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Simran Zutshi

Content Strategist|Tech-innovator|National Hackathon Winner | Updated On - Mar 12, 2025

CUET PG Question Papers are the most important study material for effective exam preparation. We at Zollege have provided all CUET PG Previous Year Papers with Solution PDFs here. CUET PG 2024 Food Engineering and Technology exam was conducted successfully on March 17 by NTA.

Students can freely download the CUET PG previous year's question paper PDFs along with their solutions here. We strongly encourage CUET PG aspirants to scan through all the CUET PG Question Paper to know the overall difficulty level, CUET PG Syllabus and understand the changes in CUET PG Exam Pattern over the years.

CUET PG 2024 Food Engineering and Technology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG 2024 Food Engineering and Technology Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

CUET PG 2024 Food Engineering and Technology Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Identify the antinutritional toxic constituent responsible for infestation of ground- nut with Aspergillus flavus.

  1. Saponins
  2. Gossypol
  3. Aflatoxins
  4. Haemagglutinins
Correct Answer: 3. Aflatoxins.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question focuses on the toxic substances associated with fungal contamination of food.

  1. Aspergillus flavus:
    • Aspergillus flavus is a fungus that produces aflatoxins.
    • Aflatoxins are potent mycotoxins.
  2. Aflatoxin Characteristics:
    • Aflatoxins are harmful to both humans and animals, leading to liver damage, cancer, and other health issues.
    • These toxins are commonly found in improperly stored grains, nuts and seeds, especially groundnuts.
  3. Other Options:
    • Saponins, gossypol, and haemagglutinins are other antinutritional factors found in plants, but they are not specifically related to Aspergillus flavus infestation in groundnuts.

Therefore, the antinutritional toxic constituent responsible is Aflatoxins.

Final Answer: Aflatoxins


Question 2:

Which type of protein structure involves the non-covalent association of protein chains, like in case of actomyosin system of muscles and the casein micelles of milk?

  1. Primary structure
  2. Secondary structure
  3. Tertiary structure
  4. Quaternary structure
Correct Answer: 4. Quaternary structure.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Proteins have several levels of structural organization that dictate their function and interactions.

  1. Primary Structure:
    • The primary structure of a protein is the linear sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
    • It does not involve non-covalent interactions between different chains.
  2. Secondary Structure:
    • Secondary structure refers to the local folding of the polypeptide chain into structures like α-helices and β-sheets.
    • It's stabilized by hydrogen bonds.
  3. Tertiary Structure:
    • The tertiary structure is the overall 3D folding of a single polypeptide chain, maintained by various bonds.
    • It involves different interactions but does not specifically focus on interactions between separate chains.
  4. Quaternary Structure:
    • Quaternary structure involves the association of two or more polypeptide chains (subunits).
    • These subunits are held together by non-covalent interactions like hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, and hydrophobic interactions.
    • This is a prominent feature of the actomyosin system of muscles and the casein micelles of milk.

Therefore, Quaternary structure involves non-covalent association of protein chains.

Final Answer: Quaternary structure


Question 3:

In the context of dextrinisation, which of the following statements are correct?
(A). If a starch product is subjected to dry heat, carbohydrate compounds called dextrins are formed
(B). When dextrins are dissolved in water, they impart a bitter taste
(C). Non-enzymatic browning occurs and a burnt toasted flavour develops
(D). Dry dextrins known as pyrodextrins are formed in the crust of baked flour mixtures

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (C) and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 1. (A), (C) and (D) only.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Dextrinization is a process that occurs with the application of dry heat to starch products, changing its properties.

  1. Statement (A):
    • This is correct: When starch products are subjected to dry heat, they break down into smaller polysaccharides called dextrins.
  2. Statement (B):
    • This is incorrect: Dextrins actually have a sweet taste, not a bitter one.
  3. Statement (C):
    • This is correct: The heating process also leads to non-enzymatic browning, which gives a burnt, toasted flavor.
  4. Statement (D):
    • This is correct: Dry dextrins, formed on the crust of baked flour mixtures, are specifically called pyrodextrins.

Therefore, the correct statements are (A), (C), and (D) only.

Final Answer: (A), (C) and (D) only.


Question 4:

Match List I with List II:

List I
(Enzyme for tenderising meat)

A. Bromelain
B. Papain
C. Ficin
D. Trypsin

List II
(Source of enzyme)

I. Pineapple
II. Papaya leaves
III. Pancreas and fungal enzymes
IV. Figs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: 3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question matches proteolytic enzymes with their specific sources.

  1. Bromelain:
    • Bromelain is extracted from pineapple and has meat tenderizing properties.
  2. Papain:
    • Papain is extracted from papaya leaves and is also known for tenderizing meat.
  3. Ficin:
    • Ficin is extracted from figs and has tenderizing properties as well.
  4. Trypsin:
    • Trypsin is primarily produced by the pancreas and can be obtained from some fungal sources as well, it is commonly used as a meat tenderizer.

Therefore, the correct matches are A - I, B - II, C - IV, D - III.

Final Answer: (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)


Question 5:

Which of the following statements are correct in context of polymerization re- action of lipids?

(A). Unsaturated fatty acids in lipids undergo polymerization owing to heat, oxidation, and the presence of free radicals or polar catalysts
(B). Heating of fats and oils, as in frying operations, can produce changes in molecular weight, colour, viscosity or refractive index due to polymerization
(C). Polymers increase the heat transfer efficiency of an oil and also improve the quality of products fried in oil.
(D). Under extreme conditions, polymerization can also enhance the nutritional quality of oils and their wholesomeness

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) and (B) only.
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 1. (A) and (B) only.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question tests the understanding of polymerization reactions in lipids and their consequences.

  1. Statement (A):
    • This is correct: Unsaturated fatty acids can undergo polymerization when exposed to heat, oxygen, free radicals, or polar catalysts which causes cross-linking of fatty acid molecules.
  2. Statement (B):
    • This is correct: Heating of fats and oils during frying operations leads to polymerization that alters various properties of the oil like molecular weight, color, viscosity, and refractive index.
  3. Statement (C):
    • This is incorrect: While polymerization may somewhat alter heat transfer, it does not improve the overall quality of fried foods. It might impact sensory properties and make oil less safe.
  4. Statement (D):
    • This is incorrect: Polymerization under extreme conditions doesn't enhance nutritional quality and may lead to potentially harmful compounds, decreasing nutritional value.

Therefore, the correct statements are (A) and (B) only.

Final Answer: (A) and (B) only


Question 6:

Identify the polar amino acid among the following options.

  1. Isoleucine
  2. Asparagine
  3. Methionine
  4. Tryptophan
Correct Answer: 2. Asparagine.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Amino acids are classified based on the properties of their side chains, some are polar and some non polar.

  1. Polar Amino Acids: Polar amino acids are hydrophilic, because of functional groups that form hydrogen bonds with water.
  2. Asparagine:
    • Asparagine has an amide group in its side chain, which is polar and capable of forming hydrogen bonds with water.
    • This makes Asparagine soluble in water and able to interact with other polar molecules in a protein
  3. Non-Polar Amino Acids:
    • Isoleucine, methionine, and tryptophan are non-polar or hydrophobic amino acids.
    • They tend to cluster together away from water in the interior of proteins.

Therefore, the polar amino acid among the options is Asparagine.

Final Answer: Asparagine


Question 7:

Match List I with List II

List I
(Food)

A. Tomatoes
B. Cherries, blueberries, red grapes
C. Green leafy vegetables, capsicum, beans
D. Meat

List II
(Pigment)

I. Chlorophyll
II. Myoglobin
III. Lycopene
IV. Anthocyanins

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The question tests the understanding of various pigments that give color to different foods.

  1. Tomatoes:
    • The red color of tomatoes is due to lycopene.
  2. Cherries, Blueberries, Red Grapes:
    • These contain anthocyanins, which are responsible for red, purple, and blue hues.
  3. Green Leafy Vegetables, Capsicum, Beans:
    • The green color is due to chlorophyll.
  4. Meat:
    • The red color of meat is due to myoglobin, an iron-containing protein.

Therefore, the correct matches are: A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II.

Final Answer: (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)


Question 8:

Identify the aldehydic compound which is a major contributor to the flavour of chocolate.

  1. Geranial
  2. Benzaldehyde
  3. 5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal
  4. Acetaldehyde
Correct Answer: 3. 5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question tests the knowledge of specific compounds responsible for different flavors.

  1. 5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal:
    • This is a key component that gives the characteristic aroma and flavor to chocolate.
  2. Other Aldehydes:
    • Geranial is a flavor compound found in lemon and lemongrass.
    • Benzaldehyde is found in almonds and has their distinct flavor profile
    • Acetaldehyde is found in fruits and alcoholic beverages that imparts their unique aromas.

Therefore, the aldehyde responsible for chocolate flavor is 5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal.

Final Answer: 5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal


Question 9:

If xerosis of conjunctiva is left untreated, it can lead to ________, which is char- acterized by ulceration, cloudiness and bacterial infection.

  1. Bitot spot
  2. Keratomalacia
  3. Tetany
  4. Cretinism
Correct Answer: 2. Keratomalacia.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question is about the specific eye disorders and their progression.

  1. Xerosis of Conjunctiva:
    • Xerosis is the dryness of the conjunctiva, the membrane lining the eyelids and covering the white part of the eye.
  2. Keratomalacia:
    • If untreated, xerosis can progress to keratomalacia, which is a degenerative eye disorder characterized by corneal ulceration, cloudiness, and bacterial infection.
  3. Other options:
    • Bitot spot is a symptom of vitamin A deficiency but does not directly result from untreated xerosis of the conjunctiva.
    • Tetany is a condition characterized by muscle spasms due to low blood calcium.
    • Cretinism is a condition caused by iodine deficiency which results in improper growth and development.

Therefore, untreated xerosis can lead to Keratomalacia.

Final Answer: Keratomalacia


Question 10:

Heat penetration in processing can be hastened by which of the following op- tion?

  1. Using glass containers
  2. Rotation and agitation
  3. Layering of foods
  4. Using larger cans
Correct Answer: 2. Rotation and agitation.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The efficiency of heat penetration is a key factor in food processing.

  1. Heat Transfer Methods:
    • Heat transfer in food processing is achieved by conduction and convection.
    • Conduction occurs through the food material and convection through currents created by fluid movements.
  2. Rotation and Agitation:
    • Rotation and agitation promote heat transfer by creating convection currents.
    • This ensures uniform and rapid heat distribution, reducing processing time.
  3. Other Options:
    • Using glass containers can hinder heat penetration, as glass has low thermal conductivity.
    • Layering of foods may not be as effective as rotation or agitation.
    • Using larger cans can slow down heat penetration because of larger thickness.

Therefore, rotation and agitation hasten heat penetration.

Final Answer: Rotation and agitation


Question 11:

Pseudomonas grows well in food containing

  1. Nitrates
  2. Vitamins
  3. Antibiotics
  4. Organic acid
Correct Answer: 1. Nitrates.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Pseudomonas is a common spoilage bacteria, and understanding its growth requirements is important for food preservation.

  1. Nitrates:
    • Pseudomonas species are known to utilize nitrates as a nitrogen source for growth.
    • This allows them to thrive in food environments that contain nitrates.
  2. Other Options:
    • While Pseudomonas can use vitamins, they are not a primary growth factor.
    • Pseudomonas is generally inhibited by antibiotics.
    • Organic acids may hinder the growth of this bacteria.

Therefore, Pseudomonas thrives in foods containing nitrates.

Final Answer: Nitrates


Question 12:

These soil molds are similar to Mucor except that the zygospore suspensors are markedly unequal in size

  1. Rhizopus
  2. Thamnidium
  3. Absidia
  4. Zygorrhynchus
Correct Answer: 4. Zygorrhynchus.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question is about identifying soil molds based on the structure of their zygospores.

  1. Zygorrhynchus: Zygorrhynchus is characterized by having zygospore suspensors that are markedly unequal in size.
  2. Other Molds: Rhizopus, Thamnidium, and Absidia are similar to Mucor but do not have the distinctly unequal suspensors of Zygorrhynchus

Therefore, the correct answer is Zygorrhynchus.

Final Answer: Zygorrhynchus


Question 13:

A predominant soil organism, it is inert in most foods. Some species can grow at 5°C and would be considered psychrotrophs

  1. Genus Bacillus
  2. Genus Acetobacter
  3. Genus Arthrobacter
  4. Genus Clostridium
Correct Answer: 3. Genus Arthrobacter.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question tests knowledge of microorganisms and their growth characteristics.

  1. Arthrobacter:
    • Arthrobacter is a genus of soil-dwelling bacteria that is psychrotrophic (capable of growing at lower temperatures) and is mostly inert in food.
    • Some species can grow at 5°C.
  2. Other Options:
    • Bacillus and Clostridium species can grow at a variety of temperatures, they are not primarily psychrotrophs.
    • Acetobacter is mostly associated with the production of acetic acid.

Therefore, the genus that matches the description is Arthrobacter.

Final Answer: Genus Arthrobacter


Question 14:

Cole crops include which of the following vegetable?

  1. Kale
  2. Eggplant
  3. Radish
  4. Tomato
Correct Answer: 1. Kale.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Cole crops are a specific group of vegetables from a particular family.

  1. Cole Crops:
    • Cole crops are vegetables belonging to the Brassica oleracea species.
    • This includes cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, and kale
  2. Other Vegetables:
    • Eggplant, radish and tomato belong to different plant families and are not considered cole crops.

Therefore, the cole crop in this list is Kale.

Final Answer: Kale


Question 15:

Anti-carcinogenic effect of cauliflower is due to the high content of which sub- stance

  1. Phosphates
  2. Glucosilonates
  3. Inosine
  4. Fibrin
Correct Answer: 2. Glucosinolates.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The anti-carcinogenic properties of certain vegetables are linked to specific compounds.

  1. Glucosinolates:
    • Glucosinolates, found in cauliflower and other cruciferous vegetables, have been associated with anti-carcinogenic effects.
    • They induce enzymes that detoxify carcinogenic substances in the body.
  2. Other Options:
    • Phosphates, inosine, and fibrin are not known to have the same type of anti-carcinogenic effects

Therefore, the anti-carcinogenic effect is mainly due to Glucosinolates.

Final Answer: Glucosinolates


Question 16:

Grains of some cereals are covered in caryopsis and in addition have fused palea and lemma which constitute the husk outside the fruit coat. The example of such cereal is

  1. Wheat
  2. Rye
  3. Maize
  4. Barley
Correct Answer: 4. Barley.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The structural characteristics of cereal grains are important for classification.

  1. Barley Grains:
    • Barley has a fused palea and lemma that forms a tight husk outside the fruit coat, or caryopsis.
    • The husk is very tightly connected to the grain.
  2. Other Grains:
    • Wheat, Rye, and Maize don't have the same kind of fused lemma and palea.

Therefore, the cereal with a fused palea and lemma is Barley.

Final Answer: Barley


Question 17:

The preparation of ice cream is done in following order (A). The mix are passed through freezer and temperature of the mix comes down to -5.5°C (B). Mix is pasteurized at 71°C for 30 min. or HTST pasteurized at 82°C for 25 sec (C). Liquid constituents are heated to 43°C, sugar and dry ingredients are added to the warm liquid (D). The mix is homogenized and aged for 4 to 24 hours

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (D), (C).
  2. (A), (B), (C), (D).
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C).
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: 4. (C), (B), (D), (A).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Ice cream production involves a specific sequence of steps to ensure quality and safety.

  1. Mixing: The process begins with step (C) where the liquid ingredients are heated and dry ingredients are added. This is to ensure that a smooth liquid mix is formed.
  2. Pasteurization: The mix is then pasteurized (B) to destroy pathogenic microorganisms and inactivate spoilage enzymes.
  3. Homogenization and Aging: Next, the pasteurized mix goes through homogenization and aging (D) to develop texture and flavor.
  4. Freezing: Lastly, the mix is passed through a freezer (A) to freeze it.

Therefore, the correct sequence is C, B, D, A.

Final Answer: (C), (B), (D), (A)


Question 18:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Stabilizers are used to prevent the formation of ice crystals during freezing. Reason (R): Stabilizers form gels with the water in the formula and thereby improve the body and texture of the ice cream.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question is about stabilizers in ice cream and their effect.

  1. Assertion (A):
    • This is correct as stabilizers are used to prevent large ice crystal formation which leads to a smoother texture
  2. Reason (R):
    • This is also correct as stabilizers bind water molecules and form gels.
    • This mechanism prevents large crystal formation in the ice cream and improves texture
  3. Relationship: The mechanism mentioned in the reason (R) is indeed the reason for the effectiveness of stabilizer mentioned in the assertion (A)

Therefore, both Assertion and Reason are true, and reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.

Final Answer: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)


Question 19:

Ghee is the clarified butter fat obtained from cow or buffalo milk, produced by heat desiccation of makkhan (butter) at temperature of

  1. 90-95°C
  2. 105-110°C
  3. 120-125°C
  4. 130-135°C
Correct Answer: 2. 105-110°C.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Ghee production is a specific process with a defined temperature range.

  1. Ghee Production:
    • Ghee is produced by heating butter to remove water and milk solids, leaving behind clarified butterfat.
    • This is a desiccation process.
  2. Desiccation Temperature:
    • The temperature for this process is typically within the range of 105 to 110°C.
    • This range is necessary for the proper removal of water and milk solids, without burning the butterfat.

Therefore, the correct temperature range for ghee preparation is 105-110°C.

Final Answer: 105-110°C


Question 20:

The starter composition for Blue-vein cheese is

  1. Lactococcus lactis, S.cremoris
  2. Pencillium roqueforti and P.glaucum
  3. S.lactis, Pencillium camemberti
  4. Geotrichum candidum
Correct Answer: 2. Pencillium roqueforti and P.glaucum.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The starter cultures for cheese-making are very specific to the type of cheese.

  1. Blue-Vein Cheese:
    • Blue-veined cheeses like Roquefort and Gorgonzola are characterized by the presence of blue-green mold veins inside the cheese.
    • These veins are formed by Penicillium roqueforti and Penicillium glaucum.
  2. Other Options:
    • Lactococcus lactis and S.cremoris are mainly used for cheddar and other cheeses, but not blue vein cheese.
    • Penicillium camemberti is a starter for soft cheeses like camembert, not blue vein cheese.
    • Geotrichum candidum is used in surface-ripened cheeses, they don't produce blue veins.

Therefore, the starter composition for Blue-vein cheese is Pencillium roqueforti and P.glaucum.

Final Answer: Pencillium roqueforti and P.glaucum


Question 21:

Select the sequence for butter preparation

(A). Cream is pasteurized at 62.8°C for 30 min. (B). Churning (C). Ripening of cream at 21.1°C for several hours (D). Draining off buttermilk

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D).
  2. (A), (C), (B), (D).
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C).
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: 2. (A), (C), (B), (D).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Butter making is a multi-step process that is critical for producing a high-quality product.

  1. Pasteurization: The first step is pasteurization (A), to eliminate pathogens and spoilage organisms.
  2. Ripening: This is followed by the step (C) of ripening the cream by allowing lactic acid bacteria to ferment which develop flavor and acidity.
  3. Churning: Next is the mechanical process of churning (B) where fat globules get separated from the liquid.
  4. Draining Buttermilk: Finally, the buttermilk is drained off (D), separating the butterfat from the liquid.

Therefore, the correct sequence for butter preparation is A, C, B, D.

Final Answer: (A), (C), (B), (D)


Question 22:

Completion of pasteurization of milk is ascertained by testing for the alkaline phosphatase activity in milk. The enzyme liberates phenol from phenyl phosphate. The liberated phenol gives what colour in milk

  1. Yellow
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Blue
Correct Answer: 4. Blue.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The alkaline phosphatase test is a key indicator for assessing the efficacy of pasteurization.

  1. Alkaline Phosphatase Test:
    • The alkaline phosphatase test checks if the enzyme is deactivated by pasteurization.
    • If the enzyme is still active, it indicates incomplete pasteurization.
  2. Reaction: In this test, the enzyme liberates phenol from phenyl phosphate if the pasteurization was incomplete.
  3. Color Indication: The released phenol is detected using a reagent which produces a blue color in alkaline conditions upon reacting with the liberated phenol.
  4. Red Color: A red color has no association with this test.

Therefore, a blue color confirms presence of phenol, indicating incomplete pasteurization.

Final Answer: Blue


Question 23:

Sandiness in ice-cream is due to

  1. Whey
  2. Casein
  3. Lactose
  4. Lipids
Correct Answer: 3. Lactose.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Sandiness is a textural defect that occurs in ice cream.

  1. Lactose Crystallization:
    • Sandiness is primarily caused by the crystallization of lactose, which is a milk sugar.
    • When lactose concentration is too high, or due to improper storage conditions, lactose crystals will grow and result in gritty texture.
  2. Other Components:
    • Whey, casein, and lipids also play a role but are not the primary factors behind the sandy defect.

Therefore, the primary cause of sandiness in ice cream is Lactose.

Final Answer: Lactose


Question 24:

Cans can also be made from TFS, also known as

  1. Electrolytically chlorine-lead coated steel
  2. Electrolytically chromium-coated steel
  3. Electrolytically chlorine-coated steel
  4. Electrolytically chlorine-zinc coated steel
Correct Answer: 2. Electrolytically chromium-coated steel.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

TFS is a material commonly used in can manufacturing.

  1. TFS Material:
    • TFS stands for Tin-Free Steel.
    • TFS is also known as electrolytically chromium-coated steel, as the chromium coating is applied using electrolysis.
  2. Other Options:
    • Electrolytically chlorine-lead coated, chlorine-coated steel and chlorine-zinc coated steel are not standard terms or materials.
  3. TFS Properties: TFS is used in can manufacturing for its corrosion resistance, cost-effectiveness, and good surface for coatings.

Therefore, TFS is also known as Electrolytically chromium-coated steel.

Final Answer: Electrolytically chromium-coated steel


Question 25:

Paper is generally termed board when its gram-mage exceeds

  1. 154 gsm
  2. 184 gsm
  3. 204 gsm
  4. 224 gsm
Correct Answer: 4. 224 gsm.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The gram-mage, or weight per unit area, is a key characteristic that distinguishes paper and board.

  1. Paper vs. Board:
    • Board is a thicker and heavier paper product.
  2. Gram-mage Threshold: Generally, when the gram-mage (weight per unit area) of paper exceeds 224 gsm, it is classified as board.

Therefore, paper is generally termed board when its gram-mage exceeds 224 gsm.

Final Answer: 224 gsm


Question 26:

During MAP of fatty fish, gas composition should be

  1. 40% N2, 60% CO2
  2. 60% N2, 40% CO2
  3. 30% N2, 40% CO2, 30% O2
  4. 40% CO2, 60% 02
Correct Answer: 1. 40% N2, 60% CO2.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP) uses specific gas compositions to preserve food products.

  1. MAP for Fatty Fish:
    • A common gas composition used in MAP for fatty fish is 40% nitrogen (N2) and 60% carbon dioxide (CO2).
  2. Function of Gases:
    • N2 acts as a filler gas.
    • CO2 inhibits microbial growth and slows enzymatic reactions
    • Higher levels of oxygen are avoided for fatty fish as they can result in oxidative rancidity

Therefore, the correct gas composition during MAP of fatty fish is 40% N2, 60% CO2.

Final Answer: 40% N2, 60% CO2


Question 27:

Among the following which is NOT an inhibitor of polyphenol oxidase

  1. Pineapple juice
  2. Sulphites
  3. Ascorbic acid
  4. Pectinic acid
Correct Answer: 4. Pectinic acid.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Polyphenol oxidase (PPO) is responsible for browning in fruits and vegetables.

  1. PPO Inhibition: Inhibiting the enzyme PPO is essential to prevent browning in food products.
  2. Pineapple Juice:
    • Pineapple juice contains bromelain, an enzyme that inhibits PPO activity by proteolysis.
  3. Sulphites: Sulphites are chemical inhibitors that directly interfere with PPO activity.
  4. Ascorbic Acid:
    • Ascorbic acid is an antioxidant that reduces the quinones back to phenols, thus inhibiting browning.
  5. Pectinic Acid:
    • Pectinic acid does not inhibit PPO. It acts as a gelling agent in plant cell walls.

Therefore, the compound that is NOT an inhibitor of PPO is Pectinic acid.

Final Answer: Pectinic acid


Question 28:

Match List I with List II

List I
Radiant Energy

A. Infrared
B. UV
C. X-rays
D. Gamma rays

List II
Wavelength (nm)

I. less than 100
II. 13.6-400
III. 800
IV. 100-150

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: 3. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question focuses on identifying different forms of radiant energy based on their wavelength ranges.

  1. Infrared Radiation:
    • Infrared has a wavelength greater than 700 nm, matching with 800 nm.
  2. UV Radiation:
    • UV (ultraviolet) radiation has a wavelength of 10 nm to 400 nm, matching best with the range 13.6 to 400 nm.
  3. X-rays:
    • X-rays have very short wavelengths that range from 0.01 nm to 10 nm , matching with the closest range 100-150 nm.
  4. Gamma Rays:
    • Gamma rays have the shortest wavelengths (less than 0.01 nm), which matches to less than 100 nm in the given options.

Therefore, the correct matches are: A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I.

Final Answer: (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)


Question 29:

Which of the following is NOT a unit of radiation

  1. Gray
  2. Roentgen
  3. Electron volt
  4. Electron amstrong
Correct Answer: 4. Electron amstrong.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The question requires knowledge of radiation units and their usage.

  1. Gray:
    • Gray is the SI unit of absorbed dose of ionizing radiation.
  2. Roentgen:
    • Roentgen is a traditional unit of radiation exposure.
  3. Electron Volt:
    • Electron volt (eV) is a unit of energy used to denote amount of kinetic energy gained by an electron.
  4. Electron Amstrong:
    • Electron amstrong is a unit of length (not radiation) with no direct application in measuring radiation.

Therefore, Electron amstrong is NOT a unit of radiation.

Final Answer: Electron amstrong


Question 30:

The choice of irradiation dosage of food is determined by taking into account various factors. The factors are (A). Resistance of food enzymes (B). Resistance of microorganisms (C). Resistance of food to deterioration of organoleptic quality (D). Resistance of food to moisture absorption

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The choice of irradiation dosage for food is a critical decision that is based on multiple factors related to the food and its quality.

  1. Resistance of Food Enzymes: The resistance of food enzymes is an important factor because irradiation can affect enzymatic activities in foods.
  2. Resistance of Microorganisms: The resistance of microorganisms in food to irradiation impacts how much irradiation dosage will be needed to control the microorganisms.
  3. Resistance to Organoleptic Changes: The resistance of the food to the deterioration of organoleptic qualities due to irradiation (such as flavor, color, or texture) needs to be considered when setting the correct dosage.
  4. Resistance to Moisture Absorption: The resistance of food to moisture absorption by irradiation is important to maintain food quality and prevent spoilage.

Therefore, all the mentioned factors must be considered when determining the irradiation dosage, namely: Resistance of food enzymes, resistance of microorganisms, resistance to deterioration of organoleptic quality, and resistance to moisture absorption.

Final Answer: (A), (B), (C) and (D)


Question 31:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Steak can be crusted on outside but still be rare on inside. Reason (R): In conventional heating, direct contact with hot plate produces temperature gra- dient which can burn outside of food piece.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The cooking of steak demonstrates specific heat transfer phenomena.

  1. Assertion (A): This is correct, a steak can develop a crust on its exterior while remaining rare inside.
  2. Reason (R): This is also correct and it provides the explanation for the assertion.
    • Direct contact with a hot surface results in a strong temperature gradient across the food.
    • This causes the outside to be heated and possibly burnt before the heat reaches the center.

Therefore, both assertion and reason are true and the reason correctly explains the assertion, in which the heat gradient leads to an outer crust while keeping the inside rare.

Final Answer: Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


Question 32:

Match List I with List II

List I
Composition of Cereal Grain %

A. Moisture
B. Carbohydrate
C. Protein
D. Fat

List II
%

I. 8-13
II. 2-5
III. 58-72
IV. 10-14

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The composition of cereal grains varies, but there are typical ranges for moisture, carbohydrate, protein, and fat.

  1. Moisture:
    • Moisture content in cereal grains generally ranges from 8-13% .
  2. Carbohydrate:
    • Carbohydrate makes up the largest proportion in cereals and typically ranges from 58-72%.
  3. Protein:
    • Protein content in cereal grains is usually between 8 to 13%.
  4. Fat:
    • Fat content ranges from 2 to 5%.

Therefore, the correct matches are: A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II

Final Answer: (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)


Question 33:

The structural feature of cereal rich in oil are

(A). Hull
(B). Bran
(C). Endosperm
(D). Hairs of brush

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) and (B) only.
  2. (B) and (C) only.
  3. (C) and (D) only.
  4. (A) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 2. (B) and (C) only.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Different structural features of cereal grains vary in their composition, including oil content.

  1. Bran:
    • The bran is one of the oil-rich parts of cereal grains.
  2. Endosperm:
    • The endosperm is another part of cereal grains that contains good amount of oil.
  3. Other Options:
    • The hull is the outermost layer of the seed and is not known for high oil content.
    • Hairs of brush are also a minor part and are not very rich in oils

Therefore, the oil-rich parts of cereals are bran and endosperm.

Final Answer: (B) and (C) only


Question 34:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Hard wheat yields softer flour. Reason (R): Soft wheat is used for cake making.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Correct Answer: 4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question tests the understanding of the different wheat types and the nature of flour they produce.

  1. Assertion (A):
    • This is incorrect. In fact, hard wheat produces a coarser and stronger flour.
  2. Reason (R):
    • This is correct. Soft wheat is used for cake making, because it produces a softer and tender texture

Therefore, the assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Final Answer: (A) is false but (R) is true


Question 35:

The process of grinding flour from conventional milling in high speed turbo grinders is

  1. Grinding
  2. Turbomilling
  3. Shelling
  4. Dehusking
Correct Answer: 2. Turbomilling.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The question focuses on different methods of milling or grain processing.

  1. Turbomilling:
    • Turbomilling is the process using high-speed turbo grinders to achieve a very fine and refined milling action.
    • It produces very fine particles of flour.
  2. Other Options:
    • Grinding is a general term for reducing particle size with no equipment type specified.
    • Shelling and dehusking are terms used for removal of the outer coverings, and not for milling the flour.

Therefore, the process using high-speed turbo grinders is called Turbomilling.

Final Answer: Turbomilling


Question 36:

The process of paste formation when moistened starch is heated is called

  1. Dextrinization
  2. Retrogradation
  3. Gelatinisation
  4. Caramelisation
Correct Answer: 3. Gelatinisation.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Starch undergoes several changes depending on the method of heating or processing.

  1. Gelatinization:
    • Gelatinization is the process where starch granules swell and absorb water upon heating in a moist environment.
    • This results in a loss of their crystalline structure and paste formation
  2. Other Processes:
    • Dextrinization is the breakdown of starch by dry heat, not paste formation.
    • Retrogradation is the reorganization of starch molecules that results in gel formation.
    • Caramelization is the browning of sugars when heated and not related to starch.

Therefore, the process of paste formation is called Gelatinisation.

Final Answer: Gelatinisation


Question 37:

The following is a type of Contact heat exchanger

  1. Scraped surface
  2. Tubular
  3. Plate
  4. Steam infusion
Correct Answer: 4. Steam infusion.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Heat exchangers vary depending on the contact method between the heat source and the material to be heated.

  1. Steam Infusion:
    • Steam infusion involves direct contact between steam and the material, which makes it a direct-contact heat exchanger.
  2. Other Options:
    • Scraped surface heat exchangers, while having contact between the surface and the material, are indirect contact devices because heat is transferred through the surface.
    • Tubular and plate heat exchangers also involve heat transfer across surfaces, and are indirect types.

Therefore, the direct contact heat exchanger is Steam infusion.

Final Answer: Steam infusion


Question 38:

Identify the equipment shown in figure

(Check the image from pdf)
  1. Shell and tube heat exchanger
  2. Steam infusion heat exchanger
  3. Tubular heat exchanger
  4. Plate heat exchanger
Correct Answer: 3. Tubular heat exchanger.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The diagram depicts a type of heat exchanger, in which two fluids transfer heat across each other.

  1. Tubular Heat Exchanger:
    • The diagram represents a tubular heat exchanger, in which one fluid flows inside a tube and another fluid flows around it.
  2. Other Options:
    • A shell and tube heat exchanger is a type of tubular exchanger where fluid flows through many tubes within a shell, but this diagram does not show a shell.
    • A steam infusion heat exchanger directly mixes steam into the material (no separate inlets and outlets for two fluids).
    • A plate heat exchanger uses flat plates instead of tubes for heat transfer.

Therefore, the diagram shows a Tubular heat exchanger.

Final Answer: Tubular heat exchanger


Question 39:

The law governing heat transfer by conduction is

  1. Newton's law
  2. Fourier's law
  3. Fick's law
  4. Stefan Boltzmann law
Correct Answer: 2. Fourier's law.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Different physical laws govern different types of heat transfer.

  1. Fourier's Law:
    • Fourier's Law describes the heat transfer through conduction.
    • It quantifies the rate of heat transfer through a medium proportional to the temperature gradient.
  2. Other Laws:
    • Newton's law is for convection heat transfer.
    • Fick's law relates to mass transfer (diffusion), not heat transfer.
    • Stefan-Boltzmann law describes radiative heat transfer.

Therefore, the law governing heat transfer by conduction is Fourier's law.

Final Answer: Fourier's law


Question 40:

Enthalapy of dry air is given by the expression

  1. Ha=1.005(Ta-To)
  2. Ha=0.005(Ta-To)
  3. Ha=1.88(Ta-To)
  4. Ha=2501.4+1.88(Ta-To)
Correct Answer: 1. Ha=1.005(Ta-To).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question relates to the thermodynamic property of dry air and its calculation.

  1. Enthalpy of Dry Air:
    • The enthalpy of dry air (Ha) is calculated as 1.005 multiplied by the temperature difference (Ta - To).
    • Here, Ta is the temperature of dry air and To is the temperature at a reference point.
  2. Other Expressions: The other expressions mentioned are typically related to enthalpy of steam or wet air.

Therefore, the enthalpy of dry air is given by Ha = 1.005(Ta-To).

Final Answer: Ha=1.005(Ta-To)


Question 41:

The water vapor in the air will be saturated when air is at a temperature equal to

  1. Saturation pressure corresponding to the partial pressure exerted by the water vapor
  2. Saturation temperature corresponding to the partial pressure exerted by the dry air
  3. Saturation temperature corresponding to the partial pressure exerted by the water vapor
  4. Saturation pressure corresponding to the partial pressure exerted by the dry air
Correct Answer: 3. Saturation temperature corresponding to the partial pressure exerted by the water vapor.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Air saturation with water vapor is a key concept in thermodynamics and psychrometrics.

  1. Saturation Point:
    • Air becomes saturated with water vapor when the air's temperature reaches a point where the air can no longer hold any more water vapor.
  2. Saturation Temperature:
    • This point is the saturation temperature, which is related to the partial pressure of water vapor in the air.
  3. Condensation: Once the saturation temperature is reached, water vapor starts condensing to liquid.

Therefore, air saturates when it reaches the saturation temperature corresponding to the partial pressure of water vapor.

Final Answer: Saturation temperature corresponding to the partial pressure exerted by the water vapor


Question 42:

The psychrometric wet bulb temperature is obtained

  1. When the bulb of a mercury thermometer is unmodified
  2. When the bulb of a mercury thermometer is dipped in 0.1N NaCl
  3. When the bulb of a mercury thermometer is dipped in 0.01 N NaCl
  4. When the bulb of a mercury thermometer is covered with a wet wick
Correct Answer: 4. When the bulb of a mercury thermometer is covered with a wet wick.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The wet-bulb temperature is a key parameter in psychrometry, and its measurement is done in a specific way.

  1. Wet-Bulb Temperature Measurement:
    • The wet-bulb temperature is measured using a mercury thermometer with a bulb covered by a wet wick.
    • This wick is then exposed to air.
  2. Evaporative Cooling:
    • As water evaporates from the wick, it causes a cooling effect.
    • The thermometer shows a lower temperature than the dry-bulb temperature due to this cooling effect.
  3. Saline Solutions: Dipping the thermometer in saline solutions is not the method for measuring wet-bulb temperature.

Therefore, wet-bulb temperature is obtained when the thermometer bulb is covered with a wet wick.

Final Answer: When the bulb of a mercury thermometer is covered with a wet wick


Question 43:

The chart that is used to determine the boiling point of the solutions of given concentrations is known as:

  1. Duhring chart
  2. Psychometric chart
  3. Refrigerant 12 chart
  4. Steam chart
Correct Answer: 1. Duhring chart.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Specific charts are used for different types of calculations related to thermodynamics and other processes.

  1. Duhring Chart:
    • The Duhring chart is used to determine the boiling point of solutions of known concentrations at different pressures.
    • It plots the boiling points of two different solutions against each other.
  2. Other Charts:
    • Psychometric charts are used to determine properties of air like humidity.
    • Refrigerant 12 charts are related to thermodynamic properties of refrigerants.
    • Steam charts provide information on steam properties.

Therefore, the chart used for finding boiling points of solutions is the Duhring chart.

Final Answer: Duhring chart


Question 44:

The removal of moisture from a typical food product will follow a series of drying rates. Identify the various stages

(A). Initial Adjustment
(B). Constant Rate
(C). Falling rate
(D). Logarithmic Rate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The drying process of foods has distinct phases characterized by their rates.

  1. Initial Adjustment Stage: This is the first stage, where the food material is adjusting to drying conditions (temperature, humidity etc).
  2. Constant Rate Period: Here water evaporates from the surface at a consistent rate.
  3. Falling Rate Period: The drying rate slows down during the falling rate period, as moisture becomes less available.
  4. Other Option: Logarithmic rate is not a defined separate stage, it is more like a description of how the falling rate changes.

Therefore, the correct stages are initial adjustment, constant rate, and falling rate.

Final Answer: (A), (B) and (C) only.


Question 45:

The Drying process that results in moisture removal by Sublimation is

  1. Vacuum Drying
  2. Freeze Drying
  3. Foam mat drying
  4. Spray Drying
Correct Answer: 2. Freeze Drying.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Drying processes differ in the mechanism of water removal.

  1. Freeze Drying:
    • In freeze drying (lyophilization) moisture is removed by sublimation where water transitions directly from solid (ice) to gas (vapor).
    • The food is first frozen, and then the ice is sublimed under low temperatures and vacuum.
  2. Other Methods:
    • Vacuum drying removes water by evaporation.
    • Foam-mat drying uses air to remove moisture after the product is foamed.
    • Spray drying uses hot air to evaporate moisture.

Therefore, the drying process involving sublimation is Freeze Drying.

Final Answer: Freeze Drying


Question 46:

The constant-rate drying period occurs with the product at the

  1. Equilibrium Relative Humidity
  2. Dry bulb temperature of the air
  3. wet bulb temperature of the air
  4. Dew point temperature
Correct Answer: 3. wet bulb temperature of the air.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The constant-rate drying period occurs under specific conditions related to air temperature and humidity.

  1. Constant Rate Drying: The constant rate drying period is when water evaporates from the surface of food at a consistent rate.
  2. Product Temperature: During the constant-rate drying period, the product temperature is close to the wet-bulb temperature of the air.
  3. Energy Balance: At this point, the energy used for evaporation is balanced by the heat transferred by the air.
  4. Other Temperatures: Equilibrium relative humidity, dry bulb temperature and dew point are used in the characterization of air and are not the temperature that is maintained for the product.

Therefore, the product remains at the wet bulb temperature of the air during the constant-rate drying period.

Final Answer: wet bulb temperature of the air


Question 47:

Concentration Gradient is the key driving force in which of the following Mem- brane processes

  1. Reverse Osmosis
  2. Ultrafiltration
  3. Dialysis
  4. Nanofiltration
Correct Answer: 3. Dialysis.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Membrane processes differ in terms of the driving force for separation.

  1. Dialysis:
    • Dialysis uses a concentration gradient to move molecules across a membrane from higher to lower concentrations.
  2. Other Processes:
    • Reverse osmosis applies pressure to overcome osmotic pressure to force water across a membrane.
    • Ultrafiltration and nanofiltration both use pressure as the primary driving force.

Therefore, Dialysis uses concentration gradient as the driving force.

Final Answer: Dialysis


Question 48:

The major types of membrane devices used for reverse-osmosis and ultrafiltra- tion systems are: (A) Plate-and-frame (B). Tubular (C). Spiral-wound (D). Hollow-fiber.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Different types of membrane devices are used based on their configurations.

  1. Plate-and-frame:
    • Plate and frame devices are made of flat sheets separated by spacers and are used in RO and UF.
  2. Tubular:
    • Tubular devices have a cylindrical configuration and are used in RO and UF.
  3. Spiral-wound:
    • Spiral wound devices are made of membrane sheets rolled around a central tube and are used in RO and UF.
  4. Hollow-fiber:
    • Hollow-fiber devices use a bundle of fine tubes and are used in RO and UF.

Therefore, all options are major types of devices for RO and UF systems.

Final Answer: (A), (B), (C) and (D)


Question 49:

In a multi-effect evaporator, steam is supplied externally as a source of heat

  1. Only in the first effect.
  2. Only in the first and last effect.
  3. In all the effects
  4. In No effect
Correct Answer: 1. Only in the first effect.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Multi-effect evaporators use external steam and vapor from previous stages in a specific way.

  1. External Steam Supply:
    • In multi-effect evaporators, external steam is supplied only to the first effect.
  2. Vapor Utilization:
    • The vapor generated from the first effect is then used as a heating source for the second effect, and so on.

Therefore, the external steam is supplied only to the first effect.

Final Answer: Only in the first effect


Question 50:

One of the simplest and perhaps oldest types of evaporators used in the food industry is

  1. Rising film evaporator
  2. Falling film evaporator
  3. Batch-type pan evaporator,
  4. Rotary Vacuum evaporator
Correct Answer: 3. Batch-type pan evaporator.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Evaporators vary in their design and complexity.

  1. Batch-Type Pan Evaporator:
    • The batch-type pan evaporator is one of the simplest and oldest types, consisting of a large open pan heated to evaporate liquid.
  2. Other Options:
    • Rising-film and falling-film evaporators are more sophisticated and involve more complex heat transfer mechanisms.
    • Rotary vacuum evaporators operate under reduced pressures.

Therefore, the simplest and oldest type of evaporator is the Batch-type pan evaporator.

Final Answer: Batch-type pan evaporator


Question 51:

Streptococcus lactis causes

  1. no spoilage of milk
  2. production of antibiotics
  3. color change in milk
  4. no color change in milk
Correct Answer: 4. no color change in milk.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The effects of specific bacteria on milk need to be known to understand food science.

  1. Streptococcus lactis:
    • Streptococcus lactis is a lactic acid bacteria.
    • It is beneficial in dairy products, it produces lactic acid which inhibits spoilage.
  2. Effects:
    • Streptococcus lactis doesn't cause spoilage nor change the color of milk.
    • It primarily works by fermentation to produce lactic acid.

Therefore, Streptococcus lactis results in no color change in milk.

Final Answer: no color change in milk


Question 52:

A dry food like bread is most likely to be spoilt by

  1. Molds
  2. Yeasts
  3. Thermophilic bacteria
  4. Mesophilic bacteria
Correct Answer: 1. Molds.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Microbial growth and spoilage depends on the type of food, moisture levels, and environmental factors.

  1. Molds:
    • Molds can grow in dry and low moisture environments, making them most likely to spoil dry foods like bread.
    • They can grow at low water activities.
  2. Other Options:
    • Yeasts typically need more moisture and higher water activity.
    • Thermophilic bacteria prefer high temperatures.
    • Mesophilic bacteria thrive at moderate temperatures and moisture levels.

Therefore, dry foods are most likely spoiled by Molds.

Final Answer: Molds


Question 53:

The rapid and constant rate of multiplication of an organism occurs during the

  1. Lag Phase
  2. Exponential Phase
  3. Stationary Phase
  4. Decline Phase
Correct Answer: 2. Exponential Phase.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Microbial growth phases are characterized by different rates of multiplication.

  1. Exponential Phase:
    • The exponential (or log) phase is when microorganisms multiply rapidly and at a constant rate.
    • They have all the resources that they need to multiply at this stage.
  2. Other Phases:
    • The lag phase is when the organism is adjusting to its new environment.
    • The stationary phase is when growth slows down due to depleting resources.
    • The decline phase is when the death rate surpasses growth rate.

Therefore, the phase characterized by rapid and constant growth is the Exponential phase.

Final Answer: Exponential Phase


Question 54:

Match List I with List II

List I
(Initial concentration of spores, number/ml)

A. 50,000
B. 5,000
C. 500
D. 50

List II
(Thermal death time, or time required to kill all spores, min at 120 °C)

I. 9
II. 14
III. 8
IV. 10

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: 1. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Thermal death time is affected by the initial spore concentration.

  1. Thermal Death Time:
    • A higher spore concentration typically requires less time for thermal treatment.
    • This is because the spores are often clustered together, and thus they have higher heat transfer as a group
  2. Spore Concentrations: In the question, the initial spore concentrations given and the corresponding approximate thermal death time needed for the given concentrations at 120°C are:
    • 50,000 spores needs 8 min
    • 5,000 spores needs 10 min
    • 500 spores needs 9 min
    • 50 spores needs 14 min

Therefore, the correct matches are A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II.

Final Answer: (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)


Question 55:

Berries and Sauerkraut are classified as

  1. Low-acid foods
  2. Medium-acid foods
  3. High-Acid foods
  4. Acid foods
Correct Answer: 3. High-Acid foods.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Foods are categorized based on their pH levels.

  1. High-Acid Foods:
    • High-acid foods have a pH less than 4.6.
    • Berries and sauerkraut have high levels of organic acids which places them into this category.
  2. Other Options:
    • Low-acid foods have a pH above 4.6.
    • Medium-acid foods have a pH between 3.7 and 4.6.

Therefore, both berries and sauerkraut are classified as High-Acid foods.

Final Answer: High-Acid foods


Question 56:

Malt foods are prepared by blending

(A). 40 per cent cereal malt
(B). 40 per cent groundnut flour
(C).10 per cent Bengal gram flour
(D).10 per cent skim milk powder

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Malt foods have a specific composition that is designed to balance nutrients and provide specific properties.

  1. Malt Food Composition:
    • Malt foods typically contain a blend of cereal malt, groundnut flour, Bengal gram flour, and skim milk powder.
    • These components together make a mixture that is nutrient rich.

Therefore, all the options contribute to the composition of malt foods and thus the correct answer is (A), (B), (C) and (D).

Final Answer: (A), (B), (C) and (D)


Question 57:

Match List I with List II

List I
(Nutrient)

A. Omega-3 fatty acids
B. Dietary Fibre
C. Vitamin B-6
D. Magnesium

List II
% (Daily value)

I. 21.6
II. 17.5
III. 140.4
IV. 9.0

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: 1. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

This question focuses on matching essential nutrients with their approximate daily values.

  1. Omega-3 Fatty Acids:
    • Omega-3 fatty acids are needed in large quantities to show health benefits, so their daily value is 140.4%.
  2. Dietary Fiber:
    • The daily value for dietary fiber is approximately 21.6%.
  3. Vitamin B-6:
    • Vitamin B-6 is required in smaller amounts, with a daily value of 9%.
  4. Magnesium:
    • The daily value for magnesium is 17.5%.

Therefore, the correct matches are: A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II

Final Answer: (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)


Question 58:

The steps involved in the processing of oil and fats from animal tissues are given below (A). Solvent Extraction (B). Refining (C). Rendering (D). Pressing

Choose the correct sequence of steps from the options given below:

  1. (C), (A), (B), (D).
  2. (C), (B), (A), (D).
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C).
  4. (C), (D), (A), (B).
Correct Answer: 4. (C), (D), (A), (B).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Processing of animal fats and oils involves a specific order of steps to extract and refine the products.

  1. Rendering: The first step (C) is rendering, which involves melting and separating the fat from tissues by applying heat.
  2. Pressing: This is followed by step (D) of pressing, which mechanically separates more liquid fat from remaining solids
  3. Solvent Extraction: The next step (A) of solvent extraction involves using solvents to extract residual oil from solids.
  4. Refining: The last step (B) of refining involves processing the extracted oil to improve its quality and remove unwanted components

Therefore, the correct sequence is C, D, A, B.

Final Answer: (C), (D), (A), (B)


Question 59:

The various processing steps in the manufacture of black tea are (A). Fermentation (B). Drying (C). Rolling (D). Withering

Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from the options given below:

  1. (C), (A), (B), (D).
  2. (D), (C), (A), (B).
  3. (D), (A), (C), (B).
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: 2. (D), (C), (A), (B).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Black tea manufacturing has a defined sequence of steps for proper processing.

  1. Withering: The process begins with step (D) of withering where leaves are spread to reduce moisture levels.
  2. Rolling: This step (C) of rolling breaks down the leaves and helps release enzymes.
  3. Fermentation: The rolled leaves then undergo (A) fermentation, which converts polyphenols to the desired compounds.
  4. Drying: Finally, the leaves go through the drying stage (B) to reduce moisture content to an appropriate level.

Therefore, the correct sequence is D, C, A, B.

Final Answer: (D), (C), (A), (B)


Question 60:

Steps in processing of cocoa are: (A). Drying of beans (B). Fermentation (C). Roasting of beans (D). Scooping out of beans and mucilage

Select the correct sequence

  1. (A), (C), (B), (D).
  2. (D), (A), (C), (B).
  3. (D), (B), (C), (A).
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: 3. (D), (B), (C), (A).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Cocoa processing has distinct steps to extract and develop the characteristic flavor and aroma.

  1. Scooping: This is the first step (D), which involves separating the cocoa beans and mucilage from the pods.
  2. Fermentation: The beans then go through step (B) of fermentation to develop precursors for flavor and aroma compounds.
  3. Roasting: Next is (C) the process of roasting the beans, which develops the characteristic aroma and flavor
  4. Drying: The last step is (A) drying to reduce moisture levels from roasted beans.

Therefore, the correct sequence of steps is D, B, C, A.

Final Answer: (D), (B), (C), (A)


Question 61:

Arrange the sequence of pastry preparation (A). Addition of water and working in the dough (B). Flour and salt are mixed and the fat is cut into the flour (C). Baking in oven (D). Shaping of dough

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (D), (C), (B).
  2. (B), (A), (D), (C).
  3. (B), (A), (C), (D).
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A).
Correct Answer: 2. (B), (A), (D), (C).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Pastry making follows a specific order of steps.

  1. Mixing Dry Ingredients: First (B) flour and salt are mixed and the fat is cut in.
  2. Adding Water: Next (A), water is added and the dough is worked.
  3. Shaping: Then (D) the dough is shaped according to the needs of the pastry.
  4. Baking: Finally (C), the pastry is baked in the oven.

Therefore, the correct sequence for pastry preparation is B, A, D, C.

Final Answer: (B), (A), (D), (C)


Question 62:

The type of cookies made from refrigerated stiff dough is

  1. Drop cookies
  2. Rolled cookies
  3. Bar cookies
  4. Sponge cookies
Correct Answer: 2. Rolled cookies.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Cookie types vary based on dough consistency and preparation method.

  1. Rolled Cookies:
    • Rolled cookies use a stiff dough that requires chilling before being rolled out and cut into specific shapes.
  2. Other Cookie Types:
    • Drop cookies are made with soft dough that is dropped directly from a spoon.
    • Bar cookies are baked in a pan and then cut into bars.
    • Sponge cookies are light, airy cookies that are made from whipped egg batter.

Therefore, cookies made from refrigerated stiff dough are Rolled cookies.

Final Answer: Rolled cookies


Question 63:

In the preparation of pastry, the proportion of flour, fat and water is

  1. 5:2:1
  2. 5:4:1
  3. 6:4:1
  4. 6:2:1
Correct Answer: 4. 6:2:1.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Pastry requires a balanced proportion of flour, fat, and water for a good texture.

  1. Pastry Proportions: A common proportion of flour, fat, and water used in pastry making is 6:2:1.
  2. Other Ratios:
    • The ratio of 6:4:1 is more common for short crust pastry.
    • The other ratios are not the correct proportions for flaky pastry.

Therefore, the correct proportion of flour, fat and water for pastry is 6:2:1.

Final Answer: 6:2:1


Question 64:

A good chapati is sweetish and palatable and it requires a minimum sugar percent to give the desired characteristic. The minimum sugar percent should be

  1. 0.5%
  2. 1.0%
  3. 1.5%
  4. 2.5%
Correct Answer: 4. 2.5%.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The palatability of chapati is linked to the level of sugars present.

  1. Sugar Content:
    • For a chapati to be sweetish and palatable, the minimum sugar content should be around 2.5%.
    • This sugar is usually produced by the action of endogenous enzymes during the fermentation process of the dough.

Therefore, the minimum sugar content for a sweetish and palatable chapati is 2.5%.

Final Answer: 2.5%


Question 65:

Match List I with List II

List I
(Type of Fluid)

A. Herschel-Bulkley
B. Newtonian
C. Shear-thinning (pseudoplastic)
D. Shear-thickening

List II
(Examples.)

I. Some types of honey, 40% raw corn starch solution
II. Minced fish paste, Raisin paste
III. Honey, milk
IV. Banana purée, orange juice concentrate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  3. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: 3. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Different types of fluids are characterized by how their viscosity changes under shear stress.

  1. Herschel-Bulkley Fluids:
    • Herschel-Bulkley fluids have a yield stress.
    • They require a threshold shear stress to initiate flow, examples are minced fish paste and raisin paste
  2. Newtonian Fluids:
    • Newtonian fluids have a linear relationship between stress and shear rate, examples are honey and milk
  3. Shear-thinning (Pseudoplastic) Fluids:
    • Shear-thinning fluids become less viscous under shear stress such as banana puree, and orange juice concentrate.
  4. Shear-thickening Fluids:
    • Shear-thickening fluids become more viscous under shear stress, examples are some types of honey and raw corn starch solutions.

Therefore, the correct matches are: A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I.

Final Answer: (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)


Question 66:

Phenomenon in which a substance occurs in different crystalline forms ?

  1. Rancidity
  2. Polymorphism
  3. Polymerization
  4. Denaturation
Correct Answer: 2. Polymorphism.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The question focuses on specific properties related to crystalline structures and chemical reactions.

  1. Polymorphism:
    • Polymorphism refers to the ability of a substance to exist in multiple crystalline forms.
  2. Other Options:
    • Rancidity refers to the spoilage of oils or fats.
    • Polymerization is the combination of monomers into large polymers.
    • Denaturation refers to change in structure of protein.

Therefore, the phenomenon for multiple crystalline forms is Polymorphism.

Final Answer: Polymorphism


Question 67:

Processes that take place during caramelization reaction are (A). Isomerization (B). Inversion of sucrose (C). Putrefaction (D). Condensation reactions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
  3. (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Caramelization involves a series of complex chemical changes.

  1. Isomerization:
    • Caramelization includes isomerization of sugar, converting from one to another structural form.
  2. Inversion of Sucrose:
    • Sucrose is broken into glucose and fructose via the process of inversion.
  3. Condensation reactions:
    • Condensation reactions results in the formation of larger molecules with a loss of water.
  4. Putrefaction:
    • Putrefaction is the decomposition of proteins by bacterial activity and has no part in the caramelization.

Therefore, the correct processes are Isomerization, Inversion of sucrose, and Condensation reactions.

Final Answer: (A), (B) and (D) only


Question 68:

Heat is the most important physical agent. For every 10°C rise in temperature the increase in denaturation rate of protein is

  1. 300 fold
  2. 600 fold
  3. 900 fold
  4. 1200 fold
Correct Answer: 2. 600 fold.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Protein denaturation is very sensitive to temperature changes.

  1. Denaturation and Temperature:
    • The rate of protein denaturation increases with temperature and each 10°C increase causes the denaturation rate to increase by approximately 600 fold.
  2. Exponential Effect: This illustrates the highly exponential effect of temperature on protein structure

Therefore, the correct answer is 600 fold.

Final Answer: 600 fold


Question 69:

Match List I with List II

List I
(Material)

A. Air (at 20°C)
B. Water (at 20°C)
C. Alloys
D. Insulating Materials

List II
(Thermal Conductivity W/m°C)

I. 0.597
II. 10-120
III. 0.035-0.173
IV. 0.0251

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
Correct Answer: 4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Thermal conductivity varies with different materials.

  1. Air:
    • Air has a very low thermal conductivity (0.0251 W/m°C), making it a good insulator.
  2. Water:
    • Water has a thermal conductivity of around 0.597 W/m°C.
  3. Alloys:
    • Alloys typically have a higher thermal conductivity ranging from 10-120 W/m°C
  4. Insulating Materials:
    • Insulating materials have a low thermal conductivity, generally in the range of 0.035-0.173 W/m°C.

Therefore, the correct matches are: A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III.

Final Answer: (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)


Question 70:

For the best acceptability, texture and quality of idli, the proportion of rice to black-gram dhal is 2:1. This mucilaginous material is a complex carbohydrate containing

  1. Amylose and Amylopectin
  2. Galactose and Amylose
  3. Galactose and Arabinose
  4. Maltose and Galactose
Correct Answer: 3. Galactose and Arabinose.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

The mucilaginous material in black gram is crucial for idli structure and texture.

  1. Mucilaginous Material: The complex carbohydrate that forms the mucilaginous material in black gram dal consists mainly of galactose and arabinose.
  2. Polysaccharide Nature: It is this combination of polysaccharides which makes the batter viscous and helps in idli formation.

Therefore, the mucilaginous material in black gram dal contains Galactose and Arabinose.

Final Answer: Galactose and Arabinose


Question 71:

Percent of alcohol present in fortified wines is about

  1. 5 percent
  2. 10 percent
  3. 15 percent
  4. 20 percent
Correct Answer: 4. 20 percent.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Fortified wines have a higher alcohol content compared to regular wines.

  1. Fortified Wines:
    • Fortified wines typically have a higher alcohol content around 20%, as opposed to regular wines.
    • This higher content is achieved through the addition of distilled spirits like brandy.

Therefore, the alcohol content of fortified wine is typically around 20 percent.

Final Answer: 20 percent


Question 72:

Match List I with List II

List I
(Process)

A. Filtration
B. Centrifugation
C. Mixing
D. Settling

List II
(Product)

I. Cream
II. Foam
III. Cordial
IV. Waste treatment

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  3. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: 1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Different separation processes are linked to specific food or beverage products.

  1. Filtration:
    • Filtration is generally used for removing solid particles from a liquid, such as in waste water treatment.
  2. Centrifugation:
    • Centrifugation is a separation technique which helps to separate components based on their density like separating cream from milk.
  3. Mixing:
    • Mixing is a process which combines various liquids to produce products such as cordial beverages.
  4. Settling:
    • Settling is a simple method of solid liquid separation and it is used to separate solid particles from liquid.

Therefore, the correct matches are: A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II

Final Answer: (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)


Question 73:

The sequence of steps during spray drying of liquid foods

(A). Cyclone separation
(B). Atomization
(C). Hot air drying
(D). Pumping of liquid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (B), (A), (C), (D).
  2. (C), (B), (A), (D).
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C).
  4. (D), (B), (C), (A).
Correct Answer: 4. (D), (B), (C), (A).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Spray drying of liquids follows a series of specific steps.

  1. Pumping:
    • The process begins with (D) where the liquid food is pumped into the spray dryer.
  2. Atomization:
    • Then, the liquid food is atomized in step (B) which forms fine droplets.
  3. Hot Air Drying:
    • The fine droplets are then dried using hot air in step (C).
  4. Cyclone Separation: Finally (A) the dried powder is separated using cyclone separation.

Therefore, the correct sequence is D, B, C, A.

Final Answer: (D), (B), (C), (A)


Question 74:

Which of the following are the correct steps of a HACCP plan (A). Monitoring (B). Identification (C). Stimulation (D). Documentation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only.
  3. (B), (C) and (D).
  4. (A), (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: 1. (A), (B) and (D) only.
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

HACCP is a system for identifying and controlling hazards in food production.

  1. Key Steps: The core steps of a HACCP plan include:
    • Identification of hazards (B).
    • Monitoring critical control points (A) to ensure that safety parameters are met.
    • Documentation of procedures (D).
  2. Not Included: Stimulation is not part of a HACCP plan.

Therefore, the correct steps in HACCP are identification, monitoring, and documentation.

Final Answer: (A), (B) and (D) only


Question 75:

Match List I with List II

List I
(Process)

A. Nano Filtration
B. Micro Filtration
C. Ultrafiltration
D. Reverse Osmosis

List II
(Particle Size in Micrometers)

IV. 0.001-0.01
I. 0.1-1.0
II. 0.01-1.0
III. <0.001

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: 3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III).
View Solution

Detailed Solution:

Membrane filtration processes are differentiated based on particle size they separate.

  1. Nano Filtration (NF):
    • NF separates molecules in size range of 0.001-0.01 μm.
  2. Micro Filtration (MF):
    • MF removes particles with sizes ranging from 0.1 to 1.0 μm.
  3. Ultrafiltration (UF):
    • UF removes particles sized from 0.01 to 1.0 μm.
  4. Reverse Osmosis (RO):
    • RO removes very small particles with a size below 0.001 μm.

Therefore, the correct matches are: A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III.

Final Answer: (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)



*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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