CUET PG 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF for MPT (March 20 - Shift 2)
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CUET PG 2024 MPT Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
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CUET PG 2024 MPT Questions with Solutions
Question 1:
The musculocutaneous nerve does not supply:
View Solution
The musculocutaneous nerve innervates muscles in the anterior compartment of the arm, primarily responsible for elbow flexion. These muscles include the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii (both heads), and brachialis. The pectoralis minor, however, is innervated by the medial pectoral nerve, not the musculocutaneous nerve.
Question 2:
Superior oblique (an extraocular muscle) is supplied by which cranial nerve?
View Solution
The superior oblique muscle, one of the extraocular muscles controlling eye movement, is uniquely innervated by the trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV). The other extraocular muscles are generally innervated by the oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) and the abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI) innervates the lateral rectus. The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) does not innervate any of the eye muscles.
Question 3:
Superior Gluteal Nerve supplies the following muscle:
View Solution
The superior gluteal nerve primarily innervates the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and the tensor fascia lata muscles. These muscles are located in the gluteal region and are critical for hip abduction and stabilization. The gluteus maximus muscle is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve. The Gemellus inferior and Obturator internus muscles are supplied by the nerve to obturator internus.
Question 4:
Aplastic anemia is due to:
View Solution
Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce blood cells, resulting in pancytopenia (reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets). It is a direct issue with the marrow's ability to produce blood cells and is not usually caused by nutritional deficiencies like iron, vitamin B12, or folic acid, which lead to other types of anemia.
Question 5:
Fick principle is used as a:
View Solution
The Fick principle is a physiological principle used to determine cardiac output. It is based on the amount of oxygen consumed per unit of time, the arteriovenous oxygen difference, and the rate of oxygen uptake. By measuring the oxygen consumption and the oxygen concentration in the arteries and veins, cardiac output can be calculated.
Question 6:
The correct formula for the alveolar ventilation is:
View Solution
Alveolar ventilation is the volume of air that reaches the alveoli (where gas exchange occurs) per minute. The correct formula accounts for the volume of air in each breath (tidal volume) and the volume of air in the conducting airways (dead space) that does not participate in gas exchange. The formula is: Alveolar Ventilation = (Tidal Volume - Dead Space) x Respiratory Rate.
Question 7:
The protection furnished by society to its members through a series of public measures against social and economic distresses is called as:
View Solution
Social security refers to the public measures that a society implements to provide protection to its members against various economic and social distresses, such as unemployment, old age, disability, or sickness. These measures typically include programs like unemployment benefits, pensions, healthcare, and disability assistance. Social welfare is a broader term covering all support systems. Social work is a profession that provides social services, while social reform refers to changes in society to improve social conditions.
Question 8:
Which of the following is major effect of “Vrikshasana” pose in Yoga?
View Solution
Vrikshasana, also known as the tree pose, is primarily a balancing asana. It helps improve the sense of balance, stability, and focus. Though it may also strengthen the legs and enhance focus, the primary and major effect of this asana is the improvement in balance.
Question 9:
According to Piaget's stages of cognitive growth,‘emergence of language' is major hallmark of:
View Solution
According to Piaget, the preoperational stage, which typically occurs between the ages of 2 to 7 years, is when children develop the capacity to use symbols, which is essential for language development. It's in this stage that language skills emerge significantly and symbolic play is common.
Question 10:
The action of biceps brachii muscle on the elbow joint is an example of which class/order of lever?
View Solution
In a third-class lever system, the effort (or muscle force) is between the fulcrum (joint) and the load (resistance). In the case of the biceps brachii acting on the elbow joint, the elbow joint acts as the fulcrum, the biceps contraction provides the effort, and the weight of the forearm and hand represent the load. This configuration is a third-class lever.
Question 11:
The paralysis of the dorsiflexors of the foot will result in _________ of the affected extremity and there could be ________ during swing phase of gait.
View Solution
Paralysis of the dorsiflexors results in a functional lengthening of the affected leg because the foot cannot be lifted adequately off the ground. This leads to compensatory mechanisms like increased knee and hip flexion during the swing phase to clear the foot from the ground, creating a high stepping gait.
Question 12:
The superior zygapophyseal facet in a typical lumbar vertebra faces _______ and the inferior zygapophyseal facet faces ________. Their orientation limits ________
View Solution
In a typical lumbar vertebra, the superior articular facets face posteromedially, and the inferior articular facets face anterolaterally. The orientation of the facets primarily allows for flexion and extension but limits rotation in the lumbar region. This facet orientation enhances the stability and load-bearing capabilities of the lumbar spine while restricting excessive twisting.
Question 13:
Which of the following does not cause oedema?
View Solution
Oedema (swelling) is primarily caused by fluid movement from the vasculature to the interstitial space. Factors like decreased plasma oncotic pressure (less proteins to hold fluid in vessels), increased capillary hydrostatic pressure (pushing fluid out), or lymphatic obstruction (not draining interstitial fluid properly) promote oedema. Decreased capillary permeability, conversely, would reduce the flow of fluids into the interstitial space, decreasing or preventing oedema.
Question 14:
Which of the following is the most important rate-limiting enzyme of the glycolysis pathway?
View Solution
Phosphofructokinase (PFK) is the most important rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis. It catalyses the irreversible conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate, and its activity is controlled by several factors, including ATP, AMP, and citrate. The other enzymes, while necessary for glycolysis, do not control the overall rate of the pathway.
Question 15:
______ is considered an essential component of a rehabilitation program to reduce the risk of musculoskeletal injury or re-injury during activities that involve high intensity deceleration and quick changes of direction.
View Solution
Eccentric training, which involves muscle lengthening under load, is crucial for building the strength and stability necessary for high-intensity deceleration and quick changes of direction. It is particularly important for reducing the risk of musculoskeletal injuries in activities that involve rapid movements and changes in direction. Concentric training mainly builds muscle, while isokinetic and isoinertial training have their own benefits but don't as specifically address high-intensity deceleration.
Question 16:
The corrective exercise for diastasis recti is:
View Solution
Head lifts in the hook-lying position with manual approximation of the rectus abdominis is a gentle and effective method for correcting diastasis recti. It focuses on contracting the muscles to bring them closer, encouraging the linea alba to come together. The crossed arms help to support and enhance this movement. Other exercises, especially those involving lower abdominal work, may worsen the condition before its treatment.
Question 17:
The medial glide to the subtalar joint of the foot is used to increase:
View Solution
A medial glide at the subtalar joint is a mobilization technique used to improve eversion of the foot. In biomechanics, subtalar eversion refers to the outward rotation of the sole of the foot. This motion occurs primarily at the subtalar joint, located between the talus and calcaneus bones. Conversely, a lateral glide is used to improve inversion.
Question 18:
Monophasic sinusoidal currents introduced by Pierre Bernard are called as:
View Solution
Diadynamic currents, developed by Pierre Bernard, are monophasic sinusoidal currents characterized by their low frequency and specific waveforms. They are often used in electrotherapy for pain relief, muscle stimulation, and promoting tissue healing. High Voltage Pulsed Galvanic Stimulation (HVPGS), Galvanic and Faradic currents have different waveforms and frequencies.
Question 19:
During the application of cold packs, the skin temperature is usually around:
View Solution
When applying cold packs, the desired therapeutic effect is typically achieved by lowering the skin temperature to a range between 5-10°C (41-50°F). This range effectively reduces inflammation, pain, and muscle spasm, while also minimizing tissue damage from excessive cooling.
Question 20:
In Ultraviolet Radiation (UVR) therapy, E3 is:
View Solution
In UVR therapy, the minimal erythema dose (MED) is classified from El to E4, depending on the required exposure level to achieve therapeutic results. E3 in UVR therapy is defined as 5 times the minimal erythema dose (E1).
Question 21:
Pressure is generally used to hasten scar maturation and to minimize scar hypertrophy during healing of burns. But it may not be required in the case of:
View Solution
Pressure therapy is often used in the management of burn scars to help with scar maturation and reduce the risk of hypertrophic scar development. However, it is generally not needed for wounds that heal quickly (within 10-14 days), as the risk of hypertrophic scar formation is much lower in such cases. Conversely, if the scar is less than 6 months old, if skin is grafted over the wound or if the scar is still red then pressure therapy is required.
Question 22:
Recommendation for developing and maintaining cardiovascular fitness in healthy adults is:
View Solution
Current guidelines recommend that healthy adults engage in moderate-intensity aerobic exercise for 20-60 minutes per day, 3-5 days per week. An RPE level of 12-16 is typically considered moderate intensity. This moderate-intensity is effective for improving and maintaining cardiovascular fitness. Exercising 5 days a week for longer durations or high intensity is not required for maintenance and also increases the chances of injury. Exercising 3 times a week for lesser duration is also not enough to maintain cardiovascular fitness.
Question 23:
Which of the following are NOT the age-related physiological changes:
View Solution
Age-related physiological changes often include: Loss of motor neurons which lead to decreases in muscle strength, Reduction in the size and number of Fast twitch Type II fibres (which are responsible for high force and quick movements), and increase in non-contractile tissue (collagen), leading to muscle stiffness. Type 1 fibres which help in low force and sustained contraction show very little atrophy due to aging.
Question 24:
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Boutonniere deformity?
View Solution
Boutonniere deformity is characterized by a flexion deformity at the Proximal Interphalangeal (PIP) joint and hyperextension deformity at the Distal Interphalangeal (DIP) joint of the affected finger. In this deformity there is tear or rupture of the central slip of the extensor tendon. Mild cases can be managed using splints. Surgery is considered only for severe cases of total rupture.
Question 25:
In cervical Upper Crossed Syndrome:
View Solution
Upper Crossed Syndrome is characterized by muscle imbalances in the neck and shoulder region. In this syndrome deep neck flexors, rhomboids and serratus anterior are typically weak and the pectoralis major, pectoralis minor and upper trapezius muscles are usually overactive. Additionally, the lower trapezius is weak.
Question 26:
The patient is lying prone. The examiner squeezes the calf muscles. The absence of platerflexion on squeezing calf muscles indicate:
View Solution
When the calf muscles are squeezed while the patient is prone, the expected result is plantarflexion of the foot due to the action of the Achilles tendon. The absence of this plantarflexion suggests a rupture of the Achilles tendon, as this tendon is crucial for transmitting the force of the calf muscles to the foot.
Question 27:
A patient complains of light headedness, nausea and spinning vertigo while lying in bed, turning in bed and bending over to pick objects from floor. He also feels off balance while walking. He is most likely to have:
View Solution
The symptoms described, including positional vertigo (triggered by lying down, turning in bed, or bending over) coupled with imbalance during walking is most consistent with Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV). Migraine headaches cause other types of symptoms, Meniere's disease involves episodes of hearing loss and tinnitus, and vestibular neuritis typically causes continuous vertigo.
Question 28:
Cognition is assessed by testing the following:
(A). Fund of knowledge
(B). Agnosia
(C). Proverb interpretation
(D). Two Point Discrimination
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Cognitive assessments focus on a range of mental processes including memory, reasoning, perception, and language. Testing fund of knowledge and proverb interpretation help assess overall cognitive abilities, language and higher-level thinking. Agnosia refers to an impaired ability to recognize objects, people, or sounds, which is a test for sensory processing and recognition rather than general cognitive function. Two point discrimination test focuses on testing sensory functions and are not used to assess overall cognition.
Question 29:
Obligatory Flexor synergy components, observed in upper limb, following Stroke are:
View Solution
Following a stroke, a common pattern of movement impairment is the flexor synergy in the upper limb. This pattern typically involves scapular retraction, shoulder abduction, external rotation, elbow flexion, forearm supination, and wrist and finger flexion. In contrast, the extensor synergy tends to involve scapular protraction, shoulder adduction, internal rotation, elbow extension, and forearm pronation.
Question 30:
The term, “tic douloureux" is used to indicate the sharp shooting pain on the face, is a result of affection of the following nerve:
View Solution
"Tic douloureux" also known as trigeminal neuralgia, is characterized by episodes of intense, sharp, shooting pain on the face. This condition primarily affects the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V), which is responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions like chewing. The facial nerve controls facial muscles, the trochlear nerve controls the superior oblique eye muscle, and the glossopharyngeal nerve controls throat muscles.
Question 31:
______ consists of repeated cycles of three ventilatory phases; breathing control, thoracic expansion exercises and forced expiration technique.
View Solution
The Active Cycle of Breathing Technique (ACBT) is a method used for airway clearance and consists of repeated cycles of three ventilatory phases; breathing control, thoracic expansion exercises, and forced expiration technique. These exercises help mobilize and clear airway secretions and are most effective when performed in a specific cycle.
Question 32:
Which of the following intervention facilitates the removal of airway secretions collected centrally?
View Solution
Suctioning is a direct method to remove airway secretions. It's particularly effective for secretions collected centrally because it applies direct suction pressure to clear the airways. Incentive spirometery, pursed-lip breathing, and manual percussion focus on mobilizing secretions peripherally towards larger airways, rather than direct removal of secretions from central airways.
Question 33:
The age related decline in the VO2 max can be offset by _______
View Solution
Aerobic training, such as regular cardio exercise like running, swimming, or cycling, can increase the body's ability to take in and use oxygen (VO2 max). Aerobic training induces adaptations in the cardiovascular and respiratory systems that can offset the typical age related decline in aerobic capacity. The other interventions, meditation, relaxation training, and regular respiratory assessments, while being healthy do not directly increase or maintain VO2 max as effectively.
Question 34:
All these are absolute contra-indications to exercise testing except:
View Solution
Absolute contraindications are conditions under which an exercise test should not be performed due to significant risk. Unstable angina, pulmonary oedema, and uncontrolled hypertension all represent absolute contraindications for an exercise test. A resting tachycardia in a stable patient, is not by itself, an absolute contraindication but it does indicate the need for caution and monitoring during an exercise test.
Question 35:
The _______ in plyometric training should be kept as brief as possible for maximum effect.
View Solution
The amortization phase in plyometric training is the transition time between the eccentric loading and the concentric contraction of the muscle. To maximize the speed and power, it's crucial to keep this phase as short as possible. This brief transition allows for an efficient storage and release of elastic energy in the muscle-tendon unit, optimizing performance.
Question 36:
The following training feature after ACL reconstruction should be avoided:
View Solution
After Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) reconstruction, open-chain quadriceps exercises between 90 and 60 degrees of knee flexion should be avoided during the early stages. This is because open chain exercises in this range can lead to anterior tibial translation, which places shear stress on the healing graft. Closed chain exercises, isometric exercises and continuous passive motion are beneficial in early ACL rehabilitation as these activities exert compressive forces in the knee joint.
Question 37:
Which of the following technique involves voluntary muscle contractions by the patient in a precisely controlled direction and intensity against a counterforce applied by the practitioner?
View Solution
Muscle Energy Technique (MET) is characterized by specific voluntary muscle contractions by the patient against a precisely controlled counterforce applied by the practitioner. This is used to reduce muscle hypertonicity and joint restrictions. While Rhythmic initiation, neuromuscular stimulation and Active stretching technique are all mobilization procedures but they are not defined by voluntary contractions by the patient against a counterforce applied by the practitioner.
Question 38:
Affective psychotic disorders include which one of the following?
View Solution
Schizophrenia is an affective psychotic disorder characterized by psychosis, disturbed thought processes, and emotional dysfunction. Delusional disorder involves non-bizarre delusions. Bipolar disorders are primarily mood disorders and mental retardation, is a neurodevelopmental condition that doesn't involve psychosis.
Question 39:
Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for development of COPD?
View Solution
Non-modifiable risk factors are those that cannot be changed, such as age. The other options (tobacco smoking, exposure to fumes, biomass fuel) are modifiable risk factors as individuals can change them. Increasing age is a primary non-modifiable risk factor for COPD as with age the lung structure and function changes over time.
Question 40:
Lepra bacilli was detected by:
View Solution
Lepra bacilli, the bacteria that cause leprosy, were discovered by Gerhard Hansen, a Norwegian physician. Robert Koch is famous for discovering the bacteria causing tuberculosis. Ross is famous for his contributions in malaria and reed is famous for his contributions in yellow fever.
Question 41:
In the context of outcome measures, ________ is the degree to which an outcome is measuring what it purports to measure.
View Solution
Validity refers to the extent to which a measurement tool (like an outcome measure) assesses what it intends to assess. If a test is valid, it measures the concept it claims to measure. Reliability is consistency of the measurement, responsiveness indicates ability to detect clinically meaningful changes, and internal consistency assesses inter correlations of items on a test.
Question 42:
A therapist categorizes the patients visiting his clinic according to their blood groups- A, B, AB and O. This is an example of:
View Solution
Nominal level measurement involves categorizing data into mutually exclusive categories, such as blood types, without any inherent order or ranking. Ordinal level measurement involves a ranking of the variables, ratio level involves a true zero point and interval level involves equal intervals between the units. In this example, blood groups have no specific order or numerical relation among themselves.
Question 43:
Evidence Based Medicine involves:
View Solution
Evidence-Based Medicine (EBM) integrates best available evidence with clinical expertise and patient preferences. It is a tripartite model, focusing on scientific validity and individual needs. EBM doesn't just focus on expert opinion, research evidence or case-control studies but on all these three factors combined.
Question 44:
"Equal distribution to all members of a group” comes under the following Moral Principle:
View Solution
The principle of justice focuses on fairness in distribution of resources. Equal distribution to all members of a group is an application of this principle. Beneficence is acting in the best interest of the patient, Autonomy respects patients' rights to decide for themselves and nonmaleficence means avoiding harm.
Question 45:
Progress notes for a patient are written in SOAP (Subjective, Objective findings, Assessment and Plan) Format. Anticipated goals and expected outcomes are included in the:
View Solution
In the SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan) note format, the “Plan" section is where anticipated goals and expected outcomes are documented. This section outlines the treatment plan, including specific goals, interventions, and measurable outcomes that should be achieved. The subjective part contains the patient's opinion, the objective findings describe the data gathered in examination and assessment part focuses on the analysis.
Question 46:
The correct sequence at the postsynaptic membrane during neuromuscular transmission at neuromuscular junction is:
(A). Opening of ligand-gated sodium channels
(B). Binding of Actylcholine (Ach) with receptor and formation of Ach-receptor complex
(C). Entry of sodium ions into ECF
(D). Development of endplate potential
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The correct sequence of events at the postsynaptic membrane during neuromuscular transmission is as follows: (B) Acetylcholine (Ach) first binds to receptors on the membrane, forming an Ach-receptor complex, followed by (A) the opening of ligand-gated sodium channels. This is followed by (C) influx of sodium ions into the cell, which finally leads to (D) the development of the endplate potential.
Question 47:
On the dorsum of hand, the correct arrangement of tendons (from lateral to medial) is:
(A). Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
(B). Extensor digitorum
(C). Extensor pollicis longus
(D). Extensor digiti minimi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
From lateral to medial, the tendons on the dorsum of the hand are arranged in a particular sequence: Extensor pollicis longus, Extensor digitorum, Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, and Extensor digiti minimi. This arrangement is consistent across most people and is important for the anatomy and function of the hand.
Question 48:
If a suitable liquid medium is inoculated with bacterium and incubated, the growth of bacterium follows a definitive course. The sequence of phases of bacterial growth curve is:
(A). Rate of death exceeds rate of reproduction and the bacterial population decreases due to cell death
(B). In lag phase, there is an increase in cell size and no increase in cell number. Necessary enzymes and metabolic intermediates are built up for multiplication to proceed
(C). Cell division slows down and stops due to depletion of nutrients and accumulation of toxic products. There is an equilibrium between dying cells and the newly formed cells
(D). In log phase, cell numbers increase exponentially or by geometric progression with time
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The correct order of the bacterial growth curve includes: (B) the lag phase, where bacteria are preparing for division (increase in cell size and production of necessary enzymes), (D) followed by the log phase, where cell numbers increase exponentially. Subsequently (C) a stationary phase is observed where cells stops division and (A) followed by a decline phase, where the rate of cell death exceeds rate of reproduction.
Question 49:
The correct sequence of ‘Ujjayi Pranayama' is:
(A). Close eyes and exhale completely
(B). Hold the breath for a second or two. Exhale slowly and deeply to empty the lungs
(C). Sit in Padmasana with arms outstretched and back of wrists resting on knees
(D). Take a slow deep breath till lungs are completely filled
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The correct sequence of steps for Ujjayi Pranayama (a yogic breathing technique) is as follows. First (C) sit in Padmasana with arms outstretched and back of wrists resting on knees, second (A) close eyes and exhale completely, third (D) take a slow deep breath till the lungs are completely filled, fourth (B) Hold the breath for a second or two. Exhale slowly and deeply to empty the lungs.
Question 50:
The sequence of vascular events that take place during an acute inflammatory response are:
(A). Persistent progressive vasodilalatation involving mainly the arterioles
(B). Elevated local hydrostatic pressure causing transudation of fluid into the extracellular space
(C). Slowing of microcirculation causing increased red cell concentration followed by peripheral orientation of leucocytes along the vascular endothelium
(D). Transient vasoconstriction of arterioles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The vascular events of an acute inflammatory response follow a specific sequence: (D) transient vasoconstriction of arterioles occurs initially in order to reduce blood loss, followed by (A) persistent progressive vasodilation of the arterioles. The increased flow causes (B) increased local hydrostatic pressure, which leads to fluid extravasation. Then (C) microcirculation slows down, allowing leukocytes to move toward the periphery of the blood vessels.
Question 51:
The correct order of the valsalva maneuver is:
(A). Closure of glottis
(B). Deep inspiration
(C). Increase in intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressures
(D). Contraction of abdominal muscles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The valsalva maneuver involves a specific sequence of actions: (B) a deep inspiration first, then (A) the closure of the glottis, followed by (D) the contraction of abdominal muscles and finally leading to (C) the increase in intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressures. The deep inspiration comes first and causes the other effects.
Question 52:
The sequence of currents in increasing order of frequency will be:
(A). Short wave diathermy
(B). Long duration interrupted direct current
(C). Faradic current
(D). Interferential therapy
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
In increasing order of frequency, the currents are ordered as follows: (B) Long duration interrupted direct current has the lowest frequency range of ¡100Hz, followed by (C) Faradic current, then (D) Interferential therapy with a frequency of about 4000 Hz and (A) Short Wave diathermy having a frequency of 27.12 MHz, which is the highest.
Question 53:
Respiratory alkalosis is best described by the following sequence of events:
(A). Fall in plasma bicarbonate
(B). PaCO2 and H* fall
(C). Over-ventilation of lungs
(D). Reduced renal Na+/H+ exchange
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Respiratory alkalosis develops with (C) over-ventilation which then leads to (B) a fall in PaCO2 and H+, following this (D) renal compensation occurs with reduced renal Na+/H+ exchange in order to excrete bicarbonate, which finally results in (A) a fall in plasma bicarbonate as a compensatory mechanism.
Question 54:
The correct sequence of steps during Adson Maneuver (used for diagnosing thoracic outlet syndrome) are:
(A). The patient's head is rotated to face the test shoulder.
(B). The examiner locates the radial pulse.
(C). The patient is instructed to take a deep breath and hold it.
(D). The patient then extends the head while the examiner laterally rotates and extends the patient's shoulder.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The Adson Maneuver, performed for testing thoracic outlet syndrome involves a series of specific steps: first, (B) the examiner locates the radial pulse, next (A) the patient's head is rotated to face the test shoulder, next, (D) the patient extends the head while the examiner laterally rotates and extends the patient's shoulder. Last (C) the patient is asked to take a deep breath and hold. The maneuver is said to be positive if the pulse obliterates or diminishes significantly.
Question 55:
The steps used in the design of a questionnaire are:
(A). Piloting the questionnaire i.e. giving it to a a few number of people in order to collect feedback on unclear or insensitive questions.
(B). Initial draft of the questionnaire.
(C). Second pilot trial to establish if earlier problems have been taken care of followed by remodification and design of final questionnaire.
(D). Modification of the questionnaire using the information collected from the pilot trial.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The correct order for designing a questionnaire typically is: (B) creation of the initial draft, (A) pilor testing to collect feedback, (D) modifying the questionnaire according to information from pilot testing and then the second (C) pilor testing followed by modification of final questionnaire is done.
Question 56:
Which of the following is correct about the umbilicus?
(A). Lymph and venous blood flow upwards above the plane of the umbilicus; and downwards below this plane. These do not cross umbilical plane.
(B). It is a normal scar in the anterior abdominal wall formed by the remnants of the root of umbilical cord.
(C). The skin around the umbilicus is supplied by T4 segment of spinal cord.
(D). It is the meeting point of the four (two lateral, head and tail) folds of embryonic plate.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The umbilicus, commonly known as the navel, represents a scar on the abdominal wall formed by the remnant of the umbilical cord. The umbilical area is also supplied by the T10 dermatome not by T4. The lymph and venous blood flow does not follow the above rule. The umbilicus serves as the meeting point for the four folds during embryonic development and is not just for the two lateral folds.
Question 57:
Different factors affecting the respiratory centers are:
(A). Impulses from higher centers
(B). Impulses from baroreceptors
(C). Impulses from chemoreceptors
(D). Impulses from proprioceptors
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The respiratory centers in the brainstem are regulated by various factors, including: (A) impulses from higher brain centers, such as the cerebral cortex, which allows for conscious control over breathing, (B) impulses from baroreceptors, which respond to changes in blood pressure and influence breathing rate, (C) impulses from chemoreceptors, which respond to changes in blood pH, O2 and CO2 levels, and (D) impulses from proprioceptors, which respond to movement and changes in the musculoskeletal system. All these factors regulate respiratory centers.
Question 58:
The various forms of “Vertical Social Mobility" are:
(A). Upward mobility
(B). Downward mobility
(C). Intergenerational social mobility
(D). Structural mobility
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Vertical social mobility refers to the movement of individuals or groups between social strata. It includes: (A) Upward mobility, moving to a higher social status; (B) Downward mobility, moving to a lower social status. Structural mobility refers to shifts in society's structure that alter the distribution of social positions or occupations. Intergenerational mobility which refers to changes in the social position between generations is not a type of vertical mobility.
Question 59:
What is true about the relationship between “Arousal” and “Performance”?
(A). More the “Arousal”, better is the “Performance” on all sorts of tasks
(B). “Performance” improves with rising “Arousal” only upto an optimal level
(C). High level of “Arousal" is detrimental for “Performance”
(D). "Performance" is an inverted U-shaped function of level of “Arousal"
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
According to Yerkes Dodson Law, the relationship between arousal and performance is typically represented by an inverted U-shaped curve. According to this law performance improves with arousal upto an optimal level(B), after which higher levels of arousal can lead to performance decline(C). Also, more arousal is not always better for performance(A).
Question 60:
Translation movements between two adjacent vertebrae include:
(A). Side to side translation in the frontal plane
(B). Side to side translation in the sagittal plane
(C). Anterior posterior translation in the sagittal plane
(D). Anterior posterior translation in the frontal plane
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Translation (linear) movements between vertebrae are described as side to side movements in the frontal (A) and side to side movements in sagittal planes (B). This can also be thought of as sideways or lateral movement between two vertebrae. These movements are restricted by the facet joints and surrounding ligaments. Anterior posterior motion would result in forward and backward movement of one vertebra over the other and is not a form of translation.
Question 61:
How rapidly a muscle can develop maximal tension is determined by:
(A). Type of muscle fibers in the motor units
(B). The length of the muscle fibers
(C). Size of the motor units
(D). Fiber arrangement
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The rate of maximal tension development of a muscle is most greatly influenced by the type of muscle fibers (fast-twitch vs. slow-twitch fibers) and the length of the muscle fibers. Size of motor units and fiber arrangement affects the force production in a muscle, rather than rate of tension development.
Question 62:
The extensor mechanism of a finger includes all these except:
(A). Extensor digitorum tendon
(B). Straight retinacular ligaments
(C). Fibers from dorsal and volar interossei
(D). Ventral aponeurosis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The extensor mechanism of the finger includes the extensor digitorum tendon, which is the main muscle tendon for finger extension. It also includes the straight retinacular ligaments, which help to stabilize the tendon, and fibers from both the dorsal and volar interossei, which contribute to complex finger motion. The ventral aponeurosis is not a part of the extensor mechanism.
Question 63:
Which of the following is correct about Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS)?
(A). Muscle soreness and aching peaks at 48-72 hours after exercise
(B). Presence of local oedema and warmth
(C). Muscle soreness and aching begins at 0-2 hours post exercise
(D). Tenderness with palpation over the muscle belly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS) is characterized by muscle soreness and aching that typically peaks 48 to 72 hours post-exercise (A). There is often an associated local edema and warmth (B), along with tenderness to palpation of the muscle belly (D). DOMS does not begin immediately after exercise, its onset is typically delayed.
Question 64:
Which of the following is a characteristic of chi-square test?
(A). It is a non-parametric test.
(B). It is based on frequencies and not on parameters like mean and standard deviation.
(C). It can be used when individual observations of the sample are dependent.
(D). It can be used for testing hypothesis but is not useful for estimation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
A chi-square test is a non-parametric test (A) used to analyze categorical data. It's based on frequencies of categories (B) and is used to test hypotheses of association between variables, but it's not used for estimation. It assumes that the individual observations of the sample are independent from each other and not dependent (C).
Question 65:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of normal distribution curve?
View Solution
A normal distribution curve is symmetric around its central point, (1). The mean, median, and mode all have the same value in a normal distribution (2). The tails of a normal distribution curve extend indefinitely towards the horizontal axis without ever reaching it (3). Also a normal distribution curve descends slowly at first from its central point, and the descent slowly continues up to the tails.
Question 66:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I Ascending tract of the spinal cord |
List-II Function |
|---|---|
| (A). Lateral spinothalamic tract | (I). Pain and temperature from opposite half of the body |
| (B). Anterior spinothalamic tract | (II).vibratory sense |
| (C). Fasciculus Cuneatus | (III). Crude touch and pressure from opposite half of the body |
| (D). Posterior spinocerebellar tract | (IV). Unconscious proprioception to cerebellum |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The lateral spinothalamic tract conveys pain and temperature sensations. The anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch and pressure. The fasciculus cuneatus tract is associated with vibratory sensation. The posterior spinocerebellar tract is responsible for unconscious proprioception.
Question 67:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I Class of Immunoglobulin (lg) |
List-II Feature/Role |
|---|---|
| (A). IgG | (I). Mediates type 1 hypersensitivity |
| (B). IgA | (II). Second most abundant class of Ig |
| (C). IgM | (III). Only Ig to cross placenta |
| (D). IgE | (IV). First Ig produced during primary immune response |
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View Solution
IgG primarily mediates type 1 hypersensitivity, IgA is the second most abundant class of Ig, IgM is the only Ig to cross placenta and IgE is produced during primary immune response.
Question 68:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I Name of Drug |
List-II Indication |
|---|---|
| (A). Baclofen | (I). Spasticity |
| (B).Diclofenac | (II). Inflammatory pain |
| (C). Gabapentin | (III). Central or peripheral neurogenic pain |
| (D). Amytryptyline | (IV). Depression |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Baclofen is primarily used to treat spasticity, not for inflammatory pain, central or peripheral nerve pain, or depression. Diclofenac is an NSAID used to treat inflammatory pain but not spasticity, central or peripheral nerve pain or depression. Gabapentin is used for neurogenic pain but not for spasticity, inflammatory pain or depression and Amytriptyline is a antidepressant.
Question 69:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I Grades of Maitland Mobilisation |
List-II (Author/Thinker/Name of Theory, etc.) |
|---|---|
| (A). Grade I | (I). Large amplitude rhythmic oscillations are performed within the range, not reaching the limit |
| (B). Grade II | (II). Small amplitude rhythmic oscillations are performed at the begining of the range |
| (C). Grade III | (III). Small amplitude rhythmic oscillations are performed at the limit of the available motion and stressed into the tissue resistance |
| (D). Grade IV | (IV). Large amplitude rhythmic oscillations are performed upto the limit of the available motion and stressed into the tissue resistance |
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In Maitland mobilization techniques: Grade I involves small amplitude rhythmic oscillations at the beginning of the range; Grade II involves large amplitude rhythmic oscillations performed within the range. Grade III small amplitude rhythmic oscillations are performed at the limit of available motion and stressed into the tissue resistance and Grade IV involves large amplitude rhythmic oscillations performed up to the limit of the available motion and stressed into the tissue resistance.
Question 70:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I Upper Extremity Diagonal Patterns (PNF) |
List-II Description of position |
|---|---|
| (A). D1 Flexion Starting position | (I). Shoulder flexion, adduction, external rotation; partial elbow flexion; forearm supination, and wrist and finger flexion |
| (B). D1 Flexion Ending position | (II). Shoulder flexion, abduction and external rotation; elbow extension; forearm supination; and wrist and finger extension |
| (C). D2 Flexion Starting position | (III). Shoulder extension, adduction and internal rotation; elbow extension; forearm pronation; and wrist and finger flexion |
| (D). D2 Flexion Ending position | (IV). Shoulder extension, abduction, and internal rotation; elbow extension; forearm pronation; and wrist and finger extension |
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View Solution
In PNF: D1 flexion pattern starts with Shoulder flexion, adduction, external rotation; partial elbow flexion; forearm supination, and wrist and finger flexion (I) and ends with Shoulder flexion, abduction and external rotation; elbow extension; forearm supination; and wrist and finger extension (II). Similarly, D2 flexion starts with Shoulder extension, abduction and internal rotation; elbow extension; forearm pronation; and wrist and finger extension (IV) and ends with Shoulder extension, adduction and internal rotation; elbow extension; forearm pronation; and wrist and finger flexion (III).
Question 71:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I Coupling Medium for Ultrasound Therapy |
List-II Percentage Transmission |
|---|---|
| (A). Aquasonic/Ultrasonic Gel | (I). 72.6% |
| (B). Distilled water | (II). 59% |
| (C). Liquid paraffin | (III). 0% |
| (D). Air | (IV). 19% |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Aquasonic or Ultrasonic gel has best ultrasound wave transmission, followed by distilled water, air and then liquid paraffin, which has negligible transmission capability.
Question 72:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I TENS Modes |
List-II Specifications |
|---|---|
| (A). Conventional (High)TENS | (I). Comfortable intermittent paraesthesia as Intensity, 50-100 Hz Frequency, 50-200 Microseconds Pulse duration |
| (B). Acupuncture-like (Low) TENS | (II). 30 mA and more Intensity, 2-5 Hz Frequency, 150-300 microseconds Pulse duration |
| (C). Brief Intense TENS | (III). Intensity to patient's tolerance, 125-250 Hz Frequency, 200-250 microseconds Pulse duration |
| (D). Burst Mode (Pulse trains) TENS | (IV). 12-30 mA Intensity, 80-120 Hz Frequency, 50-80 microseconds Pulse duration |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Different TENS modes have varying characteristics. Conventional TENS typically uses comfortable intermittent paresthesia with a frequency of 50-100Hz, and a pulse duration of 50-200 s(I); Acupuncture like TENS employs low frequency of 2-5 Hz, long pulse duration of 150-300 s and high intensity of 30mA(II), Brief intense TENS is at higher intensity to patients tolerance with frequency of 125-250 Hz, a pulse duration of 200-250 microseconds(IV) and burst mode TENS uses moderate intensity, with frequencies of 80-120Hz and a pulse duration of 50-80 s (III).
Question 73:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I Causes of Pyrexia |
List-II Diseases |
|---|---|
| (A). Malignant disease | (I). Polyarteritis nodosa |
| (B). Infection | (II). Factitious fever |
| (C). Disease of connective tissue | (III). Hodgkin's disease |
| (D). Self-induced | (IV). Endocarditis |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Malignant disease (like Hodgkin's disease) can cause fever, infections are frequently associated with endocarditis, connective tissue diseases are associated with Polyarteritis nodosa and self induced causes can result in factitious fever.
Question 74:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I Special test |
List-II Probable structure/Pathology |
|---|---|
| (A). Posterior sag sign | (I). Meniscus |
| (B). Lachman-Trillat test | (II). Patellofemoral dysfunction |
| (C). Apley's test (III). | Posterior Cruciate ligament |
| (D). Clarke's sign (IV). | Anterior Cruciate ligament |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
The Posterior Sag sign is used to identify meniscus injuries, Lachman test tests patellofemoral dysfunction. Apley's test is used for posterior cruciate ligament assessment and Clarke's test is used to assess for anterior cruciate ligament rupture.
Question 75:
Match List-I with List-II
| List-I Condition |
List-II Characteristic |
|---|---|
| (A). Mallet Finger | (I). Involves Proximal Interphalangeal Joint |
| (B). Boutonniere Deformity | (II). Involves Distal Interphalangeal Joint |
| (C). De Quervain's Disease | (III). More Common in Diabetics |
| (D). Trigger Finger | (IV). Involves abductor pollicis longus |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
View Solution
Mallet finger involves distal interphalangeal joint, boutonnieres deformity involves the proximal interphalangeal joints. De Quervains tenosynovitis is characterized by an inflammation of the abductor pollicis longus tendons and trigger finger is more common in diabetic population.
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