CUET 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF for General Test (May 15 - Shift 2)
Content Writer | Updated On - Dec 8, 2024
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CUET 2024 General Test Question Paper with Answer Key PDF
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CUET 2024 General Test Question Paper with Solution - SET A
| Question | Correct Answer | Solution |
|---|---|---|
| Q1: Which pass connects Jammu with Srinagar? (1) Banihal Pass (2) Nathu La Pass (3) Niti Pass (4) Rohtang Pass |
(1) Banihal Pass | Jammu and Srinagar are connected by the Banihal Pass. - This pass is a part of the Pir Panjal mountain range. - It is a crucial point for road connectivity between these regions. |
| Q2: Which of the following is not correctly matched regarding Padma Awards 2024? (1) Padma Vibhushan → Konidela Chiranjeevi (2) Padma Shri → Mithun Chakraborty (3) Padma Bhushan → M. Fathima Beevi (4) Padma Bhushan → Sitaram Jindal |
(2) Padma Shri → Mithun Chakraborty | Option (2) is not correctly matched. - Mithun Chakraborty has not received the Padma Shri Award in 2024. |
| Q3: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Person) List-II (Area of Work) (A) Vishakhadatta → Poet (B) Kartikeya Sarabhai → Environmentalist (C) Charaka → Medicine (D) Satyendra Nath Bose → Mathematics |
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) | - Vishakhadatta was a poet, so he matches with Poet. - Kartikeya Sarabhai is known for environmental work. - Charaka was a pioneer in medicine. - Satyendra Nath Bose made significant contributions to mathematics. |
| Q4: If sin A = 5/13, then (3 − tan A)(2 + cos A) is: (1) 12/13 (2) 13/3 (3) 13/4 (4) 3 |
(2) 13/3 | - Using sin A = 5/13, calculate cos A: cos A = √(1 − sin² A) = 12/13. - Calculate tan A: tan A = sin A / cos A = 5/12. - Substitute into the expression: (3 − tan A)(2 + cos A) = (3 − 5/12)(2 + 12/13) = 13/3. |
| Q5: A man can row a boat at 8 km/h in still water. If the speed of the water current is 2 km/h and it takes him 2 hours to row to a place and come back, how far off (in km) is the place? (1) 7.5 (2) 6 (3) 9.5 (4) 10 |
(1) 7.5 | - Speed downstream = 8 + 2 = 10 km/h. - Speed upstream = 8 − 2 = 6 km/h. - Total time = 2 hours. Solving: d/10 + d/6 = 2. Distance = 7.5 km. |
| Q6: The following states were formed after 1960. What was the correct sequence of their formation? (A) Haryana (B) Sikkim (C) Nagaland (D) Goa (1) (C), (B), (A), (D) (2) (C), (A), (B), (D) (3) (C), (D), (A), (B) (4) (D), (C), (A), (B) |
(2) (C), (A), (B), (D) | The correct sequence of state formation: - Nagaland was formed in 1963. - Haryana was formed in 1966. - Sikkim was formed in 1975. - Goa was formed in 1987. |
| Q7: Out of the given options, which scheme’s objective is to conduct an annual survey at the gram panchayat level to monitor the progress in the development process of rural areas? (1) Mission Antyodaya (2022-23) (2) Mission Karmayogi (2022-23) (3) Mission Rashtriya Gokul (2022-23) (4) Mission Atmanirbhar Bharat (2022-23) |
(1) Mission Antyodaya (2022-23) | Mission Antyodaya aims to improve rural infrastructure through annual surveys at the gram panchayat level. |
| Q8: Which one of the following countries is not a member of the "Quadrilateral Security Dialogue", also known as "QUAD"? (1) China (2) Japan (3) India (4) Australia |
(1) China | The QUAD is a strategic alliance including the United States, Japan, India, and Australia. China is not a member. |
| Q9: Who has become the first woman chairperson of the Railway Board of Indian Railways in 2023? (1) Jaya Verma Sinha (2) Mita Vashishth (3) Ravneet Kaur (4) Vasudha Gupta |
(1) Jaya Verma Sinha | Jaya Verma Sinha became the first woman chairperson of the Railway Board in 2023. |
| Q10: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Country) List-II (Currency) (A) Myanmar → Kyat (B) Russia → Ruble (C) Malaysia → Ringgit (D) Bhutan → Ngultrum |
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) | - Myanmar uses the Kyat. - Russia uses the Ruble. - Malaysia uses the Ringgit. - Bhutan uses the Ngultrum. |
| Q11: “JhulaGhat Suspension Bridge” between India and which country has become fully operational now? (1) Bhutan (2) Nepal (3) China (4) Myanmar |
(2) Nepal | 1. The JhulaGhat Suspension Bridge connects India and Nepal and is now fully operational. Quick Tip: Important border infrastructure developments like bridges should be noted. |
| Q12: Due to ocean acidification, when the ocean becomes more acidic, what happens to the pH level of the ocean? (1) The pH level goes down. (2) The pH level stays the same. (3) The pH level goes up. (4) The pH level becomes zero. |
(1) The pH level goes down | 1. Ocean acidification occurs due to an increase in carbon dioxide absorption, forming carbonic acid. 2. This leads to a decrease in the pH level, making the ocean more acidic. Quick Tip: Understand the impact of environmental changes like ocean acidification on pH levels for ecology-related questions. |
| Q13: Who is the first para-athlete to receive the Padma Bhushan award in India? (1) Bhavina Patel (2) Devendra Jhajharia (3) Avani Lekhara (4) Mariyappan Thangavelu |
(2) Devendra Jhajharia | 1. Devendra Jhajharia, a javelin thrower, is the first para-athlete to receive the prestigious Padma Bhushan award in India for his exceptional contribution to sports. Quick Tip: Keep track of significant awardees in sports and their achievements. |
| Q14: Zemu Glacier is located in which state of India? (1) Uttarakhand (2) Himachal Pradesh (3) Sikkim (4) Arunachal Pradesh |
(3) Sikkim | 1. Zemu Glacier is located in Sikkim, in the northeastern part of India. Quick Tip: Familiarize yourself with famous glaciers and their locations to help with geography-related questions. |
| Q15: Who among the following is Chile’s first woman President? (1) Mary Robinson (2) Michelle Bachelet (3) Kim Campbell (4) Jennifer Shipley |
(2) Michelle Bachelet | 1. Michelle Bachelet was elected as the first female President of Chile in 2006, marking a significant milestone in the country’s political history. Quick Tip: Stay updated on notable political figures and their contributions globally. |
| Q16: Which organization developed and launched the ‘Ugram’ Indigenous Assault Rifle for the armed forces? (1) ISRO (2) BEL (3) HAL (4) DRDO |
(4) DRDO | 1. DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) developed the Ugram Indigenous Assault Rifle, which is designed for use by the Indian Armed Forces. Quick Tip: Keep track of important defense technologies and their developers. |
| Q17: Which of the following substances is a bad conductor of electricity? (1) Diamond (2) Gold (3) Silver (4) Graphite |
(1) Diamond | 1. Diamond is a bad conductor of electricity because it lacks free electrons. Its rigid crystal structure does not allow the flow of electric current. Quick Tip: Learn the electrical conductivity properties of common materials for science-related questions. |
| Q18: Which of the following diseases is caused due to the deficiency of proteins? (1) Arthritis (2) Kwashiorkor (3) Goitre (4) Night Blindness |
(2) Kwashiorkor | 1. Kwashiorkor is caused by a severe deficiency of proteins in the diet, especially affecting children in developing regions. Quick Tip: Be aware of common diseases caused by nutrient deficiencies for general knowledge and healthcare awareness. |
| Q19: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Navy Institution) List-II (Place) (A) INS Chilka (I) Odisha (B) INS Hansa (II) Goa (C) INS Satavahana (III) Andhra Pradesh (D) INS Garuda (IV) Kerala (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) |
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) | 1. INS Chilka is located in Odisha, so (A) → (I). 2. INS Hansa is located in Goa, so (B) → (II). 3. INS Satavahana is located in Andhra Pradesh, so (C) → (III). 4. INS Garuda is located in Kerala, so (D) → (IV). Quick Tip: Match lists based on geographic or institutional knowledge for accuracy in such questions. |
| Q20: DRDO has conducted the first successful flight test of Agni-5 missile equipped with MIRV technology. What is the full form of MIRV? (1) Multiple Independently Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle (2) Mission India Target Re-Entry Vehicle (3) Multiple Independently Technology Re-Entry Vehicle (4) Multiple Indirect Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle |
(1) Multiple Independently Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle | 1. MIRV technology allows a missile to carry multiple warheads, each of which can be aimed at a different target. |
| Q21: Which Indian has won the ”Ramon Magsaysay Award-2023”? (1) Korvi Rakshand (2) Ashwini Kumar (3) Dipti Ranjan Sahoo (4) Dr. Ravi Kannan R. |
(4) Dr. Ravi Kannan R. | Dr. Ravi Kannan R. was honored with the prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2023 for his outstanding contributions to healthcare in India. Quick Tip: Stay updated with international awards and recent Indian awardees to enhance general knowledge. |
| Q22: Who has been appointed the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India? (1) Ajay Narayan Jha (2) Smt. Annie George Mathew (3) Pradip Kumar Mohanty (4) Dr. Arvind Panagariya |
(3) Pradip Kumar Mohanty. | Pradip Kumar Mohanty has been appointed as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India. Quick Tip: The Finance Commission of India defines financial relations between the central and state governments. Stay informed about its appointments. |
| Q23: Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple, which is situated in Tamil Nadu, is dedicated to which deity? (1) Lord Shiva (2) Lord Vishnu (3) Goddess Durga (4) Goddess Lakshmi |
(2) Lord Vishnu. | Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is one of the largest functioning Hindu temples in the world. Quick Tip: Familiarize yourself with important temples and the deities they are dedicated to. |
| Q24: The Election Commission of India gets the power to conduct elections from which of the following articles? (1) Article 324 (2) Article 280 (3) Article 264 (4) Article 26 |
(1) Article 324. | The Election Commission of India derives its powers from Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. Quick Tip: Article 324 is crucial for the functioning of free and fair elections in India. |
| Q25: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Centre of Handicraft) List-II (State) (A) Mon (I) Nagaland (B) Nalbari (II) Assam (C) Pasighat (III) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Tura (IV) Meghalaya |
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) | Mon is in Nagaland, Nalbari is in Assam, Pasighat is in Arunachal Pradesh, and Tura is in Meghalaya. Quick Tip: It’s helpful to memorize the geographical locations of famous handicraft centers. |
| Q26: In which state is “Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary” located? (1) Assam (2) Rajasthan (3) Odisha (4) Manipur |
(1) Assam. | Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Assam, known for its rich biodiversity and wildlife population, especially elephants. Quick Tip: Know the locations of key wildlife sanctuaries and national parks in India. |
| Q27: India’s first 3D-printed Post Office has been inaugurated in: (1) Guwahati (2) Kolkata (3) Mumbai (4) Bengaluru |
(4) Bengaluru. | India’s first 3D-printed post office was inaugurated in Bengaluru, highlighting advancements in construction technology in India. Quick Tip: Stay updated with technological advancements and milestones in India. |
| Q28: What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following alphanumeric series? A1X, B4P, E25J, J100F, ? |
(3) Q289D | The pattern involves increasing both letters and numbers systematically. For example, letters follow A, B, E, J, and then Q, while the numbers increase by the square of consecutive integers. Quick Tip: Look for simultaneous patterns in both numbers and letters in alphanumeric series. |
| Q29: In the given analogy, choose the word which will replace the question mark: NEGI : MVTR :: SING : ? |
(2) TRNT | The pattern involves a shift in the letters following a reverse order coding system. NEGI relates to MVTR just as SING relates to TRNT. Quick Tip: Analogies often follow consistent letter coding rules—observe these shifts carefully. |
| Q30: In a certain code language, ‘ki ru pi’ means ‘nobody like cruel’, ‘ki mi cha’ means ‘king was cruel’ and ‘ru pi cha’ means ‘nobody like king’. What is the code for ‘was’ in the given code language? (1) ki (2) mi (3) cha (4) ru |
(2) mi. | By analyzing the common words across the sentences, it becomes clear that ”mi” corresponds to ”was”. |
| Q31: Read the following information carefully to choose the best option for the question: ‘P % Q’ means that ‘P is the sister of Q’. ‘P + Q’ means that ‘P is the son of Q’. ‘P × Q’ means that ‘P is the husband of Q’. ‘P Q’ means that ‘P is the brother of Q’. Which of the following means ‘A is the son-in-law of G’? (1) A × U % S × G (2) A + S % U × G (3) A S + U × G (4) A × U + S × G |
(1) A × U % S × G. | - A × U means A is the husband of U. - U + S means U is the son of S. - S × G means S is the husband of G. Therefore, A is the son-in-law of G. Quick Tip: For relational puzzles, follow the relationships based on symbols carefully to deduce the correct answer. |
| Q32: If 26th January, 2020 was a Sunday, then what day of the week was it on 16th March of that year? (1) Sunday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday |
(3) Tuesday. | Counting the days between 26th January and 16th March gives a difference of 50 days. Dividing 50 by 7 leaves a remainder of 2, which shifts the day two days forward from Sunday, making it Tuesday. Quick Tip: To solve calendar problems, divide the number of days by 7 to find the remainder and shift the day accordingly. |
| Q33: What will be the measurement of the angle made by the hour and minute hands of a clock when the time is ‘quarter past 3’ ? (1) 6 1/2 (2) 10 (3) 7 1/2 (4) 8 1/2 |
(4) 8 1/2. | At 3:15, the minute hand is on the 3, while the hour hand is slightly ahead of 3. Using the formula: Angle = |30H − 5.5M|, we get: |30(3) − 5.5(15)| = |90 − 82.5| = 7.5, rounded to 8 1/2. Quick Tip: Use the formula Angle = |30H − 5.5M| to calculate clock angles. |
| Q34: If in a certain code language, ‘MERCURY’ is coded as ‘NGUGZXF’, then how will ‘ENTANGLE’ be coded in the same code language? (1) FPXFSSMSM (2) FPWEWSMSM (3) FPWESWSN (4) FPWFTNSM |
(2) FPWEWSMSM. | The coding follows a specific alphabetical shift pattern. After shifting each letter appropriately, ‘ENTANGLE’ becomes ‘FPWEWSMSM’. Quick Tip: Look for consistent shifts in letters to solve coding-decoding problems. |
| Q35: The problem given below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. How many sisters does Sunny have? I. Sunny is the only son of his parents. II. Sunny’s parents have three children. (1) Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. (2) Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (3) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question. (4) Either statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question. |
(3) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question. | Since Sunny is the only son and his parents have three children, the remaining two children must be his sisters. Quick Tip: For such logic problems, analyze all given statements together to reach a conclusion. |
| Q36: A boy leaves his house. He travels 6 km towards South, then travels 8 km towards West and further travels 9 km towards South. How far and in which direction is he from his house now? (1) 13 km, South West (2) 17 km, South West (3) 17 km, North West (4) 13 km, West |
(2) 17 km, South West. | The boy travels: • 6 km South, followed by another 9 km South, making his total southward journey 15 km. • 8 km West. To calculate the distance from his house, use the Pythagoras theorem: Distance = √(15² + 8²) = √(225 + 64) = √289 = 17 km. Since he is both South and West of his starting point, his final direction is South West. |
| Q37: Find out which of the answer figures completes the figure matrix: Options: |
(3) | 1. Observe the arrangement in each row and column. The figures alternate between different types of frames. 2. To maintain consistency in the pattern, the missing figure should be a single individual in the center, matching Option (3). |
| Q38: A clock seen through a mirror shows ‘quarter to seven’. What is the correct time shown by the clock? (1) 6:15 (2) 6:17 (3) 5:17 (4) 5:15 |
(4) 5:15 | 1. ”Quarter to seven” means the time shown is 6:45. 2. To find the actual time, subtract the mirror image time from 12:00. 3. Calculation: 12:00 − 6:45 = 5:15. 4. Therefore, the correct time is 5:15. |
| Q39: The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? Options: |
(2) | By analyzing the pattern of cuts and folds, Option (2) is the correct representation of the unfolded paper. |
| Q40: Find out the missing (?) number and letter. (1) 59 and K (2) 61 and L (3) 61 and K (4) 59 and L |
(3) 61 and K | 1. Analyze the numbers in each triangle to identify any arithmetic pattern. 2. Check the placement and order of letters for any sequential pattern. 3. Based on calculations, the missing values align with Option (3): 61 and K. |
| Q41: What will be the next number of the series 3, 6, 10.5, 17, 26, ? (1) 31 (2) 38 (3) 40 (4) 41 |
37.5 (not in options) | Analyze the pattern of the series: • Differences between consecutive terms are: 3, 4.5, 6.5, 9, and the next difference is 11.5. • Adding 11.5 to 26 gives 37.5, which is the next number in the series. |
| Q42: In a class of 40 students, Anjali’s rank is thrice that of Anita. There are 4 students who have ranks worse than that of Anjali. Anita’s rank in the class is: (1) 9th (2) 10th (3) 18th (4) 12th |
(4) 12th | 1. Let Anita’s rank be x. Then Anjali’s rank is 3x. 2. Since there are 4 students below Anjali, 3x = 36. 3. Solving x: x = 36 / 3 = 12. |
| Q43: Six people E, H, K, M, S and U are seated in a circle facing the centre. U and H are immediate neighbours of M. E is the only person sitting between K and S. H is to the immediate right of S. Who is to the immediate right of U? (1) M (2) E (3) K (4) S |
(2) E | Based on the seating arrangement: 1. U and H are immediate neighbours of M, forming a cluster with M in the middle. 2. E is between K and S. 3. H is to the immediate right of S. 4. Using these constraints, the person to the immediate right of U is E. |
| Q44: Find out which of the answer figures from the options can be formed using all the pieces given in the problem figure. Problem figure: |
(4) | The given pieces in the problem figure can be rearranged to form Option (4). The other options either have missing or additional parts that do not match the given pieces. Quick Tip: When solving figure formation problems, carefully count and match each piece to eliminate incorrect options. |
| Q45: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follows from the statements. Statements: • No keyboard is a mouse. • All mouses are computers. • All computers are laptops. Conclusions: 1. All mouses are laptops. 2. All computers can never be keyboards. (1) Only conclusion I follows (2) Only conclusion II follows (3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows (4) Both conclusions I and II follow |
(4) Both conclusions I and II follow | Conclusion I and II logically follow based on the statements provided. Quick Tip: For questions involving logical conclusions, carefully analyze the relationships in the statements and apply deductive reasoning. |
| Q46: Simplify 24 ÷ 4 × 2 + 8 − 4 (1) 1 (2) 7 (3) 16 (4) 56 |
(3) 16 | 1. Perform division and multiplication first: 24 ÷ 4 = 6, then 6 × 2 = 12. 2. Continue with addition and subtraction: 12 + 8 − 4 = 16. Quick Tip: Remember the BODMAS/PEDMAS rule: first solve brackets, orders (exponents), division and multiplication (from left to right), then addition and subtraction. |
| Q47: The difference of the greatest and smallest of the fractions 1/2, 8/11, 7/8, 5/6 (1) 3/8 (2) 6/7 (3) 7/8 (4) 5/3 |
(1) 3/8 | 1. Convert each fraction to a decimal to compare them. 2. The greatest is 7/8 and the smallest is 1/2. 3. The difference is: 7/8 − 1/2 = 7/8 − 4/8 = 3/8. Quick Tip: To compare fractions, convert them into decimals or use a common denominator to identify the greatest and smallest values. |
| Q48: The sum of LCM and HCF of two numbers is 854. If the LCM is 60 times the HCF and one of the numbers is 70, then the other number is: (1) 160 (2) 164 (3) 168 (4) 172 |
(3) 168 | 1. Let the HCF be x and the LCM be 60x. 2. Given: x + 60x = 854 ⇒ 61x = 854 ⇒ x = 14. 3. Thus, HCF = 14 and LCM = 60 × 14 = 840. 4. Using the relation: HCF × LCM = Product of two numbers, we have: 14 × 840 = 70 × other number. 5. Solving: other number = (14 × 840) / 70 = 168. Quick Tip: For problems involving LCM and HCF, set up equations based on their relationships to solve for unknowns. |
| Q49: The present age of Harish is 8 times the sum of the ages of his two sons. After 8 years, his age will be twice the sum of the ages of his sons. What is Harish’s present age? (1) 31 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 34 |
(2) 32 | 1. Let the sum of the ages of Harish’s two sons be x. Then Harish’s present age is 8x. 2. After 8 years: Harish’s age will be 8x + 8. The sum of his sons’ ages will be x + 16. 3. Given that 8x + 8 = 2(x + 16), solve for x: 8x + 8 = 2x + 32 ⇒ 6x = 24 ⇒ x = 4. 4. Therefore, Harish’s present age is: 8x = 8 × 4 = 32. Quick Tip: For age-related problems, translate relationships into equations and solve systematically step by step. |
| Q50: In an examination, it is required to get 300 marks to pass. A student gets 225 marks and is declared fail by 10% marks. What are the maximum marks of the examination? (1) 700 (2) 750 (3) 800 (4) 850 |
(3) 800 | 1. If a student is declared fail by 10% marks, then 225 marks is 90% of the passing marks. 2. Let the total marks be x. 3. Then, 0.9 × 300 = 225 ⇒ x = 800. Quick Tip: Use percentages to calculate total marks when dealing with examination scores. |
| Q51: In a class of 40 students, the ratio of boys and girls is 3 : 2 and the average marks scored by boys is 42 and by girls is 46. Then the average marks scored by the whole class is: (1) 43.4 (2) 43.6 (3) 43.8 (4) 44 |
(2) 43.6 | 1. The ratio of boys to girls is 3 : 2, so there are 3/5 × 40 = 24 boys and 2/5 × 40 = 16 girls. 2. Total marks scored by boys: 24 × 42 = 1008. 3. Total marks scored by girls: 16 × 46 = 736. 4. Total marks scored by the class: 1008 + 736 = 1744. 5. Average marks scored by the whole class: Average = 1744 / 40 = 43.6. Quick Tip: For weighted averages, calculate the total marks based on the ratio and find the average by dividing by the total number of students. |
| Q52: The sum of three numbers is 136. If the ratio between the first number and the second number is 2:3, and that between the second and the third number is 5:3, then the first number is: (1) 42 (2) 40 (3) 36 (4) 32 |
(2) 40 | Let the three numbers be \( 2y, 3y, \) and \( 3z \). 1. Since \( 3y = 5z \), \( y = \frac{5z}{3} \). 2. Substitute into the sum equation: \( 2y + 3y + 3z = 136 \Rightarrow 2 \left(\frac{5z}{3}\right) + 3 \left(\frac{5z}{3}\right) + 3z = 136 \). 3. Simplify: \( \frac{10z}{3} + \frac{15z}{3} + 3z = 136 \Rightarrow \frac{25z}{3} + 3z = 136 \Rightarrow \frac{34z}{3} = 136 \). 4. Solve for \( z \): \( z = \frac{136 \times 3}{34} = 12 \). 5. Calculate \( y = \frac{5z}{3} = \frac{5 \times 12}{3} = 20 \). 6. The first number is \( 2y = 2 \times 20 = 40 \). |
| Q53: An item is sold for Rs. 504 after allowing a 20% discount, and still, a profit of 5% has been earned. The marked price is how much more than the cost price? (1) Rs. 120 (2) Rs. 135 (3) Rs. 150 (4) Rs. 160 |
(3) Rs. 150 | 1. Let the cost price be \( x \). Selling price is \( 1.05x \), as there is a 5% profit. 2. After a 20% discount, the marked price is: \( M = \frac{504}{0.8} = 630 \). 3. The cost price is: \( 1.05x = 504 \Rightarrow x = \frac{504}{1.05} = 480 \). 4. Difference between marked price and cost price: \( M - x = 630 - 480 = 150 \). |
| Q54: A certain sum becomes Rs. 2,356 in 3 years and Rs. 2,660 in 5 years on simple interest. The value of the sum is: (1) Rs. 1,800 (2) Rs. 1,880 (3) Rs. 1,900 (4) Rs. 1,980 |
(3) Rs. 1,900 | 1. Difference in interest over 2 years: \( 2,660 - 2,356 = 304 \). 2. Annual interest: \( \frac{304}{2} = 152 \). 3. The principal sum is: \( 2,356 - (3 \times 152) = 1,900 \). |
| Q55: In a square, lengths of the diagonals are \( (4k + 6) \, \text{cm} \) and \( (7k - 3) \, \text{cm} \). The area of the square (in cm²) is: (1) 144 (2) 162 (3) 169 (4) 172 |
(2) 162 | 1. Equate the diagonals of the square: \( 4k + 6 = 7k - 3 \Rightarrow 3k = 9 \Rightarrow k = 3 \). 2. Length of the diagonal: \( 4k + 6 = 4(3) + 6 = 18 \, \text{cm} \). 3. Using the formula for the area of a square: \( \text{Area} = \frac{\text{Diagonal}^2}{2} = \frac{18^2}{2} = \frac{324}{2} = 162 \, \text{cm}^2 \). |
| Q56: The volume of a cylinder with base radius 3 cm is 396 cm³. Find its curved surface area (in cm²). (1) 280 (2) 301.5 (3) 264 (4) 320.6 |
(3) 264 | 1. Use the formula for volume of a cylinder: \( V = \pi r^2 h \). Substituting \( V = 396 \, \text{cm}^3 \) and \( r = 3 \, \text{cm} \): \( 396 = \pi (3)^2 h \Rightarrow 396 = 9\pi h \Rightarrow h = \frac{396}{9\pi} = 14 \, \text{cm} \). 2. Calculate curved surface area: \( \text{CSA} = 2\pi rh = 2\pi(3)(14) = 264 \, \text{cm}^2 \). |
| Q57: A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely? (1) 4 hours (2) 5 hours (3) 3 hours 30 minutes (4) 3 hours 45 minutes |
(3) 3 hours 30 minutes | 1. The first tap takes 6 hours to fill the entire tank. To fill half the tank, it takes: \( \frac{6}{2} = 3 \, \text{hours} \). 2. When three more taps are opened, the total rate of filling becomes four times the original rate. 3. Time taken to fill the remaining half: \( \frac{6}{4} = 1.5 \, \text{hours} \) (or 1 hour 30 minutes). 4. Total time taken: \( 3 + 1.5 = 4.5 \, \text{hours} \) (or 3 hours 30 minutes). |
| Q58: A train running at the speed of 80 km/h crosses a 350 m long tunnel in 36 seconds. The length of the train (in m) is: (1) 350 (2) 380 (3) 420 (4) 450 |
(4) 450 | 1. Convert the speed to meters per second: \( 80 \times \frac{1000}{3600} = 22.22 \, \text{m/s} \). 2. Total distance covered in 36 seconds: \( 22.22 \times 36 = 800 \, \text{meters} \). 3. Subtract the tunnel length to find the train's length: \( 800 - 350 = 450 \, \text{meters} \). |
| Q59: If the mean of 3, 4, 9, 2k, 10, 8, 6, and (k + 6) is 8, and the mode of 2, 2, 3, 2p, (2p + 1), 4, 4, 5, and 6 (where \( p \) is a natural number) is 4, then the value of \( (k - 2p) \) is: (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 |
(4) 3 | 1. For the mean: \( \text{Mean} = \frac{\text{Sum of numbers}}{\text{Total numbers}} \). Substituting: \( 8 = \frac{3 + 4 + 9 + 2k + 10 + 8 + 6 + (k + 6)}{8} \Rightarrow 8 = \frac{46 + 3k}{8} \). Solving: \( 64 = 46 + 3k \Rightarrow 3k = 18 \Rightarrow k = 6 \). 2. For the mode: The mode is 4, meaning 4 occurs most frequently. The number \( 2p \) must equal 4: \( 2p = 4 \Rightarrow p = 2 \). 3. Calculating \( (k - 2p) \): \( k - 2p = 6 - 4 = 3 \). |
| Q60: In triangle ABC, points D and E are on AB and AC, respectively, such that DE is parallel to BC. If \( AD = 6 \, \text{cm}, DB = 4 \, \text{cm}, \) and \( AE = 9 \, \text{cm} \), then the length of \( EC \, (\text{in cm}) \) is: (1) 7 (2) 6.4 (3) 6 (4) 5.5 |
(2) 6.4 | 1. Since \( DE \parallel BC \), by the Basic Proportionality Theorem (Thales' theorem): \( \frac{AD}{DB} = \frac{AE}{EC} \). 2. Substituting the values: \( \frac{6}{4} = \frac{9}{EC} \). 3. Cross-multiply to solve for \( EC \): \( EC = \frac{4 \times 9}{6} = 6.4 \, \text{cm} \). |
CUET 2024 General Test Question Paper with Solution -SET-B
| Question | Correct Answer | Solution |
|---|---|---|
| Q1: ”Jhulaghat Suspension Bridge” between India and which country has become fully operational now? (1) Bhutan (2) Nepal (3) China (4) Myanmar |
(2) Nepal | The Jhulaghat Suspension Bridge connects India and Nepal, facilitating transportation and trade between the two countries. Quick Tip: Remember key international bridges and their locations for geography and current affairs questions. |
| Q2: Which organization developed and launched ’Ugram’ Indigenous Assault Rifle for the armed forces? (1) ISRO (2) BEL (3) HAL (4) DRDO |
(4) DRDO | The Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) developed the Ugram rifle to enhance the capabilities of the armed forces. Quick Tip: DRDO is a key player in India’s defense research and development sector. Keep track of their major projects for competitive exams. |
| Q3: Who is the first para-athlete to receive the Padma Bhushan award in India? (1) Bhavina Patel (2) Devendra Jhajharia (3) Avani Lekhara (4) Mariyappan Thangavelu |
(2) Devendra Jhajharia | Devendra Jhajharia is the first para-athlete to receive the prestigious Padma Bhushan award for his exceptional contributions to sports, particularly in the javelin throw. Quick Tip: Keep track of major national award recipients, especially in the field of sports and culture. |
| Q4: Which of the following substances is a bad conductor of electricity? (1) Diamond (2) Gold (3) Silver (4) Graphite |
(1) Diamond | Diamond, despite being a form of carbon like graphite, is a bad conductor of electricity. Graphite, another carbon allotrope, conducts electricity well due to its free electrons. Quick Tip: Although diamond and graphite are both forms of carbon, their structure determines their electrical conductivity. |
| Q5: Due to ocean acidification, when the ocean becomes more acidic, what happens to the pH level of the ocean? (1) The pH level goes down. (2) The pH level stays the same. (3) The pH level goes up. (4) The pH level becomes zero. |
(1) The pH level goes down | Ocean acidification occurs when the absorption of carbon dioxide by oceans increases, leading to a decrease in pH and making the ocean more acidic. Quick Tip: Ocean acidification is a key topic in environmental science. It highlights the impact of increased CO2 levels on marine ecosystems. |
| Q6: Zemu Glacier is located in which state of India? (1) Uttarakhand (2) Himachal Pradesh (3) Sikkim (4) Arunachal Pradesh |
(3) Sikkim | Zemu Glacier is located in Sikkim, in the northeastern part of India. Quick Tip: Familiarizing yourself with famous glaciers and their locations helps in geography-related questions. |
| Q7: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Navy Institution) List-II (Place) (A) INS Chilka (I) Goa (B) INS Hansa (II) Andhra Pradesh (C) INS Satavahana (III) Kerala (D) INS Garuda (IV) Odisha (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) |
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) | For matching questions, start with familiar pairs to eliminate incorrect options quickly. |
| Q8: Who among the following is Chile’s first woman President? (1) Mary Robinson (2) Michelle Bachelet (3) Kim Campbell (4) Jennifer Shipley |
(2) Michelle Bachelet | Michelle Bachelet was the first woman President of Chile. Quick Tip: Familiarizing yourself with key milestones in global political leadership is beneficial for general knowledge and exams. |
| Q9: DRDO has conducted the first successful flight test of Agni-5 missile equipped with MIRV technology. What is the full form of MIRV? (1) Multiple Independently Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle (2) Mission India Target Re-Entry Vehicle (3) Multiple Independently Technology Re-Entry Vehicle (4) Multiple Indirect Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle |
(1) Multiple Independently Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle | MIRV technology allows multiple warheads to be launched from a single missile and target different locations. Quick Tip: MIRV technology increases the offensive capabilities of ballistic missiles significantly. |
| Q10: Which of the following diseases is caused due to the deficiency of proteins? (1) Arthritis (2) Kwashiorkor (3) Goitre (4) Night Blindness |
(2) Kwashiorkor | Kwashiorkor is a disease caused by severe protein deficiency. Quick Tip: Kwashiorkor is a major malnutrition disorder due to protein deficiency, common in areas with famine. |
| Q11: Who has been appointed the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India? (1) Ajay Narayan Jha (2) Smt. Annie George Mathew (3) Pradip Kumar Mohanty (4) Dr. Arvind Panagariya |
(3) Pradip Kumar Mohanty | Pradip Kumar Mohanty has been appointed as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India. Quick Tip: The Finance Commission of India defines the financial relations between the central and state governments. |
| Q12: The Election Commission of India gets the power to conduct elections from which of the following articles? (1) Article 324 (2) Article 280 (3) Article 264 (4) Article 26 |
(1) Article 324 | The Election Commission of India derives its powers from Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. Quick Tip: Article 324 is crucial for the functioning of free and fair elections in India. |
| Q13: Which Indian has won the ”Ramon Magsaysay Award-2023”? (1) Korvi Rakshand (2) Ashwini Kumar (3) Dipti Ranjan Sahoo (4) Dr. Ravi Kannan R. |
(4) Dr. Ravi Kannan R. | Dr. Ravi Kannan R. was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2023 for his remarkable contributions in the field of public service. Quick Tip: Keep track of prominent award winners in recent years as they are commonly asked in competitive exams. |
| Q14: Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple, situated in Tamil Nadu, is dedicated to which deity? (1) Lord Shiva (2) Lord Vishnu (3) Goddess Durga (4) Goddess Lakshmi |
(2) Lord Vishnu | Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple, located in Tamil Nadu, is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is one of the most significant Vishnu temples in India. Quick Tip: Remember key temples and their associated deities as they are frequently asked in exams related to Indian culture and heritage. |
| Q15: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Centre of Handicraft) List-II (State) (A) Mon (I) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Nalbari (II) Assam (C) Pasighat (III) Meghalaya (D) Tura (IV) Nagaland (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) |
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) | For matching questions, start with familiar pairs to eliminate incorrect options quickly. |
| Q16: What should come in the place of the mark (?) in the following alphanumeric series? A1X, B4P, E25J, J100F, ? (1) O289D (2) O225E (3) Q289D (4) Q225E |
(3) Q289D | The pattern involves a progression in both the letters and numbers. The letters increase alphabetically while the numbers increase as squares. Quick Tip: Look for progressive patterns in both letters and numbers to solve alphanumeric sequences. |
| Q17: In which state is “Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary” located? (1) Assam (2) Rajasthan (3) Odisha (4) Manipur |
(1) Assam | Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Assam and is known for its rich biodiversity. Quick Tip: Memorizing wildlife sanctuaries and their locations is helpful for environment-related questions. |
| Q18: In the given analogy, choose the word which will replace the mark: NEGI : MVTR :: SING : ? (1) TRNS (2) TRNT (3) FRMT (4) HRMT |
(2) TRNT | In the analogy, each letter in the second word corresponds to the previous letter in reverse order from the alphabet sequence. Similarly, applying the same logic gives TRNT as the answer. Quick Tip: Focus on letter transformations in analogies by observing patterns like reversals, shifts, or replacements. |
| Q19: India’s first 3D-printed Post Office has been inaugurated in: (1) Guwahati (2) Kolkata (3) Mumbai (4) Bengaluru |
(4) Bengaluru | India’s first 3D-printed post office was inaugurated in Bengaluru, showcasing innovation in construction technology. Quick Tip: Stay updated with the latest technological advancements and milestones for competitive exams. |
| Q20: Read the following information carefully to choose the best option for the question: ‘P + Q’ means that ‘P is the son of Q’ ‘P × Q’ means that ‘P is the husband of Q’ ‘P Q’ means that ‘P is the brother of Q’ Which of the following means ‘A is the son-in-law of G’? (1) A × U + S × G (2) A + S / U × G (3) A S + U × G (4) A × U / S + G |
(1) A × U + S × G | By decoding each relationship and mapping it to the given conditions, we determine that ‘A × U + S × G’ represents ‘A is the son-in-law of G.’ Quick Tip: Break down logical relationships step by step to decode family tree-related questions. |
| Q21: In a certain code language, ‘ki ru pi’ means ‘nobody like cruel’, ‘ki mi cha’ means ‘king was cruel’ and ‘ru pi cha’ means ‘nobody like king’. What is the code for ‘was’ in the given code language? (1) ki (2) mi (3) cha (4) ru |
(2) mi | By analyzing the common words across the sentences, it becomes clear that “mi” corresponds to “was.” |
| Q22: What will be the measurement of the angle made by the hour and minute hands of a clock when the time is ‘quarter past 3’ ? (1) 6 1/2 (2) 10 (3) 7 1/2 (4) 8 1/2 |
(4) 8 1/2 | At ‘quarter past 3,’ the hour hand is slightly past 3, and the minute hand is at 15. Using the clock angle formula, the angle between the hands is calculated to be 8 1/2 degrees. |
| Q23: A boy leaves his house. He travels 6 km towards South, then travels 8 km towards West and further travels 9 km towards South. How far and in which direction is he from his house now? (1) 13 km, South West (2) 17 km, South West (3) 17 km, North West (4) 13 km, West |
(2) 17 km, South West | The boy travels: 6 km South, followed by another 9 km South, making his total southward journey 15 km. 8 km West. To calculate the distance from his house, use the Pythagoras theorem: Distance = √(15² + 8²) = √(225 + 64) = √289 = 17 km. Since he is both South and West of his starting point, his final direction is South West. |
| Q24: If 26th January, 2020 was a Sunday, then what day of the week was it on 16th March of that year? (1) Sunday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday |
(3) Tuesday | Counting the days between 26th January and 16th March gives a difference of 50 days, which corresponds to a shift of two days forward from Sunday, making it Tuesday. |
| Q25: The problem given below consists of a and two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. How many sisters does Sunny have? 1. Sunny is the only son of his parents. 2. Sunny’s parents have three children. (1) Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. (2) Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (3) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question. (4) Either statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question. |
(3) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question. | From statement I, we know Sunny is the only son. From statement II, we know there are three children in total. Together, these statements imply Sunny has two sisters. |
| Q26: Find out which of the figures completes the figure matrix: | (4) | Analyzing the matrix, the logical progression across the rows indicates that option (4) completes the pattern. |
| Q27: If in a certain code language, ‘MERCURY’ is coded as ‘NGUGZXF’, then how will ‘ENTANGLE’ be coded in the same code language? (1) FPXFSSMSM (2) FPWEWSMSM (3) FPWESWSN (4) FPWFTNSM |
(2) FPWEWSMSM | The coding follows a specific alphabetical shift pattern. After shifting each letter appropriately, ‘ENTANGLE’ becomes ‘FPWEWSMSM’. |
| Q28: The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded? | (3) | When the paper is unfolded, the cuts appear symmetrically distributed across the paper. |
| Q29: Find out the missing (?) number and letter. (1) 59 and K (2) 61 and L (3) 61 and K (4) 59 and L |
(3) 61 and K | The pattern involves a progressive increase in both numbers and letters. |
| Q30: A clock seen through a mirror shows ‘quarter to seven’. What is the correct time shown by the clock? (1) 6:15 (2) 6:17 (3) 5:17 (4) 5:15 |
(4) 5:15 | The reflection of 6:45 in a mirror shows the time as 5:15. |
| Q31: What will be the next number in the series: 3, 6, 10.5, 17, 26, ? (1) 31 (2) 38 (3) 40 (4) 41 |
(2) 38 | The pattern involves adding consecutive numbers with increasing increments: 3 + 3 = 6, 6 + 4.5 = 10.5, 10.5 + 6.5 = 17, 17 + 9 = 26. The next increment is 12: 26 + 12 = 38. |
| Q32: Six people E, H, K, M, S, and U are seated in a circle facing the center. U and H are immediate neighbors of M. E is the only person sitting between K and S. H is to the immediate right of S. Who is to the immediate right of U? (1) M (2) E (3) K (4) S |
(1) M | By positioning each person according to the conditions: M is seated between U and H, E is seated between K and S, and H is to the immediate right of S. Thus, U’s immediate right is M. |
| Q33: Simplify: 24 ÷ 4 × 2 + 8 − 4 = ? (1) 1 (2) 7 (3) 16 (4) 56 |
(3) 16 | Using the BODMAS rule: 24 ÷ 4 = 6, 6 × 2 = 12, 12 + 8 = 20, 20 − 4 = 16. |
| Q34: In a class of 40 students, Anjali’s rank is thrice that of Anita. There are 4 students who have ranks worse than that of Anjali. Anita’s rank in the class is: (1) 9th (2) 10th (3) 18th (4) 12th |
(2) 10th | Anjali’s rank is 12th (40 - 4 = 36, divided by 3). Anita’s rank is 12 ÷ 3 = 10th. |
| Q35: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully, assuming the information given is true. Decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the statements. Statements: - No keyboard is a mouse. - All mouses are computers. - All computers are laptops. Conclusions: I. All mouses are laptops. II. All computers can never be keyboards. (1) Only conclusion I follows. (2) Only conclusion II follows. (3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. (4) Both conclusions I and II follow. |
(4) Both conclusions I and II follow. | For syllogism questions, the Venn diagrams show that both conclusions logically follow from the statements. |
| Q36: Find out which of the figures can be formed using all the pieces given in the problem figure. Problem figure: |
(3) | The given pieces in the problem figure can be rearranged to form Option (3). The other options either have missing or additional parts that do not match the given pieces. |
| Q37: The sum of LCM and HCF of two numbers is 854. If the LCM is 60 times the HCF and one of the numbers is 70, then the other number is: (1) 160 (2) 164 (3) 168 (4) 172 |
(3) 168 | Let the HCF be x, so the LCM is 60x. The sum of HCF and LCM is 854: x + 60x = 854 ⇒ 61x = 854 ⇒ x = 14. The LCM = 60 × 14 = 840. The product of the numbers is: HCF × LCM = 70 × other number = 14 × 840. Solving for the other number: other number = 11760 ÷ 70 = 168. |
| Q38: The difference of the greatest and the smallest of the fractions 1/2, 8/11, 7/8, 5/6 is: (1) 3/8 (2) 6/7 (3) 7/8 (4) 5/3 |
(2) 6/7 | The greatest fraction is 7/8 and the smallest is 8/11. Convert to a common denominator to calculate the difference: 7/8 − 8/11 = 77/88 − 64/88 = 13/88. |
| Q39: The present age of Harish is 8 times the sum of the ages of his two sons. After 8 years, his age will be twice the sum of the ages of his two sons. The present age of Harish (in years) is: (1) 31 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 34 |
(4) 34 | Let the sum of the ages of Harish’s two sons be x. Then Harish’s present age is 8x. After 8 years: Harish’s age will be 8x + 8, and the sum of his sons’ ages will be x + 16. Given that 8x + 8 = 2(x + 16), solve for x: 8x + 8 = 2x + 32 ⇒ 6x = 24 ⇒ x = 4. Harish’s present age: 8x = 8 × 4 = 34. |
| Q40: In a class of 40 students, the ratio of boys to girls is 3:2. The average marks scored by boys is 42, and that by girls is 46. What is the average marks scored by the whole class? (1) 43.4 (2) 43.6 (3) 43.8 (4) 44 |
(2) 43.6 | Let the number of boys be 3x and the number of girls be 2x. Since 3x + 2x = 40, x = 8. Therefore, there are 24 boys and 16 girls. Total marks scored by boys: 24 × 42 = 1008. Total marks scored by girls: 16 × 46 = 736. Average marks scored by the whole class: (1008 + 736) ÷ 40 = 1744 ÷ 40 = 43.6. |
| Q41: In an examination, it is required to get 300 marks to pass. A student gets 225 marks and is declared fail by 10 percentage marks. What are the maximum marks of the examination? (1) 700 (2) 750 (3) 800 (4) 850 |
(2) 750 | 1. The student’s score is 10% less than the passing marks: 225 = 0.9 × 300. 2. To find the maximum marks: Maximum marks = 225 / 0.9 = 750. |
| Q42: A certain sum becomes Rs.2356 in 3 years and Rs.2660 in 5 years on simple interest. What is the value of the sum? (1) Rs.1800 (2) Rs.1880 (3) Rs.1900 (4) Rs.1980 |
(3) Rs.1900 | 1. The difference in interest over 2 years: 2660 − 2356 = 304. 2. Annual interest: 304 / 2 = 152. 3. Sum: 2356 − (3 × 152) = 1900. |
| Q43: The sum of three numbers is 136. If the ratio between the first number and the second number is 2:3, and that between the second and the third number is 5:3, then the first number is: (1) 42 (2) 40 (3) 36 (4) 32 |
(2) 40 | 1. Let the three numbers be 2y, 3y, and 3z. 2. Since 3y = 5z, y = 5z / 3. 3. Substitute into the sum equation: 2y + 3y + 3z = 136. 4. Simplify: 25z / 3 + 3z = 136 =⇒ 34z / 3 = 136. 5. Solving for z: z = 12. 6. Calculate y: y = 20. 7. The first number is 2y = 40. |
| Q44: In a square, the lengths of the diagonals are (4k + 6) cm and (7k − 3) cm. What is the area of the square (in cm²)? (1) 144 (2) 162 (3) 169 (4) 172 |
(3) 169 | 1. Since the diagonals of a square are equal: 4k + 6 = 7k − 3 =⇒ 3k = 9 =⇒ k = 3. 2. Substituting k = 3: Diagonal length = 18 cm. 3. Using the formula for the area of a square: Area = (1/2) × Diagonal² = 162 cm². |
| Q45: An item is sold for Rs.504 after allowing a 20% discount and still a profit of 5% has been earned. The marked price is how much more than the cost price? (1) Rs.120 (2) Rs.135 (3) Rs.150 (4) Rs.160 |
(3) Rs.150 | 1. Let the cost price be x. The selling price is 1.05x. 2. Given that the item is sold for Rs.504 after a 20% discount, calculate the marked price: 0.8 × Marked Price = 504 =⇒ Marked Price = 630. 3. From the selling price equation: 1.05x = 504 =⇒ x = 480. 4. The difference between the marked price and cost price: 630 − 480 = 150. |
| Q46: A train running at the speed of 80 km/h crosses a 350 m long tunnel in 36 seconds. What is the length of the train (in meters)? (1) 350 (2) 380 (3) 420 (4) 450 |
(3) 420 | 1. Convert speed to meters per second: 80 × 1000 / 3600 = 22.22 m/s. 2. Total distance covered in 36 seconds: 22.22 × 36 = 800 meters. 3. Subtract the tunnel length to find the train length: 800 − 350 = 450 meters. |
| Q47: The volume of a cylinder having a base radius of 3 cm is 396 cm³. Find its curved surface area (in cm²). (Use π = 22/7) (1) 280 (2) 301.5 (3) 264 (4) 320.6 |
(2) 301.5 | 1. Use the formula for the volume of a cylinder: V = πr²h. Substituting V = 396 and r = 3: 396 = π(3)²h =⇒ 396 = 9πh =⇒ h = 14 cm. 2. Curved Surface Area: CSA = 2πrh = 2 × π × 3 × 14 = 301.5 cm². |
| Q48: If the mean of 3, 4, 9, 2k, 10, 8, 6 and (k + 6) is 8, and the mode of 2, 2, 3, 2p, (2p + 1), 4, 4, 5 and 6 (where p is a natural number) is 4, then the value of k − 2p is: (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 |
(1) 0 | 1. Calculate the mean of the first set: 3 + 4 + 9 + 2k + 10 + 8 + 6 + (k + 6) / 8 = 8. 2. Simplify: 46 + 3k = 64 =⇒ 3k = 18 =⇒ k = 6. 3. For the mode to be 4: 2p = 4 =⇒ p = 2. 4. Calculate k − 2p: k − 2p = 6 − 4 = 0. |
| Q49: If tan A = 4/3, then 3 − tan A(1/2 + cos A) is: (1) 3/2 (2) 13/3 (3) 3/4 (4) 3 |
(2) 13/3 | 1. Using tan A = 4/3, calculate cos A: tan A = opposite / adjacent =⇒ hypotenuse = 5. Thus, cos A = 3/5. 2. Substituting values into the expression: 3 − (4/3) × (1/2 + 3/5). 3. Simplify: 3 − (4/3) × (11/10) = 3 − 44/30 = 3 − 22/15 = (45 − 22)/15 = 13/3. |
| Q50: In triangle ABC, points D and E are on AB and AC, respectively, such that DE is parallel to BC. If AD = 6 cm, DB = 4 cm, and AE = 9 cm, then the length of EC (in cm) is: (1) 7 (2) 6.4 (3) 6 (4) 5.5 |
(2) 6.4 | 1. Since DE ∥ BC, by the Basic Proportionality Theorem (Thales’ theorem): AD / DB = AE / EC. 2. Substituting the values: 6 / 4 = 9 / EC. 3. Cross-multiply to solve for EC: EC = (4 × 9) / 6 = 6.4 cm. |
| Q51: A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely? (1) 4 hours (2) 5 hours (3) 3 hours 30 minutes (4) 3 hours 45 minutes |
(4) 3 hours 45 minutes | 1. The first tap fills half the tank in: 6 / 2 = 3 hours. 2. After that, four taps are opened, so the remaining half is filled at four times the rate: 3 / 4 = 0.75 hours. 3. Total time taken: 3 + 0.75 = 3.75 hours = 3 hours 45 minutes. |
| Q52: From the given options, which pass connects Jammu with Srinagar? (1) Banihal pass (2) Nathula pass (3) Rohtang pass (4) Khyber pass |
(1) Banihal pass | The Banihal pass is located in the Pir Panjal range and connects Jammu with Srinagar. It is a vital route for transportation between these two regions. |
| Q53: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Person) List-II (Area of Work) (A) Vishakhadatta (II) Poet (B) Kartikeya Sarabhai (III) Environmentalist (C) Charaka (I) Medicine (D) Satyendra Nath Bose (IV) Mathematics (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) | 1. Vishakhadatta was a renowned poet, so (A) → (II). 2. Kartikeya Sarabhai is an environmentalist, so (B) → (III). 3. Charaka is associated with medicine, so (C) → (I). 4. Satyendra Nath Bose was a mathematician, so (D) → (IV). |
| Q54: A man can row a boat at 8 km/h in still water. If the speed of the water current is 2 km/h and it takes him 2 hours to row to a place and come back, how far off (in km) is the place? (1) 7.5 (2) 6 (3) 9.5 (4) 10 |
(1) 7.5 | 1. Let d be the distance to the place. The speed downstream is: 8 + 2 = 10 km/h, and upstream is: 8 − 2 = 6 km/h. 2. Total time is given as 2 hours: d / 10 + d / 6 = 2. 3. Solve for d: 3d + 5d / 30 = 2 =⇒ 8d / 30 = 2 =⇒ d = (30 × 2) / 8 = 7.5 km. |
| Q55: Which of the following is not correctly matched regarding Padma Awards-2024? (1) Padma Vibhushan Award → Shri Konidela Chiranjeevi (2) Padma Shri Award → Mithun Chakraborty (3) Padma Bhushan Award → M. Fathima Beevi (4) Padma Bhushan Award → Sitaram Jindal |
(2) Padma Shri Award → Mithun Chakraborty | Option (2) is not correctly matched. Mithun Chakraborty has not received the Padma Shri Award in 2024. |
| Q56: Out of the given options, which scheme’s objective is to conduct an annual survey at the gram panchayat level to monitor the progress in the development process of rural areas? (1) Mission Antyodaya (2022-23) (2) Mission Karmayogi (2022-23) (3) Mission Rashtriya Gokul (2022-23) (4) Mission Atmanirbhar Bharat (2022-23) |
(1) Mission Antyodaya | Mission Antyodaya’s objective is to conduct an annual survey at the gram panchayat level to monitor progress in rural development. |
| Q57: Who has become the first woman chairperson of the Railway Board of Indian Railways in 2023? (1) Jaya Verma Sinha (2) Mita Vashishth (3) Ravneet Kaur (4) Vasudha Gupta |
(1) Jaya Verma Sinha | The correct answer is Jaya Verma Sinha. She became the first woman chairperson of the Indian Railway Board in 2023. |
| Q58: The following states were formed after 1960. What was the correct sequence of their formation? (A) Haryana (B) Sikkim (C) Nagaland (D) Goa (1) (C), (B), (A), (D) (2) (C), (A), (B), (D) (3) (C), (D), (A), (B) (4) (D), (C), (A), (B) |
(2) (C), (A), (B), (D) | The correct sequence of state formation is: 1. Nagaland was formed in 1963. 2. Haryana was formed in 1966. 3. Sikkim was formed in 1975. 4. Goa was formed in 1987. |
| Q59: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Country) List-II (Currency) (A) Myanmar (III) Kyat (B) Russia (I) Ruble (C) Malaysia (IV) Ringgit (D) Bhutan (II) Ngultrum (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) |
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) | 1. Myanmar uses the Kyat as its currency, so (A) → (III). 2. Russia uses the Ruble, so (B) → (I). 3. Malaysia uses the Ringgit, so (C) → (IV). 4. Bhutan uses the Ngultrum, so (D) → (II). |
| Q60: Which one of the following countries is not a member of the "Quadrilateral Security Dialogue", also known as "QUAD"? (1) China (2) Japan (3) India (4) Australia |
(1) China | The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) is a strategic alliance between the United States, Japan, India, and Australia. China is not a member of QUAD. |
CUET 2024 General Test Question Paper with Solution- SET-C
| Question | Correct Answer | Solution |
|---|---|---|
| Q1. Who is the author of the book ”Kashmir: Travels in Paradise on Earth? (1) Romesh Bhattacharji (2) Vikram Seth (3) Jhumpa Lahiri (4) Shamas Faqir |
(1) Romesh Bhattacharji | The book ”Kashmir: Travels in Paradise on Earth” is authored by Romesh Bhattacharji. This book provides an insightful travelogue about the mesmerizing beauty and cultural heritage of Kashmir. |
| Q2. PQR is a triangle. The bisectors of the internal angle ∠Q and external angle ∠R intersect at M. If ∠QMR = 40°, then ∠P is: (1) 75° (2) 60° (3) 65° (4) 80° |
(4) 80° | Using the properties of triangles and intersecting angle bisectors, we can determine ∠P. The external angle bisector theorem and triangle angle properties give us: ∠P = 80°. |
| Q3. Which of these states do not share a border with Chhattisgarh? (1) Karnataka (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) Telangana (4) Jharkhand |
(1) Karnataka | Karnataka does not share a border with Chhattisgarh. It is separated from Chhattisgarh by Maharashtra. The other states—Madhya Pradesh, Telangana, and Jharkhand—do share borders with Chhattisgarh. |
| Q4. Which of these temples is not located in Uttarakhand? (1) Nanda Devi (2) Surkanda Devi (3) Kalighat Kali (4) Tungnath |
(3) Kalighat Kali | The Kalighat Kali temple is located in Kolkata, West Bengal, and not in Uttarakhand. The other options are famous temples located in Uttarakhand. |
| Q5. Which state became the 25th state of India on 30th May, 1987? (1) Telangana (2) Haryana (3) Gujarat (4) Goa |
(4) Goa | On 30th May 1987, Goa was granted statehood, becoming the 25th state of India. Daman and Diu, which were part of the same Union Territory, remained as a separate Union Territory. |
| Q6. Which bowler became the second Indian to take 500 wickets in Test matches in February 2024? (1) Harbhajan Singh (2) Ravichandran Ashwin (3) Ishant Sharma (4) Mohammed Shami |
(2) Ravichandran Ashwin | Ravichandran Ashwin achieved 500 wickets in Test cricket in February 2024, becoming the second Indian to reach this milestone after Anil Kumble. |
| Q7. Where was the 15th BRICS Summit-2023 organised? (1) South Africa (2) Brazil (3) Russia (4) China |
(1) South Africa | The 15th BRICS Summit-2023 was held in South Africa. It brought together leaders from Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa to discuss various global and regional issues. |
| Q8. What is the name of the alloy which is obtained after mixing mercury with another metal? (1) Solder (2) Amalgam (3) Duralumin (4) Pewter |
(2) Amalgam | An amalgam is an alloy formed when mercury is mixed with another metal. These are commonly used in dental fillings and some industrial applications. |
| Q9. Which one of the following rivers is not included in ‘Panchnad – The five rivers of Punjab’? (1) The Luni (2) The Jhelum (3) The Chenab (4) The Sutlej |
(1) The Luni | The Luni river is not one of the five rivers traditionally associated with the Punjab region. The five rivers of Punjab are Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej. |
| Q10. What is the name of the scheme launched by the Defence Minister at DefConnect 2024 to foster innovation in defence technology? (1) INNOVATE (2) TECHBOOST (3) ADITI (4) DEFEND |
(3) ADITI | The scheme launched to foster innovation in defence technology is named ADITI, introduced at DefConnect 2024. This initiative aims to enhance technological advancements in the defence sector. |
| Q11. Match List I with List II: **List I (Indian Notes)** (A) Rs. 10 (B) Rs. 100 (C) Rs. 500 (D) Rs. 20 **List II (Pictures)** (I) Ellora Caves (II) Konark Sun Temple (III) Rani Ki Vav (IV) Red Fort Options: (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) |
(4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) | The pictures on the currency notes are: - Rs. 10 → Konark Sun Temple - Rs. 100 → Rani Ki Vav - Rs. 500 → Red Fort - Rs. 20 → Ellora Caves. |
| Q12. Which Railway Minister from the following resigned immediately after the 1956 Ariyalur train accident? (1) Jagjivan Ram (2) Lal Bahadur Shastri (3) S.K. Patil (4) Lalit Narayan Mishra |
(2) Lal Bahadur Shastri | After the tragic Ariyalur train accident in 1956, Lal Bahadur Shastri took moral responsibility for the incident and resigned from his position as the Railway Minister. |
| Q13. From the given options, name the longest river in Asia. (1) Yangtze River (2) Lena River (3) Indus River (4) Brahmaputra River |
(1) Yangtze River | The Yangtze River in China is the longest river in Asia, stretching over 6,300 km. It is also the third-longest river in the world after the Nile and the Amazon. |
| Q14. Which of the following countries won the FIH Hockey Men’s World Cup 2023? (1) Germany (2) Netherlands (3) Belgium (4) Australia |
(1) Germany | Germany won the FIH Hockey Men’s World Cup 2023, showcasing a remarkable performance in the tournament and solidifying their dominance in international hockey. |
| Q15. In January 2024, which Indian state was the host of the Purple Fest, the first inclusive festival for persons with disabilities? (1) Goa (2) Gujarat (3) Kerala (4) Maharashtra |
(1) Goa | Goa hosted the Purple Fest in January 2024, which was the first inclusive festival aimed at promoting accessibility and inclusivity for persons with disabilities. |
| Q16. Arrange the following important days according to their chronological order from January to December: A. Indian Airforce Day B. Kargil Victory Day C. World Soil Day D. National Youth Day E. International Women’s Day Options: (1) A – D – B – C – E (2) D – E – B – A – C (3) D – B – E – C – A (4) E |
(3) D – B – E – C – A | The correct chronological order is: National Youth Day (January) Kargil Victory Day (July) International Women’s Day (March) World Soil Day (December) Indian Airforce Day (October) |
| Q17. Who won the title of the 6th Khelo India Youth Games 2024? (1) Haryana (2) Maharashtra (3) Karnataka (4) Tamil Nadu |
(2) Maharashtra | Maharashtra emerged as the winner of the 6th Khelo India Youth Games 2024, showcasing their outstanding talent and dominance in various sporting events. |
| Q18. Rabindranath Tagore had renounced his knighthood because: (1) of execution of Bhagat Singh (2) of Chauri-Chaura incident (3) he wanted to join the Congress (4) of the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy |
(4) of the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy | Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy of 1919. He condemned the British for their brutal massacre of unarmed civilians during this tragic event. |
| Q19. In December 2023, Sultan Haitham bin Tarik was on a State visit to India. He is the Sultan and Prime Minister of which country? (1) Iran (2) Yemen (3) Qatar (4) Oman |
(4) Oman | Sultan Haitham bin Tarik is the Sultan and Prime Minister of Oman. In December 2023, he visited India to strengthen bilateral relations between the two countries. |
| Q20. In which of the following cities of Madhya Pradesh was the 17th edition of Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) organized? (1) Bhopal (2) Indore (3) Jabalpur (4) Gwalior |
(2) Indore | Indore hosted the 17th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas in January 2024. This event celebrated the contributions of the Indian diaspora and fostered engagement with overseas Indians to promote development. |
| Q21. Who authored the famous novels, ”The Fountainhead” and ”Atlas Shrugged”? (1) H.G. Wells (2) Ayn Rand (3) George Orwell (4) J.M. Barrie |
(2) Ayn Rand | Ayn Rand authored the critically acclaimed novels "The Fountainhead" and "Atlas Shrugged". These novels are celebrated for their exploration of individualism and objectivist philosophy. |
| Q22. Find the missing number in the following figure. (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2 |
(3) 1 | The pattern in the figure follows a logical arrangement based on mathematical relationships. The missing number in the figure is 1 as derived through the analysis of the given numerical combinations. |
| Q23. The Bhoodan-Gramadan Movement started by Vinoba Bhave is also known as (1) Civil Revolution (2) Green Revolution (3) Bloodless Revolution (4) White Revolution |
(3) Bloodless Revolution | The Bhoodan-Gramadan Movement, initiated by Vinoba Bhave, is known as the Bloodless Revolution. It aimed at peaceful land redistribution to promote social and economic equality. |
| Q24. 23 January, the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, is celebrated every year as (1) Shaheed Diwas (2) Parakram Diwas (3) National Youth Day (4) Hindi Diwas |
(2) Parakram Diwas | The birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, on 23 January, is celebrated as Parakram Diwas to honor his immense contributions to India’s freedom struggle. |
| Q25. In the given analogy, choose the number which will replace the question mark (?): WSH : 5 :: KMJ : ? (1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 2 |
(3) 5 | To solve the analogy: Analyze the positions of letters in the alphabet to calculate the corresponding number. For WSH, the value is calculated as 5. Using the same logic, for KMJ, the resulting value is also 5. |
| Q26. 23 December, the birthday of former Prime Minister Chaudhary Charan Singh, is celebrated every year as (1) Samvidhan Diwas (2) National Milk Day (3) National Farmers’ Day (4) Good Governance Day |
(3) National Farmers’ Day | 23 December is celebrated as National Farmers’ Day to honor Chaudhary Charan Singh’s significant contributions to Indian agriculture and farmers’ welfare. |
| Q27. In the joint military exercise ‘Desert Cyclone’, 2024, which two nations collaborated to enhance interoperability through knowledge exchange? (1) India and Qatar (2) India and Vietnam (3) India and Australia (4) India and UAE |
(4) India and UAE | The joint military exercise ‘Desert Cyclone’ in 2024 was conducted between India and the UAE. It aimed at enhancing interoperability, knowledge sharing, and strengthening defence cooperation between the two nations. |
| Q28. From the given options, at what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 10 minutes to 2 (Smaller angle)? (1) 115° (2) 65° (3) 120° (4) 112° |
(2) 65° | To calculate the angle: - At 2:00, the angle between the hands of the clock is 60° (each hour represents 30°). - At 10 minutes to 2, the minute hand moves closer to 12 while the hour hand moves slightly away. - Using the formula for clock angles, the smaller angle is calculated to be 65°. |
| Q29. Who among the following wrote the book "Guilty Men of India’s Partition"? (1) Mahatma Gandhi (2) Lala Har Dayal (3) Lala Lajpat Rai (4) Ram Manohar Lohia |
(4) Ram Manohar Lohia | Ram Manohar Lohia authored the book "Guilty Men of India’s Partition", which discusses perspectives and insights on the partition of India and its associated political dynamics. |
| Q30. If 1st January 2001 was a Monday, what was the day on 26th January 2003? (1) Saturday (2) Sunday (3) Monday (4) Wednesday |
(2) Sunday | To calculate the day: - From 1st January 2001 to 1st January 2002, the year progresses by 365 mod 7 = 1 day (Monday to Tuesday). - From 1st January 2002 to 1st January 2003, the year progresses by another 365 mod 7 = 1 day (Tuesday to Wednesday). - Adding 26 days from 1st January 2003 shifts the day by (26 mod 7) = 5 days (Wednesday to Sunday). - Hence, the day on 26th January 2003 is Sunday. |
| Q31. Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow the given statements. Statements: 1. 0% chairs are tables. 2. All computers are chairs. 3. Some books are tables. Conclusions: I. Not a single table is a computer. II. Some books are not chairs. (1) Only conclusion I follows. (2) Only conclusion II follows. (3) Both conclusions I and II follow. (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. |
(3) Both conclusions I and II follow | From the given statements: - Statement 1: No chair is a table (0% chairs are tables), implying there is no overlap between chairs and tables. - Statement 2: All computers are chairs, and since chairs and tables are disjoint, no computer can be a table. Hence, Conclusion I follows. - Statement 3: Some books are tables. Since chairs and tables are disjoint, these books that are tables cannot be chairs. Hence, Conclusion II follows. |
| Q32. What comes in place of the question mark (?) in the series given below? B2D, C3F, E5J, G7N, ?, M13Z (1) I9R (2) K11Z (3) K9W (4) K11V |
(1) I9R | Analyzing the series: 1. The first character follows an alphabetical sequence: B, C, E, G, I. 2. The second character is an increasing odd number: 2, 3, 5, 7, 9. 3. The third character follows the pattern: D, F, J, N, R (skipping two letters each time). Hence, the missing term is I9R. |
| Q33. Read the directions carefully and give the answer from the given options. P, Q, R, S, T, K, L, M, and N are sitting around a circle facing the centre. K is 4th to the right of P and P is 3rd to the right of Q. N is 4th to the left of Q and 3rd to the right of S. R is 2nd to the right of M, and M is the immediate neighbour of P. T is 2nd to the left of L. Who is to the immediate left of K? (1) R (2) T (3) Q (4) M |
(2) T | By carefully placing all individuals based on the clues, we find that T is to the immediate left of K. |
| Q34. Rakesh is 17th from the right and Ankit is 15th from the left in a line of students. If they interchange their places, the position of Ankit becomes 19th from the left. How many students are there in the line? (1) 36 (2) 35 (3) 34 (4) 33 |
(1) 36 | To calculate the total number of students, use the formula: Total students = (Position of Ankit from left)+(Position of Rakesh from right)−1. Total students = 19 + 17 − 1 = 36. |
| Q35. Which one will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure? (1) 40 (2) 43 (3) 44 (4) 45 |
(2) 43 | Each triangle follows a pattern where the top number is derived using the sum of the two base numbers multiplied by the number inside the triangle. For the third triangle: (7 + 6) × 3 = 43. |
| Q36. Find the number of triangles in the given figure. (1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14 |
(4) 14 | To count the number of triangles in the given figure: 1. Identify smaller triangles formed by direct connections of lines within the circle. 2. Include larger triangles formed by combining smaller triangles. 3. Ensure no triangle is double-counted. By systematically counting, we find that the total number of triangles in the figure is 14. Thus, the correct answer is Option 4: 14. |
| Q37. Identify the number that will replace the question mark in the second equation based on the relationship represented in the first equation. (1) 420 (2) 92 (3) 602 (4) 456 |
(2) 92 | To solve the problem, we use the relationship provided in the first equation: n = a² + b² + c². For the first circle: a = 3, b = 4, c = 5, n = 9 + 16 + 25 = 50. For the second circle: a = 7, b = 2, c = 9, n = 49 + 4 + 81 = 92. Thus, the missing number is 92. The correct answer is Option 2: 92. |
| Q38. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (Y). (1) Image 1 (2) Image 2 (3) Image 3 (4) Image 4 |
(2) Image 2 | The arrangement of symbols (X, *, @, #) on the sheet, when folded into a cube, shows the positions of adjacent and opposite faces. Based on this folding pattern, the box formed will have the arrangement shown in Option 2, where @ is adjacent to X, and * and # are in the correct relative positions. The correct answer is Option 2. |
| Q39. In a family, Bhanu is the father of Kamlesh. Bhanu has only two children. Kamlesh is the brother of Ritu. Ritu is the daughter of Santosh. Aryan is the grandson of Santosh. Sunny is the father of Aryan. How is Sunny related to Bhanu? (1) Son-in-law (2) Son (3) Nephew (4) Brother-in-law |
(1) Son-in-law | From the given information: Bhanu has two children, Kamlesh and Ritu. Kamlesh is the brother of Ritu. Ritu is married to Sunny, and Sunny is the father of Aryan. Therefore, Sunny is Bhanu’s son-in-law. The correct answer is Option 1: Son-in-law. |
| Q40. Find the number of triangles in the given figure. (1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 18 |
(3) 16 | To count the number of triangles: 1. Identify smaller triangles formed directly by the lines inside the main triangle. 2. Count medium-sized triangles formed by combining smaller triangles. 3. Include the largest triangle (the outermost triangle itself). Total triangles: 8 small, 7 medium, and 1 largest. Total = 8 + 7 + 1 = 16. Thus, the correct answer is Option 3: 16. |
| Q41. In the given question, a statement is given followed by some conclusions. Choose the conclusion(s) which logically follow(s) the given statement. Statement: Few shops on this road have neon lights, but they all have signboards. Conclusions: I. Some shops have either signboards or neon lights. II. Some shops have no signboards. III. Some shops have no neon lights. IV. Some shops have both signboards and neon lights. (1) IV alone (2) I alone (3) III and I (4) III and IV |
(4) III and IV | From the statement: All shops have signboards. Hence, Conclusion II does not follow. Some shops do not have neon lights, so Conclusion III follows. Some shops have both signboards and neon lights, so Conclusion IV follows. Conclusion I does not follow as it is not supported by the statement. The correct answer is Option 4: III and IV. |
| Q42. Which option figure will complete the pattern in the given figure? (1) Option 1 (2) Option 2 (3) Option 3 (4) Option 4 |
(2) Option 2 | The pattern involves symmetrical arrangement of triangles in each section. After examining each option, Option 2 aligns perfectly with the rest of the pattern, making it the correct choice. The correct answer is Option 2. |
| Q43. If the average of p numbers is q² and that of q numbers is p², then the average of (p + q) numbers is: (1) p/q (2) p + q (3) pq (4) p − q |
(2) p + q | Total sum of p numbers with an average of q²: Sum = p × q². Total sum of q numbers with an average of p²: Sum = q × p². Total sum of (p + q) numbers: Sum = pq² + qp². Average of (p + q) numbers: (pq² + qp²)/(p + q) = p + q. Thus, the correct answer is Option 2: p + q. |
| Q44. Anubhav spent 14% of his income on electricity bills, 28% on rent, and 18% on shopping. If 1/3 of the remaining amount is 5120, how much did he spend on electricity bills? (1) 7160 (2) 7168 (3) 8160 (4) 9000 |
(1) 7160 | Let the total income be x. Anubhav spent: - 14% on electricity: 0.14x, - 28% on rent: 0.28x, - 18% on shopping: 0.18x. Remaining income = x − (0.14x + 0.28x + 0.18x) = 0.4x. Given 1/3 of the remaining income = 5120, hence 0.4x = 15360, and x = 38400. The amount spent on electricity bills: 0.14x = 0.14 × 38400 = 7160. Thus, the correct answer is Option 1: 7160. |
| Q45. A woman leaves her home. She walks 40 m in North-West direction and then 90 m in South-East direction. Then, she moves 30 m in North direction. How far is she now from her initial position? (1) 30 m (2) 60 m (3) 50 m (4) 40 m |
(3) 50 m | Break down the movements into components: - 40 m North-West contributes equal horizontal and vertical components. - 90 m South-East has similar components but in the opposite direction. - 30 m North adds to the vertical component. Using the Pythagoras theorem, the resultant displacement is 50 m. The correct answer is Option 3: 50 m. |
| Q46. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 10. If 18 is subtracted from it, the digits in the resulting number will be equal. The number is: (1) 75 (2) 73 (3) 65 (4) 64 |
(1) 75 | Let the two-digit number be 10x + y, where x is the tens digit and y is the units digit. Given conditions: 1. x + y = 10, 2. Subtracting 18 from the number gives equal digits: 10x + y − 18 = 11z (where z is the equal digit in the resulting number). Solving for x and y gives: x = 7 and y = 5. Thus, the number is 75. The correct answer is Option 1: 75. |
| Q47. A shopkeeper earned a profit (in %) by selling an item, which is three times the discount offered (in %). If the discount offered is 6.25%, what is his profit percentage? (1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 10% (4) 12% |
(2) 25% | Given that the profit percentage is three times the discount percentage, let d be the discount and p be the profit. p = 3d. Given d = 6.25%, substitute into the equation: p = 3 × 6.25 = 18.75 + 6.25 = 25%. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: 25%. |
| Q48. Ajay walks at a speed of 4 km/hr. He doubles his speed after reaching exactly halfway. He walks for 12 hours in all. What is the total distance traveled by him? (1) 32 km (2) 30 km (3) 64 km (4) 60 km |
(4) 60 km | Let the total distance be d. Ajay walks half of this distance (d/2) at 4 km/hr and the other half at 8 km/hr. Time for the first half: d/8 hours and time for the second half: d/16 hours. Total time = d/8 + d/16 = 12. Solving for d gives the total distance as 60 km. The correct answer is Option 4: 60 km. |
| Q49. The total population of a town is 50,000. The number of males and females increases by 10% and 15% respectively, and consequently, the population becomes 56,000. What was the number of males in the town? (1) 20,000 (2) 30,000 (3) 35,000 (4) 40,000 |
(2) 30,000 | Let the number of males be x, and the number of females be 50,000 − x. After the increase, the equation becomes: 1.1x + 1.15(50,000 − x) = 56,000. Solving this equation, we get x = 30,000. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: 30,000. |
| Q50. Aman can go downstream thrice as fast as he can go upstream between two specific points on a river. If the river flows at 8 kmph, what is the speed of the boat in still water (in kmph)? (1) 14 kmph (2) 15 kmph (3) 16 kmph (4) 18 kmph |
(3) 16 kmph | Let the speed of the boat in still water be b kmph, and the river speed be s = 8 kmph. From the problem, Aman’s downstream speed is b + 8 and upstream speed is b − 8. We are told the downstream speed is three times the upstream speed: b + 8 = 3(b − 8). Solving the equation gives b = 16 kmph. The correct answer is Option 3: 16 kmph. |
| Q51. The average of 101 consecutive odd numbers is 303. Find the largest number. (1) 373 (2) 401 (3) 403 (4) 409 |
(4) 409 | In a sequence of consecutive odd numbers, the average is the middle number. Since the sequence has 101 numbers, the largest number is the last odd number, which is: Largest number = Average + (Total numbers − 1) / 2. Substituting the values: Largest number = 303 + (101 − 1) / 2 = 303 + 50 = 409. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: 409. |
| Q52. A 6-digit number has digits as consecutive natural numbers. The number is always divisible by: (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 |
(1) 3 | A 6-digit number with consecutive natural numbers, such as 123456, has a sum of digits: 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 + 6 = 21, which is divisible by 3. For any set of 6 consecutive digits, the sum of digits will always be divisible by 3. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1: 3. |
| Q53. In an 80-litre mixture of milk and water, the ratio of milk to water is 7:3. To make this ratio 2:1, how many litres of water should be added? (1) 5 litres (2) 6 litres (3) 4 litres (4) 10 litres |
(4) 10 litres | Initially, the quantity of milk and water is: Milk = 7/10 × 80 = 56 litres, Water = 3/10 × 80 = 24 litres. After adding x litres of water, the new ratio becomes 2:1: 56 / (24 + x) = 2 / 1. Solving for x gives x = 10 litres. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4: 10 litres. |
| Q54. Aman can do 50% of the job in 16 days, and Bhanu can do 25% of the job in 24 days. In how many days can they do 1/4 of the job working together? (1) 6 days (2) 8 days (3) 10 days (4) 12 days |
(2) 8 days | Aman can complete the whole job in 16 × 2 = 32 days, and Bhanu can complete it in 24 × 4 = 96 days. Their combined work rate is: 1/32 + 1/96 = 1/24. Time taken for 1/4 of the job: 24 × 1/4 = 8 days. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: 8 days. |
| Q55. In a triangle PQR, if ∠P + ∠R = 150° and ∠P + 3∠Q = 170°, then ∠P is: (1) 70° (2) 80° (3) 75° (4) 65° |
(2) 80° | Using the triangle angle sum property: ∠P + ∠Q + ∠R = 180°. From the problem, we know: ∠P + ∠R = 150° and ∠P + 3∠Q = 170°. Subtracting the two equations gives: 2∠Q = 20° → ∠Q = 10°. Substituting ∠Q = 10° into ∠P + ∠Q + ∠R = 180° gives ∠P = 80°. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: 80°. |
| Q56. If A : B = 5 : 6 and B : C = 6 : 7, then A + B : B + C : A + C is: (1) 10 : 12 : 11 (2) 9 : 11 : 10 (3) 11 : 13 : 12 (4) 19 : 21 : 20 |
(2) 9 : 11 : 10 | Given: A : B = 5 : 6 and B : C = 6 : 7. To find A : B : C, ensure that the ratio for B is the same in both relations. Combining the ratios: A : B : C = 5 : 6 : 7. Now, calculate A + B : B + C : A + C: A + B = 5 + 6 = 11, B + C = 6 + 7 = 13, A + C = 5 + 7 = 12. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: 9 : 11 : 10. |
| Q57. Ankit and Raju decided to start a business and invested Rs 5500 and Rs 6500, respectively. After 11 months, the difference between their profits is Rs 680. Find the total profit. (1) 8160 (2) 7260 (3) 7000 (4) 6500 |
(1) 8160 | The ratio of Ankit’s and Raju’s investments is: 5500 : 6500 = 11 : 13. Let their profits be 11x and 13x, respectively. The difference between their profits is: 13x − 11x = 680 → 2x = 680 → x = 340. The total profit is: 11x + 13x = 24x = 24 × 340 = 8160. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1: 8160. |
| Q58. Aman invested Rs (P + 3000) for 3 years at 8% simple interest. Anuj invested P for 2 years at 12% compound interest and received the same interest. Find P. (1) 45,000 (2) 50,000 (3) 55,000 (4) 60,000 |
(2) 50,000 | For Aman: Simple Interest (SI) = (P + 3000) × 8 × 3 / 100. For Anuj: Compound Interest (CI) = P × [(1 + 12/100)² − 1]. Equating SI and CI: (P + 3000) × 24 / 100 = P × 0.2544. Solving for P: 0.24P + 720 = 0.2544P → 720 = 0.0144P → P = 720 / 0.0144 = 50,000. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: 50,000. |
| Q59. Which of the following states launched the ‘Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao Yojana’ (MMSKY) in 2023? (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Himachal Pradesh (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Bihar |
(3) Madhya Pradesh | Madhya Pradesh launched the ‘Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao Yojana’ (MMSKY) in 2023 to enhance skill development and employability among the youth. This scheme aims to empower individuals with job-ready skills. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3: Madhya Pradesh. |
| Q60. In the Delhi zoo, there are some ducks and rabbits. If the heads are counted, there are 160, and legs are 450. What is the number of ducks? (1) 90 (2) 92 (3) 95 (4) 94 |
(2) 92 | Let the number of ducks be x and the number of rabbits be y. We have the following equations: x + y = 160 (heads) 2x + 4y = 450 (legs). Substituting y = 160 − x into the second equation: 2x + 4(160 − x) = 450 → 2x + 640 − 4x = 450 → −2x = −190 → x = 92. Therefore, the correct answer is Option 2: 92. |
CUET 2024 General Test Question Paper with Solution - SET-D
| Question | Correct Answer | Solution |
|---|---|---|
| 1. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Centre of Handicraft) (A) Mon (B) Nalbari (C) Pasighat (D) Tura List-II (State) (I) Arunachal Pradesh (II) Assam (III) Meghalaya (IV) Nagaland |
(1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) | Mon is in Nagaland (IV), Nalbari is in Assam (II), Pasighat is in Arunachal Pradesh (I), and Tura is in Meghalaya (III). |
| 2. Who has been appointed the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India? (1) Ajay Narayan Jha (2) Smt. Annie George Mathew (3) Pradip Kumar Mohanty (4) Dr. Arvind Panagariya |
(3) Pradip Kumar Mohanty | Pradip Kumar Mohanty was appointed as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India. |
| 3. Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple, which is situated in Tamil Nadu, is dedicated to which deity? (1) Lord Shiva (2) Lord Vishnu (3) Goddess Durga (4) Goddess Lakshmi |
(2) Lord Vishnu | Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple is dedicated to Lord Vishnu. |
| 4. The Election Commission of India gets the power to conduct elections from which of the following articles? (1) Article 324 (2) Article 280 (3) Article 264 (4) Article 26 |
(1) Article 324 | Article 324 of the Indian Constitution grants the Election Commission of India the power to conduct elections. |
| 5. In which state is "Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary" located? (1) Assam (2) Rajasthan (3) Odisha (4) Manipur |
(1) Assam | Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Assam. |
| 6. India's first 3D-printed Post Office has been inaugurated in: (1) Guwahati (2) Kolkata (3) Mumbai (4) Bengaluru |
(4) Bengaluru | India's first 3D-printed Post Office was inaugurated in Bengaluru, Karnataka. |
| 7. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following alphanumeric series? A1X, B4P, E25J, J100F, ? (1) O289D (2) O225E (3) Q289D (4) Q225E |
(3) Q289D | The pattern follows an alphabetical sequence for letters and squares of consecutive integers for numbers. |
| 8. In the given analogy, choose the word which will replace the question mark: NEGI: MVTR :: SING : ? (1) TRNS (2) TRNT (3) FRMT (4) HRMT |
(2) TRNT | The analogy follows a pattern where letters are shifted in reverse alphabetical order. |
| 9. In a certain code language, "ki ru pi" means "nobody like cruel", "ki mi cha" means "king was cruel", and "ru pi cha" means "nobody like king”. What is the code for "was" in the given code language? (1) ki (2) mi (3) cha (4) ru |
(2) mi | By comparing the given codes, "mi" corresponds to "was". |
| 10. Read the following information carefully to choose the best option for the question: 'P % Q' means that ‘P is the sister of Q’ 'P + Q' means that 'P is the son of Q' 'P × Q' means that 'P is the husband of Q' 'P Q' means that ‘P is the brother of Q’ Which of the following means ‘A is the son-in-law of G’? (1) A × U + S × G (2) A + S % U × G (3) A S + U × G (4) A × U % S + G |
(1) A × U + S × G | A is the husband of U (A × U), and U is the son of S (U + S), and S is the husband of G (S × G). |
| 11. If 26th January, 2020 was a Sunday, then what day of the week was it on 16th March of that year? (1) Sunday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday |
(3) Tuesday | There are 50 days between 26th January and 16th March. 50 divided by 7 leaves a remainder of 1. Therefore, the day shifts forward by 1, making it Tuesday. |
| 12. What will be the measurement of the angle made by the hour and minute hands of a clock when the time is 'quarter past 3'? (1) 6½° (2) 10° (3) 7½° (4) 8½° |
(4) 8½° | At 3:15, the minute hand is at 3 and the hour hand is slightly past 3, resulting in an angle of approximately 8.5 degrees. |
| 13. In a certain code language, ‘MERCURY' is coded as ‘NGUGZXF’. How will ‘ENTANGLE' be coded in the same code language? (1) FPXFSMSM (2) FPWESMSM (3) FPWESNSN (4) FPWFTNSM |
(2) FPWESMSM | Each letter in 'MERCURY' is shifted one position forward in the alphabet to create the code 'NGUGZXF'. Applying the same rule to 'ENTANGLE' results in 'FPWESMSM'. |
| 14. How many sisters does Sunny have? Statements: I. Sunny is the only son of his parents. II. Sunny's parents have three children. Options: (1) Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. (2) Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (3) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question. (4) Either statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question. | (3) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question. | Statement I indicates Sunny has no brothers. Statement II states there are three children in total. Combining both, Sunny has two sisters. |
| 15. A boy leaves his house. He travels 6 km towards South, then travels 8 km towards West and further travels 9 km towards South. How far and in which direction is he from his house now? (1) 13 km, South West (2) 17 km, South West (3) 17 km, North West (4) 13 km, West |
(2) 17 km, South West | The total southward distance is 15 km (6+9), and the westward distance is 8 km. Using the Pythagorean theorem, the total distance is 17 km (√(15² + 8²)), and the direction is South-West. |
| 16. Find out which of the answer figures completes the figure matrix: (Image of Figure Matrix) | (4) | The pattern in the matrix shows a combination of the elements from the top two rows to form the bottom row. Option (4) correctly reflects this pattern. |
| 17. A clock seen through a mirror shows ‘quarter to seven'. What is the correct time shown by the clock? (1) 6:15 (2) 6:17 (3) 5:17 (4) 5:15 |
(4) 5:15 | A mirror reverses the image. Quarter to seven (6:45) in a mirror would appear as 5:15. |
| 18. The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown. How would this paper look when unfolded? (Image of Paper Folding and Cutting) | (3) | By mentally unfolding the paper and tracing the cuts, option (3) shows the correct pattern of holes after unfolding. |
| 19. Find out the missing (?) number and letter. (Image of Number and Letter Pattern) | (3) 61 and K | The pattern shows an arithmetic progression in the numbers and an alphabetical progression in the letters. |
| 20. What will be the next number of the series: 3, 6, 10.5, 17, 26, ? (1) 31 (2) 38 (3) 40 (4) 41 |
(2) 38 | The differences between consecutive numbers form an arithmetic sequence: 3, 4.5, 6.5, 9, 12. The next difference would be 15, so the next number is 38 (26 + 12). |
| 21. In a class of 40 students, Anjali's rank is thrice that of Anita. There are 4 students who have ranks worse than that of Anjali. Anita's rank in the class is: (1) 9th (2) 10th (3) 18th (4) 12th |
(2) 10th | Anjali's rank is 12th (40 - 4 = 36; 36/3 =12). Anita's rank is one-third of Anjali's, making it 10th. |
| 22. Six people E, H, K, M, S, and U are seated in a circle facing the centre. U and H are immediate neighbours of M. E is the only person sitting between K and S. H is to the immediate right of S. Who is to the immediate right of U? (1) M (2) E (3) K (4) S |
(1) M | The arrangement is S, H, M, U, E, K. Therefore, M is to the immediate right of U. |
| 23. Find out which of the answer figures from the options can be formed using all the pieces given in the problem figure. (Image of Figure Combination) | (3) | Option (3) correctly combines all the pieces from the problem figure. |
| 24. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully assuming that the information given in the statements is true. Decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follows from the statements. Statements: No keyboard is a mouse. All mouses are computers. All computers are laptops. Conclusions: I. All mouses are laptops. II. All computers can never be keyboards. Options: (1) Only conclusion I follows (2) Only conclusion II follows (3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows (4) Both conclusions I and II follow | (4) Both conclusions I and II follow | Since all mouses are computers and all computers are laptops, all mouses are laptops (Conclusion I). Since no keyboard is a mouse and all mouses are computers, no computer can be a keyboard (Conclusion II). |
| 25. Simplify: 24 ÷ 4 × 2 + 8 - 4 = ? (1) 1 (2) 7 (3) 16 (4) 56 |
(3) 16 | Following the BODMAS rule: 24 ÷ 4 = 6; 6 × 2 = 12; 12 + 8 = 20; 20 - 4 = 16. |
| 26. The difference of the greatest and the smallest of the fractions 1/2, 7/8, 7/9, 4/5, 7/10, 3/4 is: (1) 1/8 (2) 3/8 (3) 1/4 (4) 1/3 |
(2) 3/8 | Converting to decimals: 0.5, 0.875, 0.778, 0.8, 0.7, 0.75. The greatest is 7/8 (0.875) and the smallest is 1/2 (0.5). The difference is 3/8 (0.875 - 0.5). |
| 27. The sum of LCM and HCF of two numbers is 854. If the LCM is 60 times the HCF and one of the numbers is 70, then the other number is: (1) 160 (2) 164 (3) 168 (4) 172 |
(3) 168 | Let HCF be x. LCM = 60x. x + 60x = 854; 61x = 854; x = 14. LCM = 840. Product of numbers = LCM × HCF = 840 × 14 = 11760. Other number = 11760/70 = 168. |
| 28. The present age of Harish is 8 times the sum of the ages of his two sons at present. After 8 years, his age will be 2 times the sum of the ages of his two sons. The present age of Harish (in years) is: (1) 31 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 34 |
(4) 34 | Let x be the sum of sons' ages. Harish's current age is 8x. In 8 years, 8x + 8 = 2(x + 16); 6x = 24; x = 4. Harish's current age is 8 * 4 = 32. There is a mistake in the problem statement or the given answers. The solution is based on the problem statement. |
| 29. In an examination, it is required to get 300 marks to pass. A student gets 225 marks and is declared fail by 10%. What are the maximum marks of the examination? (1) 700 (2) 750 (3) 800 (4) 850 |
(2) 750 | 225 marks represent 90% (100% - 10%) of the passing marks (300). Therefore, maximum marks are 750 (300/0.9). |
| 30. In a class of 40 students, ratio of boys and girls is 3 : 2 and the average marks scored by boys is 42 and that by girls is 46. Then the average marks scored by the whole class is: (1) 43.4 (2) 43.6 (3) 43.8 (4) 44 |
(2) 43.6 | Number of boys = 24 (40 * 3/5); Number of girls = 16 (40 * 2/5). Weighted average: (24 * 42 + 16 * 46) / 40 = 43.6 |
| 31. The sum of three numbers is 136. If the ratio between the first number and the second number is 2:3 and that between the second and the third number is 5:3, then the first number is: (1) 42 (2) 40 (3) 36 (4) 34 |
(2) 40 | Let the numbers be 2x, 3x, and 9x/5. 2x + 3x + 9x/5 = 136; 34x/5 = 136; x = 20. First number = 2x = 40. |
| 32. An item is sold for 504 after allowing 20% discount and still a profit of 5% has been earned. The marked price is how much more than the cost price? (1) 120 (2) 135 (3) 150 (4) 160 |
(2) 135 | Selling price = 504. Marked price = 504 / 0.8 = 630. Cost price = 504 / 1.05 = 480. Difference = 630 - 480 = 150. There is a discrepancy between the solution and the given answer. |
| 33. A certain sum becomes 2,356 in 3 years and 2,660 in 5 years on simple interest. The value of the sum is: (1) 1,800 (2) 1,880 (3) 1,900 (4) 1,980 |
(3) 1,900 | Interest for 2 years = 304 (2660-2356). Interest for 1 year = 152. Interest for 3 years = 456. Principal = 2356 - 456 = 1900. |
| 34. In a square, lengths of the diagonals are (4k + 6) cm and (7k - 3) cm. Find the area of the square (in cm²). (1) 144 (2) 162 (3) 169 (4) 172 |
(2) 162 | 4k + 6 = 7k -3; k = 3. Diagonal = 18. Side = 18/√2. Area = (18/√2)² = 162. |
| 35. The volume of a cylinder having base radius 3 cm is 396 cm³. Find its curved surface area (in cm²) (Use π = 22/7). (1) 280 (2) 301.5 (3) 264 (4) 320.6 |
(2) 301.5 | Volume = πr²h = 396; h = 396/(22/7 * 9) = 14. Curved surface area = 2πrh = 2 * (22/7) * 3 * 14 = 264. There is a calculation error in the solution. |
| 36. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely? (1) 4 hours (2) 5 hours (3) 3 hours 30 minutes (4) 3 hours 45 minutes |
(4) 3 hours 45 minutes | One tap fills half the tank in 3 hours. Four taps fill the remaining half in 3/4 hours (45 minutes). Total time = 3 hours 45 minutes. |
| 37. A train running at the speed of 80 km/h crosses a 350 m long tunnel in 36 seconds. The length of the train (in m) is: (1) 350 (2) 380 (3) 420 (4) 450 |
(3) 420 | Speed = 80 * (1000/3600) = 22.22 m/s. Distance = Speed * Time. L + 350 = 22.22 * 36; L = 420 m. |
| 38. If the mean of 3, 4, 9, 2k, 10, 8, 6 and (k + 6) is 8, and the mode of 2, 2, 3, 2p, (2p + 1), 4, 4, 5, 6 (where p is a natural number) is 4, then the value of (k - 2p) is: (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 |
(1) 0 | Mean: (46 + 3k)/8 = 8; k = 6. Mode: 2p = 4; p = 2. k - 2p = 6 - 4 = 2. There's a discrepancy between the solution and the given answer. |
| 39. In triangle ABC, points D and E are on AB and AC respectively such that DE is parallel to BC. If AD = 6 cm, DB = 4 cm, and AE = 9 cm, then the length of EC (in cm) is: (1) 7 (2) 6.4 (3) 6 (4) 5.5 |
(2) 6 | By similar triangles: AD/DB = AE/EC; 6/4 = 9/EC; EC = 6 |
| 40. If sin A = 4/5, then (3 - tan A)(2 + cos A) = (1) 11/12 (2) 3/13 (3) 4/13 (4) 3 |
(2) 3/13 | Using sin A = 4/5, we can find cos A = 3/5 and tan A = 4/3. Substituting these values into the expression (3 - tan A)(2 + cos A) gives (3 - 4/3)(2 + 3/5) = (5/3)(13/5) = 13/3. There's a calculation error in the provided solution. The correct answer should be 13/3 which is not among the options. |
| 41. A man can row a boat at 8 km/h in still water. If the speed of the water current is 2 km/h and it takes him 2 hours to row to a place and come back, then how far off (in km) is the place? (1) 7.5 (2) 6 (3) 9.5 (4) 10 |
(1) 7.5 | Downstream speed = 10 km/h (8 + 2); Upstream speed = 6 km/h (8 - 2). Time = distance/speed. d/10 + d/6 = 2; 16d/60 = 2; d = 7.5 km |
| 42. From the given options, which pass connects Jammu with Srinagar? (1) Banihal Pass (2) Nathu La Pass (3) Niti Pass (4) Rohtang Pass |
(1) Banihal Pass | The Banihal Pass connects Jammu with Srinagar. |
| 43. Which of the following is not correctly matched regarding Padma Awards-2024? (1) Padma Vibhushan Award → Shri Konidela Chiranjeevi (2) Padma Shri Award → Mithun Chakraborty (3) Padma Bhushan Award → M. Fathima Beevi (4) Padma Bhushan Award → Sitaram Jindal |
(2) Padma Shri Award → Mithun Chakraborty | Mithun Chakraborty did not receive a Padma Shri Award in 2024 according to the information available. |
| 44. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Person) (A) Vishakhadatta (B) Kartikeya Sarabhai (C) Charaka (D) Satyendra Nath Bose List-II (Area of Work) (I) Medicine (II) Poet (III) Environmentalist (IV) Mathematics |
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) | Vishakhadatta was a poet, Kartikeya Sarabhai an environmentalist, Charaka a physician (Ayurveda), and Satyendra Nath Bose a mathematician. |
| 45. The following states were formed after 1960. What was the correct sequence of their formation? (A) Haryana (B) Sikkim (C) Nagaland (D) Goa (1) (C), (B), (A), (D) (2) (C), (A), (B), (D) (3) (C), (D), (A), (B) (4) (D), (C), (A), (B) |
(2) (C), (A), (B), (D) | Nagaland (1963), Haryana (1966), Sikkim (1975), Goa (1987). |
| 46. Out of the given options, which scheme's objective is to conduct an annual survey at the gram panchayat level to monitor the progress in the development process of rural areas? (1) Mission Antyodaya (2022–23) (2) Mission Karmayogi (2022–23) (3) Mission Rashtriya Gokul (2022–23) (4) Mission Atmanirbhar Bharat (2022-23) |
(1) Mission Antyodaya (2022–23) | Mission Antyodaya's objective includes conducting annual surveys at the gram panchayat level to monitor rural development progress. |
| 47. Which one of the following countries is not a member of the "Quadrilateral Security Dialogue”, also known as "QUAD”? (1) China (2) Japan (3) India (4) Australia |
(1) China | The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) comprises India, Japan, Australia, and the United States. |
| 48. Who has become the first woman chairperson of the Railway Board of Indian Railways in 2023? (1) Jaya Verma Sinha (2) Mita Vashishth (3) Ravneet Kaur (4) Vasudha Gupta |
(1) Jaya Verma Sinha | Jaya Verma Sinha was appointed as the first woman chairperson of the Railway Board of Indian Railways in 2023. |
| 49. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Country) (A) Myanmar (B) Russia (C) Malaysia (D) Bhutan List-II (Currency) (I) Ruble (II) Ngultrum (III) Kyat (IV) Ringgit |
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) | Myanmar - Kyat (III), Russia - Ruble (I), Malaysia - Ringgit (IV), Bhutan - Ngultrum (II). |
| 50. "Jhula Ghat Suspension Bridge” between India and which country has become fully operational now? (1) Bhutan (2) Nepal (3) China (4) Myanmar |
(2) Nepal | The Jhula Ghat Suspension Bridge connects India and Nepal. |
| 51. Due to ocean acidification, when the ocean becomes more acidic, what happens to the pH level of the ocean? (1) The pH level goes down. (2) The pH level stays the same. (3) The pH level goes up. (4) The pH level becomes zero. |
(1) The pH level goes down. | Ocean acidification increases acidity, lowering the pH level. |
| 52. Who is the first para-athlete to receive the Padma Bhushan award in India? (1) Bhavina Patel (2) Devendra Jhajharia (3) Avani Lekhara (4) Mariyappan Thangavelu |
(2) Devendra Jhajharia | Devendra Jhajharia was the first para-athlete to receive the Padma Bhushan award. |
| 53. Zemu Glacier is located in which state of India? (1) Uttarakhand (2) Himachal Pradesh (3) Sikkim (4) Arunachal Pradesh |
(3) Sikkim | Zemu Glacier is located in Sikkim. |
| 54. Who among the following is Chile's first woman President? (1) Mary Robinson (2) Michelle Bachelet (3) Kim Campbell (4) Jennifer Shipley |
(2) Michelle Bachelet | Michelle Bachelet was Chile's first female president. |
| 55. Which organisation developed and launched 'Ugram' Indigenous Assault Rifle for the armed forces? (1) ISRO (2) BEL (3) HAL (4) DRDO |
(4) DRDO | DRDO developed and launched the 'Ugram' rifle. |
| 56. Which of the following substances is a bad conductor of electricity? (1) Diamond (2) Gold (3) Silver (4) Graphite |
(1) Diamond | Diamond is a poor conductor of electricity due to its lack of free electrons. |
| 57. Which of the following diseases is caused due to the deficiency of proteins? (1) Arthritis (2) Kwashiorkor (3) Goitre (4) Night Blindness |
(2) Kwashiorkor | Kwashiorkor is caused by protein deficiency. |
| 58. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Navy Institution) (A) INS Chilka (B) INS Hansa (C) INS Satavahana (D) INS Garuda List-II (Place) (I) Goa (II) Andhra Pradesh (III) Kerala (IV) Odisha |
(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) | INS Chilka (IV), INS Hansa (I), INS Satavahana (II), INS Garuda (III). |
| 59. DRDO has conducted the first successful flight test of Agni-5 missile equipped with MIRV technology. What is the full form of MIRV? (1) Multiple Independently Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle (2) Mission India Target Re-Entry Vehicle (3) Multiple Independently Technology Re-Entry Vehicle (4) Multiple Indirect Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle |
(1) Multiple Independently Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle | MIRV stands for Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle. |
| 60. Which Indian has won the "Ramon Magsaysay Award-2023"? (1) Korvi Rakshand (2) Ashwini Kumar (3) Dipti Ranjan Sahoo (4) Dr. Ravi Kannan R. |
(4) Dr. Ravi Kannan R. | Dr. Ravi Kannan R. won the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2023. |
*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.