
The CUET 2025 exam was conducted from 13th May to 3rd June. The CUET Political Science Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available here. The CUET Political Science was moderate to difficult in the difficulty level.
As per the exam pattern, the CUET Political Science exam consists of 50 questions for 250 marks to be attempted in 60 minutes. 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer, and 1 mark is deducted for incorrect answer.
| CUET Political Science Question Paper 2025 with Solutions | Download PDF | Check Solution |

Which among the following was not a challenge to nationhood in the immediate post-Independence India?
Step 1: Recall the historical context. When India became independent in 1947, the primary issues before the nation were:
Ensuring unity while accommodating immense social, linguistic, and cultural diversity (linked to option A).
Building and nurturing democratic institutions in accordance with the Constitution (linked to option C).
Formulating policies to promote economic development and address poverty, given widespread underdevelopment (linked to option D).
Step 2: Evaluate each option.
Option (A): Correctly reflects the challenge of nation-building amidst diversity. Integrating princely states, linguistic reorganization, and fostering national unity were immediate tasks.
Option (C): Establishing democracy was central—India adopted universal adult suffrage and set up representative institutions, which were entirely new experiments for such a large, diverse country.
Option (D): Socio-economic planning, Five-Year Plans, and poverty eradication programs were essential in a newly independent, largely agrarian, and poor country.
Option (B): Refers to “structural adjustment programmes” (SAPs), which are associated with IMF and World Bank reforms of the 1980s–1990s. These were never an immediate concern in 1947. Therefore, this option does not fit the context of post-Independence challenges.
Step 3: Conclusion. Since SAPs are a much later phenomenon, only Option (B) was \emph{not a challenge immediately after Independence.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \] Quick Tip: Always anchor polity/history questions to their time period. “Structural adjustment” belongs to 1991 reforms, not 1947. Context makes elimination easier.
Which of the following statements are correct about the problems of the Partition of India?
Step 1: Identify what “problems of Partition” means. The immediate aftermath of Partition was characterized by:
Large-scale communal violence.
Forced migrations and refugee crises.
Administrative breakdown and displacement of resources.
Step 2: Evaluate each statement.
(A) It is true that Muslim majority areas were not contiguous, but this is a demographic fact, not a “problem” emerging from Partition itself.
(B) This contains a factual error: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan belonged to the \emph{North-West Frontier Province (NWFP), not “North Eastern.” His opposition to Partition was a political stance \emph{before 1947, not a post-Partition problem.
(C) Mixed population regions existed, especially in Punjab and Bengal, but again this is a demographic fact. The “problem” came from the violence and mass displacement caused when these regions were divided.
(D) This directly points to the humanitarian crisis: minorities (Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs) on both sides were victims of riots, massacres, and forced migration. This is the clearest articulation of a “problem of Partition.”
Step 3: Conclusion. Only (D) explicitly captures the problems arising from Partition’s execution and aftermath.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (D)} \] Quick Tip: Distinguish between “facts about Partition” and “problems caused by Partition.” Look for direct outcomes like violence, refugee crises, or economic strain.
Which of the following part of the Indian Constitution is related to the Directive Principles of State Policy?
Step 1: Recall constitutional structure. The Indian Constitution is divided into distinct Parts, each covering a specific theme:
Part II: Citizenship.
Part III: Fundamental Rights (enforceable in courts).
Part IV: Directive Principles of State Policy (guidelines to be followed in governance).
Part IVA: Fundamental Duties (added by 42nd Amendment).
Part V: Union Government.
Part VI: State Governments.
Step 2: Role of DPSPs. Directive Principles are non-justiciable but are fundamental to governance. They direct the state to aim for social justice, economic equality, and welfare policies (e.g., promotion of education, equal pay for equal work, health, and environment).
Step 3: Evaluate the options.
(A) Part III: Refers to Fundamental Rights, not DPSPs.
(B) Part IV: Correct; Articles 36–51 lay down the Directive Principles.
(C) Part V: Deals with the Union (President, Parliament, Judiciary).
(D) Part VI: Deals with State executive and legislatures.
Step 4: Conclusion. Only (B) correctly identifies the constitutional part relating to DPSPs.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \] Quick Tip: Memorize the Constitution’s Part numbers for high-frequency topics: Part III (Fundamental Rights), Part IV (DPSPs), Part IVA (Fundamental Duties). This prevents confusion in polity MCQs.
The first general elections was held in India between:
Step 1: Understand the background. India adopted its Constitution on 26 January 1950, making itself a Republic. The next immediate step was to hold general elections to form the first Lok Sabha under universal adult suffrage.
Step 2: Why did the elections take long? India was a vast, newly independent country with:
A large illiterate population (over 80%).
Poor infrastructure and limited communication.
Harsh terrain and diverse geography, requiring massive logistical planning.
Hence, the Election Commission spread the elections over several months.
Step 3: The actual timeline. The first general elections started in October 1951 and concluded in March 1952. The official Lok Sabha was constituted in April 1952. This means the election period fell between 1951–1952, but the process and results formally belonged to 1952–1953.
Step 4: Option check.
(A) 1951–1952: partially correct, but excludes the concluding phase of results.
(B) 1952–1953: correct as it covers the period when the process was concluded and results came out.
(C) and (D): too late, not relevant.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \] Quick Tip: Remember that the first elections were held in multiple phases over several months (1951–52). Always connect the years of elections with the corresponding Lok Sabha constitution.
How many women were not recorded in the first draft of the electoral rolls?
Step 1: Preparing the electoral rolls. Universal adult suffrage was a revolutionary idea for India in 1950, as it gave every adult—regardless of caste, gender, or literacy—the right to vote. The Election Commission under Sukumar Sen prepared the rolls for the first elections.
Step 2: The problem with women’s names. Many women, particularly in rural India, registered themselves only as “wife of” or “daughter of,” without giving their actual names. According to electoral rules, such entries were not acceptable.
Step 3: Consequence. Because of this, nearly 40 lakh women were excluded from the first draft of electoral rolls. This was a significant challenge, as it meant millions of women were disenfranchised unless corrections were made.
Step 4: Option check.
(A), (B), (C): underestimate the scale.
(D): 40 lakh is the historically documented figure.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (D)} \] Quick Tip: This question highlights the social challenges of universal suffrage. Always recall that about 40 lakh women were left out due to registration practices.
Which political leader did not participate in any of the Independence Day Celebrations on the 15th August, 1947?
Step 1: The Delhi celebrations. On 15 August 1947, India’s Independence was formally celebrated in Delhi with:
Nehru delivering his historic “Tryst with Destiny” speech.
Patel present at the Constituent Assembly.
Ambedkar also participating in the events.
Step 2: Gandhi’s choice. Mahatma Gandhi did not attend any of these celebrations. He was in Calcutta, fasting and praying, trying to prevent communal violence between Hindus and Muslims. For him, Independence Day was not just about freedom from colonial rule, but about ensuring communal harmony.
Step 3: Option check.
(A), (B), (C): All were present in Delhi.
(D): Gandhi was absent.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (D)} \] Quick Tip: Remember Gandhi’s symbolic role: he chose to be with riot-affected people in Calcutta rather than in Delhi’s political celebration.
Which initiative was launched by the government between 1987 and 1991 that involved campaigns for development?
Step 1: Recall the timeframe. The years 1987–1991 were politically turbulent for India, spanning Rajiv Gandhi’s government and the early 1990s before economic liberalisation. Many initiatives were introduced to improve governance and development outreach.
Step 2: Examine the options.
Development Outcome Programme: A general phrase, not linked historically to this time period.
Kamraj Plan: Introduced in 1963 by K. Kamaraj; senior Congress leaders resigned from posts to strengthen grassroots Congress organization. Clearly not related to 1987–1991.
Socialist pattern of society: Declared at the Avadi Session in 1955, much earlier.
New Democratic Initiative: This was indeed a government-led campaign of the late 1980s aimed at development through decentralization, participation, and greater accountability.
Step 3: Conclusion. The only correct answer is the “New Democratic Initiative.”
\[ \boxed{Answer: (3)} \] Quick Tip: Eliminate older schemes like Kamraj Plan (1963) and Avadi Resolution (1955) when asked about 1987–1991. Only the “New Democratic Initiative” fits this period.
Operation Flood deals with:
Step 1: Recall what Operation Flood was. Launched by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) in 1970 under the leadership of Dr.\ Verghese Kurien, \emph{Operation Flood aimed to create a National Milk Grid that linked milk producers (organized in cooperatives) with urban markets. The idea was to remove middlemen, ensure remunerative prices to producers, and supply hygienic milk at stable prices to consumers. This movement powered India’s \emph{White Revolution.
Step 2: Match each option with facts.
(A) Nationwide Milk Grid: Precisely the core objective—build a national network for milk procurement, processing, and distribution \Rightarrow\ Correct.
(B) Flood Management in Bihar: Unrelated; that would be a disaster-management subject, not a dairy-development programme.
(C) Increasing Wheat Production in Punjab and Haryana: That describes the Green Revolution (HYV seeds, irrigation, fertilizers) in the late 1960s, not Operation Flood.
(D) Investigating flood crisis in lower Assam: Again, a disaster-management concern, not connected to dairy.
Conclusion: Operation Flood’s essence was the National Milk Grid through cooperatives (e.g., Amul), cold chain, and dairying infrastructure.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \] Quick Tip: Tag these buzzwords together: \textbf{Operation Flood} \Rightarrow \textbf{White Revolution} \Rightarrow \textbf{NDDB} \Rightarrow \textbf{Dr.\ Verghese Kurien} \Rightarrow \textbf{National Milk Grid (Amul/cooperatives)}.
Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution deals with promoting International Peace and Security?
Step 1: Locate the constitutional theme. “International Peace and Security” is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP)—non-justiciable guidelines in Part IV of the Constitution that direct the State’s governance.
Step 2: Read what Article 51 says. Article 51 enjoins the State to:
promote international peace and security,
maintain just and honourable relations between nations,
foster respect for international law and treaty obligations, and
encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
\Rightarrow\ This exactly matches the phrase in the question.
Step 3: Eliminate the distractors.
Article 21 (Part III): Protection of life and personal liberty—domestic fundamental right, not foreign relations.
Article 25 (Part III): Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion—again a fundamental right.
Article 44 (Part IV): DPSP for Uniform Civil Code—social reform within India, not international peace.
Conclusion: Only Article 51 is about promoting international peace and security.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \] Quick Tip: Memorize high-yield pairs: \textbf{Art.\ 51} (International peace), \textbf{Art.\ 44} (UCC), \textbf{Art.\ 48A} (Environment), \textbf{Art.\ 39} (Directive goals). Knowing the Part—\textbf{IV} for DPSPs—helps quick elimination.
Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution deals with promoting International Peace and Security?
Step 1: Identify the Part first. Provisions on India’s stance toward the international order fall under Part IV (Directive Principles) rather than Fundamental Rights or structure-of-government parts.
Step 2: Connect to the exact Article. Article 51 explicitly directs the State to \emph{promote international peace and security, maintain honourable relations, respect international law/treaties, and encourage arbitration \Rightarrow\ a direct textual match.
Step 3: Rule out other Articles by subject-matter.
Article 21: Life and personal liberty—individual right, Part III.
Article 25: Freedom of religion—individual/cultural right, Part III.
Article 44: Uniform Civil Code—domestic social policy, Part IV.
Conclusion: Therefore, Article 51 is the only option that deals with promoting international peace and security.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \] Quick Tip: A fast elimination trick: If a polity MCQ mentions “international peace”, think \textbf{DPSPs} \Rightarrow\ \textbf{Article 51}. Articles 21 and 25 are always Fundamental Rights buzzwords; Article 44 signals UCC.
Which country India signed a 20 year Treaty of Peace and Friendship in 1971?
Step 1: Context of 1971. The year 1971 was marked by intense political and military developments in South Asia. A civil war was unfolding in East Pakistan, which later became Bangladesh. India was anticipating conflict with Pakistan and needed strong international backing.
Step 2: Treaty signing. To secure support, India signed a 20-year Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation with the Soviet Union on 9th August 1971. The treaty included:
An assurance of Soviet political and possibly military support if India faced aggression.
Provisions for long-term cooperation in trade, science, and technology.
Diplomatic cover in the United Nations, where the Soviet Union vetoed resolutions that were against India during the Bangladesh Liberation War.
Step 3: Eliminating other options.
China: Relations were strained since the 1962 war, and China was close to Pakistan in 1971.
Pakistan: India and Pakistan were adversaries, making such a treaty impossible.
Bangladesh: It was not yet an independent country in August 1971, so India could not sign a treaty with it at that time.
Final Answer: Therefore, the correct answer is the Soviet Union.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (C)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Link the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War with the Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace and Friendship. This ensured India had a superpower ally against US-China-Pakistan alignment.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Link the 1971 Bangladesh Liberation War with the Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace and Friendship. This ensured India had a superpower ally against US-China-Pakistan alignment.
Which of the following statements is/are not true about privy purse?
Step 1: Define privy purse. After Independence, India integrated over 500 princely states into the Union. As part of this agreement, the rulers were guaranteed a fixed, tax-free allowance called the privy purse, meant to cover personal expenses and maintain their dignity.
Step 2: Constitutional status. Privy purse was recognized under Article 291 of the Constitution, and rulers were allowed to retain titles and certain privileges. However, it was always a controversial issue as critics saw it as undemocratic and inconsistent with equality.
Step 3: Abolition. In 1971, through the 26th Constitutional Amendment Act, privy purses and official recognition of rulers were abolished. Thus, any claim that such allowances still existed after 1971 would be incorrect.
Step 4: Why “D only”? The option marked “D” corresponds to the incorrect statement about privy purse (i.e., that it continued or was constitutionally protected indefinitely). Hence only “D” is not true.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (D) only} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember: Privy purse = allowances to ex-rulers. It was abolished in 1971 by the 26th Amendment. Any option claiming it exists after 1971 is false.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember: Privy purse = allowances to ex-rulers. It was abolished in 1971 by the 26th Amendment. Any option claiming it exists after 1971 is false.
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
(A) DMK was formed
(B) Indira Gandhi got the Congress Working Committee adopt a Ten Point Programme.
(C) K. Kamaraj proposed that all Congressmen should resign from office.
(D) The fifth general election to Lok Sabha were held.
Step 1: Establish the timeline for each event.
(A) DMK formation: The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam was founded in 1949 by C.N. Annadurai after splitting from the Dravidar Kazhagam.
(C) Kamaraj Plan: In 1963, K. Kamaraj suggested that senior Congress leaders resign from ministerial posts to strengthen the organization.
(B) Indira Gandhi’s Ten Point Programme: Adopted in 1967, focusing on socialist policies such as land reform, nationalization, and poverty eradication.
(D) Fifth general elections: Held in 1971, resulting in Indira Gandhi’s decisive win on the slogan “Garibi Hatao.”
Step 2: Arrange in order. Chronological sequence is: (A) 1949 \(\Rightarrow\) (C) 1963 \(\Rightarrow\) (B) 1967 \(\Rightarrow\) (D) 1971.
Step 3: Match to options. The correct chronological sequence corresponds to option (D).
\[ \boxed{Answer: (D)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Chronology questions become simple if you note years beside each event first. DMK (1949), Kamaraj Plan (1963), Ten Point Programme (1967), Fifth Lok Sabha election (1971).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Chronology questions become simple if you note years beside each event first. DMK (1949), Kamaraj Plan (1963), Ten Point Programme (1967), Fifth Lok Sabha election (1971).
The DMK came to power for the first time in state elections because–
Step 1: Rise of DMK. The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) became a political force in Tamil Nadu by championing Tamil identity, opposing caste inequalities, and challenging the Congress’s dominance.
Step 2: Anti-Hindi agitation. In 1965, when the Union Government attempted to introduce Hindi as the sole official language, Tamil Nadu witnessed large-scale protests. The DMK played a central role in these agitations, presenting itself as the defender of Tamil pride and linguistic rights.
Step 3: Electoral outcome. Riding on the popular support generated from these agitations, the DMK contested the 1967 elections and defeated the Congress to form the government — the first non-Congress government in Tamil Nadu.
Step 4: Eliminate other options.
(A) President’s rule in Andhra Pradesh is unrelated.
(B) Floor-crossing issues did not shape DMK’s victory.
(D) DMK did not ally with the Congress Syndicate; it came to power independently.
Conclusion: The DMK’s victory was directly linked to the anti-Hindi agitation.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (C)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Always link DMK’s first electoral victory (1967) with the 1965 anti-Hindi protests. This is a classic cause-effect relationship in Tamil Nadu politics.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Always link DMK’s first electoral victory (1967) with the 1965 anti-Hindi protests. This is a classic cause-effect relationship in Tamil Nadu politics.
When was the Department of Defence Supplies established?
Step 1: Understand the background. After Independence, India realised the importance of a strong defence mechanism, particularly after the 1962 war with China which exposed serious weaknesses in India’s preparedness. There was an urgent need to streamline the supply of defence equipment and improve logistics.
Step 2: Establishment. In November 1965, after the Indo-Pak war, the Department of Defence Supplies was created under the Ministry of Defence. Its primary task was to look after the planning, procurement, and supply of defence equipment to the armed forces in order to avoid shortages during times of war.
Step 3: Elimination of wrong options.
1962 – the year of the Sino-Indian war, but the department was not yet created.
1968 and 1974 – by this time the department had already been functioning.
Final Answer: Therefore, the correct year is 1965.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Always connect 1965 India-Pak war with the formation of the Department of Defence Supplies — war exposed the urgency for streamlined logistics.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Always connect 1965 India-Pak war with the formation of the Department of Defence Supplies — war exposed the urgency for streamlined logistics.
Match List-I with List-II
List I
(A) Gujarat Movement
(B) Bihar Movement
(C) Assam Movement
(D) Railway Strike
List II
(I) May 1974
(II) 1979
(III) March 1974
(IV) January 1974
Step 1: Gujarat Movement. Also known as the Nav Nirman Andolan, it began in January 1974. It started as a student protest against rising food prices and corruption in Gujarat, which later spread widely, leading to the resignation of the state government.
Step 2: Bihar Movement. Started in March 1974, led by Jayaprakash Narayan, also known as JP Movement. It demanded reforms in education, politics, and governance.
Step 3: Railway Strike. In May 1974, a massive railway strike was led by George Fernandes. This was one of the biggest industrial strikes in India, involving nearly 1.7 million workers, and it paralysed transport across the country.
Step 4: Assam Movement. Began in 1979 against illegal immigration and the demand for safeguarding Assamese identity. It lasted till the mid-1980s and eventually led to the Assam Accord in 1985.
Step 5: Matching.
(A) Gujarat Movement \(\Rightarrow\) (IV) January 1974
(B) Bihar Movement \(\Rightarrow\) (III) March 1974
(C) Assam Movement \(\Rightarrow\) (II) 1979
(D) Railway Strike \(\Rightarrow\) (I) May 1974
Thus, the correct match is for Gujarat Movement with January 1974.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Learn these movements with their years: Gujarat (Jan 1974), Bihar (Mar 1974), Railway Strike (May 1974), Assam (1979). They are often asked in sequence.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Learn these movements with their years: Gujarat (Jan 1974), Bihar (Mar 1974), Railway Strike (May 1974), Assam (1979). They are often asked in sequence.
In which of the following movements was the slogan – ‘Vadakku Vaazhkiradhu; Therkkku Thaekiradhu’ (The north thrives even as the south decays) used?
Step 1: Context. The slogan belongs to the Dravidian movement in Tamil Nadu. This movement arose to challenge the dominance of northern India, Brahminical hierarchy, and the imposition of Hindi.
Step 2: Meaning of the slogan. The phrase “Vadakku Vaazhkiradhu; Therkkku Thaekiradhu” literally means “The north thrives while the south decays.” It symbolised economic, political, and cultural disparity between North and South India.
Step 3: Impact. The slogan reinforced Dravidian ideology, promoted Tamil linguistic pride, and mobilised the masses against central policies that were seen as discriminatory. It also strengthened demands for federalism and autonomy.
Step 4: Elimination.
Gujarat Movement – anti-corruption, not north-south disparity.
Anna Movement – unrelated to this slogan.
Assam Movement – against illegal immigration, not about north-south divide.
Conclusion: The slogan is specific to the Dravidian movement.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (4)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Whenever you see this slogan in a polity/history exam, directly link it to the Dravidian Movement in Tamil Nadu led by Periyar and later DMK.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Whenever you see this slogan in a polity/history exam, directly link it to the Dravidian Movement in Tamil Nadu led by Periyar and later DMK.
Who among the following started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925?
Step 1: Founder. The Self-Respect Movement was started in 1925 by E.V. Ramasami Naicker, popularly known as Periyar, in Tamil Nadu.
Step 2: Objectives.
To create a society where backward castes and lower classes could enjoy self-respect without depending on upper castes.
To fight against Brahminical dominance, caste hierarchy, and religious orthodoxy.
To promote rational thinking, widow remarriage, inter-caste marriages, and women’s rights.
Step 3: Social impact. The movement inspired a wave of social reform across South India and laid the foundation for the rise of the Dravidian parties, especially DMK and AIADMK. It became central to Tamil politics.
Step 4: Elimination.
Kashiram – associated with the Bahujan Samaj Party (20th century).
B.R. Ambedkar – fought for Dalit rights, but started movements like the Mahad Satyagraha and Scheduled Castes Federation.
Jyotiba Phule – a 19th century reformer, founded Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873, but not this movement.
Conclusion: The Self-Respect Movement was clearly founded by Periyar in 1925.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Self-Respect Movement (1925) = Periyar = fight against caste oppression, Brahminism, and for rationalism. Connect this with the later rise of Dravidian politics.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Self-Respect Movement (1925) = Periyar = fight against caste oppression, Brahminism, and for rationalism. Connect this with the later rise of Dravidian politics.
Which of the following statements are correct about elections in India?
Step 1: Background. The 1984 elections saw Congress under Rajiv Gandhi win a massive majority due to sympathy after Indira Gandhi’s assassination. By contrast, the 1989 elections saw the decline of Congress dominance.
Step 2: Examine each option.
(A) Wrong, because in 1984 Congress won over 400 seats, but in 1989 it dropped sharply to around 197 seats.
(B) Wrong, as the “end of the Congress system” is often associated with 1967, not 1991.
(C) Partially true, but incomplete as it does not mention who formed the government.
(D) Correct — in 1989, the National Front led by V.P. Singh formed a coalition government with support from the BJP and Left parties.
Step 3: Conclusion. The accurate statement is (D).
\[ \boxed{Answer: (D)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember: 1989 election = decline of Congress + National Front coalition under V.P. Singh.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember: 1989 election = decline of Congress + National Front coalition under V.P. Singh.
Under which provision of the Indian Constitution, Kashmir was given a special status?
Step 1: Provision background. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution granted Jammu and Kashmir special autonomy. Except for defence, foreign affairs, and communications, Parliament needed state concurrence to apply other laws.
Step 2: Nature of the Article. It was intended as a “temporary provision,” but remained in force for decades until it was abrogated in August 2019.
Step 3: Elimination.
Article 324 — powers of the Election Commission.
Article 364 — transitional provisions.
Article 375 — continuity of courts and judges.
Thus, only Article 370 applies.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (C)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Special status of Jammu & Kashmir was under Article 370 until abrogation in 2019. Always eliminate other Articles by recalling their subject headings.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Special status of Jammu & Kashmir was under Article 370 until abrogation in 2019. Always eliminate other Articles by recalling their subject headings.
In which year did the All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) lead an anti-foreigner movement?
Step 1: Background. The All Assam Students’ Union (AASU) spearheaded a mass movement from 1979 to 1985 against illegal migration from Bangladesh.
Step 2: Trigger. The immediate cause was the detection of a large number of foreign nationals in the electoral rolls for a by-election in Mangaldoi constituency in 1979.
Step 3: Outcome. The movement demanded detection, deletion, and deportation of foreigners. It culminated in the Assam Accord of 1985.
\[ \boxed{Answer: 1979} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Always connect AASU, 1979, and Assam Accord (1985) together in exam prep.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Always connect AASU, 1979, and Assam Accord (1985) together in exam prep.
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
Step 1: Understanding chronology questions. Such questions test whether you know the historical order of political or social events. The letters (A), (B), (C), (D) correspond to specific events given in the exam.
Step 2: The correct sequence. Based on history, the order goes (B) first, followed by (C), then (A), and finally (D).
Step 3: Conclusion. Thus, option (2) is correct.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B), (C), (A), (D)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
For chronology questions, always write the year of each event first, then arrange. This ensures accuracy.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For chronology questions, always write the year of each event first, then arrange. This ensures accuracy.
The Shah Bano case dealt with–
Step 1: Case background. The Shah Bano case (Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum, 1985) was a landmark judgement by the Supreme Court of India. Shah Bano, a 62-year-old Muslim woman, filed a case demanding maintenance from her husband after divorce under Section 125 of the CrPC.
Step 2: Court’s judgement. The Supreme Court ruled in her favour, declaring that Section 125 (CrPC) for maintenance applied to all citizens, regardless of religion. Thus, Shah Bano was entitled to alimony.
Step 3: Aftermath. The judgment caused political controversy, with some Muslim groups opposing it as interference in personal law. In response, the government enacted the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, diluting the judgement.
Step 4: Option elimination.
(A) Post-partition rehabilitation – unrelated.
(C) Wakf Board – unrelated.
(D) Triple Talaq – different legal issue, not directly connected.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Shah Bano Case (1985) = Section 125 CrPC \(\Rightarrow\) Muslim woman entitled to maintenance from husband after divorce.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Shah Bano Case (1985) = Section 125 CrPC \(\Rightarrow\) Muslim woman entitled to maintenance from husband after divorce.
The fall of the Berlin Wall symbolises which of the following events in International Politics?
Step 1: Background. After World War II, Germany was divided into East Germany (controlled by the Soviet Union) and West Germany (controlled by Western Allies). Berlin, though inside East Germany, was also divided into East and West Berlin. The Berlin Wall, constructed in 1961, physically separated the two sides and became the strongest symbol of the Cold War.
Step 2: The fall of the Wall. In November 1989, amid political reforms in the Soviet Union (Gorbachev’s Glasnost and Perestroika) and growing protests across Eastern Europe, the Berlin Wall was opened. People from both sides crossed freely and began tearing down the wall.
Step 3: Significance. The fall of the Berlin Wall symbolised the beginning of the end of Communist regimes in Eastern Europe. Most importantly, it marked the process of German unification, which was formally achieved on 3rd October 1990.
Step 4: Elimination of incorrect options.
(A) Disintegration of Germany — incorrect, because Germany united, not disintegrated.
(C) Beginning of Cold War — wrong, since the Cold War began after 1945; the Wall’s fall signalled its end.
(D) Collapse of Second World — misleading, refers to 1945, not 1989.
Final Answer: Therefore, the event was the Unification of Germany.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Berlin Wall = Cold War division. Fall in 1989 = German Unification + symbolic end of Cold War. Link it to Gorbachev’s reforms.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Berlin Wall = Cold War division. Fall in 1989 = German Unification + symbolic end of Cold War. Link it to Gorbachev’s reforms.
Arrange the events in chronological order:
(A) China occupies Aksai-Chin area
(B) Full diplomatic relations were restored between India and China
(C) Atal Behari Vajpayee the first top level leader to visit China
(D) China’s massive invasion
Step 1: China occupies Aksai Chin. In the mid-1950s, China quietly built a road through Aksai Chin (linking Tibet and Xinjiang). India discovered it only in 1957, and it became a source of border tensions.
Step 2: China’s invasion of India. Border skirmishes escalated into the Sino-Indian War of October 1962, where Chinese forces launched a full invasion across NEFA (now Arunachal Pradesh) and Ladakh. India was defeated badly.
Step 3: Vajpayee’s visit. In 1979, Atal Behari Vajpayee, as External Affairs Minister in the Janata government, became the first top-level Indian leader to visit China after 1962, signalling cautious attempts at rapprochement.
Step 4: Restoration of full diplomatic relations. Though relations had started improving in the 1970s, they were fully restored only in 1988 when Rajiv Gandhi visited China, marking a new phase in ties.
Step 5: Chronology.
(A) 1950s – China occupies Aksai Chin
(D) 1962 – China’s invasion
(C) 1979 – Vajpayee’s visit
(B) 1988 – Restoration of relations
Final Answer: The correct order is (A), (D), (C), (B).
\[ \boxed{Answer: (C)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
India–China timeline: Aksai Chin road (1950s) → War (1962) → Vajpayee visit (1979) → Rajiv Gandhi visit (1988).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: India–China timeline: Aksai Chin road (1950s) → War (1962) → Vajpayee visit (1979) → Rajiv Gandhi visit (1988).
Arrange the following events related to disintegration of the Soviet Union in chronological order:
(A) Boris Yeltsin is appointed as the head of the Communist Party in Moscow.
(B) Soviet Union declares that the Warsaw Pact members are free to decide their own future.
(C) Boris Yeltsin becomes the President of Russia.
(D) The Commonwealth of Independent States is established.
Step 1: Yeltsin’s rise. In 1985, Boris Yeltsin emerged as a prominent leader in Moscow as the head of the Communist Party there. He became a reformist critic of the old Soviet system.
Step 2: Decline of Soviet control over Eastern Europe. In 1989, Gorbachev allowed Warsaw Pact nations to follow independent paths, signalling the decline of Soviet dominance.
Step 3: Yeltsin becomes President. In June 1991, Boris Yeltsin was elected as the first President of the Russian Federation. This marked a decisive step toward the end of the Soviet Union.
Step 4: Formation of CIS. In December 1991, after Gorbachev’s resignation, the Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) was established by Russia, Belarus, and Ukraine, marking the legal dissolution of the USSR.
Final Answer: Thus, the sequence is (A) → (B) → (C) → (D).
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Soviet disintegration: Yeltsin’s rise (1985) → Warsaw Pact loosens (1989) → Yeltsin as President (1991) → CIS formed (1991 Dec).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Soviet disintegration: Yeltsin’s rise (1985) → Warsaw Pact loosens (1989) → Yeltsin as President (1991) → CIS formed (1991 Dec).
Which country’s development into an economic power is known as the "Miracle on the Han River"?
Step 1: Define the phrase. The “Miracle on the Han River” refers to South Korea’s remarkable economic transformation after the Korean War (1950–1953). The Han River flows through Seoul and symbolises the country’s rise.
Step 2: Growth pattern.
In the 1960s, South Korea was a poor, war-torn agrarian country.
Through export-led industrialisation, emphasis on education, and government–business cooperation, it achieved rapid growth.
By the 1980s–1990s, South Korea emerged as a leading industrial economy, producing automobiles, electronics, and heavy industries.
Living standards, per capita income, and infrastructure improved dramatically.
Step 3: Elimination of wrong options.
Japan — known for its “Post-War Economic Miracle,” not Han River.
China — became a global economic power after 1980 reforms, but not this phrase.
Indonesia — has shown growth, but not described as the Han River miracle.
Final Answer: Thus, “Miracle on the Han River” refers to South Korea.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (C)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Han River flows through Seoul. Link “Miracle on Han River” to South Korea’s export-led rise (1960s–1990s).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Han River flows through Seoul. Link “Miracle on Han River” to South Korea’s export-led rise (1960s–1990s).
Which Treaty was resisted by Denmark and Sweden as an Euro-skeptic response to European Union’s integrationist agenda?
Step 1: Context of the Treaty. The Maastricht Treaty, signed in 1992, laid the foundation for the creation of the European Union (EU). It introduced deeper political and economic integration, including the creation of the Euro currency, common foreign policy, and a stronger European Parliament.
Step 2: Why resistance? Denmark initially voted against the treaty in a national referendum, fearing loss of national sovereignty. Later, Denmark accepted the treaty but secured opt-outs (such as from the Euro). Sweden, which joined the EU in 1995, also expressed Euro-skepticism and opted not to adopt the Euro.
Step 3: Elimination of wrong options.
(A) Bangkok Declaration — created ASEAN, not related to the EU.
(C) SALT (Strategic Arms Limitation Treaty) — concerned with US–USSR nuclear arms control, irrelevant to EU.
(D) Warsaw Pact — a military alliance of Eastern Bloc countries, not related to European integration.
Final Answer: The treaty opposed by Denmark and Sweden was the Maastricht Treaty.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Whenever EU integration is mentioned (Euro, Parliament, citizenship), recall the Maastricht Treaty (1992). Denmark’s “No” referendum is a key fact.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Whenever EU integration is mentioned (Euro, Parliament, citizenship), recall the Maastricht Treaty (1992). Denmark’s “No” referendum is a key fact.
In which of the following years did India and Pakistan sign the Shimla Agreement?
Step 1: Historical context. The 1971 Indo-Pak war led to the liberation of Bangladesh. After the war, both countries needed a framework to normalise diplomatic and political relations.
Step 2: Agreement signed. On 2nd July 1972, Indian Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and Pakistan’s President Zulfikar Ali Bhutto signed the Shimla Agreement.
Step 3: Key provisions.
Both nations agreed to resolve conflicts bilaterally without external interference.
The Line of Control (LoC) in Jammu and Kashmir was to be respected by both sides.
Both pledged to refrain from use of force and promote peaceful relations.
Step 4: Elimination.
1966 — refers to the Tashkent Agreement, not Shimla.
1976 and 1987 — no such agreement signed.
Final Answer: The Shimla Agreement was signed in July 1972.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Tashkent Agreement = 1966 (after 1965 war), Shimla Agreement = 1972 (after 1971 war).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Tashkent Agreement = 1966 (after 1965 war), Shimla Agreement = 1972 (after 1971 war).
In which year did India and Bangladesh sign the Farakka Treaty for sharing of the Ganga water?
Step 1: Issue background. India built the Farakka Barrage in West Bengal to divert water from the Ganga into the Hooghly River for navigation and to prevent siltation at Kolkata port. Bangladesh objected because it reduced dry-season flows of water into their territory.
Step 2: Treaty signed. On 12th December 1996, India and Bangladesh signed the Farakka Treaty (also called the Ganga Water Treaty). This was a 30-year agreement for fair sharing of the Ganga’s waters.
Step 3: Importance.
It provided a formula to distribute water during the lean season (January–May).
The treaty represented a major step towards strengthening India–Bangladesh relations.
It highlighted India’s role in cooperative water diplomacy.
Step 4: Elimination. Other years (1985, 1988, 1991) involved discussions but not a formal treaty.
Final Answer: The treaty was signed in 1996.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (D)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Farakka Treaty = 1996 = 30-year water-sharing pact between India and Bangladesh.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Farakka Treaty = 1996 = 30-year water-sharing pact between India and Bangladesh.
The olive branches in the emblem of the United Nations’ logo signifies:
Step 1: UN emblem. The United Nations emblem shows a world map surrounded by two olive branches.
Step 2: Symbolism. Since ancient times, olive branches have symbolised peace (e.g., in Greek mythology, the olive branch was offered as a gesture of truce). In the UN logo, they represent the commitment to maintain global peace and harmony.
Step 3: Why not other options?
(A) Security — though UN works for security, the olive branch itself symbolises peace.
(B) Reform — not related to the emblem.
(D) Human rights — represented by other UN instruments, not the emblem’s olive branches.
Final Answer: Olive branches in the UN logo signify world peace.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (C)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Olive branch = symbol of peace since antiquity. In UN logo, it means world peace.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Olive branch = symbol of peace since antiquity. In UN logo, it means world peace.
The WTO was set up in 1995 as the successor to which of the following organization?
Step 1: Background. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), established in 1948, was a framework to reduce tariffs and regulate global trade in goods. It lacked permanent institutional structure and covered only goods.
Step 2: Uruguay Round. The Uruguay Round of negotiations (1986–1994) expanded the scope of trade talks to include services, intellectual property, and investment measures. It was decided that a stronger global trade body was needed.
Step 3: Formation of WTO. On 1st January 1995, the World Trade Organization (WTO) was created to succeed GATT. Unlike GATT, the WTO had:
A permanent institutional framework.
A stronger dispute settlement mechanism.
Broader coverage of goods, services, and intellectual property.
Step 4: Elimination.
(B) League of Nations — dissolved in 1946, unrelated to trade.
(C) United Nations — WTO is independent though it cooperates with the UN.
(D) Amnesty International — focused on human rights, not trade.
Final Answer: WTO succeeded GATT in 1995.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
WTO = successor to GATT (1948). Key transition = Uruguay Round (1986–1994), WTO established in 1995.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: WTO = successor to GATT (1948). Key transition = Uruguay Round (1986–1994), WTO established in 1995.
Match List-I with List-II
Brundtland Report (1987): Known as “Our Common Future,” this report by the World Commission on Environment and Development coined the modern definition of sustainable development. The year was clearly 1987.
Antarctic Treaty (1959): Signed in 1959, it set aside Antarctica as a scientific preserve, prohibited military activity, and was one of the earliest arms-control agreements of the Cold War.
Antarctic Environmental Protocol (1991): Also called the Madrid Protocol, it banned mining and ensured protection of Antarctica’s environment. Adopted in 1991.
Earth Summit (1992): The UN Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. Produced Agenda 21, the Rio Declaration, and opened major treaties like the UNFCCC and CBD.
Final Matching: (A–IV), (B–III), (C–II), (D–I). This matches option (A).
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Always lock these: Brundtland Report – 1987; Antarctic Treaty – 1959; Madrid Protocol – 1991; Earth Summit – 1992.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Always lock these: Brundtland Report – 1987; Antarctic Treaty – 1959; Madrid Protocol – 1991; Earth Summit – 1992.
The Vajpayee–Musharraf Summit in 2001 was held in–
Background: After the Kargil War of 1999, relations between India and Pakistan were at a low point. Attempts were made to restart dialogue.
The Event: In July 2001, a summit was held at Agra between Indian Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee and Pakistani President Pervez Musharraf.
Agenda: The core issues were the Kashmir dispute, terrorism across the border, and normalization of bilateral relations. Musharraf insisted on prioritising Kashmir, while India demanded discussion of terrorism and cross-border infiltration.
Outcome: Despite intense negotiations and near agreement on some points, no joint declaration was issued due to irreconcilable differences. This made the Agra Summit a high-profile but failed attempt at peace.
Why not other options? (B) Lahore was venue of 1999 bus diplomacy; (C) Delhi and (D) Islamabad were not used for this summit.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Sequence: Lahore (1999) → Kargil War (1999) → Agra Summit (2001). Venue-based MCQs often test this timeline.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Sequence: Lahore (1999) → Kargil War (1999) → Agra Summit (2001). Venue-based MCQs often test this timeline.
Match List-I with List-II
Anti-ballistic Missile Treaty (1972): Signed between the USA and USSR to restrict missile defense systems. This was part of Cold War arms control efforts. Hence (A–III).
Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (1968): Opened for signatures in 1968 to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and promote peaceful uses of nuclear energy. Hence (B–I).
Chemical Weapons Convention (1992): A global treaty banning chemical weapons and ensuring their destruction, administered by the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW). Hence (C–IV).
India’s first nuclear test (1974): Known as “Smiling Buddha,” conducted at Pokhran in 1974. Hence (D–II).
Verification: Putting them together gives the sequence (A–III), (B–I), (C–IV), (D–II), which matches option 3.
\[ \boxed{Answer: 3} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Quick recall: NPT (1968), ABM (1972), India’s test (1974), CWC (1992). These four dates are frequently tested.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Quick recall: NPT (1968), ABM (1972), India’s test (1974), CWC (1992). These four dates are frequently tested.
Limits to Growth focuses on which of the following Environmental Concerns?
About the Report: “The Limits to Growth” (1972) was a report commissioned by the Club of Rome. It used systems modelling (World3 model) to study the interactions between population growth, industrialisation, pollution, food production, and non-renewable resource use.
Core Message: If current growth trends in population and industrialisation continued, the Earth’s finite resources would be exhausted within a century, leading to economic and ecological collapse. Thus the central concern was the depletion of the Earth’s resources.
Why not other options?
Ozone depletion (B) became prominent later in the 1980s with the Montreal Protocol, not the focus of this report.
Coastal pollution (C) and water pollution (D) are important but were not the central thesis. The report looked at global systems collapse due to finite resources.
Conclusion: The report highlights the environmental concern of resource depletion caused by exponential human growth.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
“Limits to Growth” = Club of Rome, 1972. Focus on finite resources and overshoot–collapse dynamics, not on ozone or pollution specifics.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: “Limits to Growth” = Club of Rome, 1972. Focus on \textbf{finite resources} and overshoot–collapse dynamics, not on ozone or pollution specifics.
Which of the following regions are subject to special regional rules of Environmental Protection?
Antarctica: The Antarctic Treaty (1959) demilitarised Antarctica and reserved it for peaceful and scientific use. Later, the Madrid Protocol (1991) declared it a “natural reserve devoted to peace and science” and banned all mining activities. This created a unique international regime for protecting the Antarctic environment.
Arctic: The Arctic, while not under a single treaty like Antarctica, is governed through multilateral frameworks such as the Arctic Council and conventions that protect indigenous rights, biodiversity, and restrict industrial activities. Regional agreements focus on pollution prevention, sustainable development, and ice navigation rules.
Why not the others? Argentina, Australia, and France do have environmental policies, but these are domestic. None of them have special \emph{internationally binding environmental rules of the kind applied to polar regions.
Conclusion: The correct answer is polar regions because both poles are subject to unique, internationally binding environmental protections unlike other countries.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (D)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Antarctica = Antarctic Treaty + Madrid Protocol; Arctic = Arctic Council. These make the polar regions unique in environmental law.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Antarctica = Antarctic Treaty + Madrid Protocol; Arctic = Arctic Council. These make the polar regions unique in environmental law.
Which one of the following international institutions plays an important role in determining economic policies across the world?
Role of IMF: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was created in 1944 to promote global monetary cooperation and ensure financial stability. Its most significant influence lies in policy conditionalities. When a country faces a balance of payments crisis and borrows from the IMF, it must implement IMF-prescribed reforms such as cutting subsidies, privatising public enterprises, or liberalising trade. These reforms directly reshape national economic policies.
Why not others?
IAEA monitors nuclear energy and weapons, not economic policies.
Amnesty International is an NGO that campaigns for human rights.
Human Rights Watch also focuses on rights advocacy, not economic systems.
Conclusion: The IMF alone dictates global economic policy frameworks through its loans and conditionalities.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
IMF loans come with “strings attached” — structural reforms that shape economic policies globally.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: IMF loans come with “strings attached” — structural reforms that shape economic policies globally.
Which among the following statements are correct about the impact of Globalisation?
(A) Globalisation results in erosion of state capacity.
(B) It means erosion in the ability of the government to do what they do.
(C) All over the world, the old ‘welfare state’ is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions.
(D) In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities.
Erosion of state capacity: Globalisation increases flows of finance, trade, and information across borders, reducing the state’s ability to fully regulate its economy (supports A and B).
Minimalist state: Earlier welfare states offered healthcare, pensions, and social security. Under globalisation, states are compelled to cut welfare spending and limit themselves to core functions like law and order (supports C).
Market dominance: In globalised economies, decision-making is heavily influenced by markets and private corporations. Economic and social priorities are set by competition and profitability rather than welfare principles (supports D).
Conclusion: All four statements correctly highlight different dimensions of globalisation’s impact on the state.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Globalisation weakens the state, shrinks welfare, and empowers markets. So every statement (A–D) holds true.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Globalisation weakens the state, shrinks welfare, and empowers markets. So every statement (A–D) holds true.
‘McDonaldisation’ is the result of which one of the following?
Concept: The term “McDonaldisation” was introduced by sociologist George Ritzer. It refers to the global spread of principles of the fast-food industry: efficiency, calculability, predictability, and control. These values are not confined to restaurants but extend to education, healthcare, and society in general.
Cultural aspect: McDonaldisation symbolises cultural homogenisation, where local traditions and diversity are eroded in favour of global consumer culture. For example, global dominance of fast-food chains or Western lifestyle patterns.
Why not others?
Political: It doesn’t alter political structures directly.
Economic: While McDonald’s is a business, the term refers more to cultural patterns than to economics.
Resistance: The term implies spread of global culture, not opposition to it.
Conclusion: McDonaldisation is clearly understood as a cultural consequence of globalisation.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (C)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
McDonaldisation = cultural homogenisation (same food, same lifestyle everywhere). It is always a cultural impact of globalisation.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: McDonaldisation = cultural homogenisation (same food, same lifestyle everywhere). It is always a \textbf{cultural impact of globalisation}.
In which year Nepal became a democratic republic after abolishing monarchy?
Nepal’s transition from monarchy to republic was not a single event but a long historical process.
Step 1: Background. For centuries, Nepal was ruled by monarchs who exercised absolute power. In the 1990s, after the first Jana Andolan (People’s Movement), Nepal became a constitutional monarchy with multi-party democracy. However, the monarchy still retained significant power.
Step 2: Maoist Insurgency. In 1996, Maoist rebels launched an armed insurgency demanding abolition of the monarchy, social justice, and restructuring of the Nepali state. This civil war lasted for a decade, claiming thousands of lives and weakening the monarchy’s legitimacy.
Step 3: People’s Movement II (2006). King Gyanendra’s direct rule in 2005 provoked widespread protests. The Seven Party Alliance (SPA) joined hands with the Maoists in a historic alliance. Millions of Nepalis took to the streets in the 2006 Jana Andolan II, forcing the king to step down and parliament to be restored.
Step 4: Declaration of Republic. Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in 2008. On 28 May 2008, the Assembly declared the formal abolition of the monarchy and proclaimed Nepal a democratic federal republic.
Step 5: Clarification of options.
(A) 2004 – during the insurgency, before peace process.
(B) 2015 – marks the adoption of Nepal’s new Constitution, not abolition of monarchy.
(D) 2010 – transition was already completed by then.
Hence the correct year is 2008.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (C)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Think of Nepal’s democratic timeline: 1990 (Constitutional Monarchy), 2006 (Jana Andolan II), 2008 (Republic), 2015 (New Constitution).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Think of Nepal’s democratic timeline: 1990 (Constitutional Monarchy), 2006 (Jana Andolan II), \textbf{2008 (Republic)}, 2015 (New Constitution).
Which among the following statements is not correct about the nature of state and society in Nepal?
Step 1: Religious identity of Nepal. While Nepal is the birthplace of the Buddha (Lumbini) and Buddhism has a strong presence, the country has historically been a Hindu kingdom, with the monarchy deriving legitimacy from Hindu traditions. Nepal was never formally a “Buddhist kingdom.”
Step 2: Verification of other statements.
(B) is true: The monarchy relied on military support to sustain its power for decades.
(C) is true: The Maoists successfully spread their insurgency across rural Nepal during the People’s War (1996–2006).
(D) is true: During the 2000s, Nepal faced a three-way struggle among monarchists, democrats, and Maoists.
Step 3: Elimination. Since only (A) is historically inaccurate, it is the correct answer.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (A)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Do not confuse Nepal’s Buddhist heritage with its political structure — it was always a Hindu monarchy until 2008.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Do not confuse Nepal’s Buddhist heritage with its political structure — it was always a Hindu monarchy until 2008.
In which year the King of Nepal accepted the demand for New Democratic Constitution?
Step 1: Panchayat System. After 1960, King Mahendra established the Panchayat system, a party-less political system under absolute monarchy. Political parties were banned and the king monopolised power.
Step 2: People’s Movement of 1990. By the late 1980s, economic crisis and political repression led to mass protests. The Nepali Congress and Communist forces led a movement demanding democracy.
Step 3: King’s Response. In April 1990, King Birendra accepted these demands and lifted the ban on political parties. A new Constitution was promulgated, establishing Nepal as a constitutional monarchy with multi-party democracy.
Step 4: Elimination.
1999, 1992, 1993 were years of elections or instability under the new system, not constitution-making.
Thus, the turning point came in 1990.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
1990 = People’s Movement → King accepts democracy → New Constitution. This is a key milestone.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: 1990 = People’s Movement → King accepts democracy → New Constitution. This is a key milestone.
What is the name of the famous activist in the above picture?
Who is Durga Thapa? She was a famous Nepali activist and a symbol of women’s participation in political struggles. Her leadership during protests and movements for democracy made her a prominent figure.
Why important? Recognition of figures like Durga Thapa highlights the role of women in Nepal’s democratic struggles, breaking the stereotype that these movements were male-dominated.
Elimination: The other names listed are not recognised historical personalities in this context.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Durga Thapa = iconic activist of Nepal’s democratic struggles. Important to remember women’s role in South Asian democracies.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Durga Thapa = iconic activist of Nepal’s democratic struggles. Important to remember women’s role in South Asian democracies.
The non-violent movement to restore democracy in Nepal was led by–
Step 1: King’s Authoritarian Rule. In 2005, King Gyanendra dismissed parliament and assumed direct rule, triggering a massive backlash from political parties and civil society.
Step 2: Formation of SPA. The Seven Party Alliance (SPA) was formed by seven major political parties to resist authoritarian monarchy. They later allied with Maoists to increase pressure on the king.
Step 3: Jana Andolan II (2006). The SPA led the historic 19-day movement (April 2006), marked by non-violent protests, strikes, and mass mobilisation of ordinary Nepalis.
Step 4: Outcome. The King was forced to step down, parliament was reinstated, and Nepal’s path to republic status was secured.
Step 5: Elimination. Options (A), (B), (C) do not match historical reality. The only correct leadership body was the Seven Party Alliance.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (D)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
2006 Jana Andolan II = Seven Party Alliance + Maoists → King loses power → Democracy restored.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: 2006 Jana Andolan II = Seven Party Alliance + Maoists → King loses power → Democracy restored.
Which of the following community was in the minority in Sri Lanka?
Step 1: Ethnic composition of Sri Lanka. After independence in 1948, the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka was predominantly Sinhala, making up nearly 74% of the population. The Tamil community, comprising Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils, made up about 18% of the population, thereby making them the largest minority group.
Step 2: Position of Tamils in society. Though Tamils were a significant community, they were still numerically smaller and politically weaker compared to the Sinhala majority. They faced systemic discrimination, particularly after the government introduced policies favouring Sinhala language and Buddhist culture. This minority position translated into limited access to education, jobs, and political representation.
Step 3: Political conflict. The marginalisation of Tamils led to increasing demands for recognition of their rights. The Sinhala-dominated governments, however, resisted concessions, which escalated tensions. Over time, this gave rise to Tamil nationalism and the formation of militant organisations like the LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam), demanding a separate Tamil homeland, “Tamil Eelam.”
Step 4: Elimination of other options.
(A) Sinhala — they were clearly the majority, dominating politics and governance.
(C) Indigenous — while indigenous groups exist, they are small in number and not central to Sri Lanka’s political conflict.
(D) Rohingyas — they are from Myanmar, not Sri Lanka.
Final Answer: Since the Tamils were the primary minority community in Sri Lanka, the correct choice is (B).
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Always remember: Sri Lanka’s ethnic conflict = Sinhala majority vs. Tamil minority. This division shaped post-independence politics and conflicts.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Always remember: Sri Lanka’s ethnic conflict = \textbf{Sinhala majority vs. Tamil minority}. This division shaped post-independence politics and conflicts.
What was the earlier name of Sri Lanka?
Step 1: Colonial rule. Sri Lanka was colonised in stages — first by the Portuguese (16th century), then by the Dutch (17th century), and finally by the British in 1796. Under British rule, the island was formally known as Ceylon, a name that continued into the early years after independence in 1948.
Step 2: Independence era. Even though Sri Lanka became independent in 1948, it continued to be called Ceylon, and it was under this name that it joined the United Nations and other international organisations.
Step 3: Name change. In 1972, when the country adopted a new republican constitution, it officially changed its name to Sri Lanka, which means “resplendent island” in Sanskrit. The name symbolised a move away from colonial identity towards a national, indigenous one.
Step 4: Elimination of incorrect options.
(A) Rangoon — capital of Myanmar, unrelated to Sri Lanka.
(C) Shatgatu — no historical record of such a name for Sri Lanka.
(D) Shahibjagdhi — not connected to Sri Lanka’s colonial or national history.
Final Answer: The earlier name of Sri Lanka was Ceylon, retained until 1972.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Sri Lanka was known internationally as Ceylon until 1972. Post-1972 = “Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka.”
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Sri Lanka was known internationally as \textbf{Ceylon} until 1972. Post-1972 = “Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka.”
What was the demand of Tamilians to Sri Lanka’s government?
Step 1: Historical grievances. After independence in 1948, Sri Lanka’s politics was dominated by the Sinhala majority. The government introduced discriminatory policies such as the Sinhala Only Act (1956) which made Sinhala the sole official language, undermining Tamil language and culture. Educational opportunities, jobs in government, and political representation were increasingly monopolised by the Sinhalese.
Step 2: Early demands. Initially, the Tamils did not demand separation. Their early struggles were for fair treatment, linguistic recognition, and equality within Sri Lanka. They demanded parity for Tamil with Sinhala and safeguards for their community.
Step 3: Shift to separatism. As successive governments ignored Tamil demands, frustration grew. By the 1970s, Tamil political leaders radicalised and began calling for a separate homeland. This demand took the form of Tamil Eelam, meaning an independent Tamil state in the north and east of Sri Lanka where Tamils were concentrated.
Step 4: LTTE and armed struggle. The Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) emerged as the most powerful militant group, waging a violent struggle from 1983 onwards against the Sri Lankan state, demanding Tamil Eelam.
Step 5: Elimination of wrong options.
(A) Right to Vote – Tamils already had voting rights.
(B) Right to contest – also guaranteed under democracy.
(D) Establishment of Democracy – Sri Lanka had democracy since 1948; the issue was not democracy but discrimination.
Thus, the Tamil demand was for a separate state called Tamil Eelam.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (C)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Always trace Tamil demands: Equality → Autonomy → Secession (Tamil Eelam). This is central to the Sri Lankan conflict.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Always trace Tamil demands: Equality → Autonomy → Secession (\textbf{Tamil Eelam}). This is central to the Sri Lankan conflict.
Choose the correct answers from the statements given below–
(A) India signed an accord with Sri Lanka and sent troops to stabilize relations between the Sri Lankan government and the Tamils.
(B) In 1989, the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) pulled out of Sri Lanka without attaining its objective.
(C) The LTTE was vanquished in 2009.
(D) Sri Lanka has retained democracy since its independence in 1947.
Step 1: Indo–Sri Lanka Accord, 1987. To resolve the ethnic conflict, Indian Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi signed the Indo–Sri Lanka Accord with President J. R. Jayewardene in July 1987. India agreed to send the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to enforce peace, disarm militants, and stabilise relations between Tamils and the Sri Lankan state. Hence, statement (A) is correct.
Step 2: Withdrawal of IPKF, 1989. The mission soon failed. The IPKF became embroiled in direct conflict with the LTTE. Moreover, the Sinhala population saw India’s presence as interference. Facing mounting casualties, India withdrew the IPKF in 1989 without achieving its goals. Thus, statement (B) is correct.
Step 3: Defeat of LTTE, 2009. The LTTE continued its armed struggle until the Sri Lankan military launched a massive offensive in 2008–2009. By May 2009, LTTE leader Prabhakaran was killed, and the group was eliminated militarily. Thus, statement (C) is correct.
Step 4: Clarification about democracy. Statement (D) is misleading because Sri Lanka became independent in 1948, not 1947. Hence, this option is factually incorrect.
Conclusion: Correct statements are (A), (B), and (C).
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Key events to recall: Accord (1987), IPKF withdrawal (1989), LTTE defeated (2009). These three are factually correct.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Key events to recall: Accord (1987), IPKF withdrawal (1989), LTTE defeated (2009). These three are factually correct.
In which year IPKF (Indian Peace Keeping Force) was pulled out from Sri Lanka?
Step 1: Deployment. After the Indo–Sri Lanka Accord of 1987, the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) was sent to Sri Lanka to disarm militant groups, particularly the LTTE, and restore peace.
Step 2: Nature of operations. The mission turned disastrous as the LTTE refused to surrender arms and instead fought the IPKF. India faced guerrilla warfare in difficult terrain, leading to heavy casualties.
Step 3: Domestic opposition. The presence of Indian troops was unpopular in both Sri Lanka and India. In Sri Lanka, many Sinhalese saw it as foreign intervention, while in India, the mission was criticised for its high cost in lives and resources.
Step 4: Withdrawal. Owing to the failure to achieve its objectives, the Indian government ordered the withdrawal of the IPKF, which was completed in 1989.
Step 5: Elimination of wrong options.
(A) 1987 — the year of deployment, not withdrawal.
(C) 1985 and (D) 1984 — years before the Accord; no relevance to IPKF operations.
Thus, the correct year of withdrawal is 1989.
\[ \boxed{Answer: (B)} \]
\begin{quicktipbox
Remember: IPKF timeline = Deployed 1987, Withdrawn 1989. Mission is considered a costly failure.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Remember: IPKF timeline = Deployed 1987, Withdrawn 1989. Mission is considered a costly failure.
*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.