Zollege is here for to help you!!
Need Counselling
Nidhi Bamnawat's profile photo

Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Jan 7, 2026

MHT CET 2025 April 15 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available for download here. MHT CET 2025 PCB Question Paper consists of 200 multiple-choice questions having 200 marks in total, divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany and Zoology).

MHT CET 2025 April 15 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

MHT CET 2025 April 15 Shift 2 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
MHT CET 2025 April 15 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution


Question 1:

A sound wave travels through air with a frequency of 500 Hz and a wavelength of 0.68 m. Calculate the speed of sound in air.

  • (1) 340 m/s
  • (2) 500 m/s
  • (3) 200 m/s
  • (4) 680 m/s
Correct Answer: (1) 340 m/s
View Solution



Concept: Wave speed \(v\) is related to frequency \(f\) and wavelength \(\lambda\) by \[ v = f\lambda. \]
Calculation: \[ v = 500\times 0.68 = 340\ m/s. \]
Explanation: Simple substitution into the wave relation; units: Hz·m = m/s.
Quick Tip: Use \(v=f\lambda\). Check units: Hz (s\(^{-1}\)) times meters gives m/s.


Question 2:

In a silicon semiconductor at room temperature, the intrinsic carrier concentration is \(1.5\times10^{16}\ \mathrm{m^{-3}}\). Calculate the energy band gap \(E_g\) if \[ n_i=\sqrt{N_c N_v}\,e^{-E_g/(2kT)} \]
Given: \(N_c=2.8\times10^{25}\ \mathrm{m^{-3}},\ N_v=1.04\times10^{25}\ \mathrm{m^{-3}},\ k=1.38\times10^{-23}\ \mathrm{J/K},\ T=300\ \mathrm{K}\).

  • (1) 1.1 eV
  • (2) 0.9 eV
  • (3) 2.0 eV
  • (4) 0.7 eV
Correct Answer: (1) 1.1 eV (approx.)
View Solution



Concept: Rearrange to solve for \(E_g\): \[ E_g = 2kT\ln\!\left(\frac{\sqrt{N_cN_v}}{n_i}\right). \]
Calculation: Compute \(\sqrt{N_cN_v}\): \[ \sqrt{N_cN_v}=\sqrt{(2.8\times10^{25})(1.04\times10^{25})}=\sqrt{2.912\times10^{50}}\approx1.706\times10^{25}. \]
Ratio: \[ \frac{\sqrt{N_cN_v}}{n_i}=\frac{1.706\times10^{25}}{1.5\times10^{16}}\approx1.137\times10^9. \]
Natural log: \[ \ln(1.137\times10^9)\approx20.85. \]
Now \[ E_g=2\times(1.38\times10^{-23})\times300\times20.85 \approx1.73\times10^{-19}\ J. \]
Convert to eV (\(1\ eV=1.602\times10^{-19}\) J): \[ E_g\approx\frac{1.73\times10^{-19}}{1.602\times10^{-19}}\approx1.08\ eV\approx1.1\ eV. \]
Explanation: Using the effective density of states and Boltzmann factor yields \(E_g\approx1.1\) eV.
Quick Tip: Be careful with units (J vs eV). Compute \(\sqrt{N_cN_v}\) first, take the ratio to \(n_i\), then use \(E_g=2kT\ln(...)\).


Question 3:

An ideal gas undergoes an isothermal expansion from 2 L to 8 L at \(T=300\) K. The initial pressure is \(2\times10^{5}\ \mathrm{Pa}\). Calculate the work done by the gas. (Use \(R=8.31\ \mathrm{J/mol\cdot K}\)).

  • (1) 7200 J
  • (2) 3600 J
  • (3) 1800 J
  • (4) 14400 J
Correct Answer: (None of the above) \( \approx 5.545\times10^{2}\ \text{J}\)
View Solution



Concept: For an isothermal process, work done by the gas is \[ W=nRT\ln\frac{V_f}{V_i}. \]
Find \(n\) from \(P_iV_i=nRT\). Convert volumes to m\(^3\): \(V_i=2\ L=2\times10^{-3}\ m^3\), \(V_f=8\times10^{-3}\ m^3\).


Calculation: \[ n=\frac{P_iV_i}{RT}=\frac{(2\times10^5)(2\times10^{-3})}{8.31\times300} =\frac{400}{2493}\approx0.1604\ mol. \] \[ W=nRT\ln\frac{8}{2}= (0.1604)(8.31)(300)\ln 4 =400\cdot1.38629\approx554.5\ J. \]

Explanation: The correct isothermal-work value ≈ \(5.55\times10^2\) J; none of the provided options match.
Quick Tip: Compute \(n\) from initial \(P,V,T\) (in SI), then use \(W=nRT\ln(V_f/V_i)\). Use volumes in m\(^3\).


Question 4:

A concave mirror has focal length 20 cm. An object is placed 60 cm in front of the mirror. Find the image distance.

  • (1) 30 cm
  • (2) 40 cm
  • (3) 60 cm
  • (4) 80 cm
Correct Answer: (1) 30 cm
View Solution



Concept: Mirror formula: \[ \frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}+\frac{1}{u}. \]
Take \(f=20\) cm, \(u=60\) cm (object distance).


Calculation: \[ \frac{1}{v}=\frac{1}{f}-\frac{1}{u}=\frac{1}{20}-\frac{1}{60}=\frac{3-1}{60}=\frac{1}{30}, \]
so \(v=30\) cm.


Explanation: Positive \(v\) indicates a real image on the same side as usual for concave mirrors when object is beyond focal length.
Quick Tip: Use \(1/f=1/v+1/u\). For object beyond \(f\), the image is real and formed between \(f\) and \(2f\) if \(u>2f\) or beyond \(2f\) if \(u<2f\).


Question 5:

A projectile is fired with an initial speed of 20 m/s at an angle of 30\(^\circ\) above the horizontal. Find the maximum height reached by the projectile.

  • (1) 10 m
  • (2) 20 m
  • (3) 5 m
  • (4) 15 m
Correct Answer: (3) 5 m
View Solution



Concept: Maximum height \(H\) given by vertical component: \(H=\dfrac{(v\sin\theta)^2}{2g}.\)


Calculation: \[ v\sin\theta=20\sin30^\circ=20\times0.5=10\ m/s, \] \[ H=\frac{10^2}{2\times9.8}=\frac{100}{19.6}\approx5.102\ m\approx5\ m. \]

Explanation: Use vertical component only; result ≈ 5.1 m, so option (3) 5 m.
Quick Tip: For projectile max height use \(H=(v\sin\theta)^2/(2g)\). Keep g consistent (9.8 m/s\(^2\) or 10 m/s\(^2\) as per question).


Question 6:

The gravitational potential energy of an object of mass 5 kg at a height of 10 m above the surface of the Earth is:

  • (1) 490 J
  • (2) 500 J
  • (3) 450 J
  • (4) 550 J
Correct Answer: (1) 490 J
View Solution



Concept: Gravitational potential energy \(U=mgh\). Use \(g=9.8\ \mathrm{m/s^2}\).


Calculation: \[ U=5\times9.8\times10=490\ J. \]

Explanation: Straight application of \(mgh\). If \(g\) approximated as 10, you would get 500 J (option 2), but with 9.8 it's 490 J.
Quick Tip: Use the given value of g. For many MCQs g=9.8 gives exact physics answer; g=10 sometimes used for rough estimates.


Question 7:

A car of mass 1000 kg is moving in a circular path of radius 50 m with a speed of 20 m/s. Calculate the centripetal force acting on the car.

  • (1) 4000 N
  • (2) 2000 N
  • (3) 5000 N
  • (4) 10000 N
Correct Answer: (None of the above) \(8.0\times10^{3}\ \text{N}\)
View Solution



Concept: Centripetal force \(F_c=\dfrac{mv^2}{r}\).


Calculation: \[ F_c=\frac{1000\times(20)^2}{50}=\frac{1000\times400}{50}=1000\times8=8000\ N. \]

Explanation: Computed value is 8000 N; none of the provided options equal 8000 N.
Quick Tip: Use \(F_c=mv^2/r\). Double-check arithmetic: v squared grows quickly, so forces can be large even at moderate speeds.


Question 8:

Two charges \(q_1=+3\ \mu\mathrm{C}\) and \(q_2=-4\ \mu\mathrm{C}\) are placed 20 cm apart. Calculate the force between them. (Use \(k=9\times10^{9}\ \mathrm{N\cdot m^2/C^2}\)).

  • (1) 1.35 N
  • (2) 2.45 N
  • (3) 3.5 N
  • (4) 4.2 N
Correct Answer: (None of the above) \(2.70\ \text{N}\) (approx.)
View Solution



Concept: Coulomb's law \(F=k\frac{|q_1 q_2|}{r^2}\). Convert microcoulombs to coulombs and distance to meters.


Calculation: \[ q_1=3\times10^{-6}\ \mathrm{C},\ q_2=4\times10^{-6}\ \mathrm{C},\ r=0.20\ \mathrm{m}, \] \[ F=9\times10^9\frac{(3\times10^{-6})(4\times10^{-6})}{(0.20)^2} =9\times10^9\frac{12\times10^{-12}}{0.04} =9\times10^9\times3\times10^{-10}=2.7\ N. \]

Explanation: Force magnitude ≈ 2.7 N (attractive because charges are opposite). None of the choices match exactly.
Quick Tip: Always convert µC→C and cm→m. Check sign for attractive/repulsive, but magnitude uses absolute values.


Question 9:

A fluid of density 800 kg/m\(^3\) flows through a pipe. Velocity at A is 2 m/s with area 1 m\(^2\); velocity at B is 4 m/s. Find area at B.

  • (1) 0.5 m\(^2\)
  • (2) 1.5 m\(^2\)
  • (3) 2.0 m\(^2\)
  • (4) 4.0 m\(^2\)
Correct Answer: (1) 0.5 m\(^2\)
View Solution



Concept: Continuity equation for incompressible flow: \(A_1 v_1 = A_2 v_2\).


Calculation: \[ A_2=\frac{A_1 v_1}{v_2}=\frac{1\times2}{4}=0.5\ m^2. \]

Explanation: Density irrelevant for continuity (incompressible); area decreases as velocity increases.
Quick Tip: Use \(A_1v_1=A_2v_2\). For incompressible fluids, volumetric flow rate is conserved.


Question 10:

For reaction \(2A+B\to3C\) with rate law \(Rate=k[A]^2[B]\): If \([A]\) is doubled and \([B]\) is halved, how does the rate change?

  • (1) It remains the same.
  • (2) It doubles.
  • (3) It increases by a factor of 4.
  • (4) It decreases by a factor of 2.
Correct Answer: (2) It doubles.
View Solution



Concept: Rate \(\propto [A]^2[B]\). If \([A]\to2[A]\) and \([B]\to\frac{1}{2}[B]\):


Calculation: \[ New rate=k(2[A])^2\left(\frac{1}{2}[B]\right)=k\cdot4[A]^2\cdot\frac{1}{2}[B]=2k[A]^2[B]. \]

Explanation: Net factor = \(4\times\frac{1}{2}=2\), so the rate doubles.
Quick Tip: Apply multipliers directly into the rate law; combine factors algebraically to get the overall change.


Question 11:

The enthalpy of formation of HCl is \(-92.3\) kJ/mol. If 2 moles of HCl form from H\(_2\) and Cl\(_2\), calculate total heat released.

  • (1) -184.6 kJ
  • (2) -92.3 kJ
  • (3) 92.3 kJ
  • (4) 184.6 kJ
Correct Answer: (1) -184.6 kJ
View Solution



Concept: Enthalpy released = \(\Delta H_f^\circ \times\) moles formed.


Calculation: \[ Q=2\times(-92.3)=-184.6\ kJ. \]

Explanation: Negative sign indicates exothermic release of heat.
Quick Tip: Multiply formation enthalpy per mole by number of moles formed; sign indicates released (negative) or absorbed (positive).


Question 12:

For \( \mathrm{N_2 + 3H_2 \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3}\) with \(K_c=4.0\), given \([N_2]=0.2\) M, \([H_2]=0.6\) M, \([NH_3]=0.4\) M, calculate \(Q_c\) and state if system is at equilibrium.

  • (1) \(Q_c=1.2\), reaction will shift to the left.
  • (2) \(Q_c=4.0\), reaction is at equilibrium.
  • (3) \(Q_c=2.0\), reaction will shift to the right.
  • (4) \(Q_c=0.5\), reaction will shift to the left.
Correct Answer: (None of the above) \(Q_c\approx3.70\), reaction will shift to the right (toward products) since \(Q_c
View Solution



Concept: Reaction quotient: \[ Q_c=\frac{[NH_3]^2}{[N_2][H_2]^3}. \]
Calculation: \[ Q_c=\frac{(0.4)^2}{(0.2)(0.6)^3}=\frac{0.16}{0.2\times0.216}=\frac{0.16}{0.0432}\approx3.7037. \]
Compare \(Q_c\) with \(K_c=4.0\): \(Q_c

Explanation: Reaction not at equilibrium; it will proceed forward until \(Q_c=K_c\).
Quick Tip: Compute Q using current concentrations; if Q < K, move right (products); if Q > K, move left (reactants).


Question 13:

Freezing point depression: \(K_f=1.86\ ^\circC\cdotkg/mol\). If 0.5 mol of non-volatile solute is dissolved in 1 kg water, calculate \(\Delta T_f\).

  • (1) 0.93 °C
  • (2) 1.86 °C
  • (3) 3.72 °C
  • (4) 2.79 °C
Correct Answer: (1) 0.93 °C
View Solution



Concept: \(\Delta T_f = K_f \times m\) where \(m=\) molality = moles solute / kg solvent.


Calculation: \[ m=\frac{0.5}{1}=0.5\ mol/kg, \] \[ \Delta T_f=1.86\times0.5=0.93\ ^\circC. \]

Explanation: The freezing point is depressed by 0.93 °C relative to pure water.
Quick Tip: Molality uses kg solvent, not solution volume. Multiply Kf by molality for freezing point depression.


Question 14:

The energy of the nth orbit of hydrogen is \(E_n=-\dfrac{13.6}{n^2}\) eV. What is the energy for \(n=2\)?

  • (1) -3.4 eV
  • (2) -13.6 eV
  • (3) -6.8 eV
  • (4) -1.36 eV
Correct Answer: (1) -3.4 eV
View Solution



Concept: Plug \(n=2\) into formula: \[ E_2=-\frac{13.6}{2^2}=-\frac{13.6}{4}=-3.4\ eV. \]

Explanation: Energy levels become less negative as \(n\) increases.
Quick Tip: Use \(E_n=-13.6/n^2\). For n=1 → -13.6 eV, n=2 → -3.4 eV, n=3 → -1.51 eV, etc.


Question 15:

In the reaction \( \mathrm{Zn(s)+CuSO_4(aq)\to ZnSO_4(aq)+Cu(s)}\), which is the correct oxidation half-reaction?

  • (1) \(\mathrm{Zn\to Zn^{2+}+2e^-}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{Cu^{2+}+2e^-\to Cu}\)
  • (3) \(\mathrm{Zn^{2+}+2e^-\to Zn}\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{Cu\to Cu^{2+}+2e^-}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\mathrm{Zn\to Zn^{2+}+2e^-}\)
View Solution



Concept: Oxidation is loss of electrons. In the reaction, Zn (0) becomes Zn\(^{2+}\) (oxidation), while Cu\(^{2+}\) is reduced to Cu(0).


Explanation: The correct oxidation half-reaction is \(\mathrm{Zn\to Zn^{2+}+2e^-}\).
Quick Tip: Oxidation: increase in oxidation state (loss of e\(^-\)); reduction: decrease in oxidation state (gain of e\(^-\)).


Question 16:

Which of the following is the primary function of the human respiratory system?

  • (1) To transport oxygen to tissues and carbon dioxide to the lungs.
  • (2) To remove waste products from the body.
  • (3) To facilitate digestion and absorption of nutrients.
  • (4) To maintain homeostasis by regulating blood pH.
Correct Answer: (1) To transport oxygen to tissues and carbon dioxide to the lungs.
View Solution



Concept: Main role of respiratory system is gas exchange: bring in O\(_2\) for cellular respiration and remove CO\(_2\). While respiration also helps regulate blood pH, the primary, direct function is gas exchange/transport.


Explanation: Transport to tissues is achieved by blood after pulmonary gas exchange, but the respiratory system's core job is O\(_2\) intake and CO\(_2\) removal.
Quick Tip: Remember: respiratory system = gas exchange (O\(_2\) in, CO\(_2\) out); circulatory system transports gases to/from tissues.


Question 17:

In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous pea plants (Pp × Pp), what is the expected phenotypic ratio?

  • (1) 3:1
  • (2) 1:2:1
  • (3) 1:1
  • (4) 4:0
Correct Answer: (1) 3:1
View Solution



Concept: Cross Pp × Pp yields genotype ratio 1 PP : 2 Pp : 1 pp; phenotype (dominant:recessive) = 3:1.


Explanation: Three offspring show dominant phenotype (PP and 2×Pp) and one shows recessive (pp).
Quick Tip: Monohybrid heterozygous cross → 3 dominant : 1 recessive phenotypic ratio; genotype 1:2:1.


Question 18:

Which of the following is an example of a primary consumer in an ecosystem?

  • (1) Grasshopper
  • (2) Snake
  • (3) Fox
  • (4) Deer
Correct Answer: (1) Grasshopper (also deer are primary consumers; grasshopper is a correct insect example)
View Solution



Concept: Primary consumers are herbivores that feed on producers (plants). Both grasshoppers and deer are herbivores; snake and fox are carnivores.


Explanation: Among the options, the grasshopper is a classic primary consumer (herbivore feeding on plants).
Quick Tip: Primary consumer = herbivore (eats plants). Secondary/tertiary consumers eat animals.


Question 19:

Which part of the human brain primarily regulates basic life functions (heart rate, breathing)?

  • (1) Cerebrum
  • (2) Cerebellum
  • (3) Medulla Oblongata
  • (4) Hypothalamus
Correct Answer: (3) Medulla Oblongata
View Solution



Concept: The medulla oblongata (brainstem) controls autonomic functions: cardiac and respiratory centers regulate heart rate and breathing.


Explanation: Cerebrum handles higher functions; cerebellum controls coordination; hypothalamus regulates endocrine/homeostasis but basic rhythmic functions are medulla's role.
Quick Tip: Medulla = vital reflex centers (heart, breathing, vasomotor). Damage is life-threatening.


Question 20:

Which equation correctly represents photosynthesis?

  • (1) \(6\mathrm{CO_2} + 6\mathrm{H_2O} + light \to \mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6} + 6\mathrm{O_2}\)
  • (2) \(\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6} + 6\mathrm{O_2} \to 6\mathrm{CO_2} + 6\mathrm{H_2O} + energy\)
  • (3) \(6\mathrm{CO_2} + 6\mathrm{H_2O} \to \mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6} + 6\mathrm{O_2} + light\)
  • (4) \(\mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6} + 6\mathrm{O_2} \to 6\mathrm{CO_2} + 6\mathrm{H_2O} + light\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(6\mathrm{CO_2} + 6\mathrm{H_2O} + \text{light} \to \mathrm{C_6H_{12}O_6} + 6\mathrm{O_2}\)
View Solution



Concept: Photosynthesis uses CO\(_2\), H\(_2\)O and light to produce glucose and O\(_2\). Option (1) correctly shows light as an input.


Explanation: Option (2) and (4) are respiration (reverse), and (3) incorrectly puts light on product side.
Quick Tip: Remember: photosynthesis consumes CO\(_2\) + H\(_2\)O + light → sugar + O\(_2\). Light is a reactant.


Question 21:

Which organelle is primarily responsible for producing ATP in a cell?

  • (1) Nucleus
  • (2) Mitochondria
  • (3) Endoplasmic Reticulum
  • (4) Golgi Apparatus
Correct Answer: (2) Mitochondria
View Solution



Concept: ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is the energy currency of the cell, and its primary site of synthesis is the mitochondrion, often called the “powerhouse of the cell.” Within mitochondria, ATP is generated through oxidative phosphorylation using the electron transport chain.


Explanation: During cellular respiration, glucose is broken down to release energy, which drives the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP inside mitochondria. Other organelles such as the nucleus or Golgi apparatus do not play a direct role in ATP synthesis.
Quick Tip: Remember — mitochondria generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, making them essential for all energy-dependent cellular processes.


Question 22:

In a DNA molecule, which of the following base-pairings is correct?

  • (1) Adenine pairs with Cytosine.
  • (2) Thymine pairs with Guanine.
  • (3) Adenine pairs with Thymine.
  • (4) Cytosine pairs with Uracil.
Correct Answer: (3) Adenine pairs with Thymine.
View Solution



Concept: According to Chargaff’s rule and the Watson–Crick model of DNA, nitrogenous bases pair through hydrogen bonds as follows: \[ Adenine (A) \leftrightarrow Thymine (T) \quad via 2 hydrogen bonds, \] \[ Cytosine (C) \leftrightarrow Guanine (G) \quad via 3 hydrogen bonds. \]
Explanation: This complementary base pairing ensures the double helix structure and accurate replication of DNA. Uracil (U) occurs only in RNA, replacing Thymine.
Quick Tip: Remember: \( A – T \) (2 H-bonds) and \( G – C \) (3 H-bonds). Uracil appears only in RNA.


Question 23:

Which of the following processes occurs during the second meiotic division (Meiosis II)?

  • (1) Homologous chromosomes are separated.
  • (2) Sister chromatids are separated.
  • (3) DNA replication occurs.
  • (4) Crossing over occurs.
Correct Answer: (2) Sister chromatids are separated.
View Solution



Concept: Meiosis consists of two divisions — Meiosis I and Meiosis II.

- Meiosis I: Homologous chromosomes separate (reductional division).

- Meiosis II: Sister chromatids separate (equational division), similar to mitosis.


Explanation: During Meiosis II, each daughter cell from Meiosis I divides again, separating sister chromatids into individual gametes, resulting in four haploid cells. DNA replication does not occur between Meiosis I and II.
Quick Tip: Think of Meiosis II as “mitosis of haploid cells” — sister chromatids separate, producing four genetically unique cells.


Question 24:

Which of the following factors does NOT affect the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?

  • (1) Temperature
  • (2) pH
  • (3) Substrate concentration
  • (4) Color of the enzyme
Correct Answer: (4) Color of the enzyme
View Solution



Concept: Enzyme activity depends on several physicochemical factors:

- \textit{Temperature: Influences kinetic energy and rate of molecular collisions.

- \textit{pH: Alters the enzyme’s active site structure and charge.

- \textit{Substrate concentration: Affects the rate until enzyme saturation.

The \textit{color of an enzyme is unrelated to its catalytic activity.


Explanation: Enzymes are biological catalysts whose efficiency depends on structural conformation, not physical appearance. Color changes may indicate cofactors or prosthetic groups but do not directly influence activity.
Quick Tip: Enzyme activity depends on structure, not color. Focus on temperature, pH, and substrate concentration.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

Ask your question

Subscribe To Our News Letter

Get Latest Notification Of Colleges, Exams and News

© 2026 Patronum Web Private Limited