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CUET PG 2024 Nanoscience 28th March 2024 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available for download here. Students found the Nanomaterials and Characterization Techniques section easy, Quantum Nanoscience moderate, and Advanced Nanotechnology Applications difficult. The Advanced Nanotechnology Applications section carried the highest weightage, and the overall difficulty level was moderate to difficult.

Download CUET PG 2024 Question Paper Pdf with Solutions

CUET PG 2024 Nanoscience Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG 2024 Nanoscience Question Paper with Answer Key	Download	Check Solution

CUET PG 2024 Nanoscience Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The First Law of Thermodynamics represents:

Law of conservation of mass
Law of conservation of energy
Law of conservation of entropy
Law of conservation of momentum

Correct Answer: (B) Law of conservation of energy

View Solution

The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed. For a closed system, the change in internal energy (∆U) equals the heat added (Q) minus the work done (W): ∆U = Q - W.

Question 2:

Carnot engine is a reversible engine. It can be proved from the:

Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
First Law of Thermodynamics
Second Law of Thermodynamics
Third Law of Thermodynamics

Correct Answer: (C) Second Law of Thermodynamics

View Solution

The Carnot engine operates with maximum efficiency due to reversibility, supported by the Second Law of Thermodynamics. It involves zero total entropy change (∆S = 0) during its reversible processes, ensuring no violation of this law.

Question 3:

From the Hall Effect experiment, one can measure:

Carrier concentration
Nature of charge carriers
Carrier concentration and Mobility of charge carriers
Nature of charge carriers, concentration of charge carriers as well as their mobility

Correct Answer: (C) Carrier concentration and Mobility of charge carriers

View Solution

The Hall Effect measures charge carrier concentration and mobility using Hall voltage. It provides insight into carrier density (n) and their movement under an electric field, critical for understanding material properties.

Question 4:

With the reduction in particle size, optical absorption spectrum shows:

Blue Shift
Red Shift
Green Shift
Yellow Shift

Correct Answer: (A) Blue Shift

View Solution

Quantum confinement increases band gap as particle size reduces, requiring higher energy for electronic transitions. This causes a shift to shorter wavelengths (blue shift) in the optical absorption spectrum.

Question 5:

Bragg's law of diffraction is used to determine the:

Crystallite size
Crystal structure
Particle size
Crystal structure as well as particle size

Correct Answer: (B) Crystal structure

View Solution

Bragg's law (nλ = 2d sinθ) explains constructive interference in X-ray diffraction, determining crystal structures through interplanar spacing (d) and diffraction patterns of atomic planes.

Question 6:

A bipolar junction transistor is said to be in active mode if:

Base-emitter junction is forward biased and collector-emitter junction is reverse biased
Base-emitter junction is reverse biased and collector-emitter junction is forward biased
Both the junctions are forward biased
Both the junctions are reverse biased

Correct Answer: (A) Base-emitter junction is forward biased and collector-emitter junction is reverse biased

View Solution

In active mode, the base-emitter junction is forward biased, and the collector-base junction is reverse biased, allowing the BJT to function as an amplifier with high current gain.

Question 7:

In a Quantum dot, degree of confinement is:

Zero
One
Two
Three

Correct Answer: (D) Three

View Solution

In a quantum dot, electrons are confined in all three spatial dimensions, leading to discrete energy levels. This unique property distinguishes quantum dots from quantum wells and wires, which have lesser degrees of confinement.

Question 8:

The failure of Michelson-Morley experiment indicated:

Existence of ether medium
Speed of light is directional
Speed of light is invariant
Light has dual nature

Correct Answer: (C) Speed of light is invariant

View Solution

The Michelson-Morley experiment disproved the existence of ether and confirmed that the speed of light is constant in all inertial frames, a cornerstone of Einstein's theory of special relativity.

Question 9:

A rigid body is dropped from the top of a tower. Midway it splits in two unequal parts. The Centre of mass of the system:

Shifts horizontally towards the heavier part
Shifts horizontally towards the lighter part
Does not shift horizontally
Shifts depending on the velocity at the time of split

Correct Answer: (C) Does not shift horizontally

View Solution

The center of mass is unaffected by internal forces (e.g., splitting of the rigid body). Only external forces, like gravity, influence its motion, which remains vertical in this case.

Question 10:

A system in thermodynamic equilibrium satisfies the following requirements:

A system is in mechanical equilibrium
A system is in mechanical equilibrium and chemical equilibrium
A system is in mechanical equilibrium and thermal equilibrium
A system is in mechanical equilibrium, chemical equilibrium and thermal equilibrium

Correct Answer: (D) A system is in mechanical equilibrium, chemical equilibrium and thermal equilibrium

View Solution

Thermodynamic equilibrium requires mechanical equilibrium (uniform pressure), chemical equilibrium (constant composition), and thermal equilibrium (uniform temperature across the system).

Question 11:

Which of the following orbitals will have a radial node?

1s orbital
2s orbital
2p orbital
3d orbital

Correct Answer: (B) 2s orbital

View Solution

A radial node is a region in an atomic orbital where the radial probability density is zero. The number of radial nodes is given by: Radial Nodes = n - ℓ - 1. For the 2s orbital (n = 2, ℓ = 0), Radial Nodes = 2 - 0 - 1 = 1. Thus, only the 2s orbital has a radial node.

Question 12:

Primitive cell has ... lattice point per unit cell:

one
two
three
four

Correct Answer: (A) one

View Solution

A primitive cell contains one lattice point, with each corner shared by 8 adjacent cells. The contribution of each corner is 1/8, resulting in a total of 8 × 1/8 = 1 lattice point per unit cell.

Question 13:

Filling of electrons in degenerate orbitals is governed by:

Hund's rule
Planck's Law
de-Broglie's wave-particle duality
Photoelectric effect

Correct Answer: (A) Hund's rule

View Solution

Hund's rule states that electrons fill degenerate orbitals singly first, with parallel spins, to minimize electron repulsion. This maximizes the total spin of the system and results in the most stable configuration.

Question 14:

Arrange the following radiations in terms of the increasing order of their ionizing power:

(A) X-rays
(B) Beta-particles
(C) Alpha-particles
(D) Gamma-rays

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A), (B), (C), (D)
(A), (B), (D), (C)
(B), (A), (D), (C)
(C), (B), (A), (D)

Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B), (D), (C)

View Solution

The ionizing power increases in the order: X-rays < Beta particles < Gamma rays < Alpha particles. This is due to their respective masses and charges, with alpha particles being the most ionizing but least penetrating.

Question 15:

No two particles can occupy the same state is the consequence of:

Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution
Bose-Einstein Distribution
Fermi-Dirac Distribution
Classical Distribution

Correct Answer: (C) Fermi-Dirac Distribution

View Solution

The Pauli Exclusion Principle, a result of Fermi-Dirac statistics, states that no two fermions (e.g., electrons) can occupy the same quantum state in a system, explaining atomic and molecular structures.

Question 16:

Which of the following metals possesses the highest melting point?

Sodium (Na)
Lithium (Li)
Potassium (K)
Cesium (Cs)

Correct Answer: (B) Lithium (Li)

View Solution

Among alkali metals, lithium has the highest melting point due to its small atomic size and strong metallic bonding. The melting point decreases down the group as atomic size increases and bonding weakens.

Question 17:

The factors that influence the ionization energy are:

Size of the atom
Charge of the atom
Size and charge of the atom
Size, charge, and type of electron involved (s, p, d, or f)

Correct Answer: (D) Size, charge, and type of electron involved (s, p, d, or f)

View Solution

Ionization energy depends on atomic size, nuclear charge, and the type of electron being removed. Smaller atoms with higher charges and s-electrons exhibit higher ionization energies.

Question 18:

The number of gram molecules of a substance present in unit volume is termed as:

Activity
Normal solution
Molar concentration
Active mass

Correct Answer: (C) Molar concentration

View Solution

Molar concentration, or molarity, measures the number of moles of a solute per liter of solution and is crucial in stoichiometric and titration calculations.

Question 19:

Among the following molecules, the one with the highest dipole moment is:

CH₃Cl
CH₂Cl₂
CHCl₃
CCl₄

Correct Answer: (A) CH₃Cl

View Solution

CH₃Cl has the highest dipole moment due to its single C-Cl bond, which is highly polar and lacks significant cancellation, unlike CH₂Cl₂, CHCl₃, or CCl₄.

Question 20:

Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride giving ortho and para compounds. The reaction is:

Electrophilic addition reaction
Electrophilic substitution reaction
Free radical addition reaction
Nucleophilic substitution reaction

Correct Answer: (B) Electrophilic substitution reaction

View Solution

Toluene undergoes electrophilic substitution, where the methyl group activates the ortho and para positions, leading to halogenation in the presence of FeCl₃.

Question 21:

Scanning tunneling microscope works on the principle of:

Quantum mechanical tunneling
Photoelectric effect
Stefan's Law
Meissner effect

Correct Answer: (A) Quantum mechanical tunneling

View Solution

The scanning tunneling microscope (STM) operates on the principle of quantum mechanical tunneling. A sharp conducting tip close to a surface allows electrons to tunnel through the vacuum, creating a current dependent on the tip-sample distance, enabling atomic-scale imaging.

Question 22:

Strongest acid among the following is:

4-Nitrophenol
4-Nitrobenzoic acid
3-Nitrophenol
3-Nitrobenzoic acid

Correct Answer: 4. 3-Nitrobenzoic acid

View Solution

3-Nitrobenzoic acid is the strongest acid because the nitro group is a strong electron-withdrawing substituent, stabilizing the conjugate base through the inductive effect. This stabilization increases the acidity compared to other compounds listed.

Question 23:

The number of isomers for the compound with molecular formula C₂BrCIFI is:

Correct Answer: (D) 6

View Solution

The compound C₂BrCIFI forms 6 isomers, including structural isomers (different connectivity), geometrical isomers (cis-trans configurations), and optical isomers (chiral centers).

Question 24:

Which of the following statements is incorrect about sucrose?

Ordinary table sugar is called sucrose
Sucrose is a disaccharide
Sucrose has a molecular formula of C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
Sucrose gives a positive test with Benedict's and Tollens' solutions

Correct Answer: (D) Sucrose gives a positive test with Benedict's and Tollens' solutions

View Solution

Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar as it lacks a free aldehyde or ketone group. Its glucose and fructose units are linked by their anomeric carbons, preventing reactivity with Benedict's or Tollens' solutions.

Question 25:

Which of the following are called artificial atoms?

Electrons
Molecules
Quantum dots
H-atoms

Correct Answer: (C) Quantum dots

View Solution

Quantum dots exhibit discrete energy levels similar to atoms due to quantum confinement. These "artificial atoms" are used in imaging, quantum computing, and photovoltaic applications.

Question 26:

Which scientist is often referred to as the Father of Nanotechnology?

Albert Einstein
Max Planck
Niels Bohr
Richard Feynman

Correct Answer: (D) Richard Feynman

View Solution

Richard Feynman is known as the "Father of Nanotechnology" for his 1959 lecture, "There's Plenty of Room at the Bottom," envisioning manipulation of matter at the atomic level.

Question 27:

X-rays are used for the determination of crystal structure because:

They can travel in vacuum
They are mechanical waves
Their wavelength is of the same order as interplanar spacing in crystals
Their speed changes with the change of medium

Correct Answer: (C) Their wavelength is of the same order as interplanar spacing in crystals

View Solution

X-rays are suitable for crystal structure determination because their wavelengths match the interplanar spacing in crystals, allowing diffraction analysis based on Bragg's law.

Question 28:

Carbon nanotubes are nanostructures:

Zero-dimensional
One-dimensional
Two-dimensional
Three-dimensional

Correct Answer: (B) One-dimensional

View Solution

Carbon nanotubes are one-dimensional nanostructures with exceptional properties such as high strength and electrical conductivity, widely used in material science and nanotechnology.

Question 29:

Tendency of an atom to attract electrons to itself when combined in a group is called:

Workfunction
Electronegativity
Polarization
Catenation

Correct Answer: (B) Electronegativity

View Solution

Electronegativity measures an atom's ability to attract electrons in a chemical bond. Factors include atomic size and nuclear charge, with fluorine being the most electronegative element.

Question 30:

Which of the following diodes is used in voltage-regulation circuits?

Photodiode
Light Emitting Diode (LED)
Tunnel diode
Zener diode

Correct Answer: (D) Zener diode

View Solution

Zener diodes operate in reverse breakdown to provide a constant output voltage, making them essential in voltage regulation and surge protection circuits.

Question 31:

Which of the following statements is correct about the photoelectric effect?

Emission of electrons depends on the intensity of light.
Emission of electrons depends on the frequency of light.
Emission of electrons depends on both intensity and frequency of light.
Emission of electrons is independent of intensity and frequency of light.

Correct Answer: (B) Emission of electrons depends on the frequency of light

View Solution

The photoelectric effect occurs when photons of sufficient frequency (above the threshold frequency) strike a material, ejecting electrons. The intensity of light affects the number of electrons emitted but not their ejection.

Question 32:

Which of the following bonds has the highest bond energy?

C-C
C=C
C≡C
C-H

Correct Answer: (C) C≡C

View Solution

Triple bonds (C≡C) have the highest bond energy due to their stronger overlap of orbitals, followed by double bonds (C=C) and single bonds (C-C). The C-H bond is strong but not stronger than C≡C.

Question 33:

Which property of colloidal solutions is used in ultracentrifugation?

Brownian motion
Tyndall effect
Diffusion
Sedimentation

Correct Answer: (D) Sedimentation

View Solution

Ultracentrifugation relies on sedimentation, where particles settle under high-speed centrifugal forces, allowing separation of colloidal particles based on size and density.

Question 34:

The phenomenon responsible for the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a magnetic field is:

Stark effect
Zeeman effect
Compton effect
Doppler effect

Correct Answer: (B) Zeeman effect

View Solution

The Zeeman effect refers to the splitting of spectral lines when atoms or molecules are exposed to a magnetic field, caused by the interaction of magnetic moments with the external field.

Question 35:

Which among the following has the highest electrical conductivity?

Diamond
Graphite
Fullerene
Amorphous carbon

Correct Answer: (B) Graphite

View Solution

Graphite exhibits the highest electrical conductivity due to its delocalized π-electrons, allowing charge mobility across its layers. Other forms of carbon lack this efficient electron delocalization.

Question 36:

Which of the following gases is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors?

Helium
Hydrogen
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide

Correct Answer: (A) Helium

View Solution

Helium is an ideal coolant in nuclear reactors due to its chemical inertness, high thermal conductivity, and low neutron absorption cross-section, ensuring reactor efficiency and safety.

Question 37:

Which type of hybridization is observed in graphite?

sp
sp²
sp³
spd

Correct Answer: (B) sp²

View Solution

In graphite, each carbon atom undergoes sp² hybridization, forming planar hexagonal structures with delocalized π-electrons responsible for its electrical conductivity.

Question 38:

The law of octaves in chemistry was proposed by:

Newlands
Dobereiner
Mendeleev
Moseley

Correct Answer: (A) Newlands

View Solution

Newlands proposed the Law of Octaves, observing that every eighth element showed similar properties when elements were arranged by increasing atomic mass.

Question 39:

Which of the following is used to measure blood pressure?

Thermometer
Sphygmomanometer
Barometer
Hydrometer

Correct Answer: (B) Sphygmomanometer

View Solution

A sphygmomanometer is specifically designed to measure blood pressure, utilizing a cuff, pump, and manometer for accurate readings.

Question 40:

What is the SI unit of luminous intensity?

Lumen
Lux
Candela
Watt

Correct Answer: (C) Candela

View Solution

Candela is the SI unit of luminous intensity, defined as the light emitted by a source in a particular direction per unit solid angle.

Question 41:

Which of the following properties is NOT exhibited by TH cells?

Stimulate division of B cells
Are cytotoxic for other cells
Stimulate division of cytotoxic T cells
Stimulate migration of macrophages

Correct Answer: (B) Are cytotoxic for other cells

View Solution

Helper T cells (TH cells) play a crucial role in adaptive immunity by stimulating B cell division, activating cytotoxic T cells, and enhancing macrophage activity. However, they are not cytotoxic themselves; cytotoxicity is performed by cytotoxic T cells (CD8+).

Question 42:

In germ line gene therapy, a healthy gene is inserted into:

Hepatic cells
Fibroblast cells
Endothelium
Sperms or Eggs

Correct Answer: (D) Sperms or Eggs

View Solution

Germline gene therapy involves modifying germ cells (sperms or eggs) to ensure genetic corrections are inherited by future generations. Somatic cells like hepatic or fibroblast cells are not involved in this process.

Question 43:

Restriction Endonuclease type I is involved in:

Endonuclease and Methylase
Cleaving and Methylation
Cut DNA within palindromic sequences
Cut DNA within non-palindromic sequences

Correct Answer: (A) Endonuclease and Methylase

View Solution

Type I restriction enzymes have both endonuclease (DNA cleavage) and methyltransferase (DNA methylation) activities. They cleave DNA at random sites far from the recognition sequence, while Type II enzymes cut at specific sites.

Question 44:

The Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens contains a transposon called:

T DNA
R DNA
cDNA
A DNA

Correct Answer: (A) T DNA

View Solution

The Ti plasmid's T-DNA segment integrates into the plant genome, inducing tumor formation. It is essential for transferring genes in genetic engineering using Agrobacterium tumefaciens.

Question 45:

Nitrogenase enzyme involved in nitrogen fixation works best in:

Aerobic conditions
Anaerobic conditions
Insensitive to oxygen
Both aerobic and anaerobic conditions

Correct Answer: (B) Anaerobic conditions

View Solution

Nitrogenase is highly sensitive to oxygen and functions effectively under anaerobic conditions. In legumes, leghemoglobin binds oxygen, creating an oxygen-free environment for nitrogenase activity.

Question 46:

Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in the order of decreasing wavelength:

(A), (D), (C), (B)
(B), (C), (D), (A)
(B), (A), (D), (C)
(C), (B), (D), (A)

Correct Answer: (1) (A), (D), (C), (B)

View Solution

Electromagnetic radiations ordered by decreasing wavelength are: Microwaves > Visible rays > X-rays > Gamma rays. Longer wavelengths correspond to lower energy.

Question 47:

Which of the following is correct about electromagnetic waves?

(A), (D), and (D) only
(A), (B), and (C) only
(B) only
(B) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (4) (B) and (D) only

View Solution

Electromagnetic waves travel in a vacuum (B) and include X-rays (D). Sound waves are not electromagnetic and require a medium for propagation.

Question 48:

Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) and (D) only
(B) and (C) only
(A) and (D) only
(B) only

Correct Answer: (3) (A) and (D) only

View Solution

Strong acids produce weak conjugate bases, and the larger the pKa, the weaker the acid, leading to a stronger conjugate base. Statements A and D are correct.

Question 49:

Arrange the following halides from most to least negative enthalpies of formation:

(A), (C), (B), (D)
(A), (B), (C), (D)
(D), (B), (C), (A)
(D), (C), (B), (A)

Correct Answer: (3) (D), (B), (C), (A)

View Solution

Halides ranked by decreasing enthalpy of formation: Fluoride > Chloride > Bromide > Iodide. Smaller ions form stronger lattice energies, resulting in more negative enthalpies.

Question 50:

Arrange the following oxoacids in the order of their increasing acidic strength:

(D), (C), (A), (B)
(B), (A), (C), (D)
(A), (B), (C), (D)
(C), (A), (B), (D)

Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B), (C), (D)

View Solution

Acidic strength increases with the number of oxygen atoms: HOCI < HOCl2 < HOCl3 < HOCl4. More oxygen atoms stabilize the conjugate base, enhancing acidity.

Question 51:

Arrange the following in the order of increasing basic strength:

NH₃
PH₃
AsH₃
BiH₃

Correct Answer: (4) (D), (C), (B), (A)

View Solution

Basic strength decreases down Group 15 due to increasing atomic size, which reduces electron pair availability. The order is: BiH₃ < AsH₃ < PH₃ < NH₃.

Question 52:

Arrange the following in decreasing order of nucleophilicity:

H₂O
NH₃
OH^-
NH₂^-

Correct Answer: (2) (D), (C), (B), (A)

View Solution

Anions (e.g., NH₂^-, OH^-) are stronger nucleophiles than neutral molecules (e.g., NH₃, H₂O). Nucleophilicity decreases with increasing electronegativity.

Question 53:

The correct order of steps in PCR is:

Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
Extension, Denaturation, Annealing

Correct Answer: (2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

View Solution

PCR consists of three steps: Denaturation (separating DNA strands at 95°C), Annealing (primer binding at 50-65°C), and Extension (DNA synthesis at 72°C).

Question 54:

Which of the following enzymes of the Krebs cycle is also involved in the mitochondrial electron transport system?

Citrate synthase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Malate dehydrogenase
Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Correct Answer: (B) Succinate dehydrogenase

View Solution

Succinate dehydrogenase is part of both the Krebs cycle (converting succinate to fumarate) and the electron transport chain (complex II, transferring electrons to ubiquinone).

Question 55:

Sequential steps of Prophase of Meiosis I:

Zygotene, Pachytene, Leptotene, Diakinesis, Diplotene
Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis
Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis, Leptotene, Zygotene
Leptotene, Pachytene, Diakinesis, Diplotene, Zygotene

Correct Answer: (2) Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis

View Solution

The stages of Prophase I are: Leptotene (chromosome condensation), Zygotene (homolog pairing), Pachytene (crossing over), Diplotene (chiasmata visible), and Diakinesis (final condensation).

Question 56:

The conditions for a reversible isothermal process are:

Infinitesimally slow process, Constant Temperature
Infinitesimally slow process, Constant Pressure, Constant Temperature
Infinitely fast process, Constant Pressure, Constant Temperature
Constant Temperature only

Correct Answer: (1) Infinitesimally slow process, Constant Temperature

View Solution

Reversible isothermal processes require constant temperature and infinitesimally slow changes to maintain equilibrium throughout the process.

Question 57:

Crystalline materials possess:

Sharp melting and boiling points, Anisotropic properties, Periodic arrangement of atoms
Sharp melting points, Periodic arrangement of atoms
Sharp melting points, Anisotropic properties
Periodic arrangement of atoms, Isotropic properties

Correct Answer: (2) Sharp melting points, Periodic arrangement of atoms

View Solution

Crystalline materials have a periodic atomic arrangement and sharp melting points due to their ordered structure. Isotropic properties are observed in amorphous materials.

Question 58:

Which of the following are the correct postulates of the quantum theory of light?

Each photon of frequency v has energy hv, the same as Planck's energy.
The higher v, the greater the photon energy hv.
Blue color has lower energy than green color.
Changing the intensity of the light beam changes the frequency of photons.

Correct Answer: (3) (A) and (B) only

View Solution

Photons have energy E=hv, proportional to frequency. Intensity changes the number of photons, not frequency. Blue light has higher energy than green light.

Question 59:

The following species have an equal number of electrons. Arrange them in increasing order of size:

Ne, Na⁺, O^2-, F^-
Na⁺, O^2-, Ne, F^-
Na⁺, Ne, F^-, O^2-
F^-, O^2-, Ne, Na⁺

Correct Answer: (3) Na⁺, Ne, F^-, O^2-

View Solution

Size of isoelectronic species decreases with increasing nuclear charge: Na⁺ < Ne < F^- < O^2-.

Question 60:

Identify the correct statements with reference to VSEPR theory:

Lone pairs cause more repulsion than double bonds.
Double bonds cause more repulsion than a single bond.
Triple bonds cause more repulsion than a double bond.
Single bonds cause more repulsion than a lone pair.

Correct Answer: (2) (B) and (C) only

View Solution

According to VSEPR theory, repulsion follows the order: Lone pair > Triple bond > Double bond > Single bond. Statements B and C are correct.

Question 61:

Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of properties stated against it?

(A), (B) and (C) only
(A) and (C) only
(A), (B) and (D)
(B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (3) (A), (B) and (D)

View Solution

Analysis shows that the order for paramagnetic behavior and unpaired electrons is incorrect. The oxidation states are correct, but the stability of ions in aqueous solutions does not follow the given order.

Question 62:

The process of vulcanization makes rubber:

(A), (B) and (D) only
(B) and (C) only
(B) and (D)
(B) only

Correct Answer: (2) (B) and (C) only

View Solution

Vulcanization increases the elasticity and hardness of rubber by creating cross-links between polymer chains. It reduces solubility but enhances elasticity and hardness.

Question 63:

Which of the following will give benzoic acid on acidic hydrolysis?

(A) and (D) only
(A), (C) and (D) only
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: (2) (A), (C) and (D) only

View Solution

Phenyl cyanide, benzoic anhydride, and methyl benzoate will give benzoic acid on acidic hydrolysis, but benzimidazole does not.

Question 64:

Match List-I with List-II:

(A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
(A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv)
(A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)
(A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii)

Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)

View Solution

CCl₄ is used as an insecticide, CF₂Cl₂ as a refrigerant, CHI₃ as an antiseptic, and CH₂Cl₂ as a propellant.

Question 65:

Two metals are completely miscible with each other to form a continuous range of solid solutions only if:

(A) and (D) only
(A), (B) and (C) only
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
(B) and (C) only

Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B) and (C) only

View Solution

For two metals to form solid solutions, they must have similar atomic size, crystal structure, and electronegativity. Electrical conductivity is not a requirement.

Question 66:

Arrange the following structures in terms of increasing order of confinement:

(A), (B), (C), (D)
(B), (A), (D), (C)
(C), (B), (A), (D)
(D), (B), (C), (A)

Correct Answer: (2) (B), (A), (D), (C)

View Solution

Bulk material has no confinement, Quantum well has confinement in one dimension, Carbon nanotube has confinement in two dimensions, and Quantum dot has confinement in three dimensions.

Question 67:

Match List-I with List-II:

(A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
(A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
(A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

View Solution

The correct matching of crystal systems and their axial lengths and angles is: Cubic (a = b = c, α = β = γ = 90°), Tetragonal (a = b ≠ c, α = β = γ = 90°), Orthorhombic (a ≠ b ≠ c, α = β = γ = 90°), Hexagonal (a = b ≠ c, α = β = 90°, γ = 120°).

Question 68:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Type of Crystalline Solid)	List-II (Example)
(A) Ionic	(III) Sodium Chloride, NaCl
(B) Covalent	(IV) Diamond, C
(C) Molecular	(I) Methane, CH4
(D) Metallic	(II) Copper, Cu

Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

View Solution

Crystalline solids and their bonding types: Ionic (NaCl), Covalent (Diamond, C), Molecular (Methane, CH4), and Metallic (Copper, Cu). The correct matching is: (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II).

Question 69:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(A) Principal Quantum Number (n)	(ii) 1, 2, 3, ...
(B) Azimuthal Quantum Number (l)	(iv) 0, 1, 2,... n - 1
(C) Magnetic Quantum Number (m)	(iii) 0, ±1, ±2, ±3,... ±l
(D) Spin Quantum Number (s)	(i) -1/2, +1/2

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i)

View Solution

Quantum numbers and their values: Principal Quantum Number (n) corresponds to the main energy level, Azimuthal Quantum Number (l) relates to orbital shape, Magnetic Quantum Number (m) corresponds to orbital orientation, and Spin Quantum Number (s) relates to electron spin. The correct matching is: (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i).

Question 70:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(A) XeF2	(iii) Linear
(B) BF3	(i) Trigonal Planar
(C) XeF4	(ii) Distorted Octahedral
(D) SF6	(iv) Regular Octahedral

Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iv)

View Solution

Geometries of the given compounds: XeF2 is linear, BF3 is trigonal planar, XeF4 is distorted octahedral, and SF6 is regular octahedral. The correct matching is: (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iv).

Question 71:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(A) Linus Pauling	(iii) Electronegativity
(B) Albert Einstein	(ii) Photoelectric effect
(C) Ernest Rutherford	(i) Alpha particle scattering experiment
(D) Max Planck	(iv) Black body radiations

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (iii), (B) - (ii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv)

View Solution

Major scientific contributions: Linus Pauling is known for his concept of electronegativity, Albert Einstein for the photoelectric effect, Ernest Rutherford for his alpha particle scattering experiment, and Max Planck for his work on black body radiation. The correct matching is: (A) - (iii), (B) - (ii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv).

Question 72:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(A) Alkaline phosphatase	(iv) Removes phosphate group at 5' end of DNA
(B) DNA Polymerase	(iii) Nick translation
(C) SI Nuclease	(ii) Cleaves ssDNA
(D) DNase I	(i) Cleaves DNA

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

View Solution

Enzymes and their functions: Alkaline phosphatase removes phosphate from the 5' end, DNA polymerase is involved in nick translation, S1 nuclease cleaves single-stranded DNA, DNase I cleaves double-stranded DNA. The correct matching is: (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).

Question 73:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(A) IgA	(ii) Secretory components
(B) IgE	(i) Basophils
(C) IgG	(iv) Crosses Placenta
(D) IgM	(iii) Pentamer

Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

View Solution

Immunoglobulins with their specific roles: IgA is associated with secretory components, IgE activates basophils in allergic reactions, IgG crosses the placenta providing immunity to the fetus, and IgM is the first antibody in an immune response and exists as a pentamer. The correct matching is: (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).

Question 74:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(A) Thiamine (B1)	(iv) Co-carboxylase
(B) Riboflavin (B2)	(i) Riboflavin adenine nucleotide
(C) Niacin	(iii) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
(D) Folic acid	(ii) Tetrahydrofolic acid

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

View Solution

Vitamins and their metabolic coenzyme roles: Thiamine (Vitamin B1) is essential for carbohydrate metabolism, forming co-carboxylase. Riboflavin forms riboflavin adenine nucleotide, important for redox reactions. Niacin is converted into nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD), crucial for metabolic processes. Folic acid is metabolized into tetrahydrofolic acid, playing a role in nucleotide synthesis. The correct matching is: (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II).

Question 75:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
(A) Lyman	(i) n = 2, 3, 4, ...
(B) Balmer	(ii) n = 3, 4, 5, ...
(C) Paschen	(iii) n = 4, 5, 6, ...
(D) Bracket	(iv) n = 5, 6, 7, ...

Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)

View Solution

Hydrogen spectral series and their transitions: Lyman series involves transitions to n=1, Balmer series ends at n=2, Paschen at n=3, and Bracket at n=4. The correct matching is: (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv).

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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CUET PG 2024 Nanoscience Question Paper Pdf- Check Solutions with Answer Key Pdf

CUET PG 2024 Nanoscience Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG 2024 Nanoscience Questions with Solutions

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