Question 1:

The Ecological Concept of disease suggests that:

1. Absence of disease to be healthy
2. Absence of pain and discomfort with continuous adaptation to surrounding changes
3. A person's health is affected by social, psychosocial, cultural, and economic factors
4. Social, economic, political, and environmental factors can influence health

Question 2:

Lifestyle diseases are related to the way people live, reflecting a range of social values, attitudes, and activities. Considering the above information, which of the following conditions is NOT related to behavioral and socio-cultural conditions:

1. Obesity, lung cancer
2. Smoking, alcoholism, and drug addiction
3. Coronary heart diseases
4. Poverty, malnutrition, ill-health, high infant and child mortality

Question 3:

In order to identify the underlying causes or risk factors of disease and to aid researchers, we need some epidemiological principles and methods, which are called:

1. Measuring the disease frequency methods and principles
2. Pharmacoepidemiology
3. Analytical epidemiology
4. Mortality rate

Question 4:

The causative factors of disease are classified as agent, host, and environment. These three factors are called the Epidemiological Triad. In order to cause a disease, which of the following processes or conditions is essential:

1. Prevention
2. Interaction
3. Protection
4. Advancement

Question 5:

The primary health care services are based on essential principles discussed in the Alma-Ata Declaration. These principles are:

1. Intersectoral coordination
2. Appropriate technology
3. Community participation
4. Equitable distribution

Please arrange the above principles in the best and correct sequence so that primary health care services can be accessible to the whole community:

1. (4), (3), (1), (2)
2. (4), (3), (2), (1)
3. (1), (2), (4), (3)
4. (1), (2), (3), (4)

Question 1:

The Ecological Concept of disease suggests that -

(1) Absence of disease to be healthy
(2) Absence of pain and discomfort with continuous adaptation to surrounding changes
(3) A person's health is affected by social, psychosocial, cultural, and economic factors
(4) Social, economic, political, and environmental factors can influence health

Question 2:

Lifestyle diseases are related to the way people live reflecting a whole range of social values, attitudes, and activities. It is composed of cultural and behavioral patterns, and the lifestyles are learned through social interaction with parents, peer groups, friends, and siblings, and through social and mass media. Considering the above information in the light of determinants of health, which of the following conditions is not related to behavioral and socio-cultural conditions:

(1) Obesity, lung cancer
(2) Smoking, alcoholism, and drug addiction
(3) Coronary heart diseases
(4) Poverty, malnutrition, ill-health, high infant and child mortality

Question 3:

In order to identify the underlying causes or risk factors of disease and to aid the researchers, we need some epidemiological principles and methods which are called as:

(1) Measuring the disease frequency methods and principles
(2) Pharmacoepidemiology
(3) Analytical epidemiology
(4) Mortality rate

Question 4:

The causative factors of disease are classified as agent, host, and environment. These three factors are called the Epidemiological Triad. In order to cause a disease which of the following processes or conditions is very much essential:

(1) Prevention
(2) Interaction
(3) Protection
(4) Advancement

Question 5:

The Primary health care services are based on certain essential principles which were discussed in the Alma-Ata Declaration. These principles are:

(A) Intersectoral coordination
(B) Appropriate technology
(C) Community participation
(D) Equitable distribution

Please arrange the above principles in the best and correct sequence so that the primary health care services can be accessible to the whole community:

(1) (D), (C), (A), (B)
(2) (D), (C), (B), (A)
(3) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(4) (A), (B), (C), (D)

Question 6:

According to the Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998 of India, the generation of waste containing cytostatic drugs (often used in cancer therapy) will be classified under which of the following health care waste:

(1) Infectious waste
(2) Wastes with high content of heavy metals
(3) Genotoxic waste
(4) Pathological or chemical waste

Question 7:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 8:

Among the health hazards of health-care waste, all of the following categories of individuals are highly exposed to these hazards EXCEPT:

(1) Medical doctors, nurses, health-care auxiliaries, hospital maintenance personnel
(2) Patients and visitors in hospitals
(3) Laundry workers in health establishments, waste handling and transportation workers
(4) Workers in waste disposal in hotels and cafeterias and other tourist establishments

Question 9:

The process of mixing waste with cement and other substances before disposal to minimize the risk of toxic substances contained in the wastes and to prevent its migration into the surface water or groundwater is:

(1) Incineration
(2) Chemical disinfection
(3) Wet Thermal treatment or Screw-feed technology
(4) Inertization

Question 10:

Water intended for human consumption should be both safe and wholesome. Which of the following criteria can make it unfit for drinking:

(1) Free from pathogenic agents
(2) Free from harmful chemical substances
(3) Usable for domestic purposes
(4) Water carries some odour although it looks clear and it is supplied through some vendors

Question 11:

When we want to use the cheapest and most practical means of providing water to smaller communities, we use the:

(1) Ground water
(2) Sea water after desalting and demineralization
(3) Surface water
(4) Rain water

Question 12:

Please arrange the activities in the medical record journey after admission in the correct sequence:

(A) Copy of Admission Record
(B) Admission Check Desk
(C) Incomplete Records Control Desk
(D) Admitting Office

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) (D), (A), (B), (C)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 13:

The control of air pollution is ultimately an engineering problem. Which of the following procedures have been recommended by the World Health Organization for the prevention and control of air pollution?

(1) Isolation, quarantine, and travel restrictions
(2) Containment, replacement, dilution, legislation, international action
(3) Chlorination, disinfection, and regulatory compliance by different sectors
(4) Proper ventilation and prevention of overcrowding in cities and proper manpower planning

Question 14:

One of the control measures that is widely used in conjunction with other methods is using a wide range of small fishes in burrow pits, sewage oxidation ponds, ornamental ponds, cisterns, and farm ponds. This can help in control of which of the following Arthropod-borne diseases?

(1) Fleas, rat fleas, sand fleas, and reduviid bugs
(2) Crab lice, head and body lice
(3) Mosquitoes
(4) House flies, sandflies, black flies, and all flies living near water bodies

Question 15:

Which one of the following statements doesn't explain how an individual behaves in certain situations?

(1) Making adjustments means a behaviour to meet the needs of a given situation
(2) Internal changes brought about by emotions are also part of a person's behaviour
(3) Isolating himself or herself and avoiding others
(4) It may include losing temper and complaining to everyone when a person fails in anything

Question 16:

Learning depends upon the intelligence or mental faculty of an individual. The curve of learning reaches its peak in which of the following age groups?

(1) Between 22 and 25 years of age
(2) Between 15 and 25 years of age
(3) Between 10 and 15 years of age only
(4) Between 30 and 35 years of age

Question 17:

The number of deaths (from all causes) per 1000 estimated mid-year population in one year in a given place is the:

(1) Crude death rate
(2) Specific death rate
(3) Case fatality rate
(4) Proportional mortality rate

Question 18:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 19:

Which one of the following are a unit of study in the Cross-sectional or prevalence Analytical study?

(1) Patients
(2) Population
(3) Individuals
(4) Healthy people

Question 20:

What do you call an epidemic which is most often of infectious origin and results from person-to-person transmission of an infectious agent (e.g., hepatitis A and polio)?

(1) Common source epidemics
(2) Slow or modern epidemics
(3) Propagated epidemics
(4) Multiple exposure epidemics

Question 21:

Cohort study has the following characteristics:

(A) A Cohort study proceeds from 'effect to cause'
(B) A Cohort study starts with the disease
(C) A Cohort study involves a large number of subjects
(D) A Cohort study generally yields only an estimate of RR (odds ratio)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 22:

A study in the UK of 5174 births at home and 11,156 births in hospitals showed perinatal mortality rates of 5.4 per 1000 in the home births and 27.8 per 1000 in the hospital births. It might be concluded that homes are a safer place for delivery of births than hospitals. However, hospitals attract women at high risk for delivery because of their special equipment and expertise, and this might be due to this fact alone. What do you call this type of association?

(1) Indirect association
(2) Direct or causal association
(3) Multifactorial association
(4) Spurious association

Question 23:

Polio and herpes zoster are the examples of the following type of diseases:

(1) Sporadic
(2) Endemic
(3) Zoonosis
(4) Epidemic

Question 24:

Which of the following statements about nosocomial infections are correct?

(A) Nosocomial infections can be an incubating condition at the time of admission
(B) Nosocomial infections are generally acquired from a hospital or health care facility
(C) It includes infections after the discharge of the patient
(D) It denotes a new order of illness and not related to the patient's primary condition

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 25:

Which of the following defenses are not related to Passive immunity?

(A) By administration of an antibody-containing preparation
(B) By transfer of maternal antibodies across the placenta
(C) By transfer of lymphocytes to induce immunity
(D) Following immunization with an antigen which may be a killed vaccine

Question 26:

The following are some of the characteristics of Live vaccines:

(A) Live vaccines are more potent because they multiply in the host
(B) Live vaccines can engage certain tissues of the body
(C) Live vaccines have all the major and minor antigenic components
(D) Live vaccines have a larger antigenic dose than what is injected

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 27:

With regards to the Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act, 1994, a Genetic Clinic means:

(A) An institute, hospital, nursing home, or any place, by whatever name called, which provides for genetic counselling to patients
(B) A laboratory and includes a place where facilities are provided for conducting analysis or tests of samples received
(C) An institute, hospital, nursing home, or any clinic or place, by whatever name called, which is used for conducting pre-natal diagnostic procedures
(D) It includes all pre-natal diagnostic procedures and pre-natal diagnostic tests

Question 28:

Under the Transplantation of Human Organs and Tissues Act, 1994, what do you mean by a "tissue bank":

(A) A facility registered under section 14A for carrying out any activity relating to the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage and distribution of tissues and should include a blood bank also
(B) A facility registered under section 14A for carrying out any activity relating to the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage and distribution of tissues but does not include a blood bank
(C) A facility registered under section 18A for carrying out any activity relating to the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage and distribution of tissues
(D) A facility registered under section 20A for carrying out any activity relating to the recovery, screening, testing, processing, storage and distribution of tissues

Question 29:

Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the following options are given below with regard to what a complainant means:

(A) A consumer
(B) One or more consumers, where there are numerous consumers having different interests
(C) The Central Government or any State Government
(D) Any voluntary consumer association registered under any law for the time being in force

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 30:

What is the primary ethical principle that underlines the confidentiality of medical records?

(A) Justice
(B) Beneficence
(C) Autonomy
(D) Non-maleficence

Question 31:

The following requirements can be enforced by the Infection Control Committee in Hospitals:

(A) Employee personnel's health, dress code, in-service education, etc.
(B) Isolation Procedures, Rodent control and preventive maintenance
(C) Environment specimens like trash, garbage storage, proper ventilation
(D) Systems control, including evaluation of systems, etc.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 32:

The following are the sequence of events for admission of a patient in a Hospital:

(A) Outpatient/Emergency encounter
(B) After care
(C) Prognosis
(D) Diagnosis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (D), (C), (B)
(2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 33:

The following department in the Hospital does not provide services to inpatients:

(A) Emergency department
(B) Obstetrics and Gynaecology Department
(C) Intensive Care Unit (ICU)
(D) Radiology Department

Question 34:

The common measures of patient satisfaction in the inpatient services of a hospital are:

(A) Average length of stay
(B) Number of outpatient visits and admission rate
(C) Patient satisfaction surveys
(D) Patient interviews or discussions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (A) and (B) only

Question 35:

The formulation of policies and procedures for medico-legal cases, police procedures and reporting, notifiable deaths, disposal of dead bodies and autopsy are the responsibilities of which of the following:

(A) Registration and medical records
(B) Reception/Enquiry
(C) Human resource department
(D) Emergency department

Question 36:

Which of these conditions doesn't satisfy a patient for AM admit?

(A) Pre-operative tests done in the morning of the day of the surgery
(B) Admission in the morning of the day of the surgery
(C) Admission in the afternoon of previous day of the surgery
(D) Pre-operative tests done earlier as an outpatient

Question 37:

Patients who require continuous individual observation and care for cardiac conditions and have to utilize electronic monitoring and therapy are part of the:

(A) Medical ICU
(B) Coronary ICU
(C) Neonatal ICU
(D) Surgical ICU

Question 38:

During the facilities planning for a new hospital, a newborn nursery was planned with a wash basin equipped with controls, provision for storing linen, nursery equipment with emergency carts and a nurses' emergency calling system. Apart from these facilities, what other essentials are required in this newborn nursery?

(A) Glazed observation windows, an examination room and a treatment room
(B) Only an examination room is required in newborn nurseries
(C) General observation windows are sufficient for newborn nurseries
(D) Triage room should be separate only in the newborn nurseries

Question 39:

Which one is a correct description of CAT Scan?

(A) Safe and reliable radiographic examination of the breasts
(B) Used for imaging dense tissues like slices for a 3-D view
(C) To see soft tissues like muscles, fat and internal organs
(D) Images of the head or entire parts of the body

Question 40:

Equipment and medical supplies are normally assembled on crash carts and kept ready to roll at any time. Where can we find these carts in the hospital?

(A) Surgery
(B) Labour and delivery room
(C) ICU
(D) Laboratory

Question 41:

The Central Sterilization and Supply Department (CSSD) is not responsible for which of the following functions?

(A) Preparation and autoclaving of all linen packs and gloves
(B) Preparation and autoclaving of all surgical instruments, syringes and needles
(C) Storage of all surgical instruments, linen packs, etc.
(D) Training personnel in correct processing procedures to gain a higher level of efficiency

Question 42:

The basic steps in conducting a clinical trial are as follows:

(A) Drawing a protocol
(B) Manipulation, Follow-up and Assessing the outcomes
(C) Randomization
(D) Selecting a reference and experimental population

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(3) (A), (D), (C), (B)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 43:

The International Classification of Diseases is one significant contribution of the following organization:

(A) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
(B) World Health Organization (WHO)
(C) United Nations International Children's Educational Fund (UNICEF)
(D) Medicare and Medicaid in US

Question 44:

Indian Pharmaceutical market is growing and it is called the "Pharmacy of the world". What are the reasons behind this achievement?

(A) India is the largest manufacturer and supplier of Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API) in the world
(B) India has been the largest supplier of generic drugs and also has been supplying a lot of vaccines during the COVID-19 also
(C) India is home to all the European drug manufacturers
(D) The drug imports are higher than the exports in the field of pharmaceutical products

Question 45:

What are the applications of Artificial Intelligence in Healthcare?

(A) Disease Control and Prevention
(B) Clinical Decision Support Services and Interoperability
(C) In pandemics, to trace cases and suggest isolation and quarantine requirements
(D) Forecasting of cases and trends in healthcare

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 46:

One of the Nobel prizes in 2023 was given for the discovery and use of a new technology in healthcare for the benefit of the community all over the world. What was the field for which this Nobel prize was given?

(A) Medicinal chemistry
(B) Auto-immune diseases
(C) Vaccine development
(D) Pharmacology

Question 47:

In research, when an exposure and outcome are strongly associated with a third variable, it is stated as:

(A) Confounding
(B) Matching
(C) Recall bias
(D) Retrospective cohort

Question 48:

The standard form that must be filled before starting a surgery is:

(A) SF 520
(B) SF 521
(C) SF 522
(D) SF 532

Question 49:

The thickness of the lead jacket that is maintained for X-Ray procedure is:

(A) 250 mm
(B) 2.5 mm
(C) 25 mm
(D) 0.25 mm

Question 50:

In genetics, which of the following diseases are linked to recessive sex-linked traits:

(A) Hydrocephalus
(B) Haemophilia type A and B
(C) G6 PD Deficiency
(D) Marfan's syndrome

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 51:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 52:

Which one of the following criteria was not defined by Bhore Committee as part of comprehensive health care?

(A) Create and maintain a healthy environment both in home and working places
(B) Immunization against major infectious diseases
(C) To be as close to the beneficiaries as possible
(D) Provide adequate preventive, curative and promotive health services

Question 53:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 54:

Which of the following is a suggested norm for nurses in our healthcare delivery system?

(A) 1 per 10000 population
(B) 1 per 3500 population
(C) 1 per 30000 population
(D) 1 per 5000 population

Question 55:

The level of healthcare where most of the health problems of an individual, family, and community can be resolved and dealt with:

(A) Preventive care level
(B) Tertiary care level
(C) Secondary care level
(D) Primary care level

Question 56:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 57:

The primary aim of the National Health Policy, 2017 are:

(A) To inform, clarify, strengthen and prioritize the role of the Government in shaping health systems
(B) Prevention of diseases and promotion of good health through cross sectoral actions
(C) Building knowledge base and better financial protection strategies
(D) Strengthening regulations and slowly converting public hospitals to private hospitals to save the financial expenditure of the Government

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 58:

The following are some of the patient safety issues in the Indian healthcare system EXCEPT:

(A) Poor and fragmented legal and regulatory context for healthcare practice and service delivery
(B) Negligence of the Consumer Protection Act and patients' rights
(C) Lack of funding for patient safety-based research in India
(D) More engagement and initiatives of public hospitals in the NABH accreditation

Question 59:

Which of the following programme indicator is used by NFHS to find out inequality in a particular caste or tribe?

(A) No exposure to media
(B) Illiteracy
(C) Unsafe deliveries or Non-utilization of ANC services
(D) Prevalence of anaemia

Question 60:

The total software requirements of a typical hospital are in which of the following areas?

(A) Clinical applications
(B) Inpatient care
(C) Outpatient care
(D) Business applications

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (D) only
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 61:

In the DRG system, patients with similar diagnosis and treatment procedures are grouped together and they are called:

(A) Patient categories
(B) Diagnostic clusters
(C) DRG families
(D) Health conditions clusters

Question 62:

Approximately, 70 percentage of the world's healthcare expenditure is allocated using which of the following techniques for reimbursement and resource allocation:

(A) Out-of-pocket expenditure
(B) Social health insurance
(C) International classification of Diseases (ICD)
(D) Disease burden data

Question 63:

Code Blue in a Hospital is activated in which of the following type of situation?

(A) Bomb threat
(B) Security emergencies
(C) Medical emergency
(D) Fire

Question 64:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 65:

Arrange the following terms in a sequential order:

(A) Disaster impact
(B) Rehabilitation
(C) Response
(D) Reconstruction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (C) - (B) - (D)
(2) (A) - (B) - (C) - (D)
(3) (B) - (A) - (D) - (C)
(4) (C) - (B) - (D) - (A)

Question 66:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 67:

Organizing for planning a hospital consists of the following steps. Please arrange them in the correct sequence:

(A) Developing a decision-making mechanism
(B) Selecting the professional hospital planning team
(C) Organizing the planning team and formulating operating procedures
(D) Appointing a hospital consultant

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (B) - (C) - (D)
(2) (A) - (B) - (D) - (C)
(3) (B) - (A) - (D) - (C)
(4) (C) - (B) - (D) - (A)

Question 68:

Some of the steps for transformation from paper to electronic health records are given below. Arrange them in the correct sequence:

(A) Feasibility study and allocation of resources
(B) Prepare a project plan
(C) Arrange for Training and Development of staff
(D) Implement the plan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C) - (A) - (B) - (D)
(2) (A) - (C) - (B) - (D)
(3) (B) - (A) - (D) - (C)
(4) (C) - (B) - (D) - (A)

Question 69:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (C), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 70:

Arrange the sequence of functions of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee in a hospital:

(A) Develop a formulary of accepted drugs
(B) Issue written communication to physicians, pharmacists, nursing and administrative staff regarding change in the formulary
(C) Recommend drugs to be stocked in nursing units and other areas
(D) Prevent unnecessary duplication of same basic drugs to be stocked

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (D) - (C) - (B)
(2) (A) - (B) - (C) - (D)
(3) (B) - (A) - (D) - (C)
(4) (C) - (B) - (D) - (A)

Question 71:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 72:

In Hospital Engineering services, the process of network planning involves the following steps given below. Kindly arrange them in the correct sequence.

(A) Network Programming
(B) Constraints and sequential relationships of activities
(C) Breakdown of project activities
(D) Listing of activities

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (B) - (C) - (D)
(2) (A) - (B) - (D) - (C)
(3) (B) - (A) - (D) - (C)
(4) (C) - (D) - (B) - (A)

Question 73:

Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
(4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 74:

In an outbreak of an infection at a regional or global level, how are the steps arranged in the correct order?

(A) Control measures
(B) Identification
(C) Confirmation
(D) Verification

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (C) - (B) - (D) - (A)
(2) (A) - (B) - (C) - (D)
(3) (B) - (C) - (D) - (A)
(4) (A) - (C) - (D) - (B)

Question 75:

Which is the first step in fiscal planning in hospital administration?

(1) Assess the needs to be covered in the budget
(2) Evaluation and periodic review
(3) Develop a plan
(4) Implementation