6} = \frac{4Ma^2}{6} = \frac{2Ma^2}{3}\).
Quick Tip: Parallel Axis Theorem: \(I = I_{cm} + Md^2\). For square corner, \(d = a/\sqrt{2}\).


Question 45:

A particle executes simple harmonic motion with amplitude 'A' and period 'T'. If it is half way between mean position and extreme position, then its speed at that point is

  • (A) \(\frac{3\pi A}{T}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3} \pi A}{2T}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi A}{T}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3} \pi A}{T}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3} \pi \text{A}}{\text{T}}\)
View Solution



Position \(x = A/2\).


Velocity in SHM is \(v = \omega \sqrt{A^2 - x^2}\).


Substitute \(x = A/2\): \(v = \omega \sqrt{A^2 - \frac{A^2}{4}} = \omega \sqrt{\frac{3A^2}{4}} = \omega A \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\).


Substitute \(\omega = \frac{2\pi}{T}\): \(v = \frac{2\pi}{T} A \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} = \frac{\pi A \sqrt{3}}{T}\).
Quick Tip: At half amplitude (\(x=A/2\)), speed is \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} v_{max}\). Since \(v_{max} = \frac{2\pi A}{T}\), result follows.


Question 46:

A body is projected vertically upwards from earth's surface. If velocity of projection is \((\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}})^{rd}\) of escape velocity, then the height upto which a body rises is (R = radius of earth)

  • (A) 2R
  • (B) \(\frac{R}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{R}{2}\)
  • (D) R
Correct Answer: (C) \(\frac{\text{R}}{2}\)
View Solution



Let escape velocity be \(v_e = \sqrt{\frac{2GM}{R}}\).


Given projection velocity \(v = \frac{v_e}{\sqrt{3}}\).


By Conservation of Energy: \(KE_i + PE_i = KE_f + PE_f\).

\(\frac{1}{2} m v^2 - \frac{GMm}{R} = 0 - \frac{GMm}{R+h}\).


Substitute \(v^2 = \frac{v_e^2}{3} = \frac{2GM}{3R}\).

\(\frac{1}{2} m (\frac{2GM}{3R}) - \frac{GMm}{R} = - \frac{GMm}{R+h}\).

\(\frac{GMm}{3R} - \frac{GMm}{R} = - \frac{GMm}{R+h}\).

\(GMm (\frac{1}{3R} - \frac{3}{3R}) = - \frac{GMm}{R+h}\).

\(-\frac{2}{3R} = -\frac{1}{R+h}\).

\(2(R+h) = 3R \implies 2R + 2h = 3R \implies 2h = R \implies h = R/2\).
Quick Tip: Energy conservation: \(v = k v_e \implies h = \frac{k^2}{1-k^2} R\). Here \(k = 1/\sqrt{3}\), so \(h = \frac{1/3}{2/3} R = R/2\).


Question 47:

In a study of transistor as an amplifier, the ratio of collector current to emitter current is \(0 \cdot 98\). The collector current is 3mA, then base current will be approximately

  • (A) 6mA
  • (B) 60mA
  • (C) 6\(\mu\)A
  • (D) 60\(\mu\)A
Correct Answer: (D) 60\(\mu\)A
View Solution



Given \(\alpha = \frac{I_C}{I_E} = 0.98\).


Collector current \(I_C = 3\) mA.


Emitter current \(I_E = \frac{I_C}{\alpha} = \frac{3}{0.98} \approx 3.061\) mA.


Base current \(I_B = I_E - I_C = 3.061 - 3 = 0.061\) mA.

\(I_B = 0.061 \times 10^{-3}\) A \(= 61 \times 10^{-6}\) A \(= 61 \mu\)A.


Approximately \(60 \mu\)A.
Quick Tip: Base current is very small: \(I_B = I_C (\frac{1}{\alpha} - 1)\).


Question 48:

A body performs linear S.H.M. with amplitude 'a'. When it is at a distance \(\frac{2}{3}a\) from extreme position, the magnitude of velocity is \(\frac{1}{6}\) times the magnitude of acceleration. The period of S.H.M. is

  • (A) \(\frac{3\pi}{2\sqrt{5}} s\)
  • (B) \(\frac{5\pi}{3\sqrt{5}} s\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2\pi}{3\sqrt{5}} s\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{5}} s\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\frac{2\pi}{3\sqrt{5}} \text{ s}\)
View Solution



(Note: The question text in the image contains fractions that appear to be \(1/3\), but the mathematical consistency with the answer key implies the distance is from extreme and the factor is \(1/6\)).


Let the distance from the extreme position be \(d = a/3\) (or implies position \(x = 2a/3\)).


Displacement from mean position \(x = a - a/3 = 2a/3\).


Velocity \(v = \omega \sqrt{a^2 - x^2} = \omega \sqrt{a^2 - \frac{4a^2}{9}} = \omega a \frac{\sqrt{5}}{3}\).


Acceleration magnitude \(\alpha = \omega^2 x = \omega^2 \frac{2a}{3}\).


Given condition: \(v = \frac{1}{6} \alpha\) (based on answer derivation).

\(\omega a \frac{\sqrt{5}}{3} = \frac{1}{6} (\omega^2 \frac{2a}{3})\).

\(\frac{\sqrt{5}}{3} = \frac{1}{6} \cdot \frac{2}{3} \omega = \frac{1}{9} \omega\).

\(\omega = 3\sqrt{5}\).


Period \(T = \frac{2\pi}{\omega} = \frac{2\pi}{3\sqrt{5}}\) s.
Quick Tip: Use \(v = \omega \sqrt{A^2-x^2}\) and \(a = \omega^2 x\). The condition leads to \(\omega\), which gives T.


Question 49:

A wire of Young's modulus \(1 \cdot 6 \times 10^{12} N/m^2\) is stretched by a force so as to produce a strain of \(2 \times 10^{-4}\). The energy density of the wire is

  • (A) \(3 \cdot 2 \times 10^4 J/m^3\)
  • (B) \(3 \cdot 2 \times 10^8 J/m^3\)
  • (C) \(1 \cdot 6 \times 10^3 J/m^3\)
  • (D) \(6 \cdot 4 \times 10^3 J/m^3\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(3 \cdot 2 \times 10^4 \text{ J/m}^3\)
View Solution



Energy density \(u\) is given by \(u = \frac{1}{2} \times Stress \times Strain = \frac{1}{2} Y (Strain)^2\).


Given \(Y = 1.6 \times 10^{12}\) and Strain \(= 2 \times 10^{-4}\).

\(u = \frac{1}{2} (1.6 \times 10^{12}) (2 \times 10^{-4})^2\).

\(u = 0.8 \times 10^{12} \times 4 \times 10^{-8}\).

\(u = 3.2 \times 10^{12-8} = 3.2 \times 10^4 J/m^3\).
Quick Tip: Energy density = \(\frac{1}{2} Y S^2\).


Question 50:

In Young's double slit experiment, the ratio of intensities at two points on a screen when waves from the two slits have a path difference of zero and \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\) is

  • (A) 2:1
  • (B) 3:1
  • (C) 2:3
  • (D) 3:2
Correct Answer: (A) 2:1
View Solution



Intensity at a point is given by \(I = I_{max} \cos^2(\frac{\phi}{2})\).


Case 1: Path difference \(\Delta x = 0\). Phase difference \(\phi = 0\).

\(I_1 = I_{max} \cos^2(0) = I_{max}\).


Case 2: Path difference \(\Delta x = \frac{\lambda}{4}\). Phase difference \(\phi = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda} \cdot \frac{\lambda}{4} = \frac{\pi}{2}\).

\(I_2 = I_{max} \cos^2(\frac{\pi/2}{2}) = I_{max} \cos^2(\frac{\pi}{4})\).

\(I_2 = I_{max} (\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})^2 = \frac{I_{max}}{2}\).


Ratio \(I_1 : I_2 = I_{max} : \frac{I_{max}}{2} = 2 : 1\).
Quick Tip: Intensity \(I \propto \cos^2(\phi/2)\). For path diff \(\lambda/4\), \(\phi = 90^\circ\), intensity becomes half of max.


Question 51:

Identify the inert gas used for filling balloons?

  • (A) Krypton
  • (B) Neon
  • (C) Helium
  • (D) Argon
Correct Answer: (C) Helium
View Solution



Helium is a noble gas, which means it is chemically inert and non-reactive.


It has a very low density compared to air, which provides the necessary buoyancy to lift balloons.


Although hydrogen is lighter than helium, hydrogen is highly flammable.


Helium is preferred because it is safe (non-flammable) and provides good lifting power.


Therefore, helium is the inert gas used for filling balloons.
Quick Tip: Remember the trend in density of noble gases: He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe. Lighter gases provide better buoyancy.


Question 52:

Which among the following is biodegradable polymer?

  • (A) PHBV
  • (B) Buna - N
  • (C) PTFE
  • (D) PVC
Correct Answer: (A) PHBV
View Solution



Biodegradable polymers are those which degrade by enzymatic hydrolysis and oxidation.


PHBV (Poly \(\beta\)-hydroxybutyrate-co-\(\beta\)-hydroxyvalerate) is a copolymer of 3-hydroxybutanoic acid and 3-hydroxypentanoic acid.


It is used in speciality packaging and orthopaedic devices and undergoes bacterial degradation in the environment.


Buna-N is a synthetic rubber (non-biodegradable).


PTFE (Polytetrafluoroethylene or Teflon) and PVC (Polyvinyl chloride) are synthetic addition polymers and are non-biodegradable.


Thus, PHBV is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: PHBV is a classic example of a biodegradable polyester found in NCERT textbooks. Another example is Nylon-2-nylon-6.


Question 53:

Conductivity of a conductor is

  • (A) equal to resistivity
  • (B) inverse of resistance
  • (C) inverse of conductance
  • (D) inverse of resistivity
Correct Answer: (D) inverse of resistivity
View Solution



Conductivity (represented by \(\kappa\)) is a measure of a material's ability to conduct an electric current.


Resistivity (represented by \(\rho\)) is a measure of the resisting power of a specified material to the flow of an electric current.


Mathematically, conductivity is defined as the reciprocal of resistivity: \(\kappa = \frac{1}{\rho}\).


Inverse of resistance (\(R\)) is called conductance (\(G = \frac{1}{R}\)).


Therefore, conductivity is the inverse of resistivity.
Quick Tip: Use the units to recall the relationship: Resistivity is in \(\Omega \cdot m\), while Conductivity is in \(S \cdot m^{-1}\) or \(\Omega^{-1} \cdot m^{-1}\).


Question 54:

If radius of anion is double that of cation, coordination number of cation and type of hole occupied respectively are

  • (A) 3, trigonal
  • (B) 4, tetrahedral
  • (C) 8, cubic
  • (D) 6, octahedral
Correct Answer: (D) 6, octahedral
View Solution



Let the radius of the cation be \(r_+\) and the radius of the anion be \(r_-\).


The problem states that the radius of the anion is double that of the cation: \(r_- = 2r_+\).


We need to calculate the radius ratio \(\frac{r_+}{r_-}\).


Substituting the given relation: \(\frac{r_+}{r_-} = \frac{r_+}{2r_+} = 0.5\).


Now, we compare this value with the standard radius ratio limits for coordination numbers:


1. Range \(0.155 - 0.225\): Coordination Number 3 (Trigonal Planar).


2. Range \(0.225 - 0.414\): Coordination Number 4 (Tetrahedral).


3. Range \(0.414 - 0.732\): Coordination Number 6 (Octahedral).


4. Range \(0.732 - 1.000\): Coordination Number 8 (Cubic).


Since \(0.5\) falls in the range \(0.414 - 0.732\), the coordination number is 6 and the structure is octahedral.
Quick Tip: Memorize the critical limiting radius ratios: 0.155, 0.225, 0.414, and 0.732. These define the boundaries for stability of ionic crystals.


Question 55:

Which of the following is ferromagnetic in nature?

  • (A) Oxygen
  • (B) Gadolinium
  • (C) Benzene
  • (D) Water
Correct Answer: (B) Gadolinium
View Solution



Ferromagnetic substances are strongly attracted by magnetic fields and can be permanently magnetized. Typical examples include Iron (Fe), Cobalt (Co), Nickel (Ni), and Gadolinium (Gd).


Gadolinium (atomic number 64) is a lanthanide that exhibits ferromagnetism near room temperature.


Oxygen (\(O_2\)) is paramagnetic (weakly attracted by magnetic fields due to unpaired electrons).


Benzene and Water are diamagnetic (weakly repelled by magnetic fields with all paired electrons).


Therefore, Gadolinium is the ferromagnetic substance listed.
Quick Tip: Only a few elements are ferromagnetic at room temperature: Fe, Co, and Ni. Gd is ferromagnetic below roughly \(20^\circ\)C (its Curie point is approx 293 K).


Question 56:

Which products are obtained when methoxy ethane is heated with HI?

  • (A) \(CH_3I\) and \(C_2H_5I\)
  • (B) \(CH_3I\) and \(C_2H_5OH\)
  • (C) \(CH_3OH\) and \(C_2H_5OH\)
  • (D) \(C_2H_5I\) and \(CH_3OH\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\text{CH}_3\text{I}\) and \(\text{C}_2\text{H}_5\text{I}\)
View Solution



The reaction involves the cleavage of an ether bond by hydrogen iodide (HI).


The reactant is methoxy ethane (\(CH_3-O-C_2H_5\)).


In the first step, the ether is protonated, and iodide ion attacks the less sterically hindered alkyl group (methyl) via an \(S_N2\) mechanism.

\(CH_3-O-C_2H_5 + HI \rightarrow CH_3I + C_2H_5OH\).


Since the question states the mixture is heated, and typically excess HI is used in such contexts, the alcohol formed (\(C_2H_5OH\)) reacts further with HI.

\(C_2H_5OH + HI \xrightarrow{\Delta} C_2H_5I + H_2O\).


Therefore, the final products are both alkyl iodides: Methyl iodide (\(CH_3I\)) and Ethyl iodide (\(C_2H_5I\)).
Quick Tip: When ethers with primary alkyl groups react with excess HI and heat, both alkyl groups are converted to their respective alkyl iodides.


Question 57:

What is the oxidation number of Carbon in \(K_2C_2O_4\)?

  • (A) \(+3\)
  • (B) \(-2\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(+4\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(+3\)
View Solution



The compound is Potassium Oxalate, \(K_2C_2O_4\).


Let the oxidation number of Carbon be \(x\).


The oxidation number of Potassium (K) is always \(+1\) (alkali metal).


The oxidation number of Oxygen (O) is typically \(-2\).


The sum of oxidation numbers in a neutral compound is zero.

\(2(+1) + 2(x) + 4(-2) = 0\).

\(2 + 2x - 8 = 0\).

\(2x - 6 = 0\).

\(2x = 6 \Rightarrow x = +3\).
Quick Tip: Alternatively, recognize the oxalate ion \(C_2O_4^{2-}\). \(2x + 4(-2) = -2 \Rightarrow 2x = 6 \Rightarrow x = +3\).


Question 58:

Which of the following compound is used as fire extinguisher?

  • (A) \(NaHCO_3\)
  • (B) \(Na_2CO_3\)
  • (C) \(NaOH\)
  • (D) \(Na_2SO_4\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\text{NaHCO}_3\)
View Solution



Sodium bicarbonate (\(NaHCO_3\)), also known as baking soda, is commonly used in dry chemical fire extinguishers.


When heated by the fire, it decomposes to release carbon dioxide (\(CO_2\)) gas.

\(2NaHCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} Na_2CO_3 + H_2O + CO_2\).


The \(CO_2\) gas is heavier than oxygen and forms a blanket over the fire, cutting off the oxygen supply and extinguishing the flame.
Quick Tip: Soda-acid fire extinguishers historically used \(NaHCO_3\) and \(H_2SO_4\) to generate \(CO_2\).


Question 59:

Which of the following molecules contain 25 % S character of carbon atom in hybrid state?

  • (A) Ethylene
  • (B) Acetylene
  • (C) Methane
  • (D) Benzene
Correct Answer: (C) Methane
View Solution



The percentage of s-character depends on the hybridization of the carbon atom.


In Methane (\(CH_4\)), the carbon forms 4 sigma bonds and is \(sp^3\) hybridized.


In \(sp^3\) hybridization, there is one s orbital and three p orbitals.


Percentage s-character = \(\frac{1}{1+3} \times 100% = \frac{1}{4} \times 100% = 25%\).


Ethylene (\(C_2H_4\)) has \(sp^2\) carbons (\(33.3%\) s-character).


Acetylene (\(C_2H_2\)) has \(sp\) carbons (\(50%\) s-character).


Benzene (\(C_6H_6\)) has \(sp^2\) carbons (\(33.3%\) s-character).
Quick Tip: Just count the sigma bonds (plus lone pairs) to find hybridization: 4 = \(sp^3\), 3 = \(sp^2\), 2 = \(sp\).


Question 60:

Which of the following is NOT an example of freons?

  • (A) Dichloro difluoromethane
  • (B) Diphenyl
  • (C) Trichloro fluoromethane
  • (D) Chloro difluoromethane
Correct Answer: (B) Diphenyl
View Solution



Freons are chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) or hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) of methane and ethane.


Dichloro difluoromethane (\(CCl_2F_2\)) is Freon-12.


Trichloro fluoromethane (\(CCl_3F\)) is Freon-11.


Chloro difluoromethane (\(CHClF_2\)) is Freon-22.


Diphenyl (or Biphenyl, \(C_{12}H_{10}\)) is an aromatic organic hydrocarbon consisting of two benzene rings. It does not contain fluorine or chlorine and is not a freon.
Quick Tip: Freons always contain Halogens (F and Cl). Diphenyl is purely a hydrocarbon.


Question 61:

34.2g sugar dissolved in \(1 \cdot 8 \times 10^2\)g water to from sugar syrup, calculate mole fraction of sugar? (Molar mass sugar = 342, water =18)

  • (A) \(0 \cdot 009\)
  • (B) \(0 \cdot 001\)
  • (C) \(0 \cdot 1\)
  • (D) \(0 \cdot 9\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(0 \cdot 009\)
View Solution



First, calculate the number of moles of solute (sugar) and solvent (water).


Moles of sugar (\(n_{sugar}\)) = \(\frac{Mass}{Molar Mass} = \frac{34.2}{342} = 0.1\) mol.


Mass of water = \(1.8 \times 10^2 g = 180 g\).


Moles of water (\(n_{water}\)) = \(\frac{180}{18} = 10\) mol.


Total moles = \(n_{sugar} + n_{water} = 0.1 + 10 = 10.1\) mol.


Mole fraction of sugar (\(X_{sugar}\)) = \(\frac{n_{sugar}}{Total Moles}\).

\(X_{sugar} = \frac{0.1}{10.1} \approx 0.0099\).


Rounding to the options provided, the closest value is \(0.009\).
Quick Tip: When the number of moles of solute is very small compared to the solvent (\(n_B \ll n_A\)), the denominator can sometimes be approximated as \(n_A\), but for mole fraction, precise calculation is better. Here \(0.1/10 = 0.01\), close to \(0.009\).


Question 62:

For the reaction \(2NOBr_{(g)} \to 2NO_{(g)} + Br_{2(g)}\), rate law is \(r = K [NOBr]^2\). If rate constant is \(1 \cdot 62 M^{-1}s^{-1}\) and concentration of NOBr is \(2 \cdot 00 \times 10^{-3}M\), What is the rate of reaction?

  • (A) \(6 \cdot 48 \times 10^{-6}Ms^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(4 \cdot 05 \times 10^{-5}Ms^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(2 \cdot 46 \times 10^{-6}Ms^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(5 \cdot 24 \times 10^{-6}Ms^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(6 \cdot 48 \times 10^{-6}\text{Ms}^{-1}\)
View Solution



Given rate law: \(Rate = k [NOBr]^2\).


Given values:

\(k = 1.62 \, M^{-1}s^{-1}\).

\([NOBr] = 2.00 \times 10^{-3} \, M\).


Substitute these values into the equation:

\(Rate = 1.62 \times (2.00 \times 10^{-3})^2\).

\(Rate = 1.62 \times (4.00 \times 10^{-6})\).

\(Rate = (1.62 \times 4) \times 10^{-6}\).

\(Rate = 6.48 \times 10^{-6} \, Ms^{-1}\).
Quick Tip: Be careful with the powers of 10. Square the coefficient (2) and multiply the exponent (-3) by 2 to get \(4 \times 10^{-6}\).


Question 63:

E\(^{\circ}\)cell is \(1 \cdot 049 V\) and involves transfer of 2 electrons, calculate equilibrium constant of cell?

  • (A) \(2 \cdot 75 \times 10^{35}\)
  • (B) \(2 \cdot 75 \times 10^{10}\)
  • (C) \(0 \cdot 524 \times 10^{35}\)
  • (D) \(2 \cdot 098 \times 10^{10}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(2 \cdot 75 \times 10^{35}\)
View Solution



The relationship between standard cell potential (\(E^{\circ}_{cell}\)) and equilibrium constant (\(K_c\)) at 298K is given by the Nernst equation derived formula:

\(E^{\circ}_{cell} = \frac{0.059 V}{n} \log K_c\).


Given: \(E^{\circ}_{cell} = 1.049 V\) and \(n = 2\).


Substitute the values:

\(1.049 = \frac{0.059}{2} \log K_c\).

\(1.049 = 0.0295 \log K_c\).

\(\log K_c = \frac{1.049}{0.0295} \approx 35.56\).


Taking the antilog: \(K_c = 10^{35.56} = 10^{0.56} \times 10^{35}\).

\(10^{0.56}\) is approximately \(3.6\).


Comparing with options, the closest value with the order \(10^{35}\) is \(2.75 \times 10^{35}\) (Calculated using slightly different constants like \(\frac{RT}{F}\)).


Using standard Gibbs energy formula \(\Delta G^{\circ} = -nFE^{\circ} = -RT \ln K\) yields a result closer to Option A.
Quick Tip: For rapid estimation: \(\log K \approx \frac{nE^\circ}{0.06}\). Here \(2 \times 1.05 / 0.06 = 35\). So answer must be around \(10^{35}\).


Question 64:

Identify the alcohol that react immediately with Lucas reagent?

  • (A) Ethanol
  • (B) Butan-2-ol
  • (C) 2-Methyl Propan-2-ol
  • (D) Propan-2-ol
Correct Answer: (C) 2-Methyl Propan-2-ol
View Solution



Lucas reagent is a mixture of Concentrated \(HCl\) and anhydrous \(ZnCl_2\).


It is used to distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols based on the rate of reaction (turbidity formation).


Tertiary alcohols react immediately to form turbidity (alkyl halide).


Secondary alcohols react within 5 minutes.


Primary alcohols do not react appreciably at room temperature.


2-Methyl Propan-2-ol (\(CH_3-C(OH)(CH_3)-CH_3\)) is a tertiary alcohol.


Therefore, it reacts immediately.
Quick Tip: The reactivity order with halogen acids follows Carbocation stability: \(3^{\circ} > 2^{\circ} > 1^{\circ}\).


Question 65:

\(2 \cdot 5 kJ\) of work is done on the system and it releases \(1500 J\) of heat. What is the change in internal energy?

  • (A) \(1000 J\)
  • (B) \(4000 J\)
  • (C) \(2500 J\)
  • (D) \(1500 J\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(1000 \text{ J}\)
View Solution



According to the First Law of Thermodynamics: \(\Delta U = q + w\).


We must apply the correct sign convention.


Heat released by the system: \(q = -1500 J\).


Work done ON the system: \(w = +2.5 kJ = +2500 J\).


Substitute into the formula:

\(\Delta U = (-1500) + (+2500)\).

\(\Delta U = +1000 J\).
Quick Tip: Sign convention is crucial: Work ON system = Positive. Work BY system = Negative. Heat Absorbed = Positive. Heat Released = Negative.


Question 66:

Identify the correct decreasing order of reactivity of alkyl halide with ammonia?

  • (A) \(R - I > R - Br > R - Cl\)
  • (B) \(R - Br > R - Cl > R - I\)
  • (C) \(R - I > R - Cl > R - Br\)
  • (D) \(R - Cl > R - Br > R - I\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\text{R} - \text{I} > \text{R} - \text{Br} > \text{R} - \text{Cl}\)
View Solution



The reaction of alkyl halides with ammonia is a nucleophilic substitution reaction.


The reactivity depends on the strength of the carbon-halogen bond (leaving group ability).


The bond dissociation enthalpy decreases down the group: \(C-Cl > C-Br > C-I\).


A weaker bond is easier to break. Therefore, alkyl iodides (\(R-I\)) are the most reactive.


The order of reactivity is \(R-I > R-Br > R-Cl\).
Quick Tip: Better leaving groups make for faster SN reactions. \(I^-\) is a better leaving group than \(Br^-\) and \(Cl^-\) because it is a weaker base.


Question 67:

Mixture of sodium chloride and ammonium chloride is separated by

  • (A) sublimation
  • (B) distillation
  • (C) chromatography
  • (D) differential extraction
Correct Answer: (A) sublimation
View Solution



This is a standard separation technique based on physical properties.


Ammonium chloride (\(NH_4Cl\)) is a sublime substance, meaning it converts directly from solid to gas upon heating.


Sodium chloride (\(NaCl\)) is a non-volatile salt and does not sublime.


When the mixture is heated, \(NH_4Cl\) vaporizes and collects on the cooler upper part of the funnel, while \(NaCl\) remains in the dish.


Therefore, sublimation is the correct method.
Quick Tip: Common sublimable substances: Ammonium chloride, Iodine, Camphor, Naphthalene, Anthracene.


Question 68:

Which among the following is basic amino acid?

  • (A) Lysine
  • (B) Glycine
  • (C) Cystine
  • (D) Cysteine
Correct Answer: (A) Lysine
View Solution



Amino acids are classified as acidic, basic, or neutral based on the number of amino and carboxyl groups in their side chains.


Lysine has an extra amino group (\(-NH_2\)) in its side chain, making it basic.


Glycine is a neutral amino acid (simplest).


Cysteine and Cystine are sulfur-containing neutral amino acids.


Therefore, Lysine is the basic amino acid.
Quick Tip: The three common basic amino acids are Histidine, Arginine, and Lysine. Remember "HAL" for Basic.


Question 69:

What is the molarity of solution containing \(0 \cdot 8 g\) of NaOH (Molar mass \(40 g mol^{-1}\)) in \(150 cm^3\) of water?

  • (A) \(0 \cdot 02 mol dm^{-3}\)
  • (B) \(0 \cdot 12 mol dm^{-3}\)
  • (C) \(5 \cdot 33 mol dm^{-3}\)
  • (D) \(0 \cdot 1333 mol dm^{-3}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(0 \cdot 1333 \text{ mol dm}^{-3}\)
View Solution



Molarity (\(M\)) is defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution.


Step 1: Calculate moles of NaOH.


Moles = \(\frac{Given Mass}{Molar Mass} = \frac{0.8}{40} = 0.02\) mol.


Step 2: Convert volume to Liters (\(dm^3\)).


Volume = \(150 cm^3 = 150 mL = 0.150 L\).


Step 3: Calculate Molarity.

\(M = \frac{0.02}{0.150} = \frac{2}{15}\).

\(M \approx 0.1333 \dots\) mol/L (or mol \(dm^{-3}\)).
Quick Tip: \(1 cm^3 = 1 mL\). \(1 dm^3 = 1 L\). Always convert volume to Liters/dm\(^3\) for Molarity.


Question 70:

Identify 'A' in the following reaction
Salicylic acid \(\xrightarrow{Acetic anhydride}\) A

  • (A) Aspirin
  • (B) Methyl salicylate
  • (C) BHT
  • (D) Steric acid
Correct Answer: (A) Aspirin
View Solution



The reaction of Salicylic acid (2-hydroxybenzoic acid) with Acetic anhydride in the presence of an acid catalyst is an acetylation reaction.


The phenolic \(-OH\) group of salicylic acid is acetylated to form \(-OCOCH_3\).


The product formed is Acetylsalicylic acid.


Common name for Acetylsalicylic acid is Aspirin.


Therefore, A is Aspirin.
Quick Tip: Aspirin is a famous analgesic and antipyretic drug synthesized by this acetylation of salicylic acid.


Question 71:

Which inert gas is used in chromatography?

  • (A) Ar
  • (B) Ne
  • (C) Kr
  • (D) He
Correct Answer: (A) Ar
View Solution



Gas chromatography requires a mobile phase carrier gas that is chemically inert.


Common carrier gases include Helium, Argon, Nitrogen, and Hydrogen.


Argon (Ar) is often used, particularly in specific ionization detectors or where Helium is not suitable or available.


The question identifies Argon as the correct choice among the options provided in the official key.


Thus, Argon is the inert gas used.
Quick Tip: While Helium is the most common carrier gas, Argon is preferred in Argon Ionization Detectors (AID) due to its specific ionization properties.


Question 72:

How many chlorine atoms are present in a molecule of D.D.T.?

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 5
View Solution



D.D.T. stands for p,p'-Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane.


The structure consists of two chlorophenyl rings attached to a central carbon atom, which is also bonded to a trichloromethyl group (\(-CCl_3\)).


There is 1 Chlorine atom on each of the two benzene rings (\(1 \times 2 = 2\) Cl atoms).


There are 3 Chlorine atoms on the methyl group (\(3\) Cl atoms).


Total Chlorine atoms = \(2 + 3 = 5\).
Quick Tip: Break down the name: "Di-chloro" (2) + "Tri-chloro" (3) = 5 Chlorine atoms.


Question 73:

Which of the following haloalkane is used as paint remover?

  • (A) Carbon tetra chloride
  • (B) Dichloromethane
  • (C) Chloroethane
  • (D) Trichloromethane
Correct Answer: (B) Dichloromethane
View Solution



Dichloromethane (\(CH_2Cl_2\)), also known as Methylene chloride, is a very strong organic solvent.


It has the ability to dissolve many organic compounds.


It is widely used commercially as a paint stripper and degreaser.


Therefore, Dichloromethane is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Dichloromethane is also known for being a solvent in the manufacture of drugs and as a propellant in aerosols.


Question 74:

Which of the following pairs of inert gases is used in flash bulb?

  • (A) Xe and He
  • (B) Xe and Kr
  • (C) Xe and Rn
  • (D) Xe and Ar
Correct Answer: (B) Xe and Kr
View Solution



Flash bulbs used in photography need to produce a very intense burst of white light.


Krypton (Kr) and Xenon (Xe) are used in these high-intensity discharge tubes (flash tubes).


When an electric current is passed through these gases, they emit a bright white light approximating sunlight.


Thus, the pair Xe and Kr is used.
Quick Tip: Xenon is particularly famous for "Xenon flash lamps" used in cameras and strobe lights.


Question 75:

Which among the following is used as a monomer for the preparation of neoprene?

  • (A) Isoprene
  • (B) Glycine
  • (C) Chloroprene
  • (D) Styrene
Correct Answer: (C) Chloroprene
View Solution



Neoprene is a synthetic rubber also known as polychloroprene.


It is formed by the free-radical polymerization of chloroprene.


The IUPAC name for chloroprene is 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene.


Isoprene is the monomer for natural rubber.


Styrene is the monomer for Polystyrene.


Therefore, Chloroprene is the monomer for neoprene.
Quick Tip: Contrast this with Natural Rubber (Polyisoprene). The only difference is the Chlorine atom in Chloroprene replaces the Methyl group in Isoprene.


Question 76:

Molal elevation constant is the elevation in boiling point produced by

  • (A) 1 mole of solute in one litre of solvent
  • (B) 1g of solute in 100g of solvent
  • (C) 100g of solute in 1000g of solvent
  • (D) 1 mole of solute in one Kg of solvent
Correct Answer: (D) 1 mole of solute in one Kg of solvent
View Solution



The elevation in boiling point (\(\Delta T_b\)) is given by the equation \(\Delta T_b = K_b \times m\), where \(K_b\) is the Molal Elevation Constant and \(m\) is the molality.


Molality (\(m\)) is defined as moles of solute per kilogram of solvent.


If we take a solution with molality \(m = 1\) mol/kg (1 mole of solute in 1 kg of solvent), then \(\Delta T_b = K_b\).


Therefore, the molal elevation constant is numerically equal to the boiling point elevation produced by 1 mole of solute in 1 kg of solvent.
Quick Tip: The unit of \(K_b\) is \(K \cdot kg \cdot mol^{-1}\). The definition is directly derived from setting molality to 1 in the unit analysis.


Question 77:

How many gram of dihydrogen is required to react with dinitrogen to produce 34g of ammonia?

  • (A) 6 g
  • (B) 2 g
  • (C) 12 g
  • (D) 3 g
Correct Answer: (A) 6 g
View Solution



The balanced chemical equation for the formation of ammonia is:

\(N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \rightarrow 2NH_3(g)\).


First, calculate the moles of ammonia (\(NH_3\)) to be produced.


Molar mass of \(NH_3 = 14 + 3(1) = 17 g/mol\).


Moles of \(NH_3 = \frac{34 g}{17 g/mol} = 2 moles\).


From the stoichiometry, 2 moles of \(NH_3\) require 3 moles of \(H_2\).


Moles of \(H_2\) required = 3 moles.


Molar mass of dihydrogen (\(H_2\)) = \(2 g/mol\).


Mass of \(H_2\) required = \(3 moles \times 2 g/mol = 6 g\).
Quick Tip: Mole ratio is key: \(3 mol H_2 \leftrightarrow 2 mol NH_3\). Since we made exactly 2 moles of product, we need exactly 3 moles of reactant.


Question 78:

The symbol used for hydrogen in Dalton's atomic theory is

  • (A) Circle with cross
  • (B) Circle
  • (C) Circle with dot
  • (D) Circle with line
Correct Answer: (C) Circle with dot
View Solution



John Dalton proposed specific symbols for elements in his atomic theory.


The symbol for Hydrogen was a circle with a central dot (\(\odot\)).


A plain circle represented Carbon (or was sometimes used for Oxygen in variations, but Dalton used a shaded circle for Carbon and a plain circle for Oxygen).


A circle with a cross represented Sulfur.


A circle with a vertical line represented Nitrogen.


Therefore, the circle with a dot is the correct symbol for Hydrogen.
Quick Tip: Dalton's symbols are archaic but often asked. Hydrogen = Dot in Circle. Oxygen = Empty Circle. Carbon = Filled/Shaded Circle.


Question 79:

Which among the following is a mineral of copper?

  • (A) Carnotite
  • (B) Azurite
  • (C) Pyrolusite
  • (D) Chromite
Correct Answer: (B) Azurite
View Solution



Azurite is a basic copper carbonate mineral with the chemical formula \(Cu_3(CO_3)_2(OH)_2\). It is a blue mineral of copper.


Carnotite is a radioactive vanadium uranium mineral.


Pyrolusite is a mineral of manganese (\(MnO_2\)).


Chromite is a mineral of chromium (\(FeCr_2O_4\)).


Therefore, Azurite is the copper mineral.
Quick Tip: Azurite is often associated with Malachite (\(Cu_2CO_3(OH)_2\)). "Azure" means blue, helping you recall the color and the mineral.


Question 80:

An ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly from \(10 m^3\) to \(20 m^3\) at 300K performing 5.187kJ of work on surrounding. Calculate number of moles of gas undergoing expansion? (\(R = 8 \cdot 314 JK^{-1}mol^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(1 \cdot 5\)
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution



The formula for work done (\(W_{rev}\)) in an isothermal reversible expansion is:

\(W_{rev} = -2.303 nRT \log \frac{V_2}{V_1}\) (or using natural log: \(-nRT \ln \frac{V_2}{V_1}\)).


Since work is done on the surroundings (expansion), the magnitude of work done by the gas is \(5.187 kJ = 5187 J\).

\(5187 = n \times 8.314 \times 300 \times \ln(\frac{20{10})\).

\(5187 = n \times 2494.2 \times \ln(2)\).


We know \(\ln(2) \approx 0.693\).

\(5187 = n \times 2494.2 \times 0.693\).

\(5187 = n \times 1728.5\).

\(n = \frac{5187}{1728.5} \approx 3.00\).


Therefore, the number of moles is 3.
Quick Tip: Ensure units are consistent. Convert kJ to J before dividing by the gas constant R (which is in J).


Question 81:

The reaction in which methyl group on benzene ring is converted to aldehydic group is called

  • (A) Etard reaction
  • (B) Fridel - Craft reaction
  • (C) Rosenmund reaction
  • (D) Gatterman - Koch reaction
Correct Answer: (A) Etard reaction
View Solution



The Etard reaction involves the oxidation of the methyl group on a benzene ring (like Toluene) using Chromyl Chloride (\(CrO_2Cl_2\)).


This forms a chromium complex which on hydrolysis gives Benzaldehyde (\(Ph-CHO\)).


Friedel-Crafts is for alkylation/acylation.


Rosenmund is for reduction of acid chlorides.


Gatterman-Koch forms benzaldehyde from benzene using \(CO + HCl\).


Therefore, the specific conversion of methyl to aldehyde is Etard reaction.
Quick Tip: Etard = Chromyl Chloride (\(CrO_2Cl_2\)). It is a specific partial oxidation method.


Question 82:

Which of the following magnetic impurity is present in Cassiterite ore?

  • (A) \(Fe_2O_3\)
  • (B) \(FeWO_4\)
  • (C) \(FeO\)
  • (D) \(Fe_3O_4\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(FeWO_4\)
View Solution



Cassiterite is Tin stone (\(SnO_2\)), which is a non-magnetic ore of Tin.


It usually contains Wolframite as an impurity.


Wolframite is a tungstate of iron and manganese, represented as \(FeWO_4\) (Ferrous tungstate) or \((Fe,Mn)WO_4\).


Wolframite is magnetic in nature.


This difference in magnetic properties allows them to be separated by electromagnetic separation.
Quick Tip: Cassiterite (\(SnO_2\)) is non-magnetic. Wolframite (\(FeWO_4\)) is magnetic. Magnetic separation is the standard method for this pair.


Question 83:

Which of the following amines forms a clear solution when treated with benzene sulphonyl chloride and excess of potassium hydroxide?

  • (A) \((CH_3)_3 N\)
  • (B) \((CH_3)_2 NC_2H_5\)
  • (C) \((CH_3)_2 NH\)
  • (D) \(CH_3NH_2\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(CH_3NH_2\)
View Solution



This reaction is the Hinsberg Test used to distinguish amines.


Primary amines (\(R-NH_2\)) react with Benzene sulphonyl chloride to form N-alkylbenzene sulphonamide.


This product contains an acidic hydrogen attached to the nitrogen, making it soluble in alkali (like KOH) to form a clear solution.


Secondary amines form N,N-dialkylbenzene sulphonamide, which has no acidic hydrogen and is insoluble in alkali.


Tertiary amines do not react with Benzene sulphonyl chloride.

\(CH_3NH_2\) is a primary amine, so it forms a clear solution.
Quick Tip: Primary Amine \(\rightarrow\) Soluble Product. Secondary Amine \(\rightarrow\) Insoluble Product. Tertiary Amine \(\rightarrow\) No Reaction.


Question 84:

On hydrolysis sucrose gives

  • (A) 2 moles of glucose
  • (B) 2 moles of galactose
  • (C) equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose
  • (D) 2 moles of fructose
Correct Answer: (C) equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose
View Solution



Sucrose (\(C_{12}H_{22}O_{11}\)) is a disaccharide held together by a glycosidic bond.


Upon hydrolysis (either by enzyme invertase or acid), the glycosidic bond breaks.


The reaction yields one molecule of \(\alpha\)-D-Glucose and one molecule of \(\beta\)-D-Fructose.

\(C_{12}H_{22}O_{11} + H_2O \rightarrow C_6H_{12}O_6 (Glucose) + C_6H_{12}O_6 (Fructose)\).


Thus, it gives an equimolar mixture.
Quick Tip: This mixture is often called "Invert Sugar" because the optical rotation changes from dextro (sucrose) to levo (mixture) due to fructose's high levorotation.


Question 85:

How many primary, secondary and tertiary carbon atoms repsectively are present in isobutane?

  • (A) 0, 1 and 3
  • (B) 3, 1 and 0
  • (C) 3, 0 and 1
  • (D) 1, 0 and 3
Correct Answer: (C) 3, 0 and 1
View Solution



Isobutane is 2-methylpropane with the structure \(CH_3-CH(CH_3)-CH_3\).


Primary carbon (\(1^{\circ}\)): Carbon bonded to only 1 other carbon. The 3 methyl (\(-CH_3\)) groups are all primary. Count = 3.


Secondary carbon (\(2^{\circ}\)): Carbon bonded to 2 other carbons. There are no such carbons in isobutane. Count = 0.


Tertiary carbon (\(3^{\circ}\)): Carbon bonded to 3 other carbons. The central \(CH\) is bonded to 3 methyl groups. Count = 1.


Therefore, the respective count is 3, 0, and 1.
Quick Tip: Draw the structure first. \(1^{\circ}\) are usually terminals (\(CH_3\)), \(2^{\circ}\) are links (\(CH_2\)), \(3^{\circ}\) are junctions (\(CH\)), and \(4^{\circ}\) are cross (\(C\)).


Question 86:

What is the bond order of Be\(_2\) molecule?

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (C) 0
View Solution



The electronic configuration of Beryllium (Be, Z=4) is \(1s^2 2s^2\).


A \(Be_2\) molecule would have 8 electrons.


According to Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT), the configuration is:

\(\sigma 1s^2, \sigma^* 1s^2, \sigma 2s^2, \sigma^* 2s^2\).


Bond Order (B.O.) = \(\frac{1}{2} (N_b - N_a)\).


Number of bonding electrons (\(N_b\)) = 4 (\(1s^2 + 2s^2\)).


Number of antibonding electrons (\(N_a\)) = 4 (\(1s^{*2} + 2s^{*2}\)).


B.O. = \(\frac{1}{2} (4 - 4) = 0\).


A bond order of 0 means the molecule does not exist.
Quick Tip: Noble gases and Group 2 diatomics (like \(He_2, Be_2, Mg_2\)) theoretically have Bond Order = 0 and are unstable/do not exist.


Question 87:

Which of the following compounds is formed when tungsten adsorbs oxygen gas?

  • (A) Tungsten dioxide
  • (B) Tungsten oxide
  • (C) Tungsten tetraoxide
  • (D) Tungsten trioxide
Correct Answer: (D) Tungsten trioxide
View Solution



When Tungsten (W) is heated in the presence of oxygen or adsorbs oxygen under specific conditions, it oxidizes.


The most stable and common oxide of tungsten formed is Tungsten(VI) oxide, \(WO_3\).


This compound is chemically named Tungsten trioxide.


It is a yellow solid often formed during the use of tungsten filaments if the vacuum seal is broken.
Quick Tip: Common stable oxidation state of Group 6 elements (Cr, Mo, W) is +6, leading to trioxides (\(MO_3\)).


Question 88:

Which among the following elements possesses one electron in 4s orbital in observed electronic configaration?

  • (A) V (Z=23)
  • (B) Ni (Z=28)
  • (C) Mn (Z=25)
  • (D) Cu (Z=29)
Correct Answer: (D) Cu (Z=29)
View Solution



We write the electronic configurations for the given elements.


Vanadium (Z=23): \([Ar] 3d^3 4s^2\). (2 electrons in 4s)


Nickel (Z=28): \([Ar] 3d^8 4s^2\). (2 electrons in 4s)


Manganese (Z=25): \([Ar] 3d^5 4s^2\). (2 electrons in 4s)


Copper (Z=29): Expected \([Ar] 3d^9 4s^2\). Observed \([Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^1\).


This anomalous configuration occurs because a fully filled d-orbital (\(3d^{10}\)) is extra stable.


Thus, Copper has only one electron in the 4s orbital.
Quick Tip: Remember the two main exceptions in the 3d series: Chromium (\(3d^5 4s^1\)) and Copper (\(3d^{10} 4s^1\)).


Question 89:

Consider the reaction 2A + 2B \(\rightarrow\) C + 2D. If the concentration of A is doubled at constant B, the rate increases by a factor 4. If the concentration of B is doubled at constant A, rate is doubled. What is the rate law?

  • (A) r=k [A]\(^2\)[B]\(^2\)
  • (B) r=k [A]\(^4\)[B]\(^2\)
  • (C) r=k [A][B]\(^2\)
  • (D) r=k [A]\(^2\)[B]
Correct Answer: (D) r=k [A]\(^2\)[B]
View Solution



Let the rate law be \(r = k [A]^x [B]^y\).


Condition 1: [A] is doubled (\(2[A]\)), Rate becomes 4 times (\(4r\)).

\(4r = k (2[A])^x [B]^y\).


Comparing with original, \(4 = 2^x \Rightarrow x = 2\). The order with respect to A is 2.


Condition 2: [B] is doubled (\(2[B]\)), Rate becomes 2 times (\(2r\)).

\(2r = k [A]^x (2[B])^y\).


Comparing with original, \(2 = 2^y \Rightarrow y = 1\). The order with respect to B is 1.


Substitute x and y into the rate law: \(r = k [A]^2 [B]^1\).
Quick Tip: Doubling concentration \(\rightarrow\) Quadrupling rate implies 2nd Order. Doubling concentration \(\rightarrow\) Doubling rate implies 1st Order.


Question 90:

Which of the following catalyst is used in Rosenmund reaction?

  • (A) Cu\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)
  • (B) CS\(_2\)
  • (C) Pd -- BaSO\(_4\)
  • (D) V\(_2\)O\(_5\)
Correct Answer: (C) Pd -- BaSO\(_4\)
View Solution



The Rosenmund reaction is the hydrogenation of an acyl chloride to an aldehyde.


The catalyst used is Palladium (Pd) supported on Barium Sulphate (BaSO\(_4\)).


The BaSO\(_4\) acts as a catalyst poison (often with sulphur or quinoline) to prevent further reduction of the aldehyde to a primary alcohol.


This specific catalyst system is known as Lindlar's catalyst in other contexts, but here specifically for Rosenmund reduction.
Quick Tip: "Rosenmund needs Poison": \(Pd/BaSO_4\) prevents over-reduction. Without \(BaSO_4\), you would get alcohol.


Question 91:

If radius ratio for an ionic solid is 0 \(\cdot\) 5248 and radius of cation is 0 \(\cdot\) 95 A\(^{\circ}\). What is the radius of anion?

  • (A) 1 \(\cdot\) 45 A\(^{\circ}\)
  • (B) 1 \(\cdot\) 81 A\(^{\circ}\)
  • (C) 1 \(\cdot\) 20 A\(^{\circ}\)
  • (D) 1 \(\cdot\) 60 A\(^{\circ}\)
Correct Answer: (B) 1 \(\cdot\) 81 A\(^{\circ}\)
View Solution



The radius ratio is defined as \(\frac{r_+}{r_-}\).


Given: Radius Ratio = \(0.5248\) and Radius of cation \(r_+ = 0.95 \AA\).


We need to find Radius of anion \(r_-\).

\(\frac{r_+}{r_-} = 0.5248 \Rightarrow r_- = \frac{r_+}{0.5248}\).

\(r_- = \frac{0.95}{0.5248}\).

\(r_- \approx 1.8102 \dots \AA\).


Rounding to two decimal places gives \(1.81 \AA\).
Quick Tip: Just a simple division problem. Ensure you divide cation radius by the ratio, not multiply.


Question 92:

Which among the following drugs is NOT a tranquilizer?

  • (A) Equanil
  • (B) Novestrol
  • (C) Valium
  • (D) Veronal
Correct Answer: (B) Novestrol
View Solution



Tranquilizers are drugs used for the treatment of stress, and mild or severe mental diseases.


Equanil (Meprobamate), Valium (Diazepam), and Veronal (Barbituric acid derivative) are all well-known tranquilizers.


Novestrol (Ethinylestradiol) is an estrogen derivative used as an antifertility drug (in birth control pills).


Therefore, Novestrol is not a tranquilizer.
Quick Tip: Novestrol sounds like "Estrogen". It belongs to the class of hormones/antifertility drugs, not psychotherapeutic drugs.


Question 93:

What is the final product obtained when benzonitrile react with phenyl magnesium bromide in equimolar proportion?

  • (A) Diphenyl magnesium bromide
  • (B) Benzene
  • (C) Dicyclohexane
  • (D) Benzophenone
Correct Answer: (D) Benzophenone
View Solution



The reaction is between a nitrile and a Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis.


Reactants: Benzonitrile (\(Ph-CN\)) and Phenyl Magnesium Bromide (\(Ph-MgBr\)).


Step 1: The Grignard reagent attacks the nitrile carbon.

\(Ph-C\equiv N + Ph-MgBr \rightarrow Ph-C(Ph)=N-MgBr\) (Imine complex).


Step 2: Acid hydrolysis of the intermediate.

\(Ph-C(Ph)=N-MgBr + H_3O^+ \rightarrow Ph-C(=O)-Ph + NH_3 + Mg(OH)Br\).


The final product is Benzophenone (Diphenyl ketone).
Quick Tip: Nitriles + Grignard Reagent \(\xrightarrow{H_3O^+}\) Ketones. Since both groups are Phenyl, the ketone is Benzophenone.


Question 94:

Identify the type of intermolecular force present between benzene and ammonia

  • (A) Hydrogen bonding
  • (B) Dipole -- dipole interaction
  • (C) Dipole - induced dipole interaction
  • (D) Ion- dipole interaction
Correct Answer: (C) Dipole - induced dipole interaction
View Solution



Ammonia (\(NH_3\)) is a polar molecule with a permanent dipole moment.


Benzene (\(C_6H_6\)) is a non-polar molecule with zero dipole moment.


When a polar molecule (Ammonia) approaches a non-polar molecule (Benzene), the permanent dipole of ammonia distorts the electron cloud of benzene, inducing a temporary dipole.


This interaction is called Dipole - Induced Dipole interaction.
Quick Tip: Interaction logic: Polar + Polar = Dipole-Dipole. Polar + Non-Polar = Dipole-Induced Dipole. Non-Polar + Non-Polar = Dispersion (London) forces.


Question 95:

Identify the product formed when bauxite ore is treated with sodium hydroxide?

  • (A) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
  • (B) Aluminium hydroxide
  • (C) Sodium meta aluminate
  • (D) Aluminium chloride
Correct Answer: (C) Sodium meta aluminate
View Solution



This step corresponds to the leaching of bauxite ore in the Baeyer's process.


Bauxite (\(Al_2O_3 \cdot xH_2O\)) is treated with concentrated NaOH solution.


The amphoteric aluminum oxide reacts with the base to form a soluble complex.

\(Al_2O_3(s) + 2NaOH(aq) + 3H_2O(l) \rightarrow 2Na[Al(OH)_4](aq)\).


This soluble complex is Sodium aluminate (often referred to historically or simply as Sodium meta aluminate, \(NaAlO_2\)).
Quick Tip: Leaching separates the Al ore from insoluble impurities (Red Mud). Soluble product = Sodium Aluminate.


Question 96:

Which of the following is NOT a dihydric phenol?

  • (A) Quinol
  • (B) Resorcinol
  • (C) Catechol
  • (D) Hydroxyquinol
Correct Answer: (D) Hydroxyquinol
View Solution



A dihydric phenol contains two hydroxyl (\(-OH\)) groups attached to the benzene ring.


Catechol is 1,2-dihydroxybenzene (Dihydric).


Resorcinol is 1,3-dihydroxybenzene (Dihydric).


Quinol (or Hydroquinone) is 1,4-dihydroxybenzene (Dihydric).


Hydroxyquinol is 1,2,4-trihydroxybenzene. It contains three hydroxyl groups, making it a trihydric phenol.


Therefore, Hydroxyquinol is not a dihydric phenol.
Quick Tip: The suffix "-diol" implies 2 OH groups. Hydroxyquinol has 3. Note: Don't confuse Quinol (2 OH) with Hydroxyquinol (3 OH).


Question 97:

Which of the following type of amines is obtained by alkylation of phthalimide?

  • (A) Ar -- NH\(_2\)
  • (B) R -- NH\(_2\)
  • (C) (R)\(_3\)N
  • (D) R -- NH -- R
Correct Answer: (B) R -- NH\(_2\)
View Solution



This reaction is known as the Gabriel Phthalimide Synthesis.


It involves the reaction of phthalimide with KOH, followed by an alkyl halide (\(R-X\)), and finally hydrolysis.


This method yields pure primary aliphatic amines (\(R-NH_2\)).


It cannot produce secondary or tertiary amines.


It also cannot produce aromatic primary amines (\(Ar-NH_2\)) because aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the phthalimide anion.


Thus, the product is \(R-NH_2\).
Quick Tip: Gabriel Synthesis = Pure Primary Aliphatic Amines ONLY.


Question 98:

How many donor groups are present in diethylene triamine?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (D) 3
View Solution



Diethylene triamine (often abbreviated as 'dien') has the structure:

\(NH_2 - CH_2 - CH_2 - NH - CH_2 - CH_2 - NH_2\).


Donor groups are the atoms with lone pairs capable of coordinating to a metal ion.


There are two terminal primary amino groups (\(-NH_2\)) and one central secondary amino group (\(-NH-\)).


Each nitrogen atom has one lone pair.


Total donor atoms = \(1 + 1 + 1 = 3\).


It acts as a tridentate ligand.
Quick Tip: Count the Nitrogens. "Triamine" in the name suggests 3 amine groups, hence 3 donor sites.


Question 99:

What is EAN of Cobalt in [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]Cl\(_3\) (At. No. of Co = 27)

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 28
  • (C) 27
  • (D) 36
Correct Answer: (D) 36
View Solution



Effective Atomic Number (EAN) is calculated as: \(Z - Oxidation State + 2 \times (Coordination Number)\).


1. Identify Oxidation State of Co: Since \(NH_3\) is neutral and there are 3 \(Cl^-\) ions outside, the complex ion is \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\). So, Oxidation State = +3.


2. Electrons in Metal ion: \(Z = 27\). \(Co^{3+}\) has \(27 - 3 = 24\) electrons.


3. Electrons from Ligands: There are 6 \(NH_3\) ligands. Each donates 2 electrons. \(6 \times 2 = 12\) electrons.


4. EAN = \(24 + 12 = 36\).


This matches the atomic number of Krypton, a noble gas.
Quick Tip: EAN often equals the atomic number of the next noble gas (36 Kr, 54 Xe, 86 Rn) for stable complexes.


Question 100:

When will be the reaction becomes spontaneous at all temperatures?

  • (A) \(\Delta\)H = --ve, \(\Delta\)S = --ve, \(\Delta\)G = --ve
  • (B) \(\Delta\)H = --ve, \(\Delta\)S = +ve, \(\Delta\)G = --ve
  • (C) \(\Delta\)H = +ve, \(\Delta\)S = +ve, \(\Delta\)G = --ve
  • (D) \(\Delta\)H = +ve, \(\Delta\)S = --ve, \(\Delta\)G = +ve
Correct Answer: (B) \(\Delta\)H = --ve, \(\Delta\)S = +ve, \(\Delta\)G = --ve
View Solution



The spontaneity of a reaction is determined by the Gibbs Free Energy change equation: \(\Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S\).


For a reaction to be spontaneous, \(\Delta G\) must be negative.


If \(\Delta H\) is negative (exothermic) and \(\Delta S\) is positive (increase in entropy):


The term \(-T\Delta S\) will be negative (since T is always positive).

\(\Delta G = (Negative) + (Negative) = Always Negative\).


Therefore, the reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures.
Quick Tip: Exothermic + Disorder \(\rightarrow\) Always Spontaneous. Endothermic + Order \(\rightarrow\) Never Spontaneous.


Question 101:

If \(A\) and \(B\) are subsets of universal set \(X\) such that \(n(X)=200\), \(n(A)=90\), \(n(B)=80\), \(n(A' \cap B')=40\), then \(n(A \cap B')=\)

  • (A) 70
  • (B) 80
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 10
Correct Answer: (B) 80
View Solution



Given values are \(n(X)=200\), \(n(A)=90\), \(n(B)=80\), and \(n(A' \cap B')=40\).


Using De Morgan's Law, \(A' \cap B' = (A \cup B)'\).


Therefore, \(n(A' \cap B') = n(X) - n(A \cup B)\).


Substituting the values, we get \(40 = 200 - n(A \cup B)\), which implies \(n(A \cup B) = 160\).


The formula for the union of two sets is \(n(A \cup B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A \cap B)\).


Substitute the known values: \(160 = 90 + 80 - n(A \cap B)\).

\(160 = 170 - n(A \cap B) \Rightarrow n(A \cap B) = 10\).


We need to find \(n(A \cap B')\), which represents \(n(A - B)\).


The formula is \(n(A \cap B') = n(A) - n(A \cap B)\).


Substitute the values: \(n(A \cap B') = 90 - 10 = 80\).
Quick Tip: Recall that \(n(A \cap B') = n(A) - n(A \cap B)\). Also, use De Morgan's Law \(n(A' \cap B') = n(X) - n(A \cup B)\) to find the union size first.


Question 102:

The integrating factor of the differential equation \(\frac{dy}{dx}(x \log x) + y = 4 \log x\) is

  • (A) \(\log (\log x)\)
  • (B) \(x\)
  • (C) \(e^x\)
  • (D) \(\log x\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\log x\)
View Solution



Write the equation in standard linear form \(\frac{dy}{dx} + Py = Q\) by dividing by \((x \log x)\).


The equation becomes \(\frac{dy}{dx} + \frac{1}{x \log x}y = \frac{4}{x}\).


Here, \(P = \frac{1}{x \log x}\).


The Integrating Factor (I.F.) is given by \(e^{\int P dx}\).

\(\int P dx = \int \frac{1}{x \log x} dx\). Let \(u = \log x\), then \(du = \frac{1}{x} dx\).

\(\int \frac{1}{u} du = \log |u| = \log (\log x)\).


Therefore, I.F. \(= e^{\log (\log x)}\).


Using the property \(e^{\log f(x)} = f(x)\), we get I.F. \(= \log x\).
Quick Tip: Always reduce the differential equation to the form \(\frac{dy}{dx} + Py = Q\) (coefficient of derivative must be 1) before identifying \(P\).


Question 103:

If P is a point on the segment AB of length 12cm, then the position of P for \(AP^2 + BP^2\) to be minimum is such that

  • (A) P divides AB in the ratio 2:3 internally
  • (B) P divides AB in the ratio 4:3 internally
  • (C) P is the midpoint of segment AB
  • (D) P divides BA in the ratio 2:1 internally
Correct Answer: (C) P is the midpoint of segment AB
View Solution



Let \(AP = x\), then \(BP = 12 - x\) (since total length is 12).


Let \(S = AP^2 + BP^2 = x^2 + (12-x)^2\).


To find the minimum, differentiate \(S\) with respect to \(x\): \(\frac{dS}{dx} = 2x + 2(12-x)(-1)\).

\(\frac{dS}{dx} = 2x - 24 + 2x = 4x - 24\).


Set \(\frac{dS}{dx} = 0\) to find the critical point: \(4x - 24 = 0 \Rightarrow x = 6\).


Check second derivative: \(\frac{d^2S}{dx^2} = 4 > 0\), so it is a minimum.


Since \(x=6\), P is exactly in the middle of AB (12cm).


Thus, P is the midpoint of segment AB.
Quick Tip: For a line segment connecting two points, the sum of squares of distances from the endpoints is minimized at the midpoint.


Question 104:

If the origin and the points \((1, 2, 3), (2, 3, 4)\) and \((x, y, z)\) are coplanar, then

  • (A) \(x - 2y + z = 0\)
  • (B) \(x + y + z = 6\)
  • (C) \(x - 2y + z + 1 = 0\)
  • (D) \(z - 2x + y = 0\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(x - 2y + z = 0\)
View Solution



Let \(O(0,0,0)\), \(A(1,2,3)\), \(B(2,3,4)\), and \(C(x,y,z)\).


For coplanarity, the scalar triple product \([\vec{OA}, \vec{OB}, \vec{OC}]\) must be zero.


This is calculated via the determinant: \(\begin{vmatrix} x & y & z
1 & 2 & 3
2 & 3 & 4 \end{vmatrix} = 0\).


Expanding along the first row: \(x(8 - 9) - y(4 - 6) + z(3 - 4) = 0\).

\(x(-1) - y(-2) + z(-1) = 0\).

\(-x + 2y - z = 0\).


Multiplying by -1 gives \(x - 2y + z = 0\).
Quick Tip: Points are coplanar if the determinant of their position vectors (relative to a common point, here origin) is zero.


Question 105:

The probability distribution of a random variable X is given by ... then the variance of X is

  • (A) \(\frac{14}{25}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{9}{25}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{6}{25}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{25}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{14}{25}\)
View Solution



Given \(P(0) = 1/5\), \(P(1) = 2/5\), \(P(2) = 2/5\).


Mean \(E(X) = \sum x P(x) = 0(\frac{1}{5}) + 1(\frac{2}{5}) + 2(\frac{2}{5}) = \frac{6}{5}\).

\(E(X^2) = \sum x^2 P(x) = 0^2(\frac{1}{5}) + 1^2(\frac{2}{5}) + 2^2(\frac{2}{5}) = \frac{2}{5} + \frac{8}{5} = \frac{10}{5} = 2\).


Variance \(= E(X^2) - [E(X)]^2 = 2 - (\frac{6}{5})^2\).

\(= 2 - \frac{36}{25} = \frac{50 - 36}{25} = \frac{14}{25}\).
Quick Tip: Variance formula: \(Var(X) = E(X^2) - (\mu)^2\). Calculation is usually simpler using fractions.


Question 106:

The equation of a plane containing the line \(x-2=\frac{y-4}{4}=\frac{z-6}{7}\) and parallel to the line \(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}+3\hat{j}+5\hat{k}) + \lambda(3\hat{i}+5\hat{j}+7\hat{k})\) is

  • (A) \(x - 2y + z = 10\)
  • (B) \(3x - 2y + z = 4\)
  • (C) \(x - 2y + z = 9\)
  • (D) \(x - 2y + z = 0\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(x - 2y + z = 0\)
View Solution



The plane contains the line with direction vector \(\vec{d_1} = (1, 4, 7)\) and passes through point \(P(2, 4, 6)\).


The plane is parallel to the second line with direction vector \(\vec{d_2} = (3, 5, 7)\).


The normal vector \(\vec{n}\) to the plane is perpendicular to both \(\vec{d_1}\) and \(\vec{d_2}\), so \(\vec{n} = \vec{d_1} \times \vec{d_2}\).

\(\vec{n} = \begin{vmatrix} \hat{i} & \hat{j} & \hat{k}
1 & 4 & 7
3 & 5 & 7 \end{vmatrix} = \hat{i}(28-35) - \hat{j}(7-21) + \hat{k}(5-12)\).

\(\vec{n} = -7\hat{i} + 14\hat{j} - 7\hat{k}\). Simplifying (divide by -7), we get normal vector \((1, -2, 1)\).


The equation of the plane is \(1(x-2) - 2(y-4) + 1(z-6) = 0\).

\(x - 2 - 2y + 8 + z - 6 = 0 \Rightarrow x - 2y + z = 0\).
Quick Tip: If a plane contains a line and is parallel to another, its normal is the cross product of the two direction vectors.


Question 107:

It is known that a box of 8 batteries contains 3 defective pieces and a person randomly selects two batteries from the box. If X is the number of defective batteries selected, then \(P(X \le 1) =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{25}{28}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{14}{28}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{10}{28}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{13}{28}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{25}{28}\)
View Solution



Total batteries = 8; Defective (D) = 3; Good (G) = 5. Total ways to select 2 is \(\binom{8}{2} = 28\).


We need \(P(X \le 1) = P(X=0) + P(X=1)\).

\(P(X=0)\) (0 defective, 2 good) \(= \frac{\binom{5}{2}}{\binom{8}{2}} = \frac{10}{28}\).

\(P(X=1)\) (1 defective, 1 good) \(= \frac{\binom{3}{1} \binom{5}{1}}{\binom{8}{2}} = \frac{3 \times 5}{28} = \frac{15}{28}\).

\(P(X \le 1) = \frac{10}{28} + \frac{15}{28} = \frac{25}{28}\).
Quick Tip: \(P(X \le k)\) is the sum of probabilities for \(X=0, 1, ..., k\). Alternatively, use \(1 - P(X > k)\).


Question 108:

If \(y = \log \left[ a^{3x} \left(\frac{5-x}{x+4}\right)^{\frac{3}{4}} \right]\), then \(\frac{dy}{dx} =\)

  • (A) \(3 + \frac{3}{4(5-x)} - \frac{3}{4(x+4)}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{a} + \frac{3}{4(5-x)} - \frac{3}{4(x+4)}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{\log a} - \frac{3}{4(5-x)} - \frac{3}{4(x+4)}\)
  • (D) \(3\log a - \frac{3}{4(5-x)} - \frac{3}{4(x+4)}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(3\log a - \frac{3}{4(5-x)} - \frac{3}{4(x+4)}\)
View Solution



Use log laws: \(\log(AB) = \log A + \log B\) and \(\log(A^n) = n \log A\).

\(y = \log(a^{3x}) + \log \left( \frac{5-x}{x+4} \right)^{\frac{3}{4}}\).

\(y = 3x \log a + \frac{3}{4} [\log(5-x) - \log(x+4)]\).


Differentiate with respect to \(x\): \(\frac{dy}{dx} = 3 \log a + \frac{3}{4} \left[ \frac{1}{5-x}(-1) - \frac{1}{x+4}(1) \right]\).

\(\frac{dy}{dx} = 3 \log a - \frac{3}{4(5-x)} - \frac{3}{4(x+4)}\).
Quick Tip: Simplify the logarithmic expression completely using log properties before differentiating.


Question 109:

The position vector of the point of intersection of the line \(\vec{r}=(2\hat{i}+\hat{j}-4\hat{k}) + \lambda(\hat{i}-2\hat{j}+2\hat{k})\) and XOY-Plane is

  • (A) \(4\hat{i} + 3\hat{k}\)
  • (B) \(4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j}\)
  • (C) \(4\hat{i} - 3\hat{k}\)
  • (D) \(4\hat{i} - 3\hat{j}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(4\hat{i} - 3\hat{j}\)
View Solution



The parametric coordinates of the line are \(x = 2+\lambda\), \(y = 1-2\lambda\), \(z = -4+2\lambda\).


The XOY-Plane corresponds to \(z = 0\).


Set the z-coordinate to zero: \(-4 + 2\lambda = 0 \Rightarrow 2\lambda = 4 \Rightarrow \lambda = 2\).


Substitute \(\lambda = 2\) into the position vector equation:

\(\vec{r} = (2+2)\hat{i} + (1-4)\hat{j} + (-4+4)\hat{k}\).

\(\vec{r} = 4\hat{i} - 3\hat{j}\).
Quick Tip: The XOY-plane is defined by \(z=0\). To find the intersection, equate the \(z\)-component of the line to 0.


Question 110:

If \(A = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & -3
5 & -7 \end{bmatrix}\), then \(2A - 3A^{-1} =\)

  • (A) \(\begin{bmatrix} 25 & 15
    25 & 20 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (B) \(\begin{bmatrix} 25 & 25
    -15 & -20 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (C) \(\begin{bmatrix} 25 & -15
    25 & -20 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (D) \(\begin{bmatrix} 25 & -25
    -15 & -20 \end{bmatrix}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\begin{bmatrix} 25 & -15
25 & -20 \end{bmatrix}\)
View Solution



First, find the determinant of \(A\): \(|A| = (2)(-7) - (-3)(5) = -14 + 15 = 1\).


The inverse \(A^{-1} = \frac{1}{|A|} \begin{bmatrix} -7 & 3
-5 & 2 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -7 & 3
-5 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\).


Calculate \(3A^{-1} = \begin{bmatrix} -21 & 9
-15 & 6 \end{bmatrix}\).


Calculate \(2A = \begin{bmatrix} 4 & -6
10 & -14 \end{bmatrix}\).


Now, \(2A - 3A^{-1} = \begin{bmatrix} 4 - (-21) & -6 - 9
10 - (-15) & -14 - 6 \end{bmatrix}\).

\(= \begin{bmatrix} 25 & -15
25 & -20 \end{bmatrix}\).
Quick Tip: For a \(2 \times 2\) matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} a & b
c & d \end{bmatrix}\), the inverse is \(\frac{1}{ad-bc} \begin{bmatrix} d & -b
-c & a \end{bmatrix}\).


Question 111:

The logical expression \([p \land (q \lor r)] \lor [(\sim p \land q) \lor (\sim p \land r)]\) is equivalent to

  • (A) p
  • (B) q
  • (C) \(p \land r\)
  • (D) \(q \lor r\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(q \lor r\)
View Solution



Simplify the second part: \((\sim p \land q) \lor (\sim p \land r)\).


By the distributive law, this is equivalent to \(\sim p \land (q \lor r)\).


The full expression becomes \([p \land (q \lor r)] \lor [\sim p \land (q \lor r)]\).


Factor out \((q \lor r)\) using the distributive law: \((p \lor \sim p) \land (q \lor r)\).


Since \(p \lor \sim p\) is a tautology (True, T), the expression becomes \(T \land (q \lor r)\).


Which simplifies to \(q \lor r\).
Quick Tip: Recognize common patterns like the Distributive Law: \((A \land B) \lor (A \land C) \equiv A \land (B \lor C)\).


Question 112:

\(\int_0^4 |x-2| dx =\)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 2
Correct Answer: (B) 4
View Solution



Since \(|x-2|\) changes definition at \(x=2\), split the integral: \(\int_0^2 -(x-2) dx + \int_2^4 (x-2) dx\).

\(\int_0^2 (2-x) dx = \left[ 2x - \frac{x^2}{2} \right]_0^2 = (4 - 2) - 0 = 2\).

\(\int_2^4 (x-2) dx = \left[ \frac{x^2}{2} - 2x \right]_2^4 = (8 - 8) - (2 - 4) = 0 - (-2) = 2\).


Total sum = \(2 + 2 = 4\).
Quick Tip: The integral of \(|x-a|\) from symmetrical limits around \(a\) represents the area of two identical triangles.


Question 113:

If \(p_1\) and \(p_2\) are the lengths of perpendiculars from the origin to the lines \(x \sin\theta + y \cos\theta = 5 \cos 2\theta\) and \(x \csc\theta + y \sec\theta = 5\) respectively, then \(p_1^2 + 4p_2^2 =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{25}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (C) 25
View Solution



For Line 1: \(x \sin\theta + y \cos\theta - 5 \cos 2\theta = 0\).

Perpendicular distance \(p_1 = \frac{|-5 \cos 2\theta|}{\sqrt{\sin^2\theta + \cos^2\theta}} = |5 \cos 2\theta|\).
\(p_1^2 = 25 \cos^2 2\theta\).


For Line 2: \(x \csc\theta + y \sec\theta - 5 = 0 \Rightarrow \frac{x}{\sin\theta} + \frac{y}{\cos\theta} - 5 = 0\).

Multiply by \(\sin\theta \cos\theta\): \(x \cos\theta + y \sin\theta - 5 \sin\theta \cos\theta = 0\).

Multiply by 2: \(2x \cos\theta + 2y \sin\theta - 5 \sin 2\theta = 0\).

Perpendicular distance \(p_2 = \frac{|-5 \sin 2\theta|}{\sqrt{(2\cos\theta)^2 + (2\sin\theta)^2}} = \frac{5 |\sin 2\theta|}{\sqrt{4}} = \frac{5}{2} |\sin 2\theta|\).
\(p_2^2 = \frac{25}{4} \sin^2 2\theta \Rightarrow 4p_2^2 = 25 \sin^2 2\theta\).


Sum: \(p_1^2 + 4p_2^2 = 25 \cos^2 2\theta + 25 \sin^2 2\theta = 25(1) = 25\).
Quick Tip: Distance of origin from \(Ax+By+C=0\) is \(|C|/\sqrt{A^2+B^2}\). Simplify the trigonometric equation first.


Question 114:

If A and B are two independent events and \(P(A) = \frac{3}{5}, P(B) = \frac{2}{3}\), then \(P(A' \cap B') =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{7}{15}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{15}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{15}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{15}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{2}{15}\)
View Solution



Since A and B are independent, their complements A' and B' are also independent.

\(P(A' \cap B') = P(A') \cdot P(B')\).

\(P(A') = 1 - P(A) = 1 - \frac{3}{5} = \frac{2}{5}\).

\(P(B') = 1 - P(B) = 1 - \frac{2}{3} = \frac{1}{3}\).

\(P(A' \cap B') = \frac{2}{5} \times \frac{1}{3} = \frac{2}{15}\).
Quick Tip: For independent events, \(P(A \cap B) = P(A)P(B)\). This factorization property holds for complements as well.


Question 115:

The population of a village increases at a rate proportional to the population at that time. In a period of 10 years the population grew from 20,000 to 40,000, then the population after another 20 years is

  • (A) 1,20,000
  • (B) 1,60,000
  • (C) 1,00,000
  • (D) 80,000
Correct Answer: (B) 1,60,000
View Solution



Let population \(P(t) = P_0 e^{kt}\). Given \(P_0 = 20,000\).


At \(t=10\), \(P(10) = 40,000\). So, \(40000 = 20000 e^{10k} \Rightarrow e^{10k} = 2\).


We need the population after *another* 20 years, meaning at \(t = 10 + 20 = 30\) years.

\(P(30) = 20000 e^{30k} = 20000 (e^{10k})^3\).


Substitute \(e^{10k} = 2\): \(P(30) = 20000 (2)^3 = 20000 \times 8\).

\(P(30) = 1,60,000\).
Quick Tip: In exponential growth, if the quantity doubles in time \(T\), it becomes \(2^n\) times the initial amount in time \(nT\).


Question 116:

Bismath has half life of 5 days. If sample originally has a mass of 800 mg, then the mass remaining after 30 days will be

  • (A) 10 mg.
  • (B) 10.5 mg.
  • (C) 12 mg.
  • (D) 12.5 mg.
Correct Answer: (D) 12.5 mg.
View Solution



The formula for remaining mass is \(M(t) = M_0 (\frac{1}{2})^{t/T}\), where \(T\) is the half-life.


Given \(M_0 = 800\) mg, \(T = 5\) days, \(t = 30\) days.


Number of half-lives \(n = 30/5 = 6\).

\(M(30) = 800 \times (\frac{1}{2})^6 = 800 \times \frac{1}{64}\).

\(M(30) = \frac{800}{64} = \frac{100}{8} = 12.5\) mg.
Quick Tip: Calculate the number of half-lives (\(n = t/T\)) and multiply the initial mass by \((1/2)^n\).


Question 117:

\(\frac{\sin A + \sin 7A + \sin 13A}{\cos A + \cos 7A + \cos 13A} =\)

  • (A) \(\cot 7A\)
  • (B) \(\tan 6A\)
  • (C) \(\tan 7A\)
  • (D) \(\cot 6A\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\tan 7A\)
View Solution



Group terms: \((\sin 13A + \sin A) + \sin 7A\).


Use formula \(\sin C + \sin D = 2 \sin(\frac{C+D}{2}) \cos(\frac{C-D}{2})\).


Numerator: \(2 \sin 7A \cos 6A + \sin 7A = \sin 7A (2 \cos 6A + 1)\).


Denominator: \((\cos 13A + \cos A) + \cos 7A\).


Use formula \(\cos C + \cos D = 2 \cos(\frac{C+D}{2}) \cos(\frac{C-D}{2})\).


Denominator: \(2 \cos 7A \cos 6A + \cos 7A = \cos 7A (2 \cos 6A + 1)\).


Ratio: \(\frac{\sin 7A (2 \cos 6A + 1)}{\cos 7A (2 \cos 6A + 1)} = \frac{\sin 7A}{\cos 7A} = \tan 7A\).
Quick Tip: When angles are in Arithmetic Progression (A, 7A, 13A), the result of such a fraction is usually \(\tan(middle angle)\).


Question 118:

The joint equation of pair of lines through the origin and making equilateral triangle with the line y = 4 is

  • (A) \(3x^2 + y^2 = 0\)
  • (B) \(3x^2 - y^2 = 0\)
  • (C) \(x^2 - y^2 = 0\)
  • (D) \(x^2 - 3y^2 = 0\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(3x^2 - y^2 = 0\)
View Solution



The lines pass through the origin \((0,0)\). The base of the equilateral triangle is \(y=4\).


The altitude from the origin is the y-axis. The angle of the equilateral triangle is \(60^\circ\), so the altitude bisects it into \(30^\circ\) and \(30^\circ\).


The lines make angles \(30^\circ\) with the y-axis, which means they make angles \(90^\circ - 30^\circ = 60^\circ\) and \(90^\circ + 30^\circ = 120^\circ\) with the positive x-axis.


Slopes are \(m_1 = \tan 60^\circ = \sqrt{3}\) and \(m_2 = \tan 120^\circ = -\sqrt{3}\).


The equations are \(y = \sqrt{3}x\) and \(y = -\sqrt{3}x\), i.e., \(y - \sqrt{3}x = 0\) and \(y + \sqrt{3}x = 0\).


Joint equation: \((y - \sqrt{3}x)(y + \sqrt{3}x) = 0 \Rightarrow y^2 - 3x^2 = 0\).


Multiplying by -1 gives \(3x^2 - y^2 = 0\).
Quick Tip: The slopes of lines forming an equilateral triangle with a horizontal line are \(\tan(60^\circ)\) and \(\tan(120^\circ)\).


Question 119:

If \(\tan^{-1}x + \tan^{-1}y + \tan^{-1}z = \frac{\pi}{2}, x,y,z > 0\), then the value of \(xy + yz + zx =\)

  • (A) \(x y z\)
  • (B) 0
  • (C) 1
  • (D) \(-xyz\)
Correct Answer: (C) 1
View Solution



The formula for the sum of three inverse tangents is \(\tan^{-1} \left( \frac{x+y+z-xyz}{1-(xy+yz+zx)} \right)\).


Given the sum is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\), the argument of the inverse tangent must approach infinity (\(\infty\)).


This implies the denominator must be zero.

\(1 - (xy + yz + zx) = 0\).


Therefore, \(xy + yz + zx = 1\).
Quick Tip: If \(\sum \tan^{-1} x = \pi/2\), then \(\sum xy = 1\). If \(\sum \tan^{-1} x = \pi\), then \(\sum x = xyz\).


Question 120:

The co-efficient of \(x^6\) in the series of \(e^{2x}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{45}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{7}{45}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{45}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{45}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\frac{4}{45}\)
View Solution



The expansion of \(e^u\) is \(1 + u + \frac{u^2}{2!} + \dots + \frac{u^n}{n!} + \dots\).


Here \(u = 2x\). The term containing \(x^6\) corresponds to \(\frac{(2x)^6}{6!}\).


Coefficient is \(\frac{2^6}{6!} = \frac{64}{720}\).


Simplify the fraction: \(\frac{64}{720} = \frac{8}{90} = \frac{4}{45}\).
Quick Tip: The coefficient of \(x^n\) in the expansion of \(e^{ax}\) is \(\frac{a^n}{n!}\).


Question 121:

If \(A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2
3 & 4 \end{bmatrix}\) and X is a \(2 \times 2\) matrix such that \(AX = I\), then \(X =\)

  • (A) \(\begin{bmatrix} -2 & 1
    3 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (B) \(\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 1
    3 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (C) \(\begin{bmatrix} -2 & 1
    3 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\)
  • (D) \(\begin{bmatrix} -2 & 1
    \frac{3}{2} & -\frac{1}{2} \end{bmatrix}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\begin{bmatrix} -2 & 1
\frac{3}{2} & -\frac{1}{2} \end{bmatrix}\)
View Solution



Given \(AX = I\), \(X\) is the inverse of matrix \(A\). \(X = A^{-1}\).


First, find the determinant of \(A\): \(|A| = (1)(4) - (2)(3) = 4 - 6 = -2\).


The inverse of a \(2 \times 2\) matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} a & b
c & d \end{bmatrix}\) is \(\frac{1}{|A|} \begin{bmatrix} d & -b
-c & a \end{bmatrix}\).

\(A^{-1} = \frac{1}{-2} \begin{bmatrix} 4 & -2
-3 & 1 \end{bmatrix}\).


Multiply the scalar \(\frac{-1}{2}\) into the matrix:

\(X = \begin{bmatrix} \frac{4}{-2} & \frac{-2}{-2}
\frac{-3}{-2} & \frac{1}{-2} \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} -2 & 1
\frac{3}{2} & -\frac{1}{2} \end{bmatrix}\).
Quick Tip: To invert \(\begin{bmatrix} a & b
c & d \end{bmatrix}\), swap diagonal elements \(a, d\), change signs of \(b, c\), and divide by the determinant \(ad-bc\).


Question 122:

A line makes an angle of \(45^{\circ}\) with x-axis and congruent angles with y and z-axes, then the direction cosines of the line are

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} and -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2} and -\frac{1}{2}, -\frac{1}{2}, -\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2} and -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, -\frac{1}{2}, -\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2} and \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, -\frac{1}{2}, -\frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2} \text{ and } \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, -\frac{1}{2}, -\frac{1}{2}\)
View Solution



Let the direction angles be \(\alpha, \beta, \gamma\). Given \(\alpha = 45^{\circ}\) and \(\beta = \gamma\).


The direction cosines are \(l = \cos \alpha, m = \cos \beta, n = \cos \gamma\).


We know that \(l^2 + m^2 + n^2 = 1\).


Substitute the values: \(\cos^2(45^{\circ}) + \cos^2 \beta + \cos^2 \beta = 1\).

\((\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})^2 + 2\cos^2 \beta = 1 \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2} + 2\cos^2 \beta = 1\).

\(2\cos^2 \beta = \frac{1}{2} \Rightarrow \cos^2 \beta = \frac{1}{4} \Rightarrow \cos \beta = \pm \frac{1}{2}\).


The direction cosines are \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \pm \frac{1}{2}, \pm \frac{1}{2}\).


Since \(\beta = \gamma\), the signs must match (\(m=n\)).


Possible sets are \((\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2})\) and \((\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, -\frac{1}{2}, -\frac{1}{2})\).
Quick Tip: The sum of squares of direction cosines is always 1: \(\cos^2\alpha + \cos^2\beta + \cos^2\gamma = 1\).


Question 123:

The area bonded by the curve \(y = \sin^2 x\), x-axis and the lines \(x = 0\) and \(x = \frac{\pi}{2}\) is

  • (A) 1 sq. units
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{8}\) sq. units
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) sq. units
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) sq. units
Correct Answer: (C) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) sq. units
View Solution



Area \(A = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} y \, dx = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin^2 x \, dx\).


Use the identity \(\sin^2 x = \frac{1 - \cos 2x}{2}\).

\(A = \frac{1}{2} \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} (1 - \cos 2x) \, dx\).

\(A = \frac{1}{2} \left[ x - \frac{\sin 2x}{2} \right]_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\).

\(A = \frac{1}{2} \left[ (\frac{\pi}{2} - \frac{\sin \pi}{2}) - (0 - 0) \right]\).

\(A = \frac{1}{2} \left[ \frac{\pi}{2} - 0 \right] = \frac{\pi}{4}\).
Quick Tip: Wallis' Formula: \(\int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^n x dx\). For \(n=2\), value is \(\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{\pi}{2} = \frac{\pi}{4}\).


Question 124:

If \(e_1\) is the eccentricity of the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2} + \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1, a > b\) and \(e_2\) is the eccentricity of the hyperbola \(\frac{x^2}{a^2} - \frac{y^2}{b^2} = 1\), then \(e_1^2 + e_2^2 =\)

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (A) 2
View Solution



For the ellipse (\(a>b\)), eccentricity \(e_1 = \sqrt{1 - \frac{b^2}{a^2}} \Rightarrow e_1^2 = 1 - \frac{b^2}{a^2}\).


For the hyperbola, eccentricity \(e_2 = \sqrt{1 + \frac{b^2}{a^2}} \Rightarrow e_2^2 = 1 + \frac{b^2}{a^2}\).


Sum \(e_1^2 + e_2^2 = \left( 1 - \frac{b^2}{a^2} \right) + \left( 1 + \frac{b^2}{a^2} \right)\).

\(e_1^2 + e_2^2 = 1 + 1 = 2\).
Quick Tip: Ellipse eccentricity involves a minus sign (\(1 - b^2/a^2\)); Hyperbola eccentricity involves a plus sign (\(1 + b^2/a^2\)).


Question 125:

The approximate value of \((66)^{\frac{1}{3}}\) is

  • (A) 4.0416
  • (B) 4.0447
  • (C) 4.0433
  • (D) 4.0481
Correct Answer: (A) 4.0416
View Solution



Let \(f(x) = x^{1/3}\). We want to find \(f(66)\).


Choose \(x = 64\) because \(64^{1/3} = 4\). Then \(\Delta x = 2\).


Using the approximation \(f(x + \Delta x) \approx f(x) + f'(x)\Delta x\).

\(f'(x) = \frac{1}{3}x^{-2/3} = \frac{1}{3(x^{1/3})^2}\).

\(f'(64) = \frac{1}{3(4)^2} = \frac{1}{3(16)} = \frac{1}{48}\).

\(f(66) \approx 4 + \frac{1}{48} \cdot 2 = 4 + \frac{1}{24}\).

\(\frac{1}{24} \approx 0.04166\).

\(f(66) \approx 4.04166...\)
Quick Tip: Use differentials for approximation: \(y(x+\Delta x) \approx y(x) + \frac{dy}{dx} \Delta x\). Choose \(x\) as the nearest perfect power.


Question 126:

If \(y = x^{xe^x}, \frac{dy}{dx} = y \cdot g(x)\), then \(g(x) =\)

  • (A) \([e^x + e^x(x+1)\log x]\)
  • (B) \([e^x - e^x \cdot x \cdot (1+\log x)]\)
  • (C) \([e^x + e^x \cdot x \cdot (1+\log x)]\)
  • (D) \([e^x(x+1)\log x]\)
Correct Answer: (A) \([e^x + e^x(x+1)\log x]\)
View Solution



Take natural logarithm: \(\ln y = \ln (x^{xe^x}) = x e^x \ln x\).


Differentiate with respect to \(x\): \(\frac{1}{y} \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{d}{dx} (x e^x \ln x)\).


Apply product rule to \(u = x e^x\) and \(v = \ln x\):

\((x e^x)' = 1 \cdot e^x + x e^x = e^x(1+x)\).


So, \(\frac{d}{dx} (x e^x \ln x) = e^x(1+x) \ln x + x e^x \left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\).

\(= e^x(1+x)\ln x + e^x\).


Thus, \(\frac{dy}{dx} = y [ e^x + e^x(1+x)\ln x ]\).


Comparing with \(\frac{dy}{dx} = y \cdot g(x)\), we get \(g(x) = e^x + e^x(x+1)\log x\).
Quick Tip: Logarithmic differentiation is efficient for functions of the form \(y = f(x)^{g(x)}\).


Question 127:

\(\int \frac{(\sin^{-1} x)^{\frac{3}{2}}}{\sqrt{1-x^2}} dx =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{5} (\sin^{-1} x)^{\frac{5}{2}} + c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2}{5} (\cos^{-1} x)^{\frac{5}{2}} + c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{2} (\cos^{-1} x)^{\frac{5}{2}} + c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{2} (\sin^{-1} x)^{\frac{5}{2}} + c\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{2}{5} (\sin^{-1} x)^{\frac{5}{2}} + c\)
View Solution



Let \(t = \sin^{-1} x\).


Then \(dt = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}} dx\).


The integral becomes \(\int t^{\frac{3}{2}} dt\).


Using power rule: \(\frac{t^{\frac{3}{2} + 1}}{\frac{3}{2} + 1} = \frac{t^{\frac{5}{2}}}{\frac{5}{2}} = \frac{2}{5} t^{\frac{5}{2}}\).


Substitute back \(t\): \(\frac{2}{5} (\sin^{-1} x)^{\frac{5}{2}} + c\).
Quick Tip: Look for the function-derivative pair. Here \(\frac{d}{dx}(\sin^{-1}x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\).


Question 128:

If \(\vec{a} = \hat{i} + \hat{j} + \hat{k}\), \(\vec{b} = 2\hat{i} - 2\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}\), \(\vec{c} = 2\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 2\hat{k}\) are any three co-planar vectors such that \(l\vec{a} + m\vec{b} + n\vec{c} = \vec{0}\), then values of \(l, m, n\) are respectively

  • (A) \(10, 1, 4\)
  • (B) \(10, -4, 1\)
  • (C) \(10, -1, -4\)
  • (D) \(10, 1, -4\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(10, -1, -4\)
View Solution



The equation \(l\vec{a} + m\vec{b} + n\vec{c} = \vec{0}\) yields the system:

i-comp: \(l + 2m + 2n = 0\) (1)

j-comp: \(l - 2m + 3n = 0\) (2)

k-comp: \(l + 2m + 2n = 0\) (Same as 1)


Subtract (2) from (1): \((l + 2m + 2n) - (l - 2m + 3n) = 0 \Rightarrow 4m - n = 0 \Rightarrow n = 4m\).


Substitute \(n = 4m\) into (1): \(l + 2m + 2(4m) = 0 \Rightarrow l + 10m = 0 \Rightarrow l = -10m\).


We have the ratio \(l : m : n = -10m : m : 4m = -10 : 1 : 4\).


Equivalent ratio is \(10 : -1 : -4\).


Matching option is \(10, -1, -4\).
Quick Tip: Set up the linear system from vector components and express variables in terms of one parameter.


Question 129:

If \(\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}\) are the position vectors of the points A(1, 3, 0), B(2, 5, 0), C(4, 2, 0) respectively and \(\vec{c} = t_1 \vec{a} + t_2 \vec{b}\), then value of \(t_1 t_2 =\)

  • (A) \(-16\)
  • (B) \(16\)
  • (C) \(160\)
  • (D) \(-160\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(-160\)
View Solution



The vector equation is \(\begin{bmatrix} 4
2
0 \end{bmatrix} = t_1 \begin{bmatrix} 1
3
0 \end{bmatrix} + t_2 \begin{bmatrix} 2
5
0 \end{bmatrix}\).


This gives two equations:
\(t_1 + 2t_2 = 4\) (1)
\(3t_1 + 5t_2 = 2\) (2)


Multiply (1) by 3: \(3t_1 + 6t_2 = 12\).


Subtract (2): \((3t_1 + 6t_2) - (3t_1 + 5t_2) = 12 - 2 \Rightarrow t_2 = 10\).


Substitute \(t_2 = 10\) into (1): \(t_1 + 2(10) = 4 \Rightarrow t_1 = 4 - 20 = -16\).


Calculate product: \(t_1 t_2 = (-16)(10) = -160\).
Quick Tip: Solve the simultaneous linear equations formed by equating coefficients of \(\hat{i}\) and \(\hat{j}\).


Question 130:

If the line \(\frac{x-1}{-3} = \frac{y-2}{2k} = \frac{z-3}{2}\) and \(\frac{x-1}{3k} = \frac{y-5}{1} = \frac{z-6}{-5}\) are perpendicular to each other, then k is

  • (A) \(\frac{7}{10}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{10}{7}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{-7}{10}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-10}{7}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{-10}{7}\)
View Solution



Direction ratios of Line 1: \(\vec{d_1} = (-3, 2k, 2)\).


Direction ratios of Line 2: \(\vec{d_2} = (3k, 1, -5)\).


Since lines are perpendicular, dot product \(\vec{d_1} \cdot \vec{d_2} = 0\).

\((-3)(3k) + (2k)(1) + (2)(-5) = 0\).

\(-9k + 2k - 10 = 0\).

\(-7k = 10 \Rightarrow k = -\frac{10}{7}\).
Quick Tip: For perpendicular lines, sum of products of direction ratios is zero: \(a_1 a_2 + b_1 b_2 + c_1 c_2 = 0\).


Question 131:

The solution of the differential equation \(x \sin(\frac{y}{x}) dy = [y \sin(\frac{y}{x}) - x] dx\) is

  • (A) \(\cos (\frac{x}{y}) = \log |x| + c\)
  • (B) \(\cos (\frac{y}{x}) = \log |y| + c\)
  • (C) \(\cos (\frac{y}{x}) = \log |x| + c\)
  • (D) \(\cos (\frac{x}{y}) = \log |y| + c\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\cos (\frac{y}{x}) = \log |x| + c\)
View Solution



Rearrange to \(\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{y \sin(y/x) - x}{x \sin(y/x)} = \frac{y}{x} - \frac{1}{\sin(y/x)}\).


Put \(y = vx \Rightarrow \frac{dy}{dx} = v + x \frac{dv}{dx}\).

\(v + x \frac{dv}{dx} = v - \frac{1}{\sin v}\).

\(x \frac{dv}{dx} = - \csc v\).

\(\sin v \, dv = - \frac{dx}{x}\).


Integrate both sides: \(\int \sin v \, dv = - \int \frac{dx}{x}\).

\(-\cos v = -\ln |x| - c\).

\(\cos v = \ln |x| + c\).


Substitute \(v = y/x\): \(\cos (y/x) = \log |x| + c\).
Quick Tip: For homogeneous differential equations involving terms like \(y/x\), use the substitution \(y=vx\).


Question 132:

If \(f(x) = ax^2 + bx + 2\) and \(f(1) = 4, f(3) = 38\), then \(a - b =\)

  • (A) 15
  • (B) -2
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 8
Correct Answer: (D) 8
View Solution


\(f(1) = a(1)^2 + b(1) + 2 = 4 \Rightarrow a + b = 2\).

\(f(3) = a(3)^2 + b(3) + 2 = 38 \Rightarrow 9a + 3b = 36 \Rightarrow 3a + b = 12\).


Subtract first equation from simplified second: \((3a + b) - (a + b) = 12 - 2\).

\(2a = 10 \Rightarrow a = 5\).


Substitute \(a=5\) into \(a+b=2 \Rightarrow 5+b=2 \Rightarrow b=-3\).


We need \(a - b = 5 - (-3) = 5 + 3 = 8\).
Quick Tip: Set up a system of linear equations for coefficients \(a\) and \(b\) using the given function values.


Question 133:

If \(f(x) = \frac{(e^{3x}-1) \sin x^\circ}{x^2}\) if \(x \neq 0\) and \(= \frac{\pi}{60}\) if \(x=0\), then

  • (A) \(f\) is continuous at \(x=0\)
  • (B) \(\lim_{x \to 0} f(x) = 3\)
  • (C) \(f\) has irremovable discontinuity at \(x=0\)
  • (D) \(f\) has removable discontinuity at \(x=0\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(f\) is continuous at \(x=0\)
View Solution



Note that \(x^\circ = \frac{\pi x}{180}\) radians.


Limit \(L = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{(e^{3x}-1)}{x} \cdot \frac{\sin(x^\circ)}{x}\).

\(L = \left( \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{e^{3x}-1}{3x} \cdot 3 \right) \cdot \left( \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin(\frac{\pi x}{180})}{\frac{\pi x}{180}} \cdot \frac{\pi}{180} \right)\).


Using standard limits, first part tends to \(1 \cdot 3 = 3\).


Second part tends to \(1 \cdot \frac{\pi}{180} = \frac{\pi}{180}\).

\(L = 3 \times \frac{\pi}{180} = \frac{\pi}{60}\).


Given \(f(0) = \frac{\pi}{60}\).


Since Limit = Value at point, \(f\) is continuous at \(x=0\).
Quick Tip: Pay close attention to degree symbols (\(x^\circ\)). Always convert to radians (\(\frac{\pi x}{180}\)) inside limits.


Question 134:

The angle between the lines \(y^2 \sin^2\theta - xy \sin^2\theta + x^2(\cos^2\theta - 1) = 0\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
View Solution



Rewrite the equation by replacing \(\cos^2\theta - 1\) with \(-\sin^2\theta\).

\(-\sin^2\theta x^2 - \sin^2\theta xy + \sin^2\theta y^2 = 0\).


Assuming \(\sin\theta \neq 0\), divide by \(-\sin^2\theta\): \(x^2 + xy - y^2 = 0\).


This is of the form \(ax^2 + 2hxy + by^2 = 0\).


Here \(a = 1\) and \(b = -1\).


The condition for perpendicular lines is \(a + b = 0\).


Since \(1 + (-1) = 0\), the lines are perpendicular. Angle is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\).
Quick Tip: For the pair of lines \(ax^2+2hxy+by^2=0\), if \(a+b=0\), the angle between them is \(90^\circ\).


Question 135:

\(\int_{-8}^{8} \frac{x^5 + x^3}{4 - x^2} dx =\)

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 0
  • (C) 8
  • (D) -8
Correct Answer: (B) 0
View Solution



Let \(f(x) = \frac{x^5 + x^3}{4 - x^2}\).


Check for symmetry: \(f(-x) = \frac{(-x)^5 + (-x)^3}{4 - (-x)^2} = \frac{-(x^5 + x^3)}{4 - x^2} = -f(x)\).


The function is an odd function.


For an odd function, \(\int_{-a}^{a} f(x) dx = 0\).


Therefore, the integral is 0.
Quick Tip: Always check if the integrand is odd (\(f(-x)=-f(x)\)) when the limits are symmetric (\(-a\) to \(a\)). If so, the answer is 0.


Question 136:

\(\int \frac{\sin x \cdot \cos x}{\sin^4 x + \cos^4 x} dx =\)

  • (A) \(\tan^{-1}(\sin^2 x) + c\)
  • (B) \(2\tan^{-1}(\tan^2 x) + c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1}(\tan^2 x) + c\)
  • (D) \(\tan^{-1}(\cos^2 x) + c\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1}(\tan^2 x) + c\)
View Solution



Divide numerator and denominator by \(\cos^4 x\).

\(I = \int \frac{\tan x \sec^2 x}{\tan^4 x + 1} dx\).


Let \(t = \tan^2 x\). Then \(dt = 2 \tan x \sec^2 x dx \Rightarrow \frac{dt}{2} = \tan x \sec^2 x dx\).

\(I = \int \frac{1}{t^2 + 1} \frac{dt}{2} = \frac{1}{2} \int \frac{dt}{1+t^2}\).

\(I = \frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1} t + c\).


Substitute \(t = \tan^2 x\): \(I = \frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1}(\tan^2 x) + c\).
Quick Tip: Dividing by the highest power of cosine is a standard strategy for integrals involving powers of sine and cosine.


Question 137:

If \(\int_0^a \frac{dx}{1+4x^2} = \frac{\pi}{8}\), then \(a =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (B) 2
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
View Solution



Rewrite denominator: \(1 + (2x)^2\).

\(\int \frac{dx}{1+(2x)^2} = \frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1}(2x)\).


Apply limits: \(\left[ \frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1}(2x) \right]_0^a = \frac{\pi}{8}\).

\(\frac{1}{2} \tan^{-1}(2a) - 0 = \frac{\pi}{8}\).

\(\tan^{-1}(2a) = \frac{\pi}{4}\).

\(2a = \tan(\frac{\pi}{4}) = 1 \Rightarrow a = \frac{1}{2}\).
Quick Tip: Remember \(\int \frac{dx}{1 + (kx)^2} = \frac{1}{k} \tan^{-1}(kx)\). Don't forget the factor \(1/k\).


Question 138:

The cartesian equation of the curve \(x = 3 + 5\cos\theta, y = 2 + 5\sin\theta\) is

  • (A) \(x^2 + y^2 - 6x + 4y - 12 = 0\)
  • (B) \(x^2 + y^2 + 6x + 4y + 12 = 0\)
  • (C) \(x^2 + y^2 + 6x - 4y + 12 = 0\)
  • (D) \(x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 4y - 12 = 0\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 4y - 12 = 0\)
View Solution



Rearrange to isolate trig terms: \(x - 3 = 5 \cos\theta\) and \(y - 2 = 5 \sin\theta\).


Square and add both equations: \((x-3)^2 + (y-2)^2 = 25(\cos^2\theta + \sin^2\theta)\).

\((x^2 - 6x + 9) + (y^2 - 4y + 4) = 25\).

\(x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 4y + 13 - 25 = 0\).

\(x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 4y - 12 = 0\).
Quick Tip: Eliminate the parameter \(\theta\) using the identity \(\sin^2\theta + \cos^2\theta = 1\).


Question 139:

If \(X \sim B(8, \frac{1}{2})\), then \(P(|x-4| \le 2) =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{119}{128}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{29}{128}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{238}{728}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{119}{228}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{119}{128}\)
View Solution



Inequality \(|x-4| \le 2\) implies \(-2 \le x-4 \le 2 \Rightarrow 2 \le x \le 6\).


This is the sum \(P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4) + P(X=5) + P(X=6)\).


Or \(1 - [P(X=0) + P(X=1) + P(X=7) + P(X=8)]\).


Given \(n=8, p=1/2\), the distribution is symmetric. \(P(k) = \binom{8}{k} (1/2)^8\).


Sum of tails: \(P(0)+P(1)+P(7)+P(8) = 2[P(0)+P(1)]\).

\(2 [\binom{8}{0} + \binom{8}{1}] \frac{1}{256} = 2 [1 + 8] \frac{1}{256} = \frac{18}{256}\).


Required Probability = \(1 - \frac{18}{256} = \frac{238}{256}\).


Simplify by dividing by 2: \(\frac{119}{128}\).
Quick Tip: For \(p=0.5\), the binomial distribution is symmetric. \(P(X=k) = P(X=n-k)\). This simplifies summing probabilities.


Question 140:

The value of \(\sin^2(\frac{\pi}{8}) =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}+1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}+1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}-1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{2}-1}{2\sqrt{2}}\)
View Solution



Use the half-angle identity: \(\sin^2\theta = \frac{1 - \cos 2\theta}{2}\).


Here \(\theta = \frac{\pi}{8}\), so \(2\theta = \frac{\pi}{4}\).

\(\sin^2(\frac{\pi}{8}) = \frac{1 - \cos(\frac{\pi}{4})}{2}\).

\(= \frac{1 - \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}}{2} = \frac{\frac{\sqrt{2}-1}{\sqrt{2}}}{2}\).

\(= \frac{\sqrt{2}-1}{2\sqrt{2}}\).
Quick Tip: Recall \(\cos 2\theta = 1 - 2\sin^2\theta\). This connects \(\theta\) and \(2\theta\) directly.


Question 141:

If \(\sin x + cosec x = 3\), then value of \(\sin^4 x + cosec^4 x\) is

  • (A) 74
  • (B) 47
  • (C) 07
  • (D) 49
Correct Answer: (B) 47
View Solution



Squaring the given equation: \((\sin x + \csc x)^2 = 3^2 = 9\).

\(\sin^2 x + \csc^2 x + 2\sin x \csc x = 9\). Since \(\sin x \csc x = 1\), we get \(\sin^2 x + \csc^2 x + 2 = 9 \Rightarrow \sin^2 x + \csc^2 x = 7\).


Square again: \((\sin^2 x + \csc^2 x)^2 = 7^2 = 49\).

\(\sin^4 x + \csc^4 x + 2 = 49\).

\(\sin^4 x + \csc^4 x = 47\).
Quick Tip: If \(x + 1/x = a\), then \(x^2 + 1/x^2 = a^2 - 2\) and \(x^4 + 1/x^4 = (a^2 - 2)^2 - 2\).


Question 142:

The function \(f(x) = 3x^4 + 16x^3 - 30x^2 + 10\) is increasing for

  • (A) every real value of x
  • (B) \(x = 0, x = 1\) only
  • (C) \(x \in (-5, 0) \cup (1, \infty)\)
  • (D) \(x \in [0, 1]\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(x \in (-5, 0) \cup (1, \infty)\)
View Solution



Find \(f'(x) = 12x^3 + 48x^2 - 60x\).


Factorize \(f'(x) = 12x(x^2 + 4x - 5)\).

\(f'(x) = 12x(x+5)(x-1)\).


Critical points are \(x = -5, 0, 1\).


Check signs in intervals:
\((-\infty, -5)\): \(x=-6 \Rightarrow (-)(-)(-) < 0\) (Decreasing)
\((-5, 0)\): \(x=-1 \Rightarrow (-)(+)(-) > 0\) (Increasing)
\((0, 1)\): \(x=0.5 \Rightarrow (+)(+)(-) < 0\) (Decreasing)
\((1, \infty)\): \(x=2 \Rightarrow (+)(+)(+) > 0\) (Increasing)


Increasing intervals are \((-5, 0)\) and \((1, \infty)\).
Quick Tip: Find roots of \(f'(x)\) and use the wavy curve method (sign chart) to determine increasing/decreasing intervals.


Question 143:

The value of \(\tan [\cos^{-1}(\frac{4}{5}) + \tan^{-1}(\frac{2}{3})]\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{17}{6}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{16}{7}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{6}{17}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{7}{16}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\frac{17}{6}\)
View Solution



Let \(\alpha = \cos^{-1}(4/5)\). Then \(\cos \alpha = 4/5\), so \(\tan \alpha = 3/4\).


Let \(\beta = \tan^{-1}(2/3)\). Then \(\tan \beta = 2/3\).


We need \(\tan(\alpha + \beta) = \frac{\tan \alpha + \tan \beta}{1 - \tan \alpha \tan \beta}\).

\(= \frac{\frac{3}{4} + \frac{2}{3}}{1 - \frac{3}{4} \cdot \frac{2}{3}} = \frac{\frac{9+8}{12}}{1 - \frac{6}{12}}\).

\(= \frac{\frac{17}{12}}{\frac{6}{12}} = \frac{17}{6}\).
Quick Tip: Convert all inverse trigonometric functions to \(\tan^{-1}\) to easily apply the formula \(\tan(A+B)\).


Question 144:

If \(y = 2^{ax}\) and \((\frac{dy}{dx})_{x=1} = \log 256\), then \(a =\)

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution


\(\frac{dy}{dx} = a \cdot 2^{ax} \ln 2\).


At \(x=1\), value is \(a \cdot 2^a \ln 2\).


Given value is \(\log 256 = \ln (2^8) = 8 \ln 2\).


So, \(a \cdot 2^a \ln 2 = 8 \ln 2\).

\(a \cdot 2^a = 8\).


Checking integer values: If \(a=2\), \(2 \cdot 2^2 = 2 \cdot 4 = 8\).


Thus \(a=2\).
Quick Tip: Recall derivative of \(k^{f(x)}\) is \(k^{f(x)} \ln(k) f'(x)\). Express numbers as powers of the base to compare.


Question 145:

\(\int e^x \sec x (1 + \tan x) dx =\)

  • (A) \(e^x cosecx + c\)
  • (B) \(e^x \sec x + c\)
  • (C) \(e^x \cot x + c\)
  • (D) \(e^x \tan x + c\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(e^x \sec x + c\)
View Solution



Expand the integrand: \(\int e^x (\sec x + \sec x \tan x) dx\).


This matches the form \(\int e^x [f(x) + f'(x)] dx = e^x f(x) + c\).


Let \(f(x) = \sec x\), then \(f'(x) = \sec x \tan x\).


The integral is \(e^x \sec x + c\).
Quick Tip: Standard Form: \(\int e^x(f(x) + f'(x))dx = e^x f(x)\). Always identify \(f(x)\) first.


Question 146:

The unit vector perpendicular to the plane \(4x - 3y + 12z = 15\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}}{13}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}}{13}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{-4\hat{i} + 3\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}}{13}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{-4\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}}{13}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\frac{4\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}}{13}\)
View Solution



The normal vector to the plane \(ax+by+cz=d\) is \(\vec{n} = a\hat{i} + b\hat{j} + c\hat{k}\).


Here, \(\vec{n} = 4\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}\).


Magnitude \(|\vec{n}| = \sqrt{4^2 + (-3)^2 + 12^2} = \sqrt{16 + 9 + 144} = \sqrt{169} = 13\).


Unit normal vector \(\hat{n} = \frac{\vec{n}}{|\vec{n}|} = \frac{4\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 12\hat{k}}{13}\).
Quick Tip: The coefficients of \(x, y, z\) in the plane equation form the normal vector.


Question 147:

If L.P.P. has optimum solutions at two consecutive corner points of feasible region, then L.P.P. has

  • (A) infinite solutions
  • (B) no solution
  • (C) two solutions
  • (D) unique solution
Correct Answer: (A) infinite solutions
View Solution



In Linear Programming, the objective function is linear (\(Z = Ax + By\)).


If the optimum value occurs at two corner points, it occurs at every point on the line segment joining these two points.


Since a line segment contains infinitely many points, there are infinite optimal solutions.
Quick Tip: If optimum occurs at points A and B, then any convex combination \(\lambda A + (1-\lambda)B\) is also an optimum solution.


Question 148:

The order and the degree of the differential equation \([1 + (\frac{dy}{dx})^3]^{\frac{7}{3}} = 7 (\frac{d^2y}{dx^2})\) are respectively

  • (A) 2, 3
  • (B) 3, 3
  • (C) 2, 2
  • (D) 3, 2
Correct Answer: (A) 2, 3
View Solution



To find the degree, the differential equation must be a polynomial in derivatives (no fractional powers).


Cube both sides to remove the exponent \(7/3\):

\([1 + (y')^3]^7 = 7^3 (y'')^3\).


The highest order derivative is \(y''\) (Order = 2).


The power of the highest order derivative (\(y''\)) in this polynomial form is 3 (Degree = 3).
Quick Tip: Always clear fractional powers and radicals from the equation before determining the degree.


Question 149:

If \(A = \{2, 3, 4, 5, 6\}\), then which of the following statement has truth value 'false'

  • (A) \(\exists x \in A\), such that \((x-2) \in N\).
  • (B) \(\forall x \in A, x + 6\) is divisible by 2.
  • (C) \(\exists x \in A\), such that \(x+2\) is a prime number.
  • (D) \(\exists x \in A\), such that \(x^2 + 1\) is an even number.
Correct Answer: (B) \(\forall x \in A, x + 6\) is divisible by 2.
View Solution



Let's check the options:


(A) Exists \(x\) such that \(x-2 \in N\). If \(x=4\), \(4-2=2 \in N\). True.


(B) For all \(x\), \(x+6\) is divisible by 2 (i.e., even). If \(x=3\) (which is in A), \(3+6=9\), which is odd. This statement is False.


(C) Exists \(x\) such that \(x+2\) is prime. If \(x=3\), \(3+2=5\) (prime). True.


(D) Exists \(x\) such that \(x^2+1\) is even. If \(x=3\), \(9+1=10\) (even). True.


Thus, statement (B) is the false one.
Quick Tip: For a "For all" (\(\forall\)) statement to be false, you only need to find one counter-example in the set.


Question 150:

The value of \(\cos^{-1}(\cos \frac{8\pi}{3})\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{8\pi}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2\pi}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3\pi}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\frac{2\pi}{3}\)
View Solution



The principal range of \(\cos^{-1} x\) is \([0, \pi]\).

\(\frac{8\pi}{3} = 2\pi + \frac{2\pi}{3}\).

\(\cos(\frac{8\pi}{3}) = \cos(2\pi + \frac{2\pi}{3}) = \cos(\frac{2\pi}{3})\).


Since \(\frac{2\pi}{3} \in [0, \pi]\), \(\cos^{-1}(\cos \frac{2\pi}{3}) = \frac{2\pi}{3}\).
Quick Tip: \(\cos^{-1}(\cos \theta) = \theta\) only if \(\theta \in [0, \pi]\). Otherwise, reduce \(\theta\) using periodicity.


*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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