CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 SET B Download Solutions and Answer Key
| Updated On - Dec 7, 2024
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CUET 2024 Biology Question Paper (SET B) with Solution PDF
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CUET 2024 BIOLOGY Answer Key (Set B)
| Question | Answer | Detailed Solution |
|---|---|---|
| Q1. The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is: (1) Trichoderma (2) Dragonflies (3) Ladybird (4) Silver fish |
Correct answer: (3) Ladybird | Explanation: Ladybirds, especially ladybird beetles, are effective biocontrol agents. They feed on aphids and other small pests, helping in pest management. This makes them a natural and eco-friendly alternative to chemical pesticides. |
| Q2. Downstream processing method involves: (1) Identification (2) Amplification (3) Fermentation (4) Purification |
Correct answer: (4) Purification | Explanation: Downstream processing refers to the steps in biotechnological processes that involve the recovery and purification of biosynthetic products, especially pharmaceuticals, from natural sources such as cells. |
| Q3. Smack is chemically: (1) Diacetyl morphine (2) Cocaine (3) Benzodiazepine (4) Amphetamine |
Correct answer: (1) Diacetyl morphine | Explanation: Smack is another name for heroin, which is chemically diacetyl morphine, a semi-synthetic opioid drug. |
| Q4. Antibodies are secreted by: (1) T-Cells (2) B-Cells (3) α-Cells (4) β-Cells |
Correct answer: (2) B-Cells | Explanation: B-cells, a type of white blood cell, are responsible for producing and secreting antibodies to fight infections. |
| Q5. In sewage treatment, flocs are: (1) The solids that settle during sedimentation. (2) The supernatant that is formed above the primary sludge. (3) The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments. (4) The bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters. |
Correct answer: (3) The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments. | Explanation: In sewage treatment, flocs refer to the masses of bacteria and other microorganisms that grow together with fungal filaments, which help in the decomposition of organic matter. |
| Q6. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Products) | List-II (Organisms) (A) Statin (B) Clot buster (C) Swiss cheese (D) Cyclosporin-A (I) Streptococcus (II) Trichoderma (III) Monascus (IV) Propionibacterium |
Correct answer: 2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) | Explanation: (A) Statin (III) Monascus - Lowers cholesterol. (B) Clot buster (I) Streptococcus - Produces enzymes (e.g., Streptokinase). (C) Swiss cheese (IV) Propionibacterium - Used in cheese fermentation. (D) Cyclosporin-A (II) Trichoderma - An immunosuppressant. |
| Q7. Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall degrading enzyme? (1) Fungi – Chitinase (2) Algae – Methylase (3) Plant cells – Cellulase (4) Bacteria – Lysozyme |
Correct answer: 2. Algae – Methylase | Explanation: Methylase is not involved in degrading algal cell walls. Algal cell walls are typically degraded by cellulase or other specific enzymes. The other pairs are correctly matched: - Fungi: Chitinase breaks down chitin in fungal cell walls. - Plant cells: Cellulase degrades cellulose in plant cell walls. - Bacteria: Lysozyme hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls. |
| Q8. Arrange the following steps involved in the transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end: (A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice (B) Treatment with divalent cations (C) Heat shock treatment (D) Selection on antibiotic-containing agar plate (E) Placed them again on ice |
Correct answer: 2. (B), (A), (C), (E), (D) | Explanation: (B) Treatment with divalent cations - Divalent cations (e.g., Ca2+) make bacterial membranes permeable. (A) Incubation of rDNA on ice - rDNA is mixed with bacterial cells for uptake. (C) Heat shock treatment - Heat shock facilitates DNA entry into bacterial cells. (E) Placed them again on ice - Stabilizes the membrane after heat shock. (D) Selection on antibiotic plate - Identifies transformed cells with the desired trait. |
| Q9. Which of the following statements are incorrect? (A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA. (B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium. (C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment. (D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector. |
Correct answer: 1. (A) and (C) only | Explanation: (A) is incorrect: ELISA is a technique used to detect antigens or antibodies, not for DNA fragment separation. DNA fragments are separated by techniques like gel electrophoresis. (C) is incorrect: Recombinant DNA technology does involve isolation of the desired DNA fragment as one of the initial steps. (B) and (D) are correct: Transformation introduces DNA into a host, and DNA ligases stitch DNA fragments into vectors. |
| Q10. Which of the following statements are true? (A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk. (B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorisation from MNCs. (C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively. (D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease. |
Correct answer: 2. (C) and (D) only | Explanation: (A) is false: While ‘Rosie’ produces milk enriched with human proteins, it is not more balanced than natural human milk. (B) is false: Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorisation, but it does not specifically involve MNCs. (C) is true: GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) is responsible for the safety and regulation of GMOs and GM research in India. (D) is true: Transgenic animals are used to study genes and their role in diseases. |
| Q11. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Transgene) | List-II (Used for/Products) (A) α-1-antitrypsin (B) cryIAc (C) Antisense RNA (D) cryIAb (I) Meloidogyne incognita (II) Trichoderma (III) Monascus (IV) Propionibacterium |
Correct answer: 3. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) | Explanation: (A) α-1-antitrypsin: Used in the treatment of emphysema caused by genetic disorders. (B) cryIAc: A gene from Bacillus thuringiensis, effective against the corn borer pest. (C) Antisense RNA: Used to silence genes in Meloidogyne incognita, a nematode pest. (D) cryIAb: Another gene from Bacillus thuringiensis, targets cotton bollworms. |
| Q12. Expand “GEAC”: (1) Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee (2) Gene Establishment Approval Committee (3) Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee (4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee |
Correct answer: 4. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee | Explanation: GEAC stands for Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, which is responsible for the approval of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and research related to them in India. |
| Q13. When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active protein in: (1) Alkaline pH of the gut (2) Acidic pH of the gut (3) Acidic pH of saliva (4) Alkaline pH of saliva |
Correct answer: 1. Alkaline pH of the gut | Explanation: The Bt toxin produced by Bacillus thuringiensis is an inactive protoxin. When ingested by an insect, it is activated in the insect’s gut due to the alkaline pH, which converts the protoxin into an active form. This active toxin binds to the gut cells, creating pores and eventually killing the insect. |
| Q14. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Interspecies Relationships) | List-II (Features) (A) Commensalism (B) Mutualism (C) Amensalism (D) Parasitism (I) One species is benefitted at the expense of the other (II) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected (III) Both the species are benefitted (IV) One species benefits and other remains unaffected |
Correct answer: 2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) | Explanation: (A) Commensalism: (IV) One species benefits while the other remains unaffected. (B) Mutualism: (III) Both species benefit. (C) Amensalism: (II) One species is harmed while the other remains unaffected. (D) Parasitism: (I) One species benefits at the expense of the other. |
| Q15. In a country, at any time, the population has the same number of young and mature ones. What type of growth does it reflect? (1) Expanding (2) Declining (3) Stable (4) S-shaped |
Correct answer: 3. Stable | Explanation: A stable population is characterized by an equal proportion of young and mature individuals, indicating that the birth and death rates are balanced, and the population size remains constant over time. |
| Q16. Two closely related species can co-exist indefinitely and violate Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ by: (1) eliminating the inferior species. (2) resource partitioning. (3) interacting with each other symbiotically. (4) changing the area of grazing. |
Correct answer: 2. Resource partitioning | Explanation: Resource partitioning allows two closely related species to utilize different resources or the same resource in different ways, reducing direct competition and enabling their coexistence, thereby violating the Competitive Exclusion Principle. |
| Q17. The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of: (1) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus. (2) organic nutrients from humus. (3) inorganic nutrients from humus. (4) organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus. |
Correct answer: 1. Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus | Explanation: Mineralisation refers to the process by which microorganisms decompose organic matter in detritus, releasing inorganic nutrients into the soil while also forming humus, which is essential for soil fertility. |
| Q18. In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers? (1) Forests (2) Grassland (3) Desert (4) Sea |
Correct answer: 4. Sea | Explanation: In aquatic ecosystems like the sea, the biomass of primary consumers (e.g., zooplankton) can be greater than that of producers (e.g., phytoplankton) due to the fast turnover rate of phytoplankton. They reproduce quickly, providing a continuous supply of food. |
| Q19. Choose the correct statements with respect to decomposition from the following: (A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process. (B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon the chemical nature of it. (C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching. (D) Humification follows mineralisation. Options: (1) (B) and (D) only (2) (A) and (C) only (3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A) and (D) only |
Correct answer: 1. (B) and (D) only | Explanation: - (A) is incorrect: Decomposition is primarily an aerobic process, requiring oxygen for microbial activity. - (B) is correct: The decomposition rate of detritus is influenced by its chemical composition, such as the ratio of lignin to nitrogen. - (C) is incorrect: Water-soluble organic nutrients are leached into the soil, but they do not get precipitated. - (D) is correct: Humification, the process of forming humus, follows mineralisation during decomposition. |
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Q20. Match List-I with List-II:
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Correct answer: 3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) | Explanation: - (A) Standing state: Refers to the amount of mineral nutrients present in the soil or environment at a specific time (IV). - (B) Secondary productivity: Refers to the rate at which consumers convert organic matter into their own biomass (II). - (C) Standing crop: Refers to the mass of living matter (e.g., plants, animals) in a trophic level at a particular time (III). - (D) Net primary productivity: Refers to the biomass available for consumption by heterotrophs after respiration (I). |
| Q21. Which of the following is not a Sexually Transmitted Disease? (1) Chlamydiasis (2) Filariasis (3) Genital herpes (4) Trichomoniasis |
Correct answer: 2. Filariasis | Explanation: Filariasis is caused by a parasitic worm and is transmitted through mosquito bites, not through sexual contact. On the other hand, Chlamydiasis, Genital herpes, and Trichomoniasis are sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). |
| Q22. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)? (1) They are considered safe during the first trimester. (2) It is legalised in India from 1971. (3) MTPs can be performed even after 24 weeks, but with the opinion of 2 registered medical practitioners on specific grounds. (4) About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally. |
Correct answer: 4. About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally. | Explanation: - (1) is correct: MTPs are considered safe during the first trimester (up to 12 weeks). - (2) is correct: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was enacted in India in 1971. - (3) is correct: MTPs can be performed after 24 weeks under special conditions, such as health risks to the mother or fetus, with approval from two registered medical practitioners. - (4) is incorrect: The percentage of pregnancies that undergo MTP globally is significantly lower than 20%. |
| Q23. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Interspecies Relationships) | List-II (Features) (A) Commensalism (B) Mutualism (C) Amensalism (D) Parasitism (I) One species is benefitted at the expense of the other (II) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected (III) Both the species are benefitted (IV) One species benefits and the other remains unaffected |
Correct answer: 2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) | Explanation: - (A) Commensalism: One species benefits, the other remains unaffected (IV). - (B) Mutualism: Both species benefit (III). - (C) Amensalism: One species is harmed while the other remains unaffected (II). - (D) Parasitism: One species benefits at the expense of the other (I). |
| Q24. Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females? (1) IUDs (2) Lactational amenorrhea (3) Vasectomy (4) Condoms |
Correct answer: 3. Vasectomy | Explanation: Vasectomy is a permanent contraceptive method performed on males, involving the surgical cutting or sealing of the vas deferens to prevent sperm release. |
| Q25. Saheli—an oral contraceptive pill, also known as the ‘Once a week’ pill, was developed by: (1) AIIMS (2) NBRI (3) CDRI (4) NBPGR |
Correct answer: 3. CDRI | Explanation: The Saheli pill was developed by the Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI), Lucknow. It is unique because it is taken only once a week and is a non-steroidal contraceptive. |
| Q26. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable biological community? (1) It must be resistant to invasions by alien species. (2) It should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year. (3) All the species are equally important in a stable community and absence of any one leads to its instability. (4) It is resilient to occasional disturbances, whether natural or man-made. |
Correct answer: 3. All the species are equally important in a stable community and absence of any one leads to its instability. | Explanation: In a stable community, all species do not have equal importance. Some species, like keystone species, have a disproportionately large impact on the ecosystem, while others may have minor roles. The absence of all species does not lead to instability. |
| Q27. In the ‘rivet popper hypothesis’, the ‘rivet’ signifies: (1) Key species (2) Endemic species (3) Community (4) Species |
Correct answer: 4. Species | Explanation: The rivet popper hypothesis compares species in an ecosystem to rivets in an airplane. Each species (rivet) contributes to the stability of the ecosystem (airplane), and the loss of multiple species may cause a collapse. |
| Q28. The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community was: (1) Paul Ehrlich (2) David Tilman (3) Robert May (4) Edward Wilson |
Correct answer: 2. David Tilman | Explanation: David Tilman demonstrated through experiments that ecosystems with greater species richness are more stable and resilient to environmental changes. |
| Q29. Among the vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group? (1) Reptiles (2) Fishes (3) Insects (4) Mammals |
Correct answer: 2. Fishes | Explanation: Fishes are the most species-rich group among vertebrates, with over 33,000 known species. They are highly diverse and occupy a wide range of aquatic habitats. |
| Q30. The following are the various hypotheses proposed in explaining the greatest biological diversity in tropics, except: (1) Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed. (2) Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish. (3) Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant. (4) There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity and hence, biodiversity. |
Correct answer: 2. Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish. | Explanation: While tropical environments are diverse, humidity/moisture alone does not explain the greatest biodiversity in the tropics. Factors like stability, solar energy, and historical undisturbance play more significant roles. |
| Q31. Cells present in the mature pollen grains are: (1) Central cell and generative cell (2) Antipodal cell and vegetative cell (3) Vegetative cell and generative cell (4) Filiform cell and micropylar cell |
Correct answer: 3. Vegetative cell and generative cell | Explanation: Mature pollen grains consist of two cells: a large vegetative cell and a smaller generative cell, which divides to form sperm cells during fertilization. |
| Q32. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Structures) List-II (Functions) (A) Filiform apparatus (I) Made up of sporopollenin (B) Tapetum (II) Attachment of ovule to the placenta (C) Exine (III) Guides pollen tube into the synergid (D) Funicle (IV) Nourishes the pollen grain |
Correct answer: 2. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) | Explanation:
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| Q33. Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of: (1) Double fusion (2) Triple fusion (3) Parthenogenesis (4) Apomixis |
Correct answer: 2. Triple fusion | Explanation: The primary endosperm nucleus is formed by the fusion of one sperm nucleus with the two polar nuclei in the embryo sac, a process called triple fusion. |
| Q34. In humans, mammary gland is divided into lobes: (1) 10 – 12 (2) 25 – 30 (3) 30 – 35 (4) 15 – 20 |
Correct answer: 4. 15 – 20 | Explanation: The human mammary gland is divided into 15–20 lobes, each containing milk-producing alveoli. |
| Q35. Sex in human embryo is determined by: (1) ‘X’ chromosome of egg (2) ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm (3) Only ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm (4) Health of mother |
Correct answer: 2. ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm | Explanation: Sex in human embryos is determined by the type of sperm that fertilizes the egg. Sperm carrying an X chromosome results in a female, while sperm carrying a Y chromosome results in a male. |
| Q36. Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence: (A) Ovum (B) Oogonia (C) Primary oocyte (D) Secondary oocyte Options: • (1) (C), (B), (D), (A) • (2) (B), (C), (D), (A) • (3) (D), (C), (A), (B) • (4) (A), (D), (C), (B) |
Correct answer: 2. (B), (C), (D), (A) | Explanation: The correct sequence of oogenesis is: 1. Oogonia (immature germ cells). 2. Primary oocyte (formed during fetal development). 3. Secondary oocyte (formed during meiosis I). 4. Ovum (formed after meiosis II and fertilization). |
| Q37. Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel? (1) Pink and white flowers (2) Inflated and constricted pods (3) Axial and terminal flowers (4) Green and yellow pods |
Correct answer: 1. Pink and white flowers | Explanation: Mendel studied traits like seed shape, seed color, flower position, and pod shape, but he did not study flower color as pink and white (he studied purple and white). |
| Q38. Failure of chromatids to segregate during cell division cycle results in: (1) Polyploidy (2) Euploidy (3) Aneuploidy (4) Autopolyploidy |
Correct answer: 3. Aneuploidy | Explanation: Aneuploidy occurs when there is an addition or loss of chromosomes due to improper segregation of chromatids during cell division. For example, Down syndrome results from an extra chromosome 21. |
| Q39. Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anaemia: Genotype : Phenotype (A) HbAHbA : Diseased phenotype (B) HbAHbS : Diseased phenotype (C) HbSHbS : Diseased phenotype (D) HbSHbA : Carrier of disease Options: • (1) (C) and (D) only • (2) (A) and (C) only • (3) (B), (C) and (D) only • (4) (A), (B), and (C) only |
Correct answer: 1. (C) and (D) only | Explanation: - HbAHbA: Normal phenotype (not diseased). - HbAHbS: Carrier of sickle cell anaemia. - HbSHbS: Diseased phenotype (sickle cell anaemia). - HbSHbA: Carrier of disease. |
| Q40. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Scientists) | List-II (Discovery) (A) Sutton and Boveri | (I) X-Body (B) Sturtevant | (II) Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance (C) Henking | (III) Transformation in bacteria (D) Griffith | (IV) Genetic maps Options: • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) • (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) |
Correct answer: 1. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) | Explanation: - Sutton and Boveri: Proposed the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance. - Sturtevant: Developed genetic maps. - Henking: Discovered the X-Body, now known as the X chromosome. - Griffith: Demonstrated bacterial transformation in his experiments. |
| Q41. Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides? (A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases. (B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules. (C) Phosphate group is linked to –OH of 5’ C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage. (D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH group present at 2’ position in the ribose. (E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine. Options: • (1) (A), (B), and (E) only • (2) (D) and (E) only • (3) (B) and (D) only • (4) (B) and (E) only |
Correct answer: 2. (D) and (E) only | Explanation: - (A) Correct: Purines (adenine, guanine) and pyrimidines (cytosine, thymine, uracil) are nitrogenous bases. - (B) Correct: Nucleotides are not enzymes. - (C) Correct: Phosphate attaches to 5’ carbon of nucleoside. - (D) Incorrect: In RNA, the ribose sugar has a 2’ –OH group, but not every nucleotide residue has this group. - (E) Incorrect: Thymine is a pyrimidine found in DNA, but not in RNA. |
| Q42. Arrange the given steps of DNA fingerprinting in order of their occurrence: (A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease (B) Isolation of DNA (C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe (D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane Options: • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) • (2) (A), (D), (B), (C) • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C) • (4) (C), (D), (A), (B) |
Correct answer: 3. (B), (A), (D), (C) | Explanation: The correct sequence for DNA fingerprinting is: 1. Isolation of DNA (B): DNA is extracted from the sample. 2. Digestion by restriction endonucleases (A): DNA is cut into fragments. 3. Blotting to synthetic membrane (D): DNA fragments are transferred to a nylon or nitrocellulose membrane. 4. Hybridisation with VNTR probe (C): Probes hybridize with complementary DNA sequences. |
| Q43. Nucleosome is associated with molecules of histones. (1) Four (2) Nine (3) Two (4) Eight |
Correct answer: 4. Eight | Explanation: A nucleosome consists of eight histone proteins, forming an octamer (two each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4), around which DNA is wrapped. |
| Q44. Select the observations drawn from the human genome project which are correct: (A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp. (B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases. (C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000. (D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes. (E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. Options: • (1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only • (2) (A), (C), (D) and (E) only • (3) (A), (C) and (E) only • (4) (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) |
Correct answer: 4. (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) | Explanation: All listed statements are true observations from the Human Genome Project, which revealed the detailed composition and structure of the human genome. - (A) The human genome contains 3.164 billion base pairs. - (B) The average gene consists of around 3000 bases. - (C) The estimated number of genes is around 30,000. - (D) Functions of more than 50% of discovered genes are still unknown. - (E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. |
| Q45. Analogous structures are a result of: (1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution (3) Parallel evolution (4) Retrogressive evolution |
Correct answer: 1. Convergent evolution | Explanation: Analogous structures arise from convergent evolution, where different organisms independently evolve similar traits to adapt to similar environments. |
| Q46. Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? (1) Natural selection (2) Genetic drift (3) Gene pool (4) Gene migration |
Correct answer: 3. Gene pool | Explanation: The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is disturbed by factors like natural selection, genetic drift, gene flow, and mutation. The gene pool itself does not directly affect the equilibrium unless it undergoes change. |
| Q47. Which of the following primates was more like an ape? (1) Homo erectus (2) Dryopithecus (3) Australopithecines (4) Ramapithecus |
Correct answer: 2. Dryopithecus | Explanation: Dryopithecus is considered an early ape-like primate. It was quadrupedal and arboreal, more similar to modern apes than humans. |
| Q48. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Placental mammals) | List-II (Counterpart Marsupials) (A) Anteater | (I) Spotted cuscus (B) Bobcat | (II) Numbat (C) Lemur | (III) Flying Phalanger (D) Flying squirrel | (IV) Tasmanian tiger cat Options: • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) • (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) • (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) |
Correct answer: 1. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) | Explanation: - Anteater matches with the marsupial Numbat. - Bobcat corresponds to Tasmanian tiger cat. - Lemur pairs with Spotted cuscus. - Flying squirrel is matched with Flying Phalanger. |
| Q49. Identify the incorrect statement/s: (A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection. (B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses. (C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia. (D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella. (E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test. Options: • (1) (A), (C) and (D) only • (2) (B) and (E) only • (3) (D) only • (4) (A) and (D) only |
Correct answer: 3. (D) only | Explanation: - (A) Correct: Typhoid can lead to intestinal perforation. - (B) Correct: Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses. - (C) Correct: Bluish lips and fingernails indicate hypoxia in pneumonia. - (D) Incorrect: Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae or other bacteria, not Salmonella. - (E) Correct: Widal test is used for diagnosing typhoid. |
| Q50. Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Types of barriers) | List-II (Examples) (A) Cytokine barriers | (I) Mucus coating (B) Physical barriers | (II) Tears from eyes (C) Cellular barriers | (III) Phagocytosis (D) Physiological barriers | (IV) Interferons Options: • (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) • (3) (D) - (I), (B) - (C), (C) - (IV), (A) - (III) • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) |
Correct answer: 2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) | Explanation: - Cytokine barriers: Interferons (antiviral proteins). - Physical barriers: Tears protect from infections. - Cellular barriers: Phagocytosis by macrophages. - Physiological barriers: Mucus traps pathogens. |
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