CUET PG 2024 Public Health 27th March 2024 Shift 3 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available for download here. Students found the Epidemiology section easy, Biostatistics moderate, and Health Policy and Management difficult. The Health Policy and Management section carried the highest weightage, and the overall difficulty level was moderate to difficult.

CUET PG 2024 Public Health Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG 2024 Public Health Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The way society is organised around the regulated ways people interrelate and organise social life is known as .... in sociology.

1. Social Processes
2. Social Structure
3. Social Mobility
4. Social Interaction

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Question 2:

Who introduced the concept of positivism to sociology?

1. Aristotle
2. Auguste Comte
3. George Ritzer
4. Karl Marx

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Question 3:

According to the Social Conflict Model, .... is the way in which changes occur in a society.

1. Redefining the situation
2. Promoting symbolic interactions
3. Revolutions
4. Implement tight legal measures

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Question 4:

Arrange the following sociological developments in a chronological order (oldest to the recent):
(A) Social Conflict Theory
(B) Positivism
(C) Multicultural Perspective
(D) Structural Functionalism

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (A), (C), (B), (D)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (D), (B), (A), (C)

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Question 5:

A group is characterised by the following features:
(A) Interact regularly/often
(B) Have some shared interest
(C) Develop some sense of belongingness
(D) Always live in the same geographical area

1. (A), (B), and (C) only
2. (A), (B), and (D) only
3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
4. (B), (C), and (D) only

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Question 6:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Concept):
(A) Growth
(B) Development
(C) Maturation
(D) Changes throughout life cycle

List II (Explanation):
(I) Sequence and largely dictated by genetics
(II) Increase in body size
(III) Life cycle growth process
(IV) Species-specific changes

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

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Question 7:

In Psychology, .... refers to reacting to another person's feelings with an emotional response that is similar to their own feelings.

1. Sympathy
2. Empathy
3. Coping
4. Reassuring

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Question 8:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Explanation):
(A) An overgeneralised and unverified prototype about a particular group
(B) The use of any psychological technique in the treatment of mental/psychological disorders
(C) A therapy assuming people have control over their behaviour and choices
(D) A consistent behaviour pattern manifested in various circumstances

List II (Concept):
(I) Psychotherapy
(II) Stereotype
(III) Humanistic Therapy
(IV) Trait

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

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Question 9:

Sigmund Freud proposed three parts of personality as .....

1. Id-Ego-Superego
2. Subconscious-Unconscious-Conscious
3. Introvert-Extrovert-Complex
4. Emotional-Cognitive-Affective

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Question 10:

Consider the following statements and select the correct options:
(A) Proteins are made of amino acids
(B) Essential amino acids are those which the body cannot synthesise in required amounts
(C) Mid Day Meal Programme of Government of India exclusively targets beggars and street vendors
(D) ICDS scheme of Government of India predominantly supports the nutritional requirement of 0-6 years children in the country

1. (A), (B), and (D) only
2. (B), (C), and (D) only
3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
4. (A) and (B) only

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Question 11:

The National Nutrition Policy was announced in .... and improving the purchasing power of the urban and rural poor was mentioned as an .....

1. 1993, Indirect policy instrument
2. 1998, Indirect policy instrument
3. 1993, Direct short-term intervention
4. 1978, Direct short-term intervention

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Question 12:

Arrange the following designs with respect to hypothesis testing/cause-effect relationship (least to highest):
(A) Experimental designs
(B) Exploratory qualitative designs
(C) Longitudinal designs
(D) Cross-sectional quantitative designs

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (B), (D), (C), (A)
3. (B), (C), (D), (A)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

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Question 13:

Which among the following is NOT a limitation of experimental designs?

1. Ethical issues with the participants
2. Small sample size
3. Non-representative nature of the sample
4. The ability to replicate the findings

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Question 14:

.... is a method where the researcher studies an intact cultural group in a natural setting over a prolonged period by collecting primarily observational data.

1. Phenomenological Research
2. Experimental Research
3. Ethnography
4. Grounded Approach

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Question 15:

Arrange the following steps in qualitative research in the order of occurrence (first to last):
(A) Develop rapport with the community
(B) Identify the problem
(C) Data analysis and report writing
(D) Participant observation

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (B), (A), (D), (C)
3. (B), (C), (D), (A)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 16:

............ is an example of critical collaborative ethnography in which researchers conduct field research, but community participants are collaborators in the process, so as to develop practical solutions to the problem.

1. Ethnography
2. Participatory Action Research
3. Social Constructivist Research
4. Phenomenological Research

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Question 17:

Arrange the following events in chronological order (oldest to the recent):
(A) Chadwick Sanitary Reforms
(B) Sustainable Development Goals
(C) Alma Ata Declaration
(D) Millennium Development Goals

1. (B), (C), (D), (A)
2. (A), (C), (D), (B)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

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Question 18:

The unique features of public health are ....
(A) Focus on population
(B) Organised community effort
(C) Inputs are drawn from different disciplines
(D) Evidence-based approach

1. (A), (B), and (D) only
2. (A) and (C) only
3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
4. (B), (C), and (D) only

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Question 19:

AIDS is....

1. Achieved Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
2. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
3. Acquired Immuno Disease Syndrome
4. Achieved Immuno Declining Syndrome

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Question 20:

Arrange the following National Programmes in the chronological order of their launch:
(A) Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme
(B) National Mental Health Programme
(C) RMNCH+A Programme
(D) National Programme for Control of Blindness

1. (D), (B), (A), (C)
2. (A), (B), (C), (D)
3. (D), (C), (B), (A)
4. (B), (C), (D), (A)

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Question 21:

Which of the following are correct?
(A) AIDS is a non-communicable disease
(B) The first test done to detect AIDS is the ELISA test
(C) Government of India launched the National AIDS Control Programme in 1992
(D) In India, the first HIV case was detected in 1986

1. (A), (B), and (D) only
2. (B), (C), and (D) only
3. (A), (C), and (D) only
4. (A) and (B) only

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Question 22:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Author/Expert):
(A) CEA Winslow
(B) Grotjahn
(C) James Lind
(D) John Snow

List II (Book/Idea/Concept Proposed):
(I) Social Medicine
(II) A Treatise of the Scurvy
(III) On the Mode of Communication of Cholera
(IV) Definition of Public Health

1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
4. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

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Question 23:

The Indian Research Fund Association was later known as....

1. ICMR
2. NIMR
3. All India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health
4. Indian Rural Health Institute

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Question 24:

Community diagnosis means....

1. Quantifying and summarising the important health problems and their associated socio-demographic characteristics in a community
2. Priority-wise listing of the common diseases seen in a community
3. Summarising the standards of living and lifestyle factors in a community
4. Identifying diseases prevalent in a community and ranking it as per the community's priorities

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Question 25:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Concept/Goal):
(A) Primary Health Care Approach
(B) National Health Policy
(C) Primary Level of Health Care
(D) Health for All Goal

List II (Component/Year):
(I) Sub-centre
(II) Intersectoral Coordination
(III) 1978
(IV) 2017

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

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Question 26:

Which of the following statistical test is used for a bivariate analysis when both the variables are categorical?

1. Unpaired t-test
2. Paired t-test
3. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
4. Chi-square test

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Question 27:

Which of the following statistical test is most suited for a continuous variable where data is collected before and after an intervention?

1. Unpaired t-test
2. Paired t-test
3. Chi-square test
4. Standard deviation

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Question 28:

Which of the following graph is best suited to show the trend of events with time?

1. Pie chart
2. Scatter plot
3. Histogram
4. Line diagram

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Question 29:

Quarantine in Public Health includes limitation of freedom of movement of which of the following groups?

1. Patients currently suffering from infectious disease
2. Patients who have been hospitalised
3. Healthy individuals not exposed to disease
4. Healthy individuals exposed to disease

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Question 30:

Which of the following is an anti-larval measure for mosquito control?

1. Space spray
2. Gambusia fish
3. Insecticide impregnated bednets
4. Mosquito repellant creams

Question 31:

Pneumoconiosis is an occupational disease that affects

1. Heart
2. Liver
3. Lung
4. Brain

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Question 32:

Which of the following is a nominal variable?

1. Blood sugar level
2. Temperature
3. Mother-tongue
4. Cost of a cup of tea

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Question 33:

The timeline to achieve WHO goal of 'Health for All' was set for the year

1. 1948
2. 2000
3. 2015
4. 2030

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Question 34:

The first international conference on health promotion which resulted in the proclamation of a Charter for Health Promotion was held in 1986 at

1. Alma Ata
2. Geneva
3. Jakarta
4. Ottawa

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Question 35:

Noise pollution is measured in units of

1. Lux
2. Decibels
3. Candella
4. mg/L

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Question 36:

What is the range in the following dataset?
42, 50, 44, 38, 35, 45

1. 42 to 45
2. 35 to 50
3. 42 to 44
4. 42 to 33

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Question 37:

What is the mode in the following dataset?
35, 44, 33, 35, 37, 44, 37, 35

1. 33
2. 35
3. 37
4. 44

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Question 38:

Arrange the following global health initiatives from the oldest to most recent one:
(A) Sustainable Development Goals
(B) Primary Health Care
(C) Millennium Development Goals
(D) Health for All

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (B), (D), (C), (A)
3. (B), (C), (D), (A)
4. (D), (B), (C), (A)

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Question 39:

The stages in the life history of a mosquito are listed. Arrange them in order:
(A) Adult
(B) Egg
(C) Pupa
(D) Larva

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (B), (C), (D), (A)
3. (B), (D), (C), (A)
4. (D), (C), (B), (A)

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Question 40:

Following are some of the basic steps in conducting a Randomised Controlled Trial (RCT). Arrange them in order:
(A) Randomisation
(B) Drawing up a protocol
(C) Intervention or manipulation
(D) Assessment of outcome

1. (D), (B), (C), (A)
2. (B), (D), (A), (C)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (B), (A), (C), (D)

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Question 41:

Diastolic blood pressure readings of four patients are given below. Arrange them according to increasing median diastolic blood pressure (least median first):
(A) 83, 71, 81, 79, 71
(B) 90, 83, 75, 90, 89
(C) 70, 72, 87, 75, 87
(D) 75, 84, 81, 95, 95

1. (B), (D), (C), (A)
2. (C), (A), (D), (B)
3. (A), (C), (B), (D)
4. (A), (C), (D), (B)

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Question 42:

Which of the following are probability sampling methods?
(A) Simple random sampling
(B) Systematic random sampling
(C) Stratified random sampling
(D) Purposive sampling

1. (A), (B), and (D) only
2. (A), (B), and (C) only
3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
4. (B), (C), and (D) only

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Question 43:

Which of the following studies are observational?
(A) Case-control study
(B) Cohort study
(C) Randomised Controlled Trial
(D) Non-randomised Trial

1. (A), (C), and (D) only
2. (A), (B), and (C) only
3. (A) and (B) only
4. (A), (B), and (D) only

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Question 44:

Which of the following are measures of variation (dispersion)?
(A) Mean
(B) Standard deviation
(C) Range
(D) Mean deviation

1. (A) and (B) only
2. (A), (B), and (D) only
3. (B) and (D) only
4. (B), (C), and (D) only

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Question 45:

Which of the following are occupational diseases?
(A) Silicosis
(B) Sickle cell anaemia
(C) Byssinosis
(D) Thalassemia

1. (A), (B), and (D) only
2. (A) and (C) only
3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
4. (A), (B), and (D) only

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Question 46:

Which of the following sources include data collection at the household level?
(A) Census
(B) National Family Health Survey
(C) Hospital records
(D) National Sample Survey

1. (A), (B), and (D) only
2. (A) and (D) only
3. (A), (B), (C), and (D)
4. (A) and (B) only

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Question 47:

Which of the following sources include data collection at the household level?

1. Quantifying and summarising the important health problems and their associated socio-demographic characteristics in a community
2. Priority-wise listing of the common diseases seen in a community
3. Summarising the standards of living and lifestyle factors in a community
4. Identifying diseases prevalent in a community and ranking it as per the community's priorities

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Question 48:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Exposure):
(A) Cotton dust
(B) Asbestos
(C) Silica
(D) Hay or grain dust

List II (Disease):
(I) Byssinosis
(II) Silicosis
(III) Asbestosis
(IV) Farmer's lung

1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(III), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

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Question 49:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Study design):
(A) Case-control study
(B) Cohort study
(C) Cross-sectional study
(D) Descriptive study

List II (Analytical outcome):
(I) Relative risk
(II) Time, place, and person distribution
(III) Odds ratio
(IV) Prevalence

1. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
3. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

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Question 50:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Screening test outcome):
(A) True-positive
(B) True-negative
(C) False-positive
(D) False-negative

List II (Definition):
(I) Person has disease and screening test result is positive
(II) Person does not have disease and screening test result is negative
(III) Person does not have disease and screening test result is positive
(IV) Person has disease and screening test result is negative

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

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Question 51:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Blood Alcohol Level):
(A) 0.02
(B) 0.08
(C) 0.20
(D) 0.40

List II (Effects on Brain):
(I) Loss of judgment, altered mood
(II) Confusion, disorientation
(III) Loss of coordination and impaired control
(IV) Lethal dose

1. (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
2. (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
3. (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
4. (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)

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Question 52:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Dietary Reference Intake):
(A) Recommended Dietary Allowances
(B) Chronic Disease Risk Reduction Intakes
(C) Tolerable Upper Intake
(D) Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges

List II (Purpose):
(I) Highest average daily nutrient intake levels with no risk
(II) Adequate energy while reducing chronic disease risk
(III) Meets needs of nearly all healthy individuals
(IV) Low risks of chronic diseases

1. (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
2. (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
3. (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
4. (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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Question 53:

A day’s meals provide 50 grams of protein. Calculate the calories contributed by protein.

1. 200
2. 350
3. 250
4. 300

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Question 54:

Arrange the following parasites in order of increasing incubation period for occurrence of symptoms in humans:
(A) Falciparum malaria
(B) Vivax malaria
(C) Quartan malaria
(D) Ovale malaria

1. (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (2) (A), (B), (D), (C)
3. (3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (4) (C), (B), (D), (A)

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Question 55:

Following is true of the Yellow Fever Vaccine:

1. (A) Live attenuated, lyophilized (freeze-dried) vaccine
   (B) Has 17D strain
   (C) After reconstitution must be used within 6 hours
   (D) Validity of Vaccination Certificate after 10 days
2. (2) (A), (B), and (C) only
3. (3) (A), (B), (C), and (D)
4. (4) (B), (C), and (D) only

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Question 56:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Disease):
(A) Pertussis
(B) Measles
(C) Mumps
(D) Rubella

List II (Herd Immunity Threshold):
(I) 92-94%
(II) 75-86%
(III) 83-94%
(IV) 80-85%

1. (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
2. (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
3. (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

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Question 57:

Match List I with List II:

List I (Vaccine):
(A) BCG
(B) Measles vaccine
(C) Mumps vaccine
(D) Varicella vaccine

List II (Strain):
(I) Edmonston Zagreb strain
(II) Jeryl Lynn strain
(III) Danish-1331 strain
(IV) OKA strain

1. (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
2. (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
3. (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
4. (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)

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