CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 SET A Download Solutions and Answer Key

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CUET 2024 Biology Question Paper (SET A) with Solution PDF

CUET 2024 Biology Question Paper with Answer Key SET A	Download	Check Solution

CUET 2024 BIOLOGY Answer Key (Set A)

Question	Answer	Detailed Solution
Q1. Analogous structures are a result of: 1. Convergent evolution 2. Divergent evolution 3. Parallel evolution 4. Retrogressive evolution	(1) Convergent evolution	Solution: Analogous structures arise when unrelated organisms develop similar traits due to similar environmental pressures, a process known as convergent evolution.
Q2. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? 1. Natural selection 2. Genetic drift 3. Gene pool 4. Gene migration	(3) Gene pool	Solution: The gene pool itself does not directly affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Factors like natural selection, genetic drift, and gene migration do affect the equilibrium.
Q3. Which of the following primates was more like an ape? 1. Homo erectus 2. Dryopithecus 3. Australopithecines 4. Ramapithecus	(2) Dryopithecus	Solution: Dryopithecus is considered more ape-like than other listed primates, as it shares more characteristics with early apes.
Q4. Nucleosome is associated with molecules of histones. 1. Four 2. Nine 3. Two 4. Eight	(4) Eight	Solution: Each nucleosome consists of eight histone proteins, forming an octamer around which DNA is wrapped.
Q5. Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct. (A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp. (B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases. (C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000. (D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes. (E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B), (C) and (D) only 2. (A), (C), (D) and (E) only 3. (A), (C) and (E) only 4. (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)	(4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)	Solution: All statements (A) to (E) are correct observations from the human genome project, including details on base pairs, gene count, and protein-coding portions.
Q6. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Placental Mammals) List-II (Counterpart Marsupials) (A) Anteater (I) Spotted cuscus (B) Bobcat (II) Numbat (C) Lemur (III) Flying Phalanger (D) Flying squirrel (IV) Tasmanian tiger cat Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)	Solution: In the correct pairing, (A) Anteater is matched with (II) Numbat, (B) Bobcat with (IV) Tasmanian tiger cat, (C) Lemur with (I) Spotted cuscus, (D) Flying squirrel with (III) Flying Phalanger.
Q7. Identify the incorrect statement/s: (A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection. (B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses (C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia. (D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella. (E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test. Choose the answer from the options given below:	(3) (D) only	Solution: Statement (D) is incorrect because pneumonia is not caused by Salmonella; it is caused by bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Q8. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Types of Barriers) List-II (Examples) (A) Cytokine barriers (I) Mucus coating (B) Physical barriers (II) Tears from eyes (C) Cellular barriers (III) Phagocytosis (D) Physiological barriers (IV) Interferons Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)	Solution: In the correct pairing, (A) Cytokine barriers are matched with (IV) Interferons, (B) Physical barriers with (I) Mucus coating, (C) Cellular barriers with (III) Phagocytosis, (D) Physiological barriers with (II) Tears from eyes.
Q9. Smack is chemically: 1. Diacetyl morphine 2. Cocaine 3. Benzodiazepine 4. Amphetamine	(1) Diacetyl morphine	Solution: Smack, also known as heroin, is chemically diacetyl morphine, a derivative of morphine that is highly addictive.
Q10. Antibodies are secreted by: 1. T-Cells 2. B-Cells 3. α-Cells 4. β-Cells	(2) B-Cells	Solution: Antibodies are produced and secreted by B-cells, which play a key role in the adaptive immune response by targeting pathogens.
Q11. In sewage treatment, flocs are: 1. The solids that settle during sedimentation. 2. The supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge. 3. The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments. 4. The bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters.	(3) The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments.	Solution: In sewage treatment, flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments. These flocs help in the biological treatment of wastewater by breaking down organic matter.
Q12. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Products) List-II (Organisms) (A) Statin (III) Monascus (B) Clot buster (I) Streptococcus (C) Swiss cheese (IV) Propionibacterium (D) Cyclosporin-A (II) Trichoderma Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)	Solution: The correct matches are (A) Statin with (III) Monascus, (B) Clot buster with (I) Streptococcus, (C) Swiss cheese with (IV) Propionibacterium, (D) Cyclosporin-A with (II) Trichoderma.
Q13. The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is: 1. Trichoderma 2. Dragonflies 3. Ladybird 4. Silver fish	(3) Ladybird	Solution: Ladybird beetles are commonly used as biocontrol agents against pests like aphids, which they feed on, helping to control pest populations.
Q14. Downstream processing method involves: 1. Identification 2. Amplification 3. Fermentation 4. Purification	(4) Purification	Solution: Downstream processing in biotechnology involves purification steps to isolate and refine the desired product after fermentation or synthesis.
Q15. Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall degrading enzyme? 1. Fungi – Chitinase 2. Algae – Methylase 3. Plant cells – Cellulase 4. Bacteria – Lysozyme	(2) Algae – Methylase	Solution: Methylase is not a cell wall-degrading enzyme associated with algae. Algae typically have cell wall-degrading enzymes specific to their cell wall composition, but methylase is involved in methylation processes rather than cell wall degradation.
Q16. Arrange the following steps involved in transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end. (A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice (B) Treatment with divalent cations (C) Heat shock treatment (D) Selection on antibiotic containing agar plate (E) Placed them again on ice Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(2) (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)	Solution: The correct sequence of steps in bacterial transformation is (B) Treatment with divalent cations, (A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice, (C) Heat shock treatment, (E) Placed them again on ice, (D) Selection on antibiotic-containing agar plate.
Q17. Which of the following statements are incorrect? (A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA. (B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium. (C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment. (D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector. Choose the answer from the options given below:	(1) (A) and (C) only	Solution: Statements (A) and (C) are incorrect. ELISA is used for detecting proteins or antibodies, not for separating DNA fragments. Recombinant DNA technology involves the isolation of a desired DNA fragment.
Q18. Which of the following statements are true? (A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk. (B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorisation from MNCs. (C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively. (D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(2) (C) and (D) only	Solution: Statements (C) and (D) are true. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) is responsible for assessing the safety and validity of GMOs and related research. Transgenic animals are used to study the role of specific genes in the development of diseases. Statements (A) and (B) are incorrect as biopiracy refers to the unauthorized use of bioresources by entities, not specifically MNCs, and there is no evidence that milk from ‘Rosie’ is more balanced for human babies than natural human milk.
Q19. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Transgene) List-II (Used for/Products) (A) α-1-antitrypsin (I) Meloidegyne incognitia (B) cryIAc (II) Corn borer (C) Antisense RNA (III) Treat emphysema (D) cryIAb (IV) Cotton bollworms Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)	Solution: The correct matches are (A) α-1-antitrypsin with (III) Treat emphysema, (B) cryIAc with (IV) Cotton bollworms, (C) Antisense RNA with (I) Meloidegyne incognitia, (D) cryIAb with (II) Corn borer.
Q20. Expand “GEAC”: 1. Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee 2. Gene Establishment Approval Committee 3. Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee 4. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee	(4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee	Solution: GEAC stands for Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, which is responsible for evaluating the safety and validity of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and GM research in India.
Q21. When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active protein in: 1. Alkaline pH of the gut. 2. Acidic pH of the gut. 3. Acidic pH of saliva. 4. Alkaline pH of saliva.	(1) Alkaline pH of the gut.	Solution: When an insect consumes parts of a Bt plant, the Bt toxin (inactive protein) is converted into its active form in the insect’s gut, which has an alkaline pH. This active toxin then binds to gut cells, creating pores that eventually kill the insect.
Q22. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Interspecies Relationships) List-II (Features) (A) Commensalism (IV) One species benefits and the other remains unaffected (B) Mutualism (III) Both species are benefitted (C) Amensalism (II) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected (D) Parasitism (I) One species is benefitted at the expense of the other Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)	Solution: The correct matches are: (A) Commensalism with (IV) One species benefits and the other remains unaffected. (B) Mutualism with (III) Both species are benefitted. (C) Amensalism with (II) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected. (D) Parasitism with (I) One species is benefitted at the expense of the other.
Q23. In a country, at any time, the population has the same number of young and mature ones. What type of growth does it reflect? 1. Expanding 2. Declining 3. Stable 4. S-shaped	(3) Stable	Solution: When a population has an equal number of young and mature individuals, it reflects a stable growth rate, indicating neither an increase nor a decrease in population size.
Q24. Two closely related species can co-exist indefinitely and violate the Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ by: 1. eliminating the inferior species. 2. resource partitioning. 3. interacting with each other symbiotically. 4. changing the area of grazing.	(2) resource partitioning.	Solution: Resource partitioning allows two closely related species to co-exist by dividing resources, thus avoiding direct competition and enabling them to occupy the same area without excluding each other.
Q25. The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of: 1. inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus. 2. organic nutrients from humus. 3. inorganic nutrients from humus. 4. organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus.	(1) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.	Solution: Mineralisation by microorganisms releases inorganic nutrients from detritus and contributes to the formation of humus, enriching the soil.
Q26. In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers? 1. Forests 2. Grassland 3. Desert 4. Sea	(4) Sea	Solution: In marine ecosystems (sea), the biomass of primary consumers (like zooplankton) is often greater than that of producers (like phytoplankton) due to rapid reproduction and consumption cycles of phytoplankton.
Q27. Choose the correct statements with respect to decomposition from the following: (A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process. (B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it. (C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching. (D) Humification follows mineralisation. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(1) (B) and (D) only	Solution: Statement (B) is correct as decomposition rate depends on the chemical composition of detritus. Statement (D) is also correct because humification, which results in the formation of humus, generally follows mineralisation. Statement (A) is incorrect as decomposition is typically an aerobic process, and statement (C) is incorrect regarding nutrient precipitation in leaching.
Q28. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Concepts) List-II (Explanation) (A) Standing state (I) Available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs (B) Secondary productivity (II) Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers (C) Standing crop (III) Mass of living matter in a trophic level at a given time (D) Net primary productivity (IV) Amount of mineral nutrients in the soil at a given time Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)	Solution: The correct matches are: (A) Standing state with (IV) Amount of mineral nutrients in the soil at a given time (B) Secondary productivity with (II) Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers (C) Standing crop with (III) Mass of living matter in a trophic level at a given time (D) Net primary productivity with (I) Available biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs.
Q29. Which of the following is not a Sexually Transmitted Disease? 1. Chlamydiasis 2. Filariasis 3. Genital herpes 4. Trichomoniasis	(2) Filariasis	Solution: Filariasis is a parasitic disease transmitted by mosquitoes and is not classified as a sexually transmitted disease (STD), unlike Chlamydiasis, Genital herpes, and Trichomoniasis.
Q30. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy? 1. They are considered safe during the first trimester. 2. It is legalised in India from 1971. 3. MTPs can be performed even after 24 weeks, but with the opinion of 2 registered medical practitioners on specific grounds. 4. About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally.	(4) About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally.	Solution: The statement that “About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally” is incorrect, as this percentage is not representative of the global rate for MTPs.
Q31. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Various Assisted Reproductive Technologies) List-II (Process Involved) (A) ZIFT (I) Formation of embryo in vitro by injecting sperm directly into ovum (B) ICSI (II) Transferring of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus (C) IUI (III) Transferring of fertilised egg up to 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube (D) IUT (IV) Transfer of semen from a healthy donor into the uterus artificially Choose the correct answer from the options given below:	(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)	Solution: The correct matches are: (A) ZIFT with (III) Transferring of fertilised egg up to 8 blastomeres into fallopian tube (B) ICSI with (I) Formation of embryo in vitro by injecting sperm directly into ovum (C) IUI with (IV) Transfer of semen from a healthy donor into the uterus artificially (D) IUT with (II) Transferring of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus.
Q32. Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females? 1. IUDs 2. Lactational amenorrhea 3. Vasectomy 4. Condoms	(3) Vasectomy	Solution: Vasectomy is a surgical contraceptive method for males, whereas IUDs, lactational amenorrhea, and condoms (which are used by both genders) are contraceptive methods for females.
Q33. ‘Saheli’ – an oral contraceptive pill, also known as the ‘Once a week’ pill, was developed by: 1. AIIMS 2. NBRI 3. CDRI 4. NBPGR	(3) CDRI	Solution: ‘Saheli’ was developed by the Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in India. It is a non-hormonal oral contraceptive pill taken once a week.
Q34. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable biological community? 1. It must be resistant to invasions by alien species. 2. It should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year. 3. All the species are equally important in a stable community and absence of any one leads to its instability. 4. It is resilient to occasional disturbances, whether natural or man-made.	(3) All the species are equally important in a stable community and absence of any one leads to its instability.	Solution: In a stable community, while each species plays a role, not all species are equally critical for stability. Certain key species may be more influential in maintaining community stability, making statement 3 incorrect.
Q35. In ‘rivet popper hypothesis’ the ‘rivet’ signifies: 1. Key species 2. Endemic species 3. Community 4. Species	(4) Species	Solution: In the ‘rivet popper hypothesis,’ each species is likened to a rivet in an airplane, where the loss of too many rivets (species) could lead to system failure.
Q36. The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community, was: 1. Paul Ehrlich 2. David Tilman 3. Robert May 4. Edward Wilson	(2) David Tilman	Solution: David Tilman conducted experiments demonstrating that species richness is directly related to the stability of ecological communities.
Q37. Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group? 1. Reptiles 2. Fishes 3. Insects 4. Mammals	(2) Fishes	Solution: Fishes are the most species-rich group among vertebrates, with an immense diversity in both marine and freshwater environments.
Q38. The following are the various hypotheses proposed in explaining the greatest biological diversity in tropics except: 1. Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed. 2. Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish. 3. Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant. 4. There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity and hence, biodiversity.	(2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish.	Solution: The statement regarding humidity and moisture (Option 2) is not a commonly cited hypothesis for higher biodiversity in tropical regions. Other factors like consistent climate, solar energy, and lack of glaciations are recognized as major contributors.
Q39. Cells present in the mature pollen grains are: 1. Central cell and generative cell 2. Antipodal cell and vegetative cell 3. Vegetative cell and generative cell 4. Filiform cell and micropylar cell	(3) Vegetative cell and generative cell	Solution: In mature pollen grains, the two cells present are the vegetative cell, which supports pollen tube growth, and the generative cell, which divides to form sperm cells for fertilization.
Q40. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Structures) (A) Filiform apparatus (B) Tapetum (C) Exine (D) Funicle List-II (Functions) (I) Made up of sporopollenin (II) Attachment of ovule to the placenta (III) Guides pollen tube into the synergid (IV) Nourishes the pollen grain	(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)	Solution: The correct matches are: (A) Filiform apparatus with (III) Guides pollen tube into the synergid (B) Tapetum with (IV) Nourishes the pollen grain (C) Exine with (I) Made up of sporopollenin (D) Funicle with (II) Attachment of ovule to the placenta
Q41. Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of: 1. Double fusion 2. Triple fusion 3. Parthenogenesis 4. Apomixis	(2) Triple fusion	Solution: The Primary Endosperm Nucleus is formed by the fusion of a male gamete with two polar nuclei, a process called triple fusion, which contributes to endosperm formation in flowering plants.
Q42. In humans, mammary gland is divided into lobes: 1. 10 – 12 2. 25 – 30 3. 30 – 35 4. 15 – 20	(4) 15 – 20	Solution: Human mammary glands are typically divided into 15–20 lobes, each containing alveoli that produce milk.
Q43. Sex in human embryo is determined by: 1. ‘X’ chromosome of egg 2. ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm 3. Only ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm 4. Health of mother	(2) ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm	Solution: Sex determination in humans depends on the sperm cell, which can carry either an X or a Y chromosome. If the sperm carries an X chromosome, the offspring will be female (XX); if it carries a Y chromosome, the offspring will be male (XY).
Q44. Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence: (A) Ovum (B) Oogonia (C) Primary oocyte (D) Secondary oocyte	(2) (B), (C), (D), (A)	Solution: The stages in oogenesis occur in the order: (B) Oogonia → (C) Primary oocyte → (D) Secondary oocyte → (A) Ovum.
Q45. Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel? 1. Pink and white flowers 2. Inflated and constricted pods 3. Axial and terminal flowers 4. Green and yellow pods	(1) Pink and white flowers	Solution: Mendel did not study the trait of pink and white flowers in his experiments. He primarily studied simple, contrasting traits like flower position, pod shape, and pod color.
Q46. Failure of chromatids to segregate during cell division cycle results in: 1. Polyploidy 2. Euploidy 3. Aneuploidy 4. Autopolyploidy	(3) Aneuploidy	Solution: Aneuploidy occurs when chromatids fail to segregate properly during cell division, leading to an abnormal number of chromosomes in the resulting cells.
Q47. Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anaemia: Genotype : Phenotype (A) HbA HbA : Diseased phenotype (B) HbA HbS : Diseased phenotype (C) HbS HbS : Diseased phenotype (D) HbS HbA : Carrier of disease	(1) (C) and (D) only	Solution: In sickle cell anaemia, individuals with the genotype HbS HbS exhibit the diseased phenotype, while those with HbA HbA are normal. Heterozygous individuals (HbA HbS) are carriers and typically do not show symptoms of the disease. Thus, (C) and (D) are correctly matched.
Q48. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Scientists) (A) Sutton and Boveri (B) Sturtevant (C) Henking (D) Griffith List-II (Discovery) (I) X-Body (II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance (III) Transformation in bacteria (IV) Genetic maps	(1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)	Solution: The correct matches are: (A) Sutton and Boveri with (II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance (B) Sturtevant with (IV) Genetic maps (C) Henking with (I) X-Body (D) Griffith with (III) Transformation in bacteria
Q49. Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides? (A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases. (B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules. (C) Phosphate group is linked to – OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage. (D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional – OH group present at 2’ position in the ribose. (E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine.	(4) (B) and (E) only	Solution: Statement (B) is incorrect as nucleotides can play enzymatic roles, especially in RNA-based enzymes. Statement (E) is also incorrect because thymine is a pyrimidine found in DNA, while in RNA, uracil replaces thymine.
Q50. Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in the sequence from initiation to end: (A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease (B) Isolation of DNA (C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe (D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane	(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)	Solution: The correct order of steps in DNA fingerprinting is: (B) Isolation of DNA → (A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease → (D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane → (C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.