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Diksha Seth

Content Strategist | Updated On - Jan 15, 2025

The CUET PG 2024 Applied Geography and Geoinformatics exam was conducted on March 16, 2024. The paper comprised 75 multiple-choice questions without sectional divisions, covering topics in Applied Geography and Geoinformatics. The overall difficulty level was rated as easy, with a good number of attempts estimated at 65 or more

CUET PG 2024 Applied Geography and Geoinformatics Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CUET PG 2024 Applied Geography and Geoinformatics​​ Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution

Cuet PG Applied Geography and Geoinformatics 2024 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

_____ is a woolly-haired racial group.

  1. Nordic
  2. Alpine
  3. Mediterranean
  4. Negroes
Correct Answer: (4) Negroes.
View Solution

The "Negroes" refers to a woolly-haired racial group typically associated with Sub-Saharan African populations.Understanding the racial categories in human geography helps in understanding the distribution and diversity of human populatio


Question 2:

In the High Stationary Stage of demographic transition ____.

  1. infant mortality rates are low
  2. population growth rates are low and fluctuating
  3. population explosion takes place
  4. population growth rates are high due to high crude birth rates
Correct Answer: (2) population growth rates are low and fluctuating.
View Solution

In the High Stationary Stage, both birth and death rates are high, leading to a stable or slow-growing population with fluctuating growth rates. Demographic transition models help explain the change in population growth patterns due to socioeconomic development


Question 3:

In 2022, life expectancy at birth was highest in ____:

  1. Japan
  2. United Kingdom
  3. Switzerland
  4. France
Correct Answer: (1) Japan.
View Solution

Japan has consistently ranked high in life expectancy, thanks to its healthcare system, diet, and social structure. Countries with strong healthcare systems and high standards of living tend to have the highest life expectancy rates


Question 4:

_____ settlements are generally associated with fertile alluvial plains and security concerns.

  1. Semi-compact
  2. Hamleted
  3. Nucleated
  4. Dispersed
Correct Answer: (3) Nucleated.
View Solution

Nucleated settlements are typically found in fertile regions where land is highly valued for agriculture and near water sources for protection and development. Nucleated settlements are often associated with areas of high agricultural value, which require organized land use


Question 5:

_____ signifies 'super-metropolitan region' extending as a union of conurbations.

  1. Global city
  2. Megalopolis
  3. Meta city
  4. Edge city
Correct Answer: (2) Megalopolis.
View Solution

A megalopolis refers to a large, heavily urbanized area formed by the merging of multiple metropolitan areas. Megalopolises represent the integration of multiple urban areas, creating vast interconnected regions with high p


Question 6:

Arrange the following religions in descending order in terms of the number of adherents in the world.

A. Hinduism
B. Christianity
C. Buddhism
D. Islam

  1. (B), (A), (C), (D)
  2. (D), (B), (C), (A)
  3. (B), (D), (A), (C)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (D), (A), (C).
View Solution

Christianity and Islam have the largest number of adherents, followed by Hinduism and Buddhism. Christianity and Islam are the two largest religions by number of adherents, with Hinduism and Buddhism following behind.


Question 7:

Arrange the following continents in descending order of level of urbanization in 2022:

A. Africa
B. South America
C. Asia
D. Europe

  1. (A), (B), (D), (C)
  2. (D), (B), (A), (C)
  3. (D), (B), (C), (A)
  4. (B), (D), (C), (A)
Correct Answer: (4) (B), (D), (C), (A).
View Solution

South America is more urbanized than Europe, followed by Asia and then Africa, with Africa having the least level of urbanization. South America has a higher urbanization rate than Europe, with Asia and Africa trailing due to varying developmental levels


Question 8:

Match List I with List II

List I List II
A. Geography of Leisure I. Psychology 
B. Cultural Geography II. Welfare Economics 
C. Behavioural Geography III. Anthropology
D. Geography of Social Well-being IV. Sociology
  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II).
View Solution

The geography of leisure is related to sociology, cultural geography to anthropology, behavioral geography to psychology, and social well-being to welfare economics. Human geography overlaps with various disciplines such as sociology, anthropology, and economics to study the human-environment interaction.


Question 9:

Identify the correct statements with reference to the level of urbanization in 2022.

A. The level of urbanization at world level is 45 percent.
B. Africa is less urbanized as compared to world average level of urbanization.
C. Western Asia is more urbanized as compared to Central Asia.
D. Europe is less urbanized as compared to North America.

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only
  2. (B), (C) and (D) only
  3. (A), (C) and (D) only
  4. (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (B), (C) and (D) only.
View Solution

Africa is less urbanized compared to the world average, Western Asia is more urbanized than Central Asia, and Europe is less urbanized compared to North America. Urbanization levels can vary significantly between regions, with Europe and North America having higher urbanization rates than Africa and parts of Asia.


Question 10:

Scale is commonly used to evaluate topological and metric properties of the geographic features on a map except:

  1. Distance
  2. Direction
  3. Connectivity
  4. Contiguity
Correct Answer: (4) Contiguity.
View Solution

Scale is used for distance, direction, and connectivity but not for contiguity, which refers to the adjacency or closeness of features, not directly measurable on a map scale. Contiguity refers to how close or adjacent features are to each other, which cannot be directly evaluated using a scale.


Question 11:

If two points located 10 kms apart on ground are shown 5 cm apart on a map, then the scale of the map is:

  1. 1:200
  2. 1:20000
  3. 1:200000
  4. 1:2000
Correct Answer: (3) 1:200000.
View Solution

The scale of a map is the ratio of the distance on the map to the actual distance on the ground. Here:

  • Actual distance = 10 km = 10,000 meters = 1,000,000 cm
  • Map distance = 5 cm
Scale = Actual distance / Map distance = 1,000,000 / 5 = 200,000. Hence, the scale is 1:200000.


Question 12:

In a Zenithal projection, a _____ is made tangent to a transparent globe:

  1. Plane
  2. Cone
  3. Circle
  4. Cylinder
Correct Answer: (1) Plane.
View Solution

A Zenithal projection, also called an azimuthal projection, involves projecting points from a globe onto a flat plane that is tangent to the globe at a single point. This projection is especially useful for mapping polar regions because it accurately represents direction and distances from the center point.


Question 13:

Bonne's projection is a modified version of the:

  1. Cylindrical projection
  2. Zenithal projection
  3. Mercator's projection
  4. Simple conical projection
Correct Answer: (4) Simple conical projection.
View Solution

Bonne's projection is a pseudoconical map projection that modifies the simple conical projection. It uses a secant standard parallel, meaning the cone cuts through the Earth rather than just touching it, reducing distortion in the mapped area.


Question 14:

Which of the following landforms is represented in the given diagram?

  1. Plain
  2. V-shaped valley
  3. U-shaped valley
  4. Hill
Correct Answer: (4) Hill.
View Solution

The diagram shows a landform with elevations, characteristic of a hill. Hills are smaller than mountains and represent raised areas of land. They are formed by tectonic forces or erosion-resistant formations over time.


Question 15:

Arrange the following reference numbers of topographical maps/sheets in order of scale from larger to smaller:

A. 44 A/10/5
B. 53 B/10
C. 64C
D. 45

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (B), (A), (C), (D)
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
View Solution

The reference numbers follow a pattern where more subdivisions (e.g., A/10/5) indicate larger scales. Thus, 44 A/10/5 has the largest scale, followed by 53 B/10, 64C, and finally, 45 with the smallest scale.


Question 16:

Identify the correct statements about scale and representation of information on maps:

A. Increasing the size of the denominator of R.F. means making each detail smaller and less exact on a map.
B. A map always gives every detail to scale.
C. As more area is covered by the same size map, exactness of delineation increases and more details can be shown.
D. All maps give areas covered by spatially distributed details to the scale shown within the scope of each map unit.

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only
  3. (A) and (D) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3) (A) and (D) only.
View Solution

Statements A and D are correct as they accurately describe the relationship between scale and detail in maps. Increasing the denominator reduces detail (Statement A), and spatially distributed details are mapped within the defined scale (Statement D).


Question 17:

Identify correct statements about flow diagrams:

A. When part of the commodity is diverted to a different direction, the main flowline also becomes thicker proportionately.
B. The thickness of the lines is determined by the volume or quantity of flow.
C. Movement of goods can be shown only in one direction.
D. These are not suitable to represent international, national or regional flow of various commodities.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (B) and (D) only
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only
  3. (A), (C) and (D) only
  4. (A) and (B) only
Correct Answer: (4) (A) and (B) only.
View Solution

Flow diagrams are graphical tools that represent the quantity and direction of flows. Line thickness corresponds to volume, and diversions affect the main flowline thickness proportionally. Statements C and D are incorrect because flows can be multidirectional and are suitable for large-scale flows.


Question 18:

Match LIST I with LIST II:

LIST I LIST II
A. Million sheet I. 4°×4°
B. Quarter-inch sheet II. 1°×1°
C. Half-inch sheet III. 30'x30'
D. Special sheet IV. 7'30"×7'30"
  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV).
View Solution

Each sheet type represents a defined geographic area. Million sheets cover large areas, while special sheets are for detailed, smaller areas. The dimensions align with these categories.


Question 19:

Choose the sequence of the following Biosphere Reserves from West to East as per Map of India:

A. Panna
B. Simlipal
C. Nilgiri
D. Manas

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (C), (A), (B), (D)
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  4. (C), (B), (A), (D)
Correct Answer: (2) (C), (A), (B), (D).
View Solution

The order from West to East is based on their geographical locations. Nilgiri (Southwest India) is followed by Panna (Central India), Simlipal (Eastern India), and finally, Manas (Northeast India).


Question 20:

Choose the sequence of the following initiatives of Govt. of India in chronological order of their initiation:

A. Biological Diversity Act
B. National Green Tribunal
C. National Environment Policy
D. Project Elephant

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (D), (A), (B), (C)
  3. (D), (A), (C), (B)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (3) (D), (A), (C), (B).
View Solution

The initiatives are listed chronologically based on their implementation:

  • Project Elephant: Launched in 1992 to protect elephants.
  • Biological Diversity Act: Enacted in 2002 for biodiversity conservation.
  • National Environment Policy: Introduced in 2006 for environmental governance.
  • National Green Tribunal: Established in 2010 for effective environmental dispute resolution.


Question 21:

Match List I with List II:

LIST I (National Parks) LIST II (States)
A. Keoladeo IV. Rajasthan
B. Bandipur III. Karnataka
C. Indravati II. Chhattisgarh
D. Kaziranga I. Assam
  1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).
View Solution

Keoladeo is located in Rajasthan, Bandipur in Karnataka, Indravati in Chhattisgarh, and Kaziranga in Assam. These parks are key wildlife sanctuaries preserving India's rich biodiversity.


Question 22:

The aim of the Indian Rhino Vision-2020 was to increase one-horn Rhino population at least up to by 2020:

  1. 1000
  2. 2000
  3. 3500
  4. 3000
Correct Answer: (4) 3000.
View Solution

The Indian Rhino Vision-2020 aimed to achieve a population of 3000 one-horned rhinoceroses by 2020, focusing on Assam's rhino habitats. Measures included habitat improvement, anti-poaching efforts, and translocation to increase numbers and distribution.


Question 23:

Acid rain is caused by:

  1. Ozone depletion
  2. Water pollution
  3. Deforestation
  4. Air pollution
Correct Answer: (4) Air pollution.
View Solution

Acid rain results from air pollution where sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) released into the atmosphere react with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form acidic compounds, which fall as rain. Its effects include soil degradation and harm to aquatic life.


Question 24:

_____ is a natural cause of loss of biodiversity:

  1. Habitat loss
  2. Environmental pollution
  3. Drought
  4. Intensive agriculture
Correct Answer: (3) Drought.
View Solution

Drought, a natural phenomenon, leads to loss of biodiversity by reducing water availability, food sources, and causing habitat destruction, thereby impacting ecosystems.


Question 25:

Identify the correct statements:

A. The term Ecology was coined by Haeckel in 1869.
B. Ecology is the study of relationships between organisms and their physical environment as well as relationships among organisms.
C. The term Ecosystem was coined by Tansley in 1924.
D. The sequential succession in 'sere' begins with 'Climatic Climax'.

  1. (B) and (D) only.
  2. (A) and (B) only.
  3. (A) and (D) only.
  4. (C) and (D) only.
Correct Answer: (2) (A) and (B) only.
View Solution

Haeckel coined "Ecology" in 1869 to describe interactions between organisms and their environments. Tansley introduced "Ecosystem" in 1935, not 1924. Climatic Climax is the end stage of ecological succession, not its beginning.


Question 26:

_____ is constructed to protect coastal land from sea wave and current erosion:

  1. Break Waters
  2. Masonry Sea Wall
  3. Groins
  4. Dredging
Correct Answer: (2) Masonry Sea Wall.
View Solution

Masonry sea walls are structures built along coastlines to absorb and deflect wave energy, preventing erosion of coastal land. These walls are crucial for protecting human settlements and infrastructure in coastal areas.


Question 27:

Which of the following is NOT a biotic component of an ecosystem?

  1. Plants
  2. Animals
  3. Chemotrophs
  4. Air
Correct Answer: (4) Air.
View Solution

Air is an abiotic factor in an ecosystem, contributing to the non-living components, while plants, animals, and chemotrophs are living (biotic) components essential for energy transfer and ecological balance.


Question 28:

_____ steel plant was set up with German collaboration:

  1. Bhilai
  2. Rourkela
  3. Bokaro
  4. Durgapur
Correct Answer: (2) Rourkela.
View Solution

Rourkela Steel Plant was established in 1955 with German technical collaboration under the public sector. It marked a significant step in India's industrial development and self-reliance in steel production.


Question 29:

The North-South and the East-West corridors intersect at:

  1. Katni
  2. Gwalior
  3. Agra
  4. Thansi
Correct Answer: (4) Thansi.
View Solution

The intersection of the North-South and East-West corridors at Thansi facilitates major transportation routes, significantly enhancing connectivity across India for trade and commerce.


Question 30:

In 2021-22, the leading state in marine fish production was:

  1. Gujarat
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. West Bengal
  4. Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: (1) Gujarat.
View Solution

Gujarat's extensive coastline and efficient fisheries management have made it the leading state in marine fish production in India. Its contribution is vital to India's blue economy.


Question 31:

Among the following states, __ recorded the lowest literacy in 2011:

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Punjab
  4. Uttarakhand
Correct Answer: (3) Punjab.
View Solution

Punjab recorded the lowest literacy rate in 2011 among the given states. Literacy rates can differ widely across states depending on their socio-economic development and educational initiatives.


Question 32:

In 2011, the average annual exponential population growth rate of India was __ percent:

  1. 2.6
  2. 1.97
  3. 1.64
  4. 1.76
Correct Answer: (3) 1.64.
View Solution

India’s average annual population growth rate was 1.64% in 2011. Population growth rate is crucial for understanding demographic trends and planning resources.


Question 33:

In 2011, the most urbanized state among the following was:

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Kerala
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Mizoram
Correct Answer: (4) Mizoram.
View Solution

Mizoram had the highest urbanization rate in 2011 among the options given. Urbanization varies across states, with some states experiencing higher rates of urban growth due to economic opportunities and migration.


Question 34:

Kudremukh iron ore area is located in:

  1. Jharkhand
  2. Karnataka
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Chhattisgarh
Correct Answer: (2) Karnataka.
View Solution

Kudremukh is one of the largest iron ore mining areas in Karnataka, India. Kudremukh is important for India’s iron ore supply, located in the Western Ghats of Karnataka.


Question 35:

Arrange the following states in descending order in sugarcane production in 2021-22:

(A) Karnataka
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (C), (D), (A), (B)
  2. (D), (C), (A), (B)
  3. (C), (D), (B), (A)
  4. (D), (C), (B), (A)
Correct Answer: (3) (C), (D), (A), (B).
View Solution

The correct order of sugarcane production in 2021-22 is Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Gujarat. Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra are the top producers of sugarcane in India, followed by Karnataka and Gujarat.


Question 36:

Match List I with List II:

LIST I (Hydro Electric Project) LIST II (State)
A. Machkund II. Odisha
B. Obra I. Uttar Pradesh
C. Mettur IV. Tamil Nadu
D. Jaldhaka III. West Bengal
  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  4. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III).
View Solution

The Machkund hydroelectric project is located in Odisha, Obra in Uttar Pradesh, Mettur in Tamil Nadu, and Jaldhaka in West Bengal. Hydroelectric projects are critical for renewable energy generation and are strategically located across India.


Question 37:

Identify the correct statements:

(A) Deccan trap is dominantly made up of sedimentary rocks.
(B) Dharwar rocks of India are rich in coal reserves.
(C) Himalayas belong to alpine orogeny.
(D) Main Boundary Thrust lies between the Lower Himalaya and the Outer Himalaya.

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only
  2. (C) and (D) only
  3. (A) and (D) only
  4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (C) and (D) only.
View Solution

The Himalayas belong to alpine orogeny, and the Main Boundary Thrust separates the Lower Himalaya and the Outer Himalaya. The Himalayan orogeny has shaped the geological features of the region, affecting biodiversity and geology.


Question 38:

According to explaining the economic landscape, the prime objective of economic geography is:

  1. Wetgens
  2. Brown
  3. Thoman
  4. Huntington
Correct Answer: (1) Wetgens.
View Solution

Wetgens is recognized for emphasizing the role of economic geography in explaining the economic landscape. Economic geography is essential for understanding the relationship between location, economy, and resources.


Question 39:

Ruhr-Westphalia coalfield is located in:

  1. Germany
  2. USA
  3. Spain
  4. Brazil
Correct Answer: (1) Germany.
View Solution

The Ruhr-Westphalia coalfield is one of the largest coalfields in Europe, located in Germany. The Ruhr region is crucial for Germany's industrialization and remains one of Europe's major coal-producing areas.


Question 40:

Pilbara and Mt. Tom Price are major iron ore fields of:

  1. China
  2. Brazil
  3. South Africa
  4. Australia
Correct Answer: (4) Australia.
View Solution

Pilbara and Mt. Tom Price are located in Western Australia and are known for some of the world’s largest iron ore deposits. Australia is one of the top producers and exporters of iron ore, with Pilbara being a significant mining region.


Question 41:

Shifting cultivation is known as Chena in:

  1. Malaysia
  2. Sri Lanka
  3. Indonesia
  4. Nigeria
Correct Answer: (2) Sri Lanka.
View Solution

In Sri Lanka, shifting cultivation is locally known as Chena, a traditional agricultural practice. Chena cultivation involves clearing forests or shrublands for farming, which is prevalent in some parts of Sri Lanka.


Question 42:

The Orient Express runs in:

  1. Japan
  2. China
  3. Europe
  4. South America along Andes mountains
Correct Answer: (3) Europe.
View Solution

The Orient Express is a famous long-distance train that operates in Europe, primarily connecting Paris with Istanbul. The Orient Express is iconic for its luxurious service and historical significance in European rail travel.


Question 43:

Kanagawa Science Park is located in:

  1. South Korea
  2. North Korea
  3. Japan
  4. Vietnam
Correct Answer: (3) Japan.
View Solution

Kanagawa Science Park is located in Japan, known for its innovation and research in science and technology. Japan is a global hub for technology and innovation, and Kanagawa Science Park contributes to its research and development initiatives.


Question 44:

In 2021-22, the leading exports of India were of:

  1. Agriculture and allied products
  2. Ores and Minerals
  3. Crude and Petroleum Products (including coal)
  4. Manufactured goods
Correct Answer: (4) Manufactured goods.
View Solution

Manufactured goods remained the leading export category for India in 2021-22, contributing significantly to the country's economy. India's manufacturing sector plays a crucial role in the nation's export economy.


Question 45:

Arrange the following industrial centres of USA in east to west direction:

(A) Chicago
(B) Pittsburgh
(C) Baltimore
(D) Seattle

  1. (B), (C), (A), (D)
  2. (C), (B), (A), (D)
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (2) (C), (B), (A), (D).
View Solution

The correct order of the industrial centers in the USA from east to west is Baltimore, Pittsburgh, Chicago, and Seattle. The industrial centers of the USA span the country from east to west, contributing to various sectors such as manufacturing and trade.


Question 46:

Match List I with List II:

LIST I (HDI Level) LIST II (Country)
A. Very High III. New Zealand
B. High I. Brazil
C. Medium IV. India
D. Low II. Yemen
  1. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).
View Solution

New Zealand has a very high HDI, Brazil has high HDI, Yemen has medium HDI, and India has low HDI. The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite measure used to rank countries based on their level of human development.


Question 47:

Identify the correct statements with reference to Weber's Industrial Location Theory:

(A) The theory was proposed by American scholar Weber in 1909.
(B) It is based on the principle of least-cost location.
(C) Weber used the critical isodapane concept to show the effect of cheaper labor.
(D) It is based on multiple modes of transportation.

  1. (A), (B) and (D) only
  2. (A), (B) and (C) only
  3. (B) and (C) only
  4. (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3) (B) and (C) only.
View Solution

Weber's Industrial Location Theory is primarily based on the principle of least-cost location, emphasizing how labor costs impact industrial placement, using the concept of critical isodapane. Weber’s model provides essential insights into the location of industries by focusing on minimizing costs related to transportation and labor.


Question 48:

The maximum damage to property in an earthquake is caused by:

  1. P Waves
  2. S Waves
  3. L Waves
  4. Gamma Waves
Correct Answer: (3) L Waves.
View Solution

L Waves, also known as surface waves, cause the maximum damage to structures during an earthquake due to their slow but powerful motion. Surface waves are the most destructive during earthquakes as they travel along the Earth's surface.


Question 49:

Tsunami is not caused by:

  1. Undersea Earthquake
  2. Undersea Massive Landslide
  3. Undersea Explosive Volcano
  4. Collision of Continental Plates
Correct Answer: (4) Collision of Continental Plates.
View Solution

Tsunamis are generally caused by undersea earthquakes, landslides, or volcanic eruptions, not by the collision of continental plates alone. Tsunamis are typically triggered by sudden movements of the Earth's crust, such as undersea earthquakes or volcanic eruptions.


Question 50:

The flood caused by high tidal waves is called:

  1. Coastal Flood
  2. Urban Flood
  3. Flash Flood
  4. River Flood
Correct Answer: (1) Coastal Flood.
View Solution

Coastal floods are caused by high tidal waves, often as a result of storm surges or tsunamis, affecting coastal areas. Coastal floods are common in areas prone to hurricanes, cyclones, or tsunamis, where tides and storm surges can cause significant damage.


Question 51:

The catastrophic cyclones in Saffir-Simpson scale are also known as:

  1. Scale-I
  2. Scale-V
  3. Scale-IV
  4. Scale-III
Correct Answer: (2) Scale-V.
View Solution

The most catastrophic cyclones on the Saffir-Simpson scale are categorized as Scale-V, which indicates wind speeds of over 157 mph (252 km/h). Saffir-Simpson scale is used to measure the intensity of hurricanes and cyclones, with Scale-V representing the most severe.


Question 52:

__ drought represents deficiency of surface and groundwater storages:

  1. Meteorological
  2. Agricultural
  3. Hydrological
  4. Ecological
Correct Answer: (3) Hydrological.
View Solution

Hydrological drought occurs when there is a deficiency in surface and groundwater storage, affecting water supply for both human use and ecosystems. Hydrological drought is associated with a significant reduction in water resources, often affecting rivers and groundwater tables.


Question 53:

As per National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) Act, 2005 __ acts as the chairperson of NDMA:

  1. Prime Minister of India
  2. President of India
  3. Union Home Minister
  4. Union Defence Minister
Correct Answer: (1) Prime Minister of India.
View Solution

According to the NDMA Act, 2005, the Prime Minister of India serves as the chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority. The NDMA is tasked with formulating policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management in India.


Question 54:

Match List I with List II:

LIST I (Hazard Types) LIST II (Impacts)
A. Geological IV. Landslide
B. Climate III. Flood & Drought
C. Biological II. Epidemics
D. Accidental I. Building or Bridge Collapse
  1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).
View Solution

Geological hazards lead to landslides, climate hazards cause floods and droughts, biological hazards result in epidemics, and accidental hazards cause building or bridge collapse. Understanding the impact of different hazards is critical for effective disaster management and mitigation.


Question 55:

Arrange the following major earthquakes of India in descending order of their magnitude:

(A) Bhuj, Gujarat (2001)
(B) Darbhanga, Bihar (1988)
(C) Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh (1997)
(D) Uttarkashi, Uttarakhand (1991)

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (A), (B), (D), (C)
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (2) (A), (B), (D), (C).
View Solution

The earthquakes are arranged in descending order of magnitude as Bhuj, Gujarat (2001), Darbhanga, Bihar (1988), Uttarkashi, Uttarakhand (1991), and Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh (1997). Understanding the magnitude of historical earthquakes helps in assessing seismic risk and preparedness.


Question 56:

Arrange the following cyclones in descending order of their occurrence year:

(A) Tith
(B) Amphan
(C) Tauktae
(D) Fani

  1. (D), (B), (A), (C)
  2. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).
View Solution

The cyclones in descending order of their occurrence year are Tauktae, Amphan, Fani, and Tith. Cyclones are named in chronological order, and their intensity can vary depending on oceanic and atmospheric conditions.


Question 57:

Identify the Do's during Cyclone disaster:

(A) Switch on the light for better visibility.
(B) Try to stay in the affected area as long as you can.
(C) Move your valuable items to upper floors to avoid flood damage.
(D) Trust only on messages broadcasted by government officials.

  1. (B) and (D) only
  2. (C) and (D) only
  3. (A) and (D) only
  4. (B) and (C) only
Correct Answer: (2) (C) and (D) only.
View Solution

During a cyclone disaster, it is important to trust official sources of information and protect valuable items by moving them to higher floors to prevent flood damage. Effective disaster management involves following safety protocols and heeding official government advisories.


Question 58:

MICE is an acronym for:

  1. Meeting In Controlled Environment
  2. Meetings, Incentives, Conferences, Exhibitions
  3. Make Indigenous Conversation Environment
  4. Made In China Exclusively
Correct Answer: (2) Meetings, Incentives, Conferences, Exhibitions.
View Solution

MICE refers to a specialized tourism segment that focuses on meetings, incentives, conferences, and exhibitions, and plays an important role in the global tourism industry. MICE tourism is an essential segment in business tourism, promoting networking and business development opportunities.


Question 59:

__ holds the highest percent share in Foreign Tourist Arrivals in India during 2021:

  1. USA
  2. Bangladesh
  3. England
  4. Australia
Correct Answer: (1) USA.
View Solution

The USA recorded the highest share in foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2021, driven by strong cultural and business connections. The United States has historically been a major source of international tourists for India due to its large diaspora and business ties.


Question 60:

__ state registered the highest percentage of Domestic Tourist Visits during 2021:

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Karnataka
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: (4) Uttar Pradesh.
View Solution

Uttar Pradesh registered the highest percentage of domestic tourist visits in 2021, largely due to its significant religious sites like Varanasi and Agra. Uttar Pradesh is a major center for religious tourism in India, attracting millions of domestic visitors each year.


Question 61:

__ was ranked at top in Travel and Tourism Development Index, 2021:

  1. USA
  2. Japan
  3. Spain
  4. Switzerland
Correct Answer: (2) Japan.
View Solution

Japan was ranked at the top in the Travel and Tourism Development Index 2021 due to its infrastructure and tourism resources. Tourism indices are important indicators of the economic impact of tourism on a country’s development.


Question 62:

The Draft of recent National Tourism Policy was finalized in the year:

  1. 2022
  2. 2023
  3. 2020
  4. 2021
Correct Answer: (1) 2022.
View Solution

The National Tourism Policy Draft was finalized in 2022 to boost the tourism sector and encourage sustainable tourism practices. National policies play an important role in shaping the direction of tourism development in the country.


Question 63:

Arrange the following Natural Tourism sites from North to South on Map of India:

(A) Bandipur National Park
(B) Kaziranga National Park
(C) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(D) Kanha National Park

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (C), (B), (D), (A)
  3. (B), (C), (D), (A)
  4. (C), (B), (A), (D)
Correct Answer: (2) (C), (B), (D), (A).
View Solution

The correct sequence from north to south is Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Kaziranga National Park, Kanha National Park, and Bandipur National Park. Geographic knowledge of tourism sites helps in better planning and route development for tourists.


Question 64:

Identify the correct statements about Medical Tourism in India:

(A) India has the team of world's best doctors.
(B) Indian system of medicines are among the most ancient systems of medical treatment.
(C) Most doctors and nurses are fluent in English.
(D) The healthcare facilities in India are best in the world.

  1. (A) and (D) only
  2. (B) and (C) only
  3. (C) and (D) only
  4. (B) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (2) (B) and (C) only.
View Solution

India is known for its ancient medical systems like Ayurveda and Unani, and most medical professionals are fluent in English, which helps attract international patients. Medical tourism is a growing sector in India, driven by quality healthcare at affordable costs.


Question 65:

Match List I with List II:

LIST I (Tourist Sites) LIST II (State/UTs)
Ellora Caves II. Maharashtra
Sun Temple IV. Odisha
Kovalam Beach I. Kerala
Ooty III. Tamil Nadu
  1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  2. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  4. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III).
View Solution

Ellora Caves are in Maharashtra, Sun Temple is in Odisha, Kovalam Beach is in Kerala, and Ooty is in Tamil Nadu. India has diverse tourist attractions, from ancient caves to beautiful beaches, and each state has its unique offerings.


Question 66:

Match List I with List II:

LIST I (Tourist Place) LIST II (Tourism Type)
A. Valley of Flowers III. Natural
B. Kashi Vishwanath IV. Pilgrimage
C. Vadnagar II. Cultural
D. Medanta I. Medical
  1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).
View Solution

Valley of Flowers is a natural site, Kashi Vishwanath is a pilgrimage site, Vadnagar is a cultural site, and Medanta is a medical tourism facility. India offers diverse tourism options, ranging from natural wonders to cultural and religious heritage sites.


Question 67:

__ headed the World Commission on Environment and Development:

  1. Zubcevic
  2. Fieldhouse
  3. Brundtland
  4. Reagan
Correct Answer: (3) Brundtland.
View Solution

Gro Harlem Brundtland, former Prime Minister of Norway, headed the World Commission on Environment and Development and is known for her work on sustainable development. The World Commission on Environment and Development, led by Brundtland, popularized the concept of sustainable development.


Question 68:

The deadline for achieving the Millennium Development Goals was the year:

  1. 2015
  2. 2030
  3. 2012
  4. 2010
Correct Answer: (1) 2015.
View Solution

The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) set by the United Nations were targeted to be achieved by 2015. The MDGs aimed to address global poverty, education, gender equality, and other critical issues by 2015.


Question 69:

National Environment Policy, 2006 defines CDM as:

  1. Clean Development Mechanism
  2. Combined Development Mechanism
  3. Community Development and Management
  4. Community Development Mechanism
Correct Answer: (1) Clean Development Mechanism.
View Solution

The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is defined in the National Environment Policy, 2006, and is aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions while promoting sustainable development. CDM projects provide a means to achieve environmental sustainability while facilitating economic growth.


Question 70:

UN Climate Change Conference (COP27) was held in:

  1. United Kingdom
  2. Egypt
  3. UAE
  4. Brazil
Correct Answer: (2) Egypt.
View Solution

The 27th UN Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP27) was held in Egypt in 2022, focusing on climate action and sustainable development. COP27 in Egypt brought together nations to address the global climate crisis and enhance cooperation for sustainable development.


Question 71:

Countries with high levels of human development invest more in:

  1. Agriculture sector
  2. Industrial sector
  3. Research
  4. Social sector
Correct Answer: (4) Social sector.
View Solution

Countries with high human development typically invest in the social sector, which includes education, healthcare, and welfare to improve the quality of life. High human development prioritizes well-being, which is supported through investment in social services.


Question 72:

Arrange the following themes of Sustainable Development Goals in ascending order of their Goal number:

(A) Decent Work and Economic Growth
(B) Reduced Inequalities
(C) No Poverty
(D) Life on Land

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  2. (C), (A), (B), (D)
  3. (C), (A), (D), (B)
  4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
Correct Answer: (2) (C), (A), (B), (D).
View Solution

The correct order of the SDGs by their Goal number is: No Poverty (1), Decent Work and Economic Growth (8), Reduced Inequalities (10), and Life on Land (15). The SDGs cover a range of critical areas, each addressing a different facet of sustainable development.


Question 73:

Match List I with List II:

LIST I (MDGs) LIST II (Theme)
Goal-1 IV. Eradicate Extreme Poverty
Goal-5 III. Improve Maternal Health
Goal-8 II. Global Partnership for Development
Goal-7 I. Ensure Environmental Sustainability
  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I).
View Solution

The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) focus on eradicating poverty, improving health, achieving gender equality, and ensuring environmental sustainability. MDGs were designed to focus on addressing urgent global challenges and improving people's quality of life.


Question 74:

Match List I with List II:

LIST I (Events) LIST II (Year)
Millennium Summit III. 2000
Rio+20 II. 2012
Agenda 2030 I. 2015
World Summit on Sustainable Development IV. 2002
  1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  2. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  3. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Correct Answer: (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV).
View Solution

The Millennium Summit occurred in 2000, Rio+20 in 2012, Agenda 2030 in 2015, and the World Summit on Sustainable Development in 2002. These global summits set the framework for sustainable development and cooperation among countries.


Question 75:

Identify the correct statements about the Rio+20 summit:

(A) It was held at Rio De Janeiro in 2015.
(B) It initiated the process to develop a set of Sustainable Development Goals.
(C) It ignored the UNEP on several fronts.
(D) It adopted ground-breaking guidelines on Green Economy Policy.

  1. (A) and (D) only
  2. (B) and (C) only
  3. (B) and (D) only
  4. (C) and (D) only
Correct Answer: (3) (B) and (D) only.
View Solution

The Rio+20 summit, held in 2012, was significant for initiating the process of developing the SDGs and adopting guidelines for a Green Economy. The Rio+20 summit played a key role in shaping the sustainable development agenda and addressing global challenges.


*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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