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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Jan 7, 2026

MHT CET 2025 April 16 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available for download here. MHT CET 2025 PCB Question Paper consists of 200 multiple-choice questions having 200 marks in total, divided into 3 sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (Botany and Zoology).

MHT CET 2025 April 16 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

MHT CET 2025 April 16 Shift 2 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solutions
MHT CET 2025 April 16 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution


Question 1:

A simple pendulum of length 1 m is oscillating with a small amplitude. If the acceleration due to gravity is \(9.8\ \mathrm{m/s^2}\), what is the time period of the pendulum?

  • (1) 1.0 s
  • (2) 2.0 s
  • (3) 3.0 s
  • (4) 4.0 s
Correct Answer: (2) 2.0 s
View Solution



Concept: For small oscillations, period of a simple pendulum is \[ T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}. \]
Calculation: \[ T=2\pi\sqrt{\frac{1}{9.8}}=2\pi\times0.3190\approx2.006\ s\approx2.0\ s. \]
Explanation: The period depends only on length and \(g\), not on amplitude (for small angles).
Quick Tip: Remember \(T=2\pi\sqrt{L/g}\). For \(L=1\) m and \(g\approx9.8\), \(T\) is about \(2\) s — handy for quick checks.


Question 2:

A wire of length 2 m and resistance 8 \(\Omega\) is stretched to double its original length, keeping the volume constant. What is the new resistance of the wire?

  • (1) 16 \(\Omega\)
  • (2) 32 \(\Omega\)
  • (3) 8 \(\Omega\)
  • (4) 4 \(\Omega\)
Correct Answer: (2) 32 \(\Omega\)
View Solution



Concept: Electrical resistance \(R=\rho\frac{L}{A}\). If volume \(V=AL\) is constant and length doubles (\(L' = 2L\)), area becomes \(A' = V/L' = (AL)/(2L)=A/2\). Thus \[ R'=\rho\frac{L'}{A'}=\rho\frac{2L}{A/2}=4\left(\rho\frac{L}{A}\right)=4R. \]
Calculation: \(R'=4\times8\ \Omega=32\ \Omega.\)


Explanation: Keeping volume constant while length increases reduces cross-section, increasing resistance by the square of length change factor.
Quick Tip: When length changes with constant volume, area scales inversely; resistance scales as length/area → here 4× original.


Question 3:

A ball is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If \(g=10\ \mathrm{m/s^2}\), what is the maximum height reached by the ball?

  • (1) 10 m
  • (2) 20 m
  • (3) 40 m
  • (4) 80 m
Correct Answer: (2) 20 m
View Solution



Concept: Use energy or kinematics: \(v^2=u^2-2gh\) with final \(v=0\) at top, so \(h=\dfrac{u^2}{2g}\).


Calculation: \[ h=\frac{20^2}{2\times10}=\frac{400}{20}=20\ m. \]

Explanation: The vertical component is whole velocity here; height depends on square of initial speed and \(g\).
Quick Tip: For vertical throws, \(h=u^2/(2g)\). With \(u=20\) and \(g=10\), it's quick mental arithmetic: \(400/20=20\) m.


Question 4:

Two point charges \(+4\ \mu\mathrm{C}\) and \(-2\ \mu\mathrm{C}\) are separated by 0.3 m in air. What is the magnitude of the electrostatic force between them? (Coulomb's constant \(k=9\times10^{9}\ \mathrm{N\cdot m^2/C^2}\)).

  • (1) 8 N
  • (2) 16 N
  • (3) 24 N
  • (4) 32 N
Correct Answer: (None of the above — \(0.80\) N)
View Solution



Concept: Coulomb's law: \(F=k\frac{|q_1 q_2|}{r^2}\). Convert microcoulombs to coulombs.


Calculation: \[ q_1=4\times10^{-6}\ \mathrm{C},\quad q_2=2\times10^{-6}\ \mathrm{C}, \] \[ F=9\times10^9\frac{(4\times10^{-6})(2\times10^{-6})}{(0.3)^2} =9\times10^9\frac{8\times10^{-12}}{0.09} =9\times10^9\times8.888\dots\times10^{-11} \approx0.80\ N. \]

Explanation: The computed magnitude is \(0.80\) N. The provided options are larger by a factor of 10; none match the correct value.
Quick Tip: Always convert µC → C and square the separation in metres. Check units carefully; small charges give small forces at moderate distances.


Question 5:

A convex lens has focal length 20 cm. An object is placed 30 cm in front of the lens. What is the image distance from the lens?

  • (1) 12 cm
  • (2) 60 cm
  • (3) 15 cm
  • (4) 30 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 60 cm
View Solution



Concept: Lens formula: \(\dfrac{1}{f}=\dfrac{1}{v}+\dfrac{1}{u}\) (signs: \(u=-30\) cm if using sign convention or use magnitudes consistently). We'll use algebraic form for distances: \(\dfrac{1}{v}=\dfrac{1}{f}-\dfrac{1}{u}\).


Calculation: \[ \frac{1}{v}=\frac{1}{20}-\frac{1}{30}=\frac{3-2}{60}=\frac{1}{60}\Rightarrow v=60\ cm. \]

Explanation: Positive image distance indicates a real image formed on the opposite side of the lens.
Quick Tip: Use \(1/f=1/v+1/u\). If object distance is larger than focal length, a real inverted image is formed.


Question 6:

A block of mass 5 kg is pulled along a horizontal surface by a force of 20 N at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2 and \(g=10\ \mathrm{m/s^2}\), what is the work done by the applied force in moving the block 10 m?

  • (1) 100 J
  • (2) 173.2 J
  • (3) 200 J
  • (4) 346.4 J
Correct Answer: (2) 173.2 J
View Solution



Concept: Work done by the applied force equals the component of the force along displacement times displacement: \(W = F d \cos\theta\). Friction and net acceleration are not required to compute work by that applied force (unless asked net work).


Calculation: \[ W=20\times10\times\cos30^\circ=200\times0.866025\approx173.205\ J\approx173.2\ J. \]

Explanation: Only the horizontal component contributes to displacement-aligned work.
Quick Tip: When force is at an angle, use \(W=Fd\cos\theta\). The vertical component does no work along horizontal displacement.


Question 7:

A copper block of mass 2 kg is heated from 20°C to 100°C. If specific heat of copper is 400 J/kg·°C, how much heat energy is absorbed?

  • (1) 6400 J
  • (2) 16000 J
  • (3) 32000 J
  • (4) 64000 J
Correct Answer: (4) 64000 J
View Solution



Concept: Heat required: \(Q=mc\Delta T\).


Calculation: \[ m=2\ kg,\ c=400\ J/kg·°C,\ \Delta T=100-20=80^\circC, \] \[ Q=2\times400\times80=64000\ J. \]

Explanation: Multiply mass, specific heat, and temperature change; no phase change simplifies the calculation.
Quick Tip: Use SI units consistently: mass in kg, c in J/kg·K and ΔT in K (or °C) — same scale for differences.


Question 8:

A circular coil of 50 turns, each radius 0.1 m, carries a current of 2 A. If placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T perpendicular to its plane, what is the magnitude of the torque acting on the coil?

  • (1) 0.157 N·m
  • (2) 0.785 N·m
  • (3) 1.57 N·m
  • (4) 3.14 N·m
Correct Answer: (3) 1.57 N·m
View Solution



Concept: Torque on current loop: \(\tau = N I A B \sin\phi\). For field perpendicular to plane, \(\phi=90^\circ\) so \(\sin\phi=1\). Area \(A=\pi r^2\).


Calculation: \[ A=\pi(0.1)^2=\pi\times0.01=0.0314159\ m^2, \] \[ \tau=50\times2\times0.0314159\times0.5=100\times0.01570795=1.570795\ N·m\approx1.57\ N·m. \]

Explanation: Use number of turns and coil area; torque scales linearly with current and field.
Quick Tip: Compute area first, include number of turns. For perpendicular field, sinφ = 1 simplifies the formula.


Question 9:

What volume of oxygen gas at STP is required to completely burn 12 g of methane (CH\(_4\))? (Molar mass CH\(_4\)=16 g/mol; 1 mol gas @ STP = 22.4 L)

  • (1) 11.2 L
  • (2) 22.4 L
  • (3) 33.6 L
  • (4) 44.8 L
Correct Answer: (3) 33.6 L
View Solution



Concept: Combustion reaction: \( \mathrm{CH_4 + 2 O_2 \to CO_2 + 2 H_2O}\). 1 mol CH\(_4\) requires 2 mol O\(_2\).


Calculation: \[ moles CH_4=\frac{12}{16}=0.75\ mol \] \[ moles O_2\ needed=0.75\times2=1.50\ mol \] \[ V=1.50\times22.4=33.6\ L. \]

Explanation: Multiply moles required by molar volume at STP.
Quick Tip: Write balanced equation to get stoichiometric ratio, compute moles of reactant, then convert to volume using 22.4 L/mol at STP.


Question 10:

In an electrochemical cell, \(E^\circ(Zn^{2+}/Zn)=-0.76\) V and \(E^\circ(Cu^{2+}/Cu)=+0.34\) V. What is the standard EMF of the cell formed by these electrodes?

  • (1) 0.42 V
  • (2) 1.10 V
  • (3) -1.10 V
  • (4) -0.42 V
Correct Answer: (2) 1.10 V
View Solution



Concept: Cell emf \(E^\circ_cell=E^\circ_cathode-E^\circ_anode\). Zn is more negative so acts as anode; Cu is cathode.


Calculation: \[ E^\circ_cell=0.34-(-0.76)=1.10\ V. \]

Explanation: Positive EMF indicates a spontaneous cell with Zn as anode and Cu as cathode.
Quick Tip: Identify the more positive reduction potential as the cathode. Subtract anode potential from cathode potential to get cell EMF.


Question 11:

Which of the following compounds will give a positive iodoform test?

  • (1) Methanol
  • (2) Ethanol
  • (3) Propan-1-ol
  • (4) Propan-2-ol
Correct Answer: (4) Propan-2-ol (ethanol also gives a positive iodoform test via oxidation to acetaldehyde)
View Solution



Concept: Iodoform test is positive for compounds with a methyl group adjacent to a carbonyl (\(\mathrm{CH_3CO-}\)) or alcohols that can be oxidized to such methyl ketone structures (e.g., ethanol → acetaldehyde, and isopropanol → acetone).


Explanation: Propan-2-ol (isopropanol) gives positive iodoform directly after oxidation to acetone. Ethanol also gives positive after oxidation to acetaldehyde; methanol and propan-1-ol do not.
Quick Tip: Iodoform-positive compounds include CH3CHO (acetaldehyde), CH3COCH3 (acetone), ethanol and isopropanol (which can form those carbonyls).


Question 12:

The enthalpy change for \( \mathrm{C_2H_4(g) + 3O_2(g) \rightarrow 2CO_2(g) + 2H_2O(l)}\) is \(-1410\) kJ. If \(\Delta H_f^\circ(\mathrm{CO_2})=-393.5\) kJ/mol and \(\Delta H_f^\circ(\mathrm{H_2O(l)})=-286\) kJ/mol, what is \(\Delta H_f^\circ(\mathrm{C_2H_4(g)})\)?

  • (1) +52 kJ/mol
  • (2) -52 kJ/mol
  • (3) +104 kJ/mol
  • (4) -104 kJ/mol
Correct Answer: (1) +52 kJ/mol
View Solution



Concept: \(\Delta H_rxn=\sum\Delta H_f^\circ(products)-\sum\Delta H_f^\circ(reactants)\). Let \(x=\Delta H_f^\circ(\mathrm{C_2H_4})\). Oxygen's formation enthalpy is zero.


Calculation: \[ -1410 = [2(-393.5)+2(-286)] - [x + 3(0)] \] \[ -1410 = [-787.0 -572.0] - x = -1359.0 - x \] \[ x = -1359.0 + 1410 = +51.0\ kJ/mol\approx +52\ kJ/mol \]

Explanation: Round to given option precision → +52 kJ/mol.
Quick Tip: Use the standard formation enthalpy relation. Keep track of signs carefully: product sum minus reactant sum = reaction enthalpy.


Question 13:

What is the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 5.85 g NaCl in water to make 250 mL? (Molar mass NaCl = 58.5 g/mol).

  • (1) 0.1 M
  • (2) 0.2 M
  • (3) 0.4 M
  • (4) 1.0 M
Correct Answer: (3) 0.4 M
View Solution



Concept: Molarity \(M=\dfrac{moles solute}{liters solution}\).


Calculation: \[ moles NaCl=\frac{5.85}{58.5}=0.100\ mol \] \[ V=0.250\ L\Rightarrow M=\frac{0.100}{0.250}=0.4\ M. \]

Explanation: Straightforward conversion of mass → moles, then divide by solution volume in liters.
Quick Tip: Remember to convert mL to L when computing molarity. 250 mL = 0.250 L.


Question 14:

The rate constant for a first-order reaction is \(0.0693\ \mathrm{min^{-1}}\). What is the half-life of the reaction?

  • (1) 5 min
  • (2) 10 min
  • (3) 15 min
  • (4) 20 min
Correct Answer: (2) 10 min
View Solution



Concept: For first-order kinetics \(t_{1/2}=\dfrac{\ln 2}{k}\).


Calculation: \[ t_{1/2}=\frac{0.693}{0.0693}=10\ min. \]

Explanation: First-order half-life is constant and independent of concentration.
Quick Tip: Use \(t_{1/2}=0.693/k\). Keep time units consistent with k (here min\(^{-1}\) → t in minutes).


Question 15:

The energy of an electron in the second orbit of hydrogen is \(-3.4\) eV. What is the energy of the electron in the third orbit? ( \(E_n=-\dfrac{13.6}{n^2}\) eV )

  • (1) -1.51 eV
  • (2) -2.27 eV
  • (3) -3.4 eV
  • (4) -6.04 eV
Correct Answer: (1) -1.51 eV
View Solution



Concept: Energy levels: \(E_n=-\dfrac{13.6}{n^2}\) eV. For \(n=3\):


Calculation: \[ E_3=-\frac{13.6}{3^2}=-\frac{13.6}{9}=-1.511\ eV\approx -1.51\ eV. \]

Explanation: Energy becomes less negative (closer to zero) as \(n\) increases.
Quick Tip: Plug in the principal quantum number directly into \(E_n=-13.6/n^2\). Keep units in eV for direct comparison.


Question 16:

For the reaction \( \mathrm{N_2 + 3H_2 \rightleftharpoons 2NH_3}\), the equilibrium constant \(K_c=4.0\times10^{-2}\). If \([N_2]=0.5\) M and \([H_2]=1.5\) M at equilibrium, what is \([NH_3]\)?

  • (1) 0.075 M
  • (2) 0.15 M
  • (3) 0.30 M
  • (4) 0.60 M
Correct Answer: (3) 0.30 M (closest to computed 0.26 M)
View Solution



Concept: For reaction, \(K_c=\dfrac{[NH_3]^2}{[N_2][H_2]^3}\). Solve for \([NH_3]\).


Calculation: \[ [NH_3]^2=K_c[N_2][H_2]^3=4.0\times10^{-2}\times0.5\times(1.5)^3 \] \[ (1.5)^3=3.375,\quad [NH_3]^2=0.04\times0.5\times3.375=0.0675 \] \[ [NH_3]=\sqrt{0.0675}\approx0.2598\ M\approx0.26\ M. \]

Explanation: The closest option provided is 0.30 M.
Quick Tip: Compute powers of concentrations carefully, then take square root. When options are coarse, pick nearest value but show exact calc.


Question 17:

Which of the following coordination compounds exhibits geometrical isomerism?

  • (1) [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]Cl\(_3\)
  • (2) [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_4\)Cl\(_2\)]Cl
  • (3) [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_5\)Cl]Cl\(_2\)
  • (4) [Co(Cl)\(_4\)]\(^{2-}\)
Correct Answer: (2) [Co(NH\(_3\))\(_4\)Cl\(_2\)]Cl
View Solution



Concept: Geometrical (cis/trans) isomerism occurs when different arrangements of ligands around the central metal yield non-superimposable geometries. In an octahedral \([MA_4B_2]\) type complex, cis/trans is possible.


Explanation: (2) fits \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2]^+\) which can have cis and trans isomers. The others are either all identical ligands or monodentate in such numbers that no geometric isomerism arises.
Quick Tip: Look for complexes of the type \([MA_4B_2]\) or \([MA_2B_2]\) in octahedral/square planar systems for possible cis/trans isomers.


Question 18:

In plants, which hormone primarily promotes cell elongation in stems?

  • (1) Cytokinin
  • (2) Gibberellin
  • (3) Abscisic acid
  • (4) Ethylene
Correct Answer: (2) Gibberellin
View Solution



Concept: Gibberellins stimulate stem elongation by promoting cell division and elongation; auxins also contribute but among the given options gibberellin is primary for rapid stem elongation.


Explanation: Gibberellins are often associated with bolting and elongation in stems; cytokinins promote cell division, abscisic acid is inhibitory, ethylene influences ripening and stress responses.
Quick Tip: Gibberellins → stem elongation and bolting; remember auxin also causes cell elongation but is not listed here.


Question 19:

Which part of the human nephron is primarily responsible for reabsorption of glucose and amino acids?

  • (1) Bowman's capsule
  • (2) Proximal convoluted tubule
  • (3) Loop of Henle
  • (4) Distal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: (2) Proximal convoluted tubule
View Solution



Concept: The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) performs bulk reabsorption of filtrate: ~65–70% of water and salts and essentially all filtered glucose and amino acids via active and facilitated transport.


Explanation: Bowman's capsule is the filtration site; Loop of Henle concentrates urine; distal tubule fine-tunes solute balance.
Quick Tip: PCT = major reabsorption site (glucose, amino acids, most ions). If glucose appears in urine, suspect PCT transport saturation.


Question 20:

In recombinant DNA technology, which enzyme cuts DNA at specific recognition sites to produce restriction fragments?

  • (1) DNA polymerase
  • (2) Restriction endonuclease
  • (3) Ligase
  • (4) Reverse transcriptase
Correct Answer: (2) Restriction endonuclease
View Solution



Concept: Restriction endonucleases (restriction enzymes) recognize specific palindromic DNA sequences and cleave DNA, generating fragments with blunt or sticky ends used in cloning.


Explanation: DNA polymerase synthesizes DNA, ligase joins fragments, reverse transcriptase makes cDNA from RNA; only restriction enzymes cut at specific sites.
Quick Tip: Remember: restriction enzymes → cut; ligase → paste. These are the basic tools of molecular cloning.


Question 21:

Which of the following is a pioneer species in the primary succession of a bare rock?

  • (1) Grasses
  • (2) Lichens
  • (3) Shrubs
  • (4) Trees
Correct Answer: (2) Lichens
View Solution



Concept: Pioneer species are first colonizers of bare substrates; lichens (symbiosis of algae + fungi) can grow on bare rock, secrete acids to break rock and accumulate organic matter, enabling later succession.


Explanation: Grasses, shrubs, and trees typically appear later as soil forms.
Quick Tip: Lichens and some algae/mosses are typical pioneers on bare rock; they initiate soil formation for subsequent plants.


Question 22:

In flowering plants, double fertilization results in formation of which two structures?

  • (1) Embryo and endosperm
  • (2) Embryo and seed coat
  • (3) Endosperm and pollen grain
  • (4) Seed coat and ovule
Correct Answer: (1) Embryo and endosperm
View Solution



Concept: Double fertilization: one sperm fertilizes egg → embryo (2n); the other sperm fuses with central cell (two polar nuclei) → primary endosperm nucleus → endosperm (nutritive tissue).


Explanation: This unique angiosperm feature yields embryo + endosperm inside the seed.
Quick Tip: Remember: double fertilization → embryo (from egg) + endosperm (from polar nuclei + sperm), providing nutrition for the embryo.


Question 23:

In a DNA molecule, if the percentage of adenine (A) is 30%, what is the percentage of cytosine (C)?

  • (1) 20%
  • (2) 30%
  • (3) 40%
  • (4) 50%
Correct Answer: (1) 20%
View Solution



Concept: Chargaff's rules: \(A=T\) and \(G=C\) in double-stranded DNA. If \(A=30%\), then \(T=30%\). Total A+T = 60%, so G+C = 40%. Thus \(C=G=20%\).


Explanation: Simple subtraction and pairing rules determine base percentages.
Quick Tip: Compute A and T first, subtract from 100% to get G+C, then divide by 2 for G and C individually.


Question 24:

Which microorganism is used in production of curd from milk?

  • (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
  • (2) Lactobacillus acidophilus
  • (3) Aspergillus niger
  • (4) Penicillium notatum
Correct Answer: (2) Lactobacillus acidophilus
View Solution



Concept: Lactic acid bacteria (Lactobacillus spp., Streptococcus thermophilus) ferment lactose to lactic acid, causing milk proteins to coagulate and form curd.


Explanation: Saccharomyces is a yeast for fermentation (bread/beer), Aspergillus and Penicillium are molds used in other processes, not curd formation.
Quick Tip: Curd formation = lactic acid fermentation by Lactobacillus and related bacteria. Think "lacto" → lactic acid producers.


Question 25:

Which is an example of homologous structures that provide evidence for evolution?

  • (1) Wings of a bird and wings of an insect
  • (2) Forelimbs of a human and wings of a bat
  • (3) Fins of a fish and flippers of a whale
  • (4) Stingers of a bee and spines of a porcupine
Correct Answer: (2) Forelimbs of a human and wings of a bat
View Solution



Concept: Homologous structures share a common ancestral origin but may have different functions (e.g., pentadactyl forelimb pattern in mammals: human arm, bat wing, whale flipper).


Explanation: Bird vs insect wings are analogous (convergent), fins and flippers may also be homologous in some contexts but classic textbook example is human forelimb vs bat wing.
Quick Tip: Homologous = same ancestry, different function (e.g., human arm and bat wing); analogous = same function, different ancestry.


Question 26:

In the human heart, which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

  • (1) Right atrium
  • (2) Right ventricle
  • (3) Left atrium
  • (4) Left ventricle
Correct Answer: (3) Left atrium
View Solution



Concept: Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium; left ventricle then pumps it into systemic circulation via the aorta.


Explanation: Right side receives deoxygenated blood (vena cavae → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary artery).
Quick Tip: Remember: lungs → left atrium (oxygenated); body → right atrium (deoxygenated). Right heart → pulmonary circuit; left heart → systemic.


Question 27:

Which organelle in a eukaryotic cell is primarily responsible for synthesizing proteins destined for secretion?

  • (1) Mitochondrion
  • (2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  • (3) Golgi apparatus
  • (4) Lysosome
Correct Answer: (2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
View Solution



Concept: Ribosomes bound to the rough ER synthesize polypeptides destined for secretion or membrane insertion; these proteins enter the ER lumen for folding and modifications.


Explanation: Golgi modifies and packages secretory proteins; RER is the primary site of their synthesis.
Quick Tip: Secreted proteins are synthesized on RER-bound ribosomes → translocated into ER lumen → Golgi processing → secretion.


Question 28:

In a cross between a pea plant heterozygous for round seeds (Rr) and a plant with wrinkled seeds (rr), what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring?

  • (1) 1 Round : 1 Wrinkled
  • (2) 3 Round : 1 Wrinkled
  • (3) All Round
  • (4) All Wrinkled
Correct Answer: (1) 1 Round : 1 Wrinkled
View Solution



Concept: Cross Rr × rr gives gametes R or r from heterozygote and r from homozygote. Punnett square yields genotypes Rr and rr in 1:1 ratio → phenotypes round (Rr) : wrinkled (rr) = 1:1.


Explanation: Half offspring inherit R (round) and half inherit r (wrinkled).
Quick Tip: Set up a 2×1 Punnett (R,r × r) to quickly see the 1:1 phenotypic outcome.


Question 29:

In flowering plants, which structure develops into the fruit after fertilization?

  • (1) Ovary
  • (2) Ovule
  • (3) Anther
  • (4) Stigma
Correct Answer: (1) Ovary
View Solution



Concept: After fertilization, the ovule develops into the seed while the ovary develops into the fruit, enclosing the seed(s).


Explanation: Anther produces pollen (male gametes), stigma is pollen-receptive; ovule → seed, ovary → fruit.
Quick Tip: Remember: ovule → seed; ovary → fruit. This distinction is key in plant reproductive morphology.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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