CUET Geography Question Paper 2024 SET B Download Solutions and Answer Key
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CUET 2024 Geography Question Paper (SET B) with Answer Key PDF
| CUET 2024 Geography Question Paper with Answer Key SET B |  Download |
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CUET 2024 Geography Question Paper with Solution
| Question | Correct Answer | Solution |
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| Q1: Who, among the following, defined Human Geography as “Conception resulting from a more synthetic knowledge of the physical laws governing our earth and of the relations between the living beings which inhabit it”? (1) Ratzel (2) Blache (3) Taylor (4) Semple |
(1) Ratzel | Friedrich Ratzel, a German geographer, is recognized for defining Human Geography through a focus on the interconnectedness between the physical and human aspects of Earth. |
| Q2: “Geography is the study of human beings and environment where nature is supreme that dictates the lifestyle of human beings.” Identify the geographical approach referred to in this statement. (1) Possibilism (2) Environmental Determinism (3) Behaviouralism (4) Humanism |
(2) Environmental Determinism | Environmental Determinism emphasizes the influence of natural factors in shaping human behavior and societal development. This perspective suggests that humans adapt their lifestyles primarily in response to the environment’s constraints. |
| Q3: Which of the following geographers described the ‘state/country’ as a ‘living organism’? (1) French (2) German (3) Australian (4) Indian |
(2) German | This concept, known as the “organic theory,” was introduced by German geographers, particularly Friedrich Ratzel, who viewed the state as a living entity that requires space and resources to grow. |
| Q4: Which of the following country’s population does not have a triangular-shaped age-sex pyramid? (1) Australia (2) Bangladesh (3) Nigeria (4) Mexico |
(1) Australia | Australia’s age-sex pyramid reflects a more stable or aging population, unlike developing countries like Bangladesh or Nigeria, which exhibit triangular pyramids typical of high birth rates and younger populations. |
| Q5: Which of the following approaches was initially proposed by the International Labour Organization? (1) Basic needs approach (2) Income approach (3) Capability approach (4) Welfare approach |
(1) Basic needs approach | The Basic Needs Approach was proposed by the International Labour Organization (ILO) to emphasize the provision of basic services and goods necessary for human well-being, such as food, shelter, education, and healthcare. |
| Q6: Which of the following is not one of the pillars of Human Development? (1) Equity (2) Affordability (3) Sustainability (4) Empowerment |
(2) Affordability | Human Development focuses on equity, sustainability, and empowerment, but affordability is not considered one of its main pillars. |
| Q7: In which country is milk transported from farms to factories through pipelines? (1) India (2) New Zealand (3) Canada (4) Mexico |
(3) Canada | In certain regions of Canada, milk is transported from farms to factories through pipelines to enhance efficiency in the dairy industry. |
| Q8: What is the pattern of settlement that develops around a lake? (1) Rectangular pattern (2) Linear pattern (3) T-shaped pattern (4) Circular pattern |
(4) Circular pattern | Circular settlements commonly form around lakes due to the natural geography and access to water, providing convenience for settlement layout. |
| Q9: Which of the following is not a push factor for the migration of the rural population in India? (1) High population pressure on the land (2) Availability of regular work (3) Lack of basic infrastructural facilities like health care, education, etc. (4) Local conflicts |
(2) Availability of regular work | Availability of regular work is a pull factor, not a push factor, as it attracts people to urban areas for stable employment opportunities. |
| Q10: When and by whom was the first Human Development Report published? (1) WHO in 1992 (2) UNDP in 1992 (3) WHO in 1991 (4) UNDP in 1990 |
(4) UNDP in 1990 | The first Human Development Report was published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in 1990, focusing on the concept of human development and introducing the Human Development Index (HDI). |
| Q11: Among the following, which was the least populated state in 2011? (1) Haryana (2) Tripura (3) Jharkhand (4) Sikkim |
(4) Sikkim | As per the 2011 Census, Sikkim was the least populated state in India. The state’s population density and total count were significantly lower compared to other states listed. |
| Q12: Which of the following States registered the highest population growth rate during 2001–2011? (1) Karnataka (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Rajasthan (4) Maharashtra |
(3) Rajasthan | Rajasthan recorded the highest population growth rate among the listed states during the 2001–2011 decade. |
| Q13: Dhani is an example of type of rural settlements. (1) Hamleted (2) Dispersed (3) Semi-clustered (4) Clustered |
(2) Dispersed | Dhani refers to dispersed rural settlements often found in the desert regions where homes and structures are spread apart due to land scarcity and water availability issues. |
| Q14: Which of the following towns developed as a satellite town? (1) Rohtak (2) Sindri (3) Dispur (4) Mhow |
(4) Mhow | Mhow is an example of a satellite town, developed to support a nearby larger city by accommodating population overflow and offering additional resources. |
| Q15: is an example of ancient towns in India. (1) Madurai (2) Hyderabad (3) Kolkata (4) Delhi |
(1) Madurai | Madurai is one of the oldest cities in India, known for its ancient history, temple complexes, and cultural heritage. |
| Q16: ‘Boro’, ‘Aman’ and ‘Aus’ are . (1) Tribes which are found in the north-eastern part of India (2) Types of folk dance (3) Names of rice crops (4) Types of cotton crop |
(3) Names of rice crops | ‘Boro’, ‘Aman’, and ‘Aus’ are different varieties of rice crops cultivated in India, particularly in West Bengal and Bangladesh, with distinct seasonal cycles. |
| Q17: Pykara Hydroelectric Plant was built in . (1) 1921 (2) 1931 (3) 1941 (4) 1951 |
(2) 1931 | The Pykara Hydroelectric Plant, situated in Tamil Nadu, was commissioned in 1931 and is one of India’s earliest hydroelectric projects. |
| Q18: The total utilisable water resources in India is about cubic km. (1) 1,500 cubic km (2) 1,969 cubic km (3) 2,200 cubic km (4) 1,300 cubic km |
(2) 1,969 cubic km | The total utilisable water resources in India are estimated to be around 1,969 cubic kilometers, encompassing both surface water and groundwater resources. |
| Q19: The first radio programme was broadcast in India in . (1) 1921 (2) 1924 (3) 1923 (4) 1927 |
(3) 1923 | The first radio broadcast in India took place in 1923, initiated by the Radio Club of Bombay, marking the beginning of public radio transmission in the country. |
| Q20: Which of the following is a land-locked harbour? (1) Mumbai port (2) Visakhapatnam port (3) Haldia port (4) Chennai port |
(3) Haldia port | Haldia is a riverine port, meaning it is situated inland and relies on river routes for access, making it land-locked as it is not directly connected to the sea. |
| Q21: Which of the following ports is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation? (1) Mumbai port (2) New Mangalore port (3) Kolkata port (4) Paradwip port |
(3) Kolkata port | Due to its location on the Hooghly River, Kolkata port frequently faces silt accumulation, requiring regular dredging to maintain navigability. |
| Q22: Where is the headquarters of the ‘Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries’ (OPEC)? (1) Montevideo (2) Vienna (3) Minsk (4) Aden |
(2) Vienna | Since 1965, OPEC’s headquarters have been located in Vienna, Austria, making it a key location for global oil-related discussions. |
| Q23: The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was transformed into the World Trade Organization in . (1) 1995 (2) 1991 (3) 2005 (4) 1976 |
(1) 1995 | The GATT was replaced by the World Trade Organization (WTO) in 1995 following the Uruguay Round of trade negotiations, marking a significant shift in international trade regulation. |
| Q24: Canberra was planned by . (1) Patrick Geddes (2) Walter Burley Griffin (3) Jean Gottmann (4) George Zipf |
(2) Walter Burley Griffin | Canberra, the capital city of Australia, was designed by American architect Walter Burley Griffin after winning an international design competition in 1912. |
| Q25: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Approaches in Human Geography) (A) Areal Differentiation (B) Spatial Organisation (C) Behavioural School (D) Post-modernism List-II (Broad Features) (I) Identifying the uniqueness of any region and understanding how and why it is different (II) Application of quantitative techniques in Geography (III) Discontent with quantitative revolution and its dehumanized manner of doing Geography (IV) Focus on local context Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Options: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) | The correct matches are: - (A) Areal Differentiation - (I) Identifying the uniqueness of any region and understanding how and why it is different. - (B) Spatial Organisation - (III) Discontent with quantitative revolution and its dehumanized manner of doing Geography. - (C) Behavioural School - (II) Application of quantitative techniques in Geography. - (D) Post-modernism - (IV) Focus on local context. |
| Q26: Identify from the following, the correct statements with reference to the characteristics of intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation: (A) Land holdings are very small due to the high density of population. (B) Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land. (C) Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil. (D) The yield per unit area is low, but productivity per labour is high. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B) and (D) only (2) (A), (C) and (D) only (3) (A), (B) and (C) only (4) (B), (C) and (D) only |
(3) (A), (B) and (C) only | In intensive subsistence agriculture, particularly in wet paddy cultivation: - Land holdings are generally very small due to high population density. - Family labour is commonly used, leading to intensive land use. - Organic fertilizers like farmyard manure are applied to maintain soil fertility. Statement (D) is incorrect as the yield per unit area is usually high, but the productivity per labour is relatively lower. |
| Q27: Arrange the following agricultural regions from equator to pole: (A) Commercial grain farming in the Prairies (B) Reindeer rearing by the Eskimos (C) Tea plantations of north-east India (D) Primitive subsistence farming in Indonesia Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (C), (D), (A), (B), (2) (D), (C), (A), (B), (3) (D), (C), (B), (A), (4) (C), (D), (B), (A) |
(2) (D), (C), (A), (B) | The correct order from the equator to the pole would be: - (D) Primitive subsistence farming in Indonesia (near the equator). - (C) Tea plantations of north-east India. - (A) Commercial grain farming in the Prairies. - (B) Reindeer rearing by the Eskimos (closer to the poles). |
| Q28: Arrange the following as per the stages of the demographic transition model: (A) Population growth is slow due to high birth and high death rate. (B) Fertility remains high, but mortality declines at a faster pace. (C) Fertility declines at a faster pace, but mortality declines gradually. (D) Population growth is slow due to low birth and low death rate. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (2) (A), (C), (B), (D), (3) (D), (B), (C), (A), (4) (D), (C), (B), (A) |
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) | The demographic transition model follows this sequence: - Stage 1: High birth and high death rates, resulting in slow population growth. - Stage 2: Mortality begins to decline rapidly, while fertility remains high, leading to a rapid population increase. - Stage 3: Fertility declines faster, while mortality continues to decline, resulting in a slower population growth rate. - Stage 4: Both birth and death rates are low, resulting in stable or slow population growth. |
| Q29:Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below: List-I (Station) (A) Chita (B) Winnipeg (C) Broken Hill (D) Chicago List-II (Trans-Continental Railway) (I) Australian Trans-Continental Railway (II) Union Pacific Railway (III) Trans-Siberian Railway (IV) Trans-Canadian Railway Options: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) |
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) | The correct matches are: - (A) Chita - (III) Trans-Siberian Railway - (B) Winnipeg - (IV) Trans-Canadian Railway - (C) Broken Hill - (I) Australian Trans-Continental Railway - (D) Chicago - (II) Union Pacific Railway |
| Q30: Arrange the following copper mines in North to South direction: (A) Alwar (B) Bhilwara (C) Khetri (D) Udaipur Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (B), (D), (C), (A), (2) (C), (B), (A), (D), (3) (B), (C), (D), (A), (4) (C), (A), (B), (D) |
(2) (C), (B), (A), (D) | The correct North to South arrangement of these copper mines is: - Khetri (North) - Bhilwara - Alwar - Udaipur (South) |
| Q31: Arrange the agricultural development of India in chronological order from Independence to the present day: (A) Green Revolution (B) Agro-Climatic Planning (C) Intensive Agricultural District Programme (D) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (C), (A), (B), (D), (2) (B), (C), (D), (A), (3) (B), (A), (D), (C), (4) (D), (A), (C), (B) |
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C) | The chronological order of agricultural developments in India is: 1. Agro-Climatic Planning (B) 2. Green Revolution (A) 3. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (D) 4. Intensive Agricultural District Programme (C) |
| Q32:Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below: List-I (Energy Type) (A) Nuclear energy (B) Wind energy (C) Tidal energy (D) Geothermal energy List-II (Key Locations/Regions) (I) Gujarat and Rajasthan (II) West Coast of India (III) Tarapur (IV) Manikaran Options: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) |
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) | The correct matches are: - (A) Nuclear energy - Tarapur (III) - (B) Wind energy - Gujarat and Rajasthan (I) - (C) Tidal energy - West Coast of India (II) - (D) Geothermal energy - Manikaran (IV) |
| Q33: Which of the following statements are correct with respect to land degradation? (A) All degraded lands are wastelands. (B) All degraded lands may not be wasteland, but unchecked processes can lead to wasteland. (C) Land degradation is a permanent or temporary decline in productive capacity of the land. (D) Waterlogged, marshy areas, and gullied lands are different types of degraded lands. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (D) only (3) (A), (B) and (C) only (4) (B), (C) and (D) only |
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only | - Statement (A) is incorrect as not all degraded lands are wastelands. - Statements (B), (C), and (D) accurately describe the characteristics and effects of land degradation. |
| Q34: Identify from the following the statement which is not correct about the Rhine waterways: (1) It is navigable for 700 km. (2) It flows through a rich coalfield and the whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area. (3) Ocean-going vessels can reach up to Cologne. (4) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, France, and Russia. |
(4) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, France, and Russia. | The Rhine waterways connect industrial areas of Switzerland, France, and Germany, not Russia, making statement (4) incorrect. |
| Q35: Arrange the following states in descending order of their population density as per Census of India, 2011: (A) West Bengal (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (D), (A), (C), (B) (2) (A), (C), (B), (D) (3) (B), (A), (D), (C) (4) (C), (B), (D), (A) |
(2) (A), (C), (B), (D) | Population density in descending order is: - West Bengal (A) - Kerala (C) - Uttar Pradesh (B) - Tamil Nadu (D) |
| Q36:Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below: List-I (Type of Town) (A) Industrial (B) Commercial (C) Transport (D) Garrison List-II (Example) (I) Mhow (II) Katni (III) Satna (IV) Modinagar Options: (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) | The correct matches are: - (A) Industrial - Mhow (I) - (B) Commercial - Katni (II) - (C) Transport - Modinagar (IV) - (D) Garrison - Satna (III) |
| Q37: Identify from the following, the correct statements with reference to the metropolis: (A) It is often the chief centre or seat of some form of activity. (B) It could be administrative, commercial, or industrial centre. (C) It generally serves a small hinterland. (D) It is a very large city or agglomeration of population. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only (2) (A), (C), and (D) only (3) (A), (B), and (C) only (4) (B), (C), and (D) only |
(1) (A), (B), and (D) only | Metropolises are large cities or urban agglomerations that serve as key centres of administrative, commercial, or industrial activity. Statement (C) is incorrect as metropolises serve large hinterlands. |
| Q38: Match List I with List II: Choose the correct answer from the options given below: List-I (Economic Activity) (A) Quaternary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Primary List-II (Example) (I) Manufacturing (II) Mining (III) Taxi services (IV) Research scientist Options: (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) | The correct matches are: - (A) Quaternary - Research scientist (IV) - (B) Secondary - Manufacturing (I) - (C) Tertiary - Taxi services (III) - (D) Primary - Mining (II) |
| Q39: Identify from the following, the correct statements with reference to oil refineries in India: (A) Digboi is an example of market-based oil refinery. (B) Tatipaka Oil Refinery is located in Andhra Pradesh. (C) Numaligarh Oil Refinery is located in northeast India. (D) Bina Oil Refinery is located in Madhya Pradesh. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), and (D) only (2) (A), (B), and (C) only (3) (A), (C), and (D) only (4) (B), (C), and (D) only |
(3) (A), (C), and (D) only | - Digboi, located in Assam, is a market-based oil refinery. - Numaligarh Refinery is situated in Assam, northeast India. - Bina Refinery is in Madhya Pradesh. Tatipaka Refinery is incorrectly placed as a market-based refinery. |
| Q40: Identify from the following, the correct statements about transportation in India: (A) Atal Tunnel passes through Pir Panjal Range. (B) About 80(C) The Inland Waterways Authority was set up in 1986. (D) Konkan Railway connects Roha in Karnataka to Mangalore in Kerala. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), and (C) only (2) (A) and (C) only (3) (A) and (B) only (4) (B), (C), and (D) only |
(2) (A) and (C) only | - Atal Tunnel passes through the Pir Panjal Range. - The Inland Waterways Authority was established in 1986. - Statements (B) and (D) are incorrect as the railway network is mostly broad gauge, and Roha is in Maharashtra, not Karnataka. |
| Q41: The small-scale manufacturing and the cottage manufacturing are distinguished on the basis of . (1) Raw materials (2) Quantity of production (3) Production techniques (4) Scale of profits |
(3) Production techniques | Small-scale and cottage industries are distinguished by production techniques. Cottage industries use traditional methods in home-based setups, while small-scale industries use workshops and power-driven machines. |
| Q42: Which one of the following is not a feature of small-scale manufacturing? (1) It engages semi-skilled labour force. (2) It provides employment and raises local purchasing power. (3) The artisans produce goods in their homes with the help of family members. (4) It is labour-intensive manufacturing. |
(3) The artisans produce goods in their homes with the help of family members. | Small-scale manufacturing typically utilizes workshops or small factories rather than home-based production, which is characteristic of cottage industries. |
| Q43: From the following, identify the feature of the cottage industry: (1) Use of advanced technology (2) Specialized workers (3) Finished products may be for consumption in the same household (4) Mass production |
(3) Finished products may be for consumption in the same household. | Cottage industries create goods for local or household use, using simple methods and tools, unlike small-scale or large-scale industries. |
| Q44: Large-scale manufacturing is not . (1) Capital-intensive (2) Energy-intensive (3) Technology-intensive (4) Labour-intensive |
(4) Labour-intensive | Large-scale manufacturing relies on automation, advanced technology, and energy rather than manual labour, making it less labour-intensive compared to smaller industries. |
| Q45: Which of the following is not a product of the cottage industry? (1) Mat (2) Shoes (3) Car (4) Basket |
(3) Car | Cottage industries specialize in producing small, simple goods like mats and baskets. Manufacturing complex products like cars requires advanced technology and large-scale setups. |
| Q46: Petlawad block of Jhabua is located in which part of the district? (1) Southernmost (2) Westernmost (3) Northernmost (4) Easternmost |
(3) Northernmost | The passage states that the Petlawad block is located in the northernmost part of Jhabua district, Madhya Pradesh. |
| Q47: Which tribal community has a high concentration in the district of Jhabua? (1) Bhils (2) Munda (3) Santhal (4) Meena |
(1) Bhils | The Bhils are the dominant tribal community in Jhabua district as per the passage provided. |
| Q48: The Watershed Management Programmes, which have been successfully implemented in Jhabua, were funded by . (1) Ministry of Tourism (2) Ministries of Rural Development and Agriculture (3) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (4) Ministry of Tribal Affairs |
(2) Ministries of Rural Development and Agriculture | The Watershed Management Programmes in Jhabua were funded by the Ministries of Rural Development and Agriculture, focusing on improving soil quality and preventing degradation. |
| Q49: Which among the following was not used by Bhils to revitalize Common Property Resources? (1) Plantation of fodder grass (2) Plantation of trees (3) Open grazing (4) Social fencing |
(3) Open grazing | The Bhils adopted stall feeding instead of open grazing to preserve pastures and ensure sustainability, as highlighted in the passage. |
| Q50: Jhabua district is located in which agro-climatic zone of Madhya Pradesh? (1) Northernmost (2) Southernmost (3) Easternmost (4) Westernmost |
(4) Westernmost | Jhabua is situated in the westernmost agro-climatic zone of Madhya Pradesh, as clearly mentioned in the passage. |
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