CUET PG 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF for Physical Education (March 17 - Shift 2)
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Content Writer | Updated On - Mar 12, 2025
CUET PG Question Papers are the most important study material for effective exam preparation. We at Zollege have provided all CUET PG Previous Year Papers with Solution PDFs here. CUET PG 2024 Physical Education exam was conducted successfully on March 17 by NTA.
Students can freely download the CUET PG previous year's question paper PDFs along with their solutions here. We strongly encourage CUET PG aspirants to scan through all the CUET PG Question Paper to know the overall difficulty level, CUET PG Syllabus and understand the changes in CUET PG Exam Pattern over the years.
CUET PG 2024 Physical Education Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
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Physical Education 2024 Questions with Solutions
Question 1:
The ephors were a board of five magistrates in ancient Sparta. Which of the following were the role of ephors?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The ephors had significant power in Sparta, ensuring that kings acted according to law, managing Sparta's home and foreign affairs, and playing a large role in governance.
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The ephors were annually elected magistrates in Sparta who played a pivotal role in the governance of the city-state. They held extensive judicial, legislative, and executive powers, acting as a check on the authority of the dual Spartan kings. Their duties included overseeing foreign policy, conducting trials, and even declaring war. They ensured the laws of Lycurgus were upheld and managed Sparta's administrative and military operations effectively.
Question 2:
From which of the following mountains did the Spartans use to dispose of 'imperfect' or weak babies?
Solution:
In ancient Sparta, babies who were considered weak or imperfect were taken to Mount Taygetos and left to die as part of the practice of eugenics.
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Spartan society placed great emphasis on physical strength and fitness, especially in its citizen soldiers. Newborns were examined for physical deformities or perceived weaknesses, and those deemed unfit were abandoned on Mount Taygetos. This harsh practice was intended to preserve the strength of the Spartan race and ensure that only the fittest individuals survived to adulthood. The practice reflected the militaristic and utilitarian values of Sparta.
Question 3:
Which sport was not practiced in ancient Rome?
Solution:
Javelin Racing was not a sport in ancient Rome, although chariot racing and gladiatorial combat were immensely popular.
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Sports in ancient Rome were heavily influenced by the culture's militaristic values and public entertainment preferences. Popular activities included chariot racing in the Circus Maximus, gladiatorial combats in the Colosseum, and staged naval battles. While throwing javelins was part of Roman military training, racing with them was not a recognized sport. Athletic pursuits primarily served the dual purpose of military preparation and spectacle for public entertainment.
Question 4:
Which philosophy of education emphasizes the importance of learning through practical experiences and activities, encouraging students to interact with their environment?
Solution:
Pragmatism in education emphasizes practical learning and problem-solving, where students interact with their environment to learn effectively.
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Pragmatism as an educational philosophy focuses on the application of knowledge and skills in real-life scenarios. John Dewey, one of its prominent proponents, argued that education should be based on the principle of learning by doing. Pragmatism encourages exploration, experimentation, and adaptability, aligning education with the needs of society. This approach helps learners develop critical thinking, creativity, and problem-solving skills.
Question 5:
Which of the following philosophy believes in only two values which are rooted in existence: persons and the moral imperative?
Solution:
Idealism emphasizes that reality is mentally constructed or otherwise immaterial. It focuses on abstract ideals like persons and moral imperatives as fundamental values.
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Idealism, as a philosophical school of thought, holds that the physical world is secondary to the realm of ideas and values. Prominent idealists, such as Plato and Immanuel Kant, emphasized the significance of ethical and moral imperatives in shaping human behavior and society. The philosophy often highlights the importance of personal development and the pursuit of higher ideals.
Question 6:
Which philosopher is associated with idealism?
Solution:
Plato is one of the most famous philosophers associated with idealism, emphasizing the importance of abstract, non-material forms or ideas.
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Plato, an ancient Greek philosopher, is considered the father of idealism. His philosophy posited that the physical world is a shadow of a higher reality composed of perfect forms or ideas. Plato's works, such as "The Republic," delve into the nature of justice, governance, and the pursuit of truth, emphasizing the importance of the non-material world in understanding existence.
Question 7:
Which Theory of Play emphasizes the role of play in aiding a child's cognitive development?
Solution:
Cognitive Development Theory emphasizes that play helps in the cognitive development of children by engaging them in problem-solving and decision-making.
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Cognitive Development Theory, as proposed by Jean Piaget, highlights the importance of play in a child's intellectual growth. Play provides children with opportunities to explore their environment, solve problems, and interact socially. It aids in the development of reasoning, language, and creativity, forming a critical part of learning during early childhood.
Question 8:
On the basis of innate and learned behaviors in respect of motor skill learning, arrange the stages of development in ascending order:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The correct sequence is: Progression from simple reflexes to basic movement (B), Learn more complex motor patterns (D), Movement skills become more fluid and automatic (C), Mastery over specialized movement (A).
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Motor skill development starts with simple reflex actions in infancy and progresses to complex motor patterns during childhood and adolescence. This progression involves basic movements evolving into fluid and automatic skills. The final stage includes mastering specialized movements, such as those required in sports or dance, signifying advanced control and coordination.
Question 9:
Which of the following approach of Personality is described as "unique and stable characteristics of an individual"?
Solution:
The Trait Approach to personality focuses on the stable characteristics and behaviors that define an individual's personality over time, such as introversion or extroversion.
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The Trait Approach, as developed by psychologists like Gordon Allport and Raymond Cattell, identifies specific traits that consistently influence an individual's behavior. Traits are considered enduring and measurable, such as openness, conscientiousness, and extraversion. This approach contrasts with other models that focus on unconscious influences or situational factors.
Question 10:
Which of the following best describes the role of physical education in socialization?
Solution:
Physical education promotes socialization by fostering teamwork, communication, and cooperation among peers, essential for building social skills.
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Through structured physical activities and sports, students learn to collaborate, respect rules, and communicate effectively. These experiences help build essential social skills and foster a sense of community. Physical education also plays a role in developing leadership qualities and resolving conflicts in a team environment, preparing students for future social interactions.
Question 11:
In Sociological perspective, when two or more people work together towards the same end, it is referred to as:
Solution:
Cooperation refers to the process where two or more individuals work together towards achieving a common goal or purpose. This is a fundamental concept in sociological studies of group dynamics and social behavior.
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Cooperation forms the basis of teamwork and collective effort in society. It helps individuals achieve objectives that might be unattainable alone. In sociology, it is studied as a critical aspect of social interactions that build relationships and ensure group harmony.
Question 12:
According to Social Identity Theory (SIT), social groups that an individual belongs to or identifies with are referred to as:
Solution:
In Social Identity Theory, the term "In-Group" refers to the social group that an individual identifies with, while the "Out-Group" refers to those outside of this group.
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Social Identity Theory, introduced by Henri Tajfel, explains how people derive part of their self-esteem from the groups they belong to. This division into In-Groups and Out-Groups leads to group bias, where members favor their own group over others, impacting intergroup relations.
Question 13:
The process of learning about one's culture is referred to as:
Solution:
Enculturation refers to the process by which individuals learn and adopt the values, customs, and behaviors of their own culture.
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Enculturation occurs through social interactions, observation, and participation in cultural practices. It is a lifelong process that starts in early childhood and helps individuals integrate into their communities by adopting language, traditions, and societal norms.
Question 14:
Arrange the following steps of the digestion process in the body in sequential order:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The correct order of digestion is: Food is broken into smaller pieces (C), Food is liquified and digested (B), Nutrients pass into the bloodstream (E), Water is absorbed (D), Waste is removed (A).
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The digestion process begins in the mouth with mechanical breakdown (chewing) and enzymatic action. This is followed by chemical digestion in the stomach and intestines, absorption of nutrients in the small intestine, and water reabsorption in the large intestine before waste elimination.
Question 15:
With specific reference to the management of common sports injuries, arrange the following steps in sequential order:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The correct sequence is: Protect the injured person (C), Apply ice (E), Elevate the injured part (A), Give rest (B), Wrap the area with a bandage (D).
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The CBEDA sequence aligns with the R.I.C.E. method—Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation. These steps are crucial for reducing swelling, minimizing pain, and promoting faster recovery from minor injuries like sprains.
Question 16:
The term 'Oedema' is associated with:
Solution:
Oedema refers to the swelling caused by excess tissue fluid accumulation. It can occur due to factors such as poor circulation, kidney failure, or heart conditions.
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Oedema can result from various conditions, including lymphatic blockage, inflammation, or electrolyte imbalances. It is treated by addressing the underlying cause and, in some cases, using diuretics to reduce fluid retention. Common areas affected are legs, ankles, and hands.
Question 17:
Which of the following statement best defines a communicable disease?
Solution:
Communicable diseases are those that can be transmitted directly or indirectly between individuals or from animals to humans. Examples include the flu, malaria, and COVID-19.
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Transmission of communicable diseases can occur via direct contact (e.g., touching or kissing), airborne droplets, contaminated food or water, or vectors like mosquitoes. Public health measures such as vaccinations, hygiene, and quarantine help control the spread of such diseases.
Question 18:
Riboflavin is the chemical name of:
Solution:
Riboflavin, also known as vitamin B2, is essential for cellular function, growth, and energy production. It plays a key role in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
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Riboflavin is a water-soluble vitamin found in dairy products, eggs, and leafy greens. It acts as a coenzyme in many metabolic reactions and helps maintain healthy skin, eyes, and nerve functions. Riboflavin deficiency can lead to symptoms like cracks in the lips and mouth.
Question 19:
Which of the following types of carbohydrate is the simplest form of glucose?
Solution:
Monosaccharides are the simplest form of carbohydrates, consisting of single sugar molecules like glucose, which can be directly used for energy.
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Monosaccharides are the building blocks of complex carbohydrates. Examples include glucose, fructose, and galactose. These simple sugars are absorbed directly into the bloodstream during digestion and are the primary source of energy for cellular processes.
Question 20:
What is the full form of PNF?
Solution:
PNF (Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation) is a set of stretching techniques used to enhance both active and passive range of motion, aiming to improve motor performance and flexibility.
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PNF stretching involves alternating cycles of muscle contraction and relaxation. It is widely used in rehabilitation and sports training to improve flexibility and neuromuscular coordination. Techniques like "contract-relax" are commonly employed for optimal results.
Question 21:
Which of the following is the correct meaning of the Swedish word 'fartlek'?
Solution:
Fartlek is a Swedish term that means "speed play." It involves varying pace or intensity during a workout to improve endurance and speed.
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Fartlek training is a flexible form of interval training. Athletes alternate between high and low-intensity efforts without a set structure. It enhances cardiovascular fitness, endurance, and mental resilience, making it suitable for runners and athletes in endurance sports.
Question 22:
Exercise should be the major component of obesity treatment. By which of the following mechanisms may exercise produce a reduction in adiposity?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Exercise reduces adiposity by increasing lipid oxidation, enhancing resting metabolic rate, and promoting lean tissue deposition, contributing to effective fat loss and improved body composition.
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Regular physical activity triggers processes like increased lipid oxidation during exercise and improved post-exercise metabolic rates. The growth of lean muscle mass further aids long-term fat loss by increasing basal metabolic rates, creating a sustainable impact on weight management.
Question 23:
The ability of a muscle to overcome maximum resistance in a single repetition is referred to as:
Solution:
Maximal strength is the maximum force a muscle can exert in a single contraction. It is often tested through exercises like one-rep max in weightlifting.
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Maximal strength is vital for activities requiring high force output, such as powerlifting or heavy manual tasks. It is developed through high-intensity resistance training and is foundational for improving other forms of strength, like explosive or endurance strength.
Question 24:
During common sports injuries, which of the following tendons are affected?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Common tendon injuries include medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow), lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow), and Achilles tendonitis. These conditions arise from overuse or strain on tendons.
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Tendon injuries often result from repetitive stress or sudden impact. Treatment involves rest, physical therapy, and in severe cases, surgery. Strengthening and stretching exercises can prevent such injuries.
Question 25:
An imaginary vertical surface through which movement takes place, which divides the body into right and left parts, is referred to as:
Solution:
The sagittal plane divides the body into right and left parts. Movements in this plane include forward and backward actions, such as walking and squatting.
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The sagittal plane is fundamental for analyzing movements that involve flexion and extension. It helps in biomechanical assessments and designing sport-specific training programs, ensuring a balanced approach to physical activity.
Question 26:
Match List I with List II:
| LIST I | LIST II |
|---|---|
| A. Flat Foot | I. Genu Valgum |
| B. Bow Legs | II. Pes Planus |
| C. Knock Knees | III. Lordosis |
| D. Sway Back | IV. Genu Varum |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Flat Foot is referred to as Pes Planus (II), Bow Legs as Genu Varum (IV), Knock Knees as Genu Valgum (I), and Sway Back as Lordosis (III).
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Each term corresponds to a specific postural or structural deformity:
- Flat Foot (Pes Planus): A condition where the arches of the foot collapse.
- Bow Legs (Genu Varum): Outward bowing of the legs, commonly seen in young children.
- Knock Knees (Genu Valgum): The knees touch but the ankles remain apart.
- Sway Back (Lordosis): An exaggerated inward curve of the lower spine.
Question 27:
Which section of a research report typically provides a summary of the research objectives, methodology, and key findings?
Solution:
The conclusion of a research report provides a concise summary of the research objectives, methodology, key findings, and implications, making it the final section that ties everything together.
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The conclusion serves as the final assessment of the study, summarizing key outcomes and providing recommendations for future research. Unlike the introduction or literature review, the conclusion synthesizes findings and highlights their practical or theoretical implications.
Question 28:
What is the primary purpose of delimiting the sample in research?
Solution:
Delimiting a sample ensures the study includes only the most relevant participants, increasing the applicability of the findings to a broader population by focusing on representative elements.
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By clearly defining the scope and boundaries of a study, researchers can ensure that their findings are relevant and can be generalized to larger populations. Delimitation avoids biases and improves the validity of results.
Question 29:
Which is not a criterion in selecting a problem in research?
Solution:
Prejudice is not a valid criterion for selecting a research problem. Instead, factors like interest, feasibility, and availability of tools and techniques should guide the choice of a research topic.
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Objective considerations like practicality, relevance, and availability of resources are key to problem selection. Prejudices or biases can compromise the validity and reliability of research findings, making them unsuitable for consideration.
Question 30:
Which of the following is a method of probability sampling?
Solution:
Stratified sampling is a probability sampling technique where the population is divided into subgroups, and samples are randomly drawn from each subgroup, ensuring representation of all categories.
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Stratified sampling improves precision by grouping similar individuals and sampling proportionally. In contrast, quota, convenience, and purposive sampling are non-probability methods that do not ensure equal chances for all members to be selected.
Question 31:
Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| LIST I | LIST II |
|---|---|
| A. Pull-Ups (Boys), Flexed Arm Hang (Girls) | III. Muscular Strength and Endurance |
| B. Standing Broad Jump | I. Explosive Strength of Legs |
| C. Shuttle Run | IV. Speed and Agility |
| D. 50-Yard Dash | II. Speed and Explosive Strength |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
- Pull-ups and flexed arm hang measure muscular strength and endurance (A-III).
- The standing broad jump assesses explosive strength of the legs (B-I).
- Shuttle run evaluates speed and agility (C-IV).
- The 50-yard dash measures speed and explosive strength (D-II).
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Each fitness test is designed to evaluate a specific physical attribute. Understanding these attributes helps in creating balanced training programs for athletes.
Question 32:
Which of the following assessments is specifically designed to measure flexibility?
Solution:
The sit and reach test measures flexibility, specifically targeting the lower back and hamstring muscles.
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Flexibility is a key component of physical fitness. Regular assessments like the sit and reach test can help identify tightness in the hamstrings and lower back, which can lead to improved performance and injury prevention.
Question 33:
A test, if it measures what it was meant for, refers to:
Solution:
Validity is the extent to which a test accurately measures the concept it is intended to measure, ensuring its relevance and accuracy.
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Ensuring the validity of a test is critical in research and assessments. Validity can be of various types, such as construct validity, content validity, and criterion validity, each addressing specific aspects of accuracy and relevance.
Question 34:
How many matches will be played in a tournament where 19 teams will participate? The tournament will be knockout cum league, starting with semi-finals as a league.
Solution:
- 18 matches will determine the semi-finalists in a knockout format.
- The league phase will have three additional matches (2 semi-finals and 1 final), making a total of 21 matches.
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The combination of knockout and league formats ensures fairness and comprehensive competition. Calculating the total number of matches involves summing knockout matches and league phase matches.
Question 35:
The marketing committee of organizing sports events covers the following aspects except:
Solution:
The marketing committee is responsible for telecasting, MOUs, and managing communication but does not handle administrative tasks like checking the remuneration of officials.
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Administrative tasks such as remuneration are typically handled by the financial or human resources committees. The marketing committee focuses on event publicity and sponsorships.
Question 36:
Which of the following is not an objective of Intramural?
Solution:
Intramural sports focus on mass participation, recreation, and health. High performance is associated with competitive sports, which is not the primary goal of intramurals.
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Intramural activities are designed to encourage inclusivity, enjoyment, and fitness for all participants, without the pressure of high-stakes performance. They are an essential part of fostering community and teamwork within institutions.
Question 37:
Total number of medals won by India in the 35th Asian Games Hangzhou were:
Solution:
India won a total of 107 medals, including gold, silver, and bronze, in the 35th Asian Games Hangzhou, showcasing the nation’s growing excellence in sports.
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The 35th Asian Games Hangzhou was a landmark event for Indian athletes, who performed exceptionally across various disciplines. This tally underscores the country's enhanced focus on sports infrastructure and training.
Question 38:
How many gold medals were won by India in the Hangzhou Asian Games?
Solution:
India secured 28 gold medals in the Hangzhou Asian Games, marking a significant achievement in its sporting history.
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The achievement of 28 gold medals reflects India's dedication to fostering sports talent and promoting a competitive spirit. It also highlights the country's emergence as a strong contender in the international sports arena.
Question 39:
Which state hosted 'Khelo India University Games 2023'?
Solution:
The Khelo India University Games 2023 were hosted by Uttar Pradesh, which provided excellent facilities and infrastructure for the event.
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The Khelo India University Games are part of the Khelo India initiative, aimed at promoting sports and discovering new talent in the country. Uttar Pradesh's successful hosting of the event reflects its growing commitment to sports development.
Question 40:
Which of the following Grand Slam tournaments is played on grass?
Solution:
Wimbledon is the only Grand Slam tournament played on grass courts, which adds a unique element to the gameplay due to its faster surface.
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Grass courts at Wimbledon provide a distinctive challenge for players, as the surface is faster and allows for shorter rallies. It is one of the oldest and most prestigious tennis tournaments in the world.
Question 41:
Which of the following events is not organized in swimming?
Solution:
The 50m Relay event does not exist in competitive swimming. Relay events are team-based and commonly held over distances like 4x100m and 4x200m.
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Swimming competitions include individual races in freestyle, breaststroke, backstroke, and butterfly strokes over various distances. Relay events, such as the 4x100m medley or freestyle relay, involve team efforts and are longer than 50m.
Question 42:
What is the radius of the center circle in a basketball court?
Solution:
The radius of the center circle on a standard basketball court is 1.80 meters, which is used for the jump ball at the start of the game.
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The center circle is a key marking on a basketball court, used to start the game or resume play after a tie ball. It is equally divided by the midcourt line.
Question 43:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| A. INCTE | I. 1961 |
| B. UGC | II. 1984 |
| C. N.I.S. (Patiala) | III. 1995 |
| D. SAI | IV. 1953 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The correct matching is as follows:
- INCTE: 1995 (A-III)
- UGC: 1953 (B-IV)
- N.I.S. (Patiala): 1961 (C-I)
- SAI: 1984 (D-II)
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These institutions play pivotal roles in shaping India's academic and sports infrastructure. The UGC ensures higher education standards, while SAI and N.I.S. promote excellence in sports.
Question 44:
Who was the First President of the Indian Olympic Association?
Solution:
Sir Dorabji Tata was the first President of the Indian Olympic Association, a position he held since its establishment in 1927.
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The Indian Olympic Association was formed to oversee India's participation in the Olympics. Sir Dorabji Tata played a crucial role in promoting Indian athletes on the international stage.
Question 45:
Which city hosted the First Khelo India Para Games 2023 (KIPG) in India?
Solution:
The First Khelo India Para Games 2023 was held in Delhi, aimed at promoting inclusivity and providing a platform for para-athletes.
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The Khelo India initiative extends to para-athletes to foster an inclusive sports culture. The 2023 Para Games in Delhi set the foundation for future developments in para-sports infrastructure.
Question 46:
Arrange the following events according to the day-wise schedule of ancient Olympic Games:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The correct sequence of events according to the day-wise schedule of the ancient Olympic Games is:
- Day 1: Sacrifice and Oath (B)
- Day 2: March past (D)
- Day 3: Foot race, Wrestling, and Boxing (A)
- Day 4: Three-foot race (C)
- Day 5: Another round of Sacrifice and Oath (B)
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The ancient Olympics were a mix of religious ceremonies and athletic events, aimed at honoring Zeus and showcasing physical excellence. Each day was meticulously planned with events and rituals.
Question 47:
Arrange the following steps in the correct sequence for learning a new motor skill:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The correct sequence for learning a new motor skill is:
- Understanding the task (B)
- Mental visualization (E)
- Repetition and practice (D)
- Receiving feedback (C)
- Refinement of technique (A)
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Motor learning involves understanding the task at hand, mentally visualizing the movements, and then practicing repeatedly while receiving feedback to refine the skill further. This process ensures gradual mastery of the skill.
Question 48:
Arrange the steps involved in socialization through sports in the sequential order:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The correct sequence of steps involved in socialization through sports is:
- Development of a sense of belonging and identity with the team (B)
- Adhering to the principles of sports ethics and integrity (E)
- Building communication and leadership skills (C)
- Engaging in off-field activities or team-building exercises (D)
- Celebrating victories and learning from defeats (A)
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Socialization through sports involves building a sense of belonging, adhering to ethical principles, developing communication skills, participating in team-building activities, and learning from both successes and failures.
Question 49:
During blood circulation, the heart muscle contracts, and the impure blood passes through the heart and lungs. Then purified blood flows through a sequential process of:
Choose the correct sequence from the options given below:
Solution:
The correct sequence for the flow of blood through the heart and lungs is:
- Blood passes into the right ventricle (D)
- Blood finds its way into the lungs (C)
- Blood returns to the left atrium (B)
- Blood passes into the left ventricle (A)
- Blood discharges into various arteries and capillaries (E)
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The circulatory system ensures oxygenated blood reaches all body parts. Deoxygenated blood enters the right side of the heart, moves to the lungs for oxygenation, and returns to the left side to be pumped into systemic circulation.
Question 50:
Arrange the following training cycles as per their duration in descending order:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The duration of training cycles in descending order is:
- Olympic cycle (D)
- Macro cycle (C)
- Meso cycle (A)
- Micro cycle (B)
- Session (E)
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Training cycles are categorized based on their duration and focus. The Olympic cycle spans four years, while sessions are the shortest, focusing on immediate training goals.
Question 51:
"A player who applies more force and tosses the shot-put at the correct angle has a greater displacement of the shot-put, whereas a player who exerts less force has a lesser displacement of shot-put," which of the following laws is applicable in the above statement?
Solution:
The Law of Acceleration states that the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force applied to it and inversely proportional to its mass. This applies to the displacement of the shot-put as it depends on the force exerted.
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According to Newton's second law, \( F = ma \), the greater the force applied, the greater the acceleration and displacement. This principle is critical in sports like shot put, where maximum force application leads to optimal performance.
Question 52:
Arrange the following steps in the sequence of conducting scientific research:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The correct sequence in scientific research is:
- Formulate a hypothesis (A)
- Design the research (D)
- Collect data (B)
- Analyze results (C)
- Draw conclusions (E)
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Scientific research involves iterative steps to refine findings and methodologies. Hypotheses guide data collection and analysis, which ultimately lead to drawing meaningful conclusions.
Question 53:
Arrange the following functions of sports event management in sequential order:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The sequence in sports event management typically follows:
- Planning (C)
- Organizing (A)
- Staffing (D)
- Coordinating (B)
- Directing (E)
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Sports event management relies on careful planning and organization to ensure successful execution. Each stage builds upon the previous one to create a seamless experience.
Question 54:
After the first Modern Olympic Games in 1896 at Athens, the successive Olympic Games were hosted by various cities. Place the host cities in chronological year of hosting:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The host cities for the Olympic Games following Athens in chronological order are:
- Paris (1900)
- St Louis (1904)
- London (1908)
- Stockholm (1912)
- Antwerp (1920)
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The early Olympic Games were held in various prominent cities, showcasing their cultural and historical significance. Each host city contributed to the development of the Olympic tradition.
Question 55:
Arrange the following balls used in different sports as per their weight in descending order:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The correct weight order for these balls is:
- Cricket Ball (B)
- Volleyball Ball (D)
- Tennis Ball (C)
- Handball Ball (A)
- Basketball Ball (E)
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The varying weights of balls across sports reflect their design and functional requirements. For instance, cricket balls are designed for durability, while volleyballs are lighter for easier handling.
Question 56:
Which of the following statements reflect the importance of play?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Play is crucial for physical growth, social and moral development, and mental and emotional growth. It also aids in overall personality development, rather than just fostering competition.
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Play helps children develop coordination, creativity, and resilience. It is essential for holistic growth, providing a foundation for both physical fitness and social skills.
Question 57:
Imagery and stimulation are both psychological skill training techniques. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to imagery and stimulation:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Imagery and stimulation are both vital psychological training techniques. Stimulation creates realistic competitive scenarios in training, while imagery focuses on mental rehearsal. Both techniques, when used effectively, enhance an athlete's performance.
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Imagery allows athletes to visualize their goals and practice scenarios mentally, fostering motivation and focus. Stimulation helps replicate real competition conditions, allowing athletes to adapt and strategize effectively.
Question 58:
Sports and games have universal acceptance and acclaim, and make them an unchangeable part of culture across the world. Choose the correct legacies of games and sports from the following:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Martial arts originated in China and Japan, gymnastics in Scandinavia and Rome, and yoga in India. These sports and practices have deep cultural significance in their respective regions.
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Martial arts and gymnastics reflect the physical prowess and discipline of their cultures, while yoga showcases India's contribution to mental and physical wellness.
Question 59:
Our heart consists of various layers of muscles:
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The heart consists of layers such as the endocardium (inner layer), epicardium (outer layer), and pericardium (protective layer). Myofibrils and myofilaments are microscopic structures within muscles.
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Understanding the heart's structure is essential for comprehending how it functions as a pump, with layers providing protection and facilitating its movement.
Question 60:
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to a balanced diet?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
A balanced diet includes food from all groups, considers nutrient absorption, and is tailored to individual needs. It doesn't exclude foods solely based on perceived nutritive value.
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Balanced diets provide essential nutrients and promote optimal health. They involve diverse foods, address individual needs, and avoid overemphasis on a single food group.
Question 61:
Which of the following are the long-term effects of exercise on our body?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The long-term effects of exercise include increased pulmonary diffusion, decreased resting heart rate, and increased residual lung volume, which enhance respiratory and cardiovascular efficiency.
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Consistent exercise promotes cardiovascular health by reducing resting heart rate and blood pressure. Pulmonary diffusion and residual volume changes contribute to better oxygen exchange during physical activity.
Question 62:
Frictional forces occur between two surfaces in contact when one slides or tends to slide over the other. Which factors influence frictional forces?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Friction depends on the surface material properties, surface roughness, and the interaction between the surfaces, but not on total surface area.
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Factors like surface quality and the nature of materials determine the coefficient of friction, while total contact area has minimal impact on frictional force in most cases.
Question 63:
Which of the following are the items of the JCR Test Battery?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The JCR Test Battery assesses physical fitness using items like the vertical jump, chin-ups, and shuttle run to evaluate power, endurance, and cardiovascular health.
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These tests measure key fitness components such as explosive power, upper body strength, and aerobic endurance, essential for athletic performance.
Question 64:
Which of the following grounds/stadiums are related to football?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The Duler Stadium (Goa), Guru Nanak Stadium (Ludhiana), and Kaloor Stadium (Kochi) are prominent football venues in India, known for hosting various football tournaments and events.
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These stadiums are integral to promoting football in India. Duler Stadium is a hub for local football in Goa, while Kaloor Stadium has hosted international matches and ISL games.
Question 65:
Which of the following features are associated with the NEP 2020 with respect to higher education in India?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The NEP 2020 emphasizes CBCS, introduces the Academic Bank of Credit (ABC), and aims to align credit systems with international standards to promote global mobility and quality.
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The NEP 2020 fosters flexibility, interdisciplinary learning, and integration with global academic systems, aiming to make Indian education globally competitive.
Question 66:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| Pankration | An event combining running & wrestling |
| Hoplitodromos | A race where competitors ran in full armor |
| Diaulos | A sprinting race of 400 meters |
| Tethrippon | Four horse chariot race |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The matches are as follows: Pankration (combines running & wrestling), Hoplitodromos (race in full armor), Diaulos (400m sprint), Tethrippon (four horse chariot race).
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These events reflect the diverse and challenging nature of ancient Greek sports, combining physical endurance with strategic skill.
Question 67:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| Pragmatism | Practical experience as criteria for truth |
| Naturalism | Scientific methods to understand the world |
| Realism | Existence of an objective reality |
| Idealism | Reality shaped by human perception |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The matches are as follows: Pragmatism (practical experience), Naturalism (scientific methods), Realism (objective reality), Idealism (human perception).
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These philosophical perspectives offer diverse ways of understanding knowledge, truth, and existence, influencing education and societal norms.
Question 68:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| Transfer of Learning | Ability to apply knowledge in different contexts |
| Practice Variability | Improves adaptability and generalization of skills |
| Feedback Frequency | Amount and timing of feedback during skill acquisition |
| Distributed Practice | Practice with recovery and rest periods |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
The matches are: Transfer of Learning (III), Practice Variability (IV), Feedback Frequency (II), Distributed Practice (I).
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Each element plays a critical role in skill acquisition, ensuring that training is both effective and adaptable to real-world situations.
Question 69:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| Alveoli | Site of gas exchange |
| Bronchioles | Regulate airflow and distribution |
| Diaphragm | Helps expand and contract lungs |
| Trachea | Passage for air to lungs |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Alveoli (I: gas exchange), Bronchioles (III: regulate airflow), Diaphragm (IV: expand and contract lungs), Trachea (II: passage for air).
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Each part of the respiratory system has a distinct function, ensuring efficient oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange during respiration.
Question 70:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| Vitamin-A | Important for vision |
| Calcium | Essential for bone health |
| Iron | Important for oxygen transport in blood |
| Vitamin-C | Helps in absorption of iron |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Vitamin-A (II: vision), Calcium (IV: bone health), Iron (III: oxygen transport), Vitamin-C (I: absorption of iron).
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These nutrients are essential for maintaining overall health, supporting vision, strong bones, oxygen transport, and nutrient absorption.
Question 71:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| Mass | Quantitative measure of inertia |
| Inertia | Resistance to change in motion |
| Force | Mechanical distribution or load |
| Velocity | Rate of change of position |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Mass is a quantitative measure of inertia, inertia is resistance to motion, force relates to load, and velocity is the rate of position change.
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Understanding these physics concepts is essential for analyzing motion and forces in mechanics.
Question 72:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| Experimental Research | Studies relationship between variables |
| Case Study Research | Examines behavior, events, etc., in depth |
| Longitudinal Research | Repeated data collection over time |
| Correlation Research | Investigates cause and effect |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Experimental research examines relationships, case studies focus on in-depth behavior, longitudinal studies analyze data over time, and correlation research finds causal links.
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Different research methods are suited for various purposes, ranging from exploratory to predictive studies.
Question 73:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| Validity | Ensures accurate measurement |
| Reliability | Consistency in repeated tests |
| Objectivity | Treats all examinees equally |
| Fairness | Free from bias or influence |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Validity ensures correct measurement, reliability ensures consistency, objectivity guarantees equal treatment, and fairness avoids bias.
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Understanding test parameters like validity and reliability is vital for assessing quality in education and research.
Question 74:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| Asian Games Tokyo | 1958 |
| Asian Games Jakarta | 1962 |
| Asian Games Guangzhou | 2010 |
| Asian Games Bangkok | 1998 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Tokyo hosted in 1958, Jakarta in 1962, Guangzhou in 2010, and Bangkok in 1998.
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The sequence of host cities reflects the growth and expansion of the Asian Games over time.
Question 75:
Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| AAI | Archery |
| ALFF | Football |
| AFI | Athletics |
| BAI | Badminton |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
AAI (Archery), ALFF (Football), AFI (Athletics), and BAI (Badminton).
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Understanding the roles of sports associations ensures clarity on their contributions and governance.
*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.