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Sukriti Deo

Content Writer | Updated On - Mar 7, 2025

MHT CET Question Papers are the most important study material for effective exam preparation. We at Zollege have provided all MHT CET Previous Year Papers with Solution PDFs here. MHT CET 2024 PCB exam is conducted on April 28 by State CET Cell.

Students can freely download the MHT CET previous year's question paper PDFs along with their solutions here. We strongly encourage MHT CET aspirants to scan through all the MHT CET Question Paper to know the overall difficulty level, MHT CET Syllabus and understand the changes in MHT CET Exam Pattern over the years.

MHT CET 2024 28 April Shift 1 Question Paper PDF Download

MHT CET 2024 28 April Shift 1​ Question Paper 2024 with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions

MHT CET 2024 28 April Shift 1 Questions with Solutions 


Question 1:

Which codon has a dual function?

  • (A) \( AUG \)
  • (B) \( UAG \)
  • (C) \( UAA \)
  • (D) \( UGA \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \text{AUG} \)
View Solution

The codon \( AUG \) plays a dual role in the process of translation:

It functions as the start codon, marking the initiation point of protein synthesis. Ribosomes begin translation at this site by attracting the tRNA carrying methionine.
It encodes the amino acid methionine in eukaryotes, and \( N-formylmethionine (fMet) \) in prokaryotes.


Other codons, such as \( UAG, UAA, UGA \), are stop codons and do not have a dual role. Instead, they signal the ribosome to terminate translation and release the polypeptide chain.

---

What makes \( AUG \) unique?

\( AUG \) is universally recognized as the start codon in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic systems.
Its dual role arises from its ability to recruit initiation factors for translation and tRNAs charged with methionine.


---

Final Answer: \[ \boxed{AUG} \] Quick Tip: Always remember, \( AUG \) is essential for translation as it serves as the start codon and codes for methionine. This dual role highlights its central function in the genetic code.


Question 2:

An angiotensinogen is secreted by ______?

  • (A) Kidneys
  • (B) Liver
  • (C) Pancreas
  • (D) Lungs
Correct Answer: (B) Liver
View Solution

Angiotensinogen is a glycoprotein synthesized and released by the liver. It plays a critical role as a precursor in the renin-angiotensin system (RAS), which is crucial for maintaining blood pressure and fluid homeostasis. The process involves:

Renin, released by the kidneys, cleaves angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I.
Angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), primarily in the lungs.
Angiotensin II serves as a potent vasoconstrictor and promotes the secretion of aldosterone, which increases sodium and water reabsorption.


---

Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Liver} \] Quick Tip: Angiotensinogen is produced by the liver, while its activation involves enzymes from the kidneys and lungs, highlighting the interconnected nature of the renin-angiotensin system.


Question 3:

Body Fluids and Circulation: The inner surface of the ventricle is thrown into a series of irregular muscular ridges called ______?

  • (A) Chordae tendineae
  • (B) Columnae carneae
  • (C) Papillary muscles
  • (D) Endocardium
Correct Answer: (B) Columnae carneae
View Solution

The columnae carneae are muscular ridges located on the inner walls of the ventricles. Their key functions are:

Strengthening the ventricular walls and maintaining their structural integrity.
Preventing the ventricular walls from adhering to each other during contraction.
Supporting the papillary muscles by providing anchorage for the chordae tendineae, which regulate the movement of heart valves.


These ridges are essential for the proper functioning of the heart and ensure efficient blood circulation.

---

Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Columnae carneae} \] Quick Tip: The columnae carneae provide structural support to the ventricles, whereas the papillary muscles are directly involved in controlling valve function through the chordae tendineae.


Question 4:

What is the site of perception of photoperiod necessary for induction of flowering in plants?

  • (A) Roots
  • (B) Stems
  • (C) Leaves
  • (D) Flowers
Correct Answer: (C) Leaves
View Solution

The leaves serve as the primary site for photoperiod perception in plants. The mechanism can be summarized as follows:

Specialized photoreceptors, such as phytochromes, present in leaves, sense the length of light and dark periods.
Upon detecting the appropriate photoperiod, the leaves produce a flowering signal known as florigen.
Florigen is then transported to the shoot apical meristem, where it triggers flowering by activating specific flowering genes.


---

Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Leaves} \] Quick Tip: Photoperiodism is governed by the duration of light and darkness, with leaves detecting these periods and initiating signals for flowering.


Question 5:

Most widely accepted explanation for the ascent of sap in trees is ______?

  • (A) Root pressure theory
  • (B) Capillarity theory
  • (C) Transpiration cohesion theory
  • (D) Imbibition theory
Correct Answer: (C) Transpiration cohesion theory
View Solution

The transpiration-cohesion theory, formulated by Dixon and Joly, is the most widely accepted model for explaining the ascent of sap in tall plants. The key principles of this theory are as follows:

Transpiration pull: Water loss from the leaves due to transpiration generates a negative pressure (tension), which pulls water upward through the xylem.
Cohesion: Hydrogen bonding between water molecules ensures that they form a continuous column in the xylem.
Adhesion: Water molecules adhere to the walls of the xylem vessels, aiding in countering the force of gravity.
Continuity: The cohesive and adhesive forces maintain an unbroken water column, allowing water to travel to significant heights.


While root pressure and capillarity contribute to water movement, they are insufficient to explain the transport of water to the heights observed in tall trees.



Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Transpiration-cohesion theory} \] Quick Tip: The transpiration-cohesion theory highlights the role of negative pressure, cohesion, and adhesion in the upward movement of water. These concepts are essential for understanding water transport in plants.


Question 6:

Which animal conserves water through the excretion process?

  • (A) Camel
  • (B) Kangaroo rat
  • (C) Frog
  • (D) Fish
Correct Answer: (B) Kangaroo rat
View Solution

Kangaroo rats are desert-adapted animals with remarkable water conservation mechanisms, which include:

Excreting highly concentrated urine to significantly reduce water loss.
Efficient reabsorption of water in their kidneys, minimizing water loss through excretion.
Relying primarily on metabolic water generated during the breakdown of food instead of consuming free water.
Producing dry feces, which further reduces water loss.


These adaptations enable kangaroo rats to thrive in arid environments with limited water availability.



Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Kangaroo rat} \] Quick Tip: Desert animals like kangaroo rats adapt to water scarcity by minimizing water loss through urine and feces, relying on metabolic water for survival.


Question 7:

Grapes fruit elongation: Which hormone is used?

  • (A) Cytokinin
  • (B) Gibberellin
  • (C) Auxin
  • (D) Ethylene
Correct Answer: (B) Gibberellin
View Solution

Gibberellins (GA) are plant growth hormones that play a crucial role in increasing the size and quality of fruits like grapes. Their primary functions in grapes include:

Promoting cell elongation, resulting in larger and more uniform grape sizes.
Decreasing cluster compactness, making grape bunches more appealing and easier to handle.
Improving fruit quality by enhancing overall fruit development and appearance.


Gibberellins are commonly applied during fruit development to boost crop yield and ensure better market quality.



Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Gibberellin} \] Quick Tip: Gibberellins are essential in agriculture for improving fruit size, reducing compactness in clusters, and enhancing overall crop quality.


Question 8:

What does ICSH stimulate?

  • (A) Leydig cells for testosterone production
  • (B) Spermatogenesis directly
  • (C) Oocyte maturation
  • (D) Growth hormone secretion
Correct Answer: (A) Leydig cells for testosterone production
View Solution

ICSH (Interstitial Cell Stimulating Hormone), commonly referred to as Luteinizing Hormone (LH) in males, is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary roles include:

Stimulating Leydig cells in the testes to secrete testosterone.
Testosterone facilitates spermatogenesis, promotes the development of male secondary sexual characteristics, and maintains libido.


Incorrect options:
- \( Spermatogenesis directly \): While testosterone is essential for spermatogenesis, ICSH does not act directly on spermatogenesis.
- \( Oocyte maturation \): This function is specific to LH in females and does not apply to males.



Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Leydig cells for testosterone production} \] Quick Tip: In males, ICSH (or LH) activates Leydig cells to produce testosterone, while FSH targets Sertoli cells to aid in spermatogenesis.


Question 9:

What is a key concept in Human Physiology?

  • (A) Circulation of blood
  • (B) Neural communication
  • (C) Hormonal regulation
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
View Solution

Human Physiology encompasses the coordinated functions of several essential systems:

Blood circulation: The cardiovascular system ensures the transport of oxygen, nutrients, and metabolic waste products throughout the body.
Neural coordination: The nervous system regulates both voluntary and involuntary actions, maintaining communication between different body parts.
Hormonal control: The endocrine system manages vital processes such as metabolism, growth, and reproduction through hormone secretion.


These systems collectively maintain homeostasis and enable proper functioning of the human body.



Final Answer: \[ \boxed{All of the above} \] Quick Tip: The study of human physiology involves understanding how systems like the cardiovascular, nervous, and endocrine systems interact to sustain life.


Question 10:

Which process is involved in replication of cells?

  • (A) Mitosis
  • (B) Meiosis
  • (C) DNA replication
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
View Solution

Cell replication involves the following processes:

Mitosis: Responsible for producing two identical daughter cells, essential for growth, repair, and asexual reproduction.
Meiosis: Generates gametes with half the genetic material, crucial for sexual reproduction and maintaining genetic diversity.
DNA replication: Occurs before both mitosis and meiosis, ensuring the accurate transfer of genetic information to daughter cells.


These processes collectively ensure cellular reproduction, genetic stability, and organismal survival.



Final Answer: \[ \boxed{All of the above} \] Quick Tip: Understanding the roles of mitosis, meiosis, and DNA replication is crucial for comprehending cellular division and genetic inheritance.


Question 11:

What is the main excretory product in the Animal Kingdom?

  • (A) Ammonia
  • (B) Urea
  • (C) Uric acid
  • (D) Depends on the species
Correct Answer: (D) Depends on the species
View Solution

The type of excretory product varies based on the species and their habitat:

Ammonia: Eliminated by aquatic organisms (ammonotelic), as its excretion requires a large amount of water.
Urea: Excreted by mammals (ureotelic), suitable for animals with access to moderate water.
Uric acid: Produced by birds and reptiles (uricotelic), which minimizes water loss, making it ideal for arid environments.


These adaptations align with the habitat and the water availability of the organism.



Final Answer: \[ \boxed{Depends on the species} \] Quick Tip: The type of excretory product (ammonia, urea, or uric acid) is closely related to the habitat, with aquatic animals favoring ammonia and terrestrial or arid dwellers conserving water with urea or uric acid.


Question 12:

What regulates plant growth?

  • (A) Auxins
  • (B) Gibberellins
  • (C) Cytokinins
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
View Solution

Plant growth is controlled by the coordinated action of the following hormones:

Auxins: Facilitate cell elongation, apical dominance, and phototropism.
Gibberellins: Promote stem elongation, seed germination, and fruit development.
Cytokinins: Stimulate cell division, regulate shoot formation, and delay leaf senescence.


These hormones interact synergistically or antagonistically to ensure proper growth and development of plants.



Final Answer: \[ \boxed{All of the above} \] Quick Tip: Plant hormones like auxins, gibberellins, and cytokinins play unique yet interconnected roles in regulating plant growth and development.


Question 13:

A hydrocarbon containing one double bond gave on reductive ozonolysis, ethanol and propanone. What is the name of the hydrocarbon?

  • (A) Ethene
  • (B) Propene
  • (C) But-1-ene
  • (D) 2-Methylprop-1-ene
Correct Answer: (D) 2-Methylprop-1-ene
View Solution

Reductive ozonolysis involves cleaving the double bond in a hydrocarbon and inserting oxygen atoms to form carbonyl compounds. The given products are ethanol (\( CH_3CH_2OH \)) and propanone (\( CH_3COCH_3 \)). The steps to identify the original hydrocarbon are as follows:

Represent the products and remove the inserted oxygen atoms.
Combine the resulting fragments to reconstruct the parent hydrocarbon structure.
The reconstructed hydrocarbon is \( 2-Methylprop-1-ene \), which breaks into the specified products during ozonolysis.


---

Final Answer: \[ \boxed{2-Methylprop-1-ene} \] Quick Tip: To deduce the original hydrocarbon in reductive ozonolysis, analyze the carbonyl compounds formed and reconstruct the hydrocarbon by reversing the cleavage.


Question 14:

The pH of a saturated solution of \( Ca(OH)_2 \) is 9. The solubility product (\( K_{sp} \)) of \( Ca(OH)_2 \) is:

  • (A) \( 5.0 \times 10^{-16} \)
  • (B) \( 4.0 \times 10^{-16} \)
  • (C) \( 6.5 \times 10^{-16} \)
  • (D) \( 8.0 \times 10^{-16} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 5.0 \times 10^{-6} \)
View Solution

The dissociation of \( Ca(OH)_2 \) in water is represented as: \[ Ca(OH)_2 \xrightarrow{} Ca^{2+} + 2 OH^-. \]

Given the pH of the solution is 9, the \( pOH \) can be calculated as: \[ pOH = 14 - pH = 14 - 9 = 5. \]

The concentration of \( OH^- \) ions is determined using the relationship: \[ [OH^-] = 10^{-pOH} = 10^{-5}. \]

From the stoichiometry of the dissociation reaction, the concentration of \( Ca^{2+} \) ions is: \[ [Ca^{2+}] = \frac{[OH^-]}{2} = \frac{10^{-5}}{2} = 5 \times 10^{-6}. \]

The solubility product (\( K_{sp} \)) of \( Ca(OH)_2 \) is calculated as: \[ K_{sp} = [Ca^{2+}] [OH^-]^2. \]

Substituting the values: \[ K_{sp} = (5 \times 10^{-6}) (10^{-5})^2 = 5 \times 10^{-6} \times 10^{-10} = 5.0 \times 10^{-16}. \]

---

Final Answer: \[ \boxed{5.0 \times 10^{-16}} \] Quick Tip: To calculate \( K_{sp} \), first find ion concentrations using pH or pOH, then apply the solubility product formula considering stoichiometry.


Question 15:

A 0.1 molal aqueous solution of glucose boils at \( 100.16^\circ C \). The boiling point of a 0.5 molal aqueous solution of glucose will be:

  • (A) \( 100.56^\circ C \)
  • (B) \( 100.40^\circ C \)
  • (C) \( 100.80^\circ C \)
  • (D) \( 101.00^\circ C \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( 100.80^\circ \text{C} \)
View Solution

The elevation in boiling point (\( \Delta T_b \)) is calculated using the formula: \[ \Delta T_b = i K_b m, \]
where: \[ i = van't Hoff factor (for glucose, i = 1 ), \] \[ K_b = boiling point elevation constant, \] \[ m = molality of the solution. \]

Using the given data for a 0.1 m solution: \[ \Delta T_b = 100.16 - 100 = 0.16^\circ C. \]

Since \( \Delta T_b \) is directly proportional to molality, for a 0.5 m solution: \[ \Delta T_b = 5 \times 0.16 = 0.80^\circ C. \]

The new boiling point is: \[ 100 + 0.80 = 100.80^\circ C. \]

---

Final Answer: \[ \boxed{100.80^\circ C} \] Quick Tip: The boiling point elevation (\( \Delta T_b \)) is a colligative property, meaning it depends only on the number of solute particles and not their chemical nature.


Question 16:

What is the electronic configuration of \( Cu \)?

  • (A) \( [Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^1 \)
  • (B) \( [Ar] 3d^9 4s^2 \)
  • (C) \( [Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^2 \)
  • (D) \( [Ar] 3d^9 4s^1 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( [\text{Ar}] 3d^{10} 4s^1 \)
View Solution

The electronic configuration of copper deviates from the expected \( [Ar] 3d^9 4s^2 \) to achieve greater stability. The actual configuration is: \[ [Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^1. \]

This deviation occurs because a completely filled \( 3d \)-subshell provides enhanced stability by minimizing the atom's energy.

---

Final Answer: \[ \boxed{[Ar] 3d^{10} 4s^1} \] Quick Tip: Exceptions in electronic configurations, like in copper, arise due to the stability associated with completely or half-filled \( d \)-subshells.



*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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