CUET Biology Question Paper 2024 SET C Download Solutions and Answer Key
| Updated On - Dec 7, 2024
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CUET 2024 Biology Question Paper (SET C) with Solution PDF
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CUET 2024 BIOLOGY Answer Key (Set C)
| Question | Answer | Detailed Solution |
| Q1: Cells present in the mature pollen grains are: 1. Central cell and generative cell 2. Antipodal cell and vegetative cell 3. Vegetative cell and generative cell 4. Filiform cell and micropylar cell |
3. Vegetative cell and generative cell | Solution: Mature pollen grains consist of two cells: a large vegetative cell, which provides nourishment, and a smaller generative cell, which divides to form sperm cells during fertilization. |
| Q2: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Structures) List-II (Functions) (A) Filiform apparatus (B) Tapetum (C) Exine (D) Funicle Options: 1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) 2. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) 3. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 4. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) |
2. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) | Solution: - Filiform apparatus: Guides pollen tube to the synergid. - Tapetum: Provides nourishment to the developing pollen grains. - Exine: Made of sporopollenin, providing durability. - Funicle: Connects the ovule to the placenta. |
| Q3: Primary Endosperm Nucleus is the product of: 1. Double fusion 2. Triple fusion 3. Parthenogenesis 4. Apomixis |
2. Triple fusion | Solution: The primary endosperm nucleus forms when one sperm nucleus fuses with the two polar nuclei in the embryo sac, a process called triple fusion. |
| Q4: In humans, mammary gland is divided into lobes: 1. 10–12 2. 25–30 3. 30–35 4. 15–20 |
4. 15–20 | Solution: The human mammary gland is divided into 15–20 lobes, each containing milk-producing alveoli. |
| Q5: Sex in human embryo is determined by: 1. ‘X’ chromosome of egg 2. ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm 3. Only ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm 4. Health of mother |
2. ‘X’ or ‘Y’ chromosome of sperm | Solution: The sex of the embryo depends on the sperm’s chromosome: - Sperm with an X chromosome → Female (XX). - Sperm with a Y chromosome → Male (XY). |
| Q6: Arrange the following stages of oogenesis in order of their occurrence: (A) Ovum (B) Oogonia (C) Primary oocyte (D) Secondary oocyte Options: 1. (C), (B), (D), (A) 2. (B), (C), (D), (A) 3. (D), (C), (A), (B) 4. (A), (D), (C), (B) |
2. (B), (C), (D), (A) | Solution: The correct sequence: 1. Oogonia (immature germ cells). 2. Primary oocyte (formed during fetal development). 3. Secondary oocyte (formed during meiosis I). 4. Ovum (formed after meiosis II and fertilization). |
| Q7: Which of the following pair of contrasting traits was not studied by Mendel? 1. Pink and white flowers 2. Inflated and constricted pods 3. Axial and terminal flowers 4. Green and yellow pods |
1. Pink and white flowers | Solution: Mendel studied traits like seed shape, seed color, flower position, and pod shape. He did not study flower colors as pink and white but rather purple and white. |
| Q8: Failure of chromatids to segregate during cell division results in: 1. Polyploidy 2. Euploidy 3. Aneuploidy 4. Autopolyploidy |
3. Aneuploidy | Solution: Aneuploidy occurs due to improper segregation of chromatids during cell division, leading to an abnormal chromosome number. Example: Down syndrome results from an extra chromosome 21. |
| Q9: Select the correctly matched pair about sickle cell anemia: Genotype: Phenotype (A) HbAHbA: Diseased phenotype (B) HbAHbS: Diseased phenotype (C) HbSHbS: Diseased phenotype (D) HbSHbA: Carrier of disease Options: 1. (C) and (D) only 2. (A) and (C) only 3. (B), (C), and (D) only 4. (A), (B), and (C) only |
1. (C) and (D) only | Solution: - HbAHbA: Normal phenotype (not diseased). - HbAHbS: Carrier of sickle cell anemia. - HbSHbS: Diseased phenotype (sickle cell anemia). - HbSHbA: Carrier of disease. |
| Q10: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Scientists) List-II (Discovery) (A) Sutton and Boveri (B) Sturtevant (C) Henking (D) Griffith Options: 1. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) 2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) 3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) 4. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) |
1. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) | Solution: - Sutton and Boveri: Proposed the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance. - Sturtevant: Developed genetic maps. - Henking: Discovered the X-Body (X chromosome). - Griffith: Demonstrated bacterial transformation. |
| Q11: Which of the following statements are incorrect with respect to nucleotides? (A) Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases. (B) Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules. (C) Phosphate group is linked to –OH of 5 C of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage. (D) In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH group present at 2 position in the ribose. (E) Thymine is an example of Pyrimidine. Correct Answer: (D) and (E) only |
(D) and (E) only | Solution: - (A) Correct: Purines and pyrimidines are nitrogenous bases. - (B) Correct: Nucleotides are non-enzymatic molecules. - (C) Correct: Phosphate group links to 5 carbon of nucleoside. - (D) Incorrect: In RNA, ribose has a 2 –OH group, but not every residue has it. - (E) Incorrect: Thymine is found in DNA, not RNA. |
| Q12: Arrange the steps of DNA fingerprinting in sequence: (A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonuclease (B) Isolation of DNA (C) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe (D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membrane Correct Answer: (B), (A), (D), (C) |
(B), (A), (D), (C) | Solution: 1. Isolation of DNA (B): Extracting DNA from cells. 2. Digestion by restriction enzymes (A): Cutting DNA into fragments. 3. Blotting to membrane (D): Transferring DNA fragments. 4. Hybridisation (C): Probing complementary sequences. |
| Q13: Nucleosome is associated with molecules of histones. 1. Four 2. Nine 3. Two 4. Eight Correct Answer: Eight |
Eight | Solution: A nucleosome consists of an octamer of histones (two each of H2A, H2B, H3, and H4) around which DNA is wrapped. |
| Q14: Select the correct observations from the Human Genome Project: (A) The human genome contains 3164.7 million bp. (B) The average gene consists of 3000 bases. (C) Total number of genes is estimated at 30,000. (D) The functions are unknown for over 50% of discovered genes. (E) Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. Correct Answer: (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) |
(A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) | Solution: All observations listed are accurate conclusions drawn from the Human Genome Project. |
| Q15: Analogous structures are a result of: 1. Convergent evolution 2. Divergent evolution 3. Parallel evolution 4. Retrogressive evolution Correct Answer: Convergent evolution |
Convergent evolution | Solution: Analogous structures arise from convergent evolution, where organisms independently evolve similar traits to adapt to similar environments. |
| Q16: Which of the following does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? 1. Natural selection 2. Genetic drift 3. Gene pool 4. Gene migration |
3. Gene pool | The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is influenced by factors like selection, drift, migration, and mutation. The static gene pool itself does not disturb the equilibrium. |
| Q17: Which of the following primates was more like an ape? 1. Homo erectus 2. Dryopithecus 3. Australopithecines 4. Ramapithecus |
2. Dryopithecus | Dryopithecus was quadrupedal and arboreal, resembling modern apes more than humans. |
| Q18: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Placental mammals) List-II (Counterpart Marsupials) (A) Anteater (I) Spotted cuscus (B) Bobcat (II) Numbat (C) Lemur (III) Flying Phalanger (D) Flying squirrel (IV) Tasmanian tiger cat |
1. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III) | - Anteater matches with the marsupial Numbat. - Bobcat corresponds to Tasmanian tiger cat. - Lemur pairs with Spotted cuscus. - Flying squirrel is matched with Flying Phalanger. |
| Q19: Identify the incorrect statement/s: (A) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases of typhoid infection. (B) Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses. (C) Lips and fingernails may turn grey to bluish colour in severe cases of pneumonia. (D) Pneumonia is caused by Salmonella. (E) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test. |
3. (D) only | - (A) Correct: Severe typhoid can lead to intestinal perforation. - (B) Correct: Rhinoviruses cause the common cold. - (C) Correct: Bluish lips and fingernails indicate severe hypoxia in pneumonia. - (D) Incorrect: Pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, not Salmonella. - (E) Correct: Widal test is used for diagnosing typhoid. |
| Q20: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Types of barriers) List-II (Examples) (A) Cytokine barriers (I) Mucus coating (B) Physical barriers (II) Tears from eyes (C) Cellular barriers (III) Phagocytosis (D) Physiological barriers (IV) Interferons |
2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) | - **Cytokine barriers**: **Interferons** (antiviral proteins). - **Physical barriers**: **Tears** protect from infections. - **Cellular barriers**: **Phagocytosis** by macrophages. - **Physiological barriers**: **Mucus** traps pathogens. Therefore, the correct answer is Option **2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)**. |
| Q21: Smack is chemically: 1. Diacetyl morphine 2. Cocaine 3. Benzodiazepine 4. Amphetamine |
1. Diacetyl morphine | **Smack**, commonly known as **heroin**, is chemically **diacetyl morphine**, a semi-synthetic opioid. Therefore, the correct answer is **1. Diacetyl morphine**. |
| Q22: Antibodies are secreted by: 1. T-Cells 2. B-Cells 3. α-Cells 4. β-Cells |
2. B-Cells | **B-cells** are specialized white blood cells that produce and secrete **antibodies** as part of the adaptive immune response. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. B-Cells**. |
| Q23: In sewage treatment, flocs are: 1. The solids that settle during sedimentation. 2. The supernatant formed above primary sludge. 3. The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments. 4. The bacteria which grow anaerobically and are also called anaerobic sludge digesters. |
3. The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments. | In **sewage treatment**, **flocs** are aggregates of **bacteria and fungi** that aid in the decomposition of organic matter during secondary treatment. Therefore, the correct answer is **3. The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments**. |
| Q24: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Products) List-II (Organisms) (A) Statin (I) Streptococcus (B) Clot buster (II) Trichoderma (C) Swiss cheese (III) Monascus (D) Cyclosporin-A (IV) Propionibacterium Options: 1. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) 3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) 4. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) |
2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) | Product | Organism/Explanation **Statin** | **Monascus** - Lowers cholesterol. **Clot buster** | **Streptococcus** - Produces streptokinase. **Swiss cheese** | **Propionibacterium** - Used in fermentation. **Cyclosporin-A** | **Trichoderma** - Acts as an immunosuppressant. Therefore, the correct answer is **Option 2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)**. |
| Q25: The beetle used as a biocontrol agent for aphids and mosquitoes is: 1. Trichoderma 2. Dragonflies 3. Ladybird 4. Silver fish |
3. Ladybird | **Ladybird beetles** are natural predators of aphids and other pests, making them effective **biocontrol agents**. Therefore, the correct answer is **3. Ladybird**. |
| Q26: Downstream processing method involves: 1. Identification 2. Amplification 3. Fermentation 4. Purification |
4. Purification | **Downstream processing** refers to the steps in biotechnological processes that involve the recovery and **purification** of products such as proteins or other biosynthetic compounds. Therefore, the correct answer is **4. Purification**. |
| Q27: Which of the following is not the correctly matched pair of organism and its respective cell wall degrading enzyme? 1. Fungi – Chitinase 2. Algae – Methylase 3. Plant cells – Cellulase 4. Bacteria – Lysozyme |
2. Algae – Methylase | **Methylase** does not degrade algal cell walls. Algal cell walls are typically degraded by **cellulase** or other specific enzymes. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. Algae – Methylase**. |
| Q28: Arrange the following steps involved in the transformation of bacteria in a sequence from initiation to end: (A) Incubation of rDNA with bacterial cell on ice (B) Treatment with divalent cations (C) Heat shock treatment (D) Selection on antibiotic-containing agar plate (E) Placed them again on ice Options: 1. (A), (B), (D), (C), (E) 2. (B), (A), (C), (E), (D) 3. (B), (C), (D), (A), (E) 4. (A), (C), (B), (D), (E) |
2. (B), (A), (C), (E), (D) | The **transformation process** in bacteria follows this sequence: - **Divalent cations** → Incubation with **rDNA** on ice → **Heat shock treatment** → Ice → **Selection on antibiotic plates**. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. (B), (A), (C), (E), (D)**. |
| Q29: Which of the following statements are incorrect? (A) Fragments of DNA can be separated by ELISA. (B) Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium. (C) Recombinant DNA technology does not involve isolation of a desired DNA fragment. (D) DNA ligases are used for stitching DNA fragments into a vector. Options: 1. (A) and (C) only 2. (A) and (B) only 3. (B) and (C) only 4. (A), (C), and (D) only |
1. (A) and (C) only | - (A) is incorrect: **ELISA** detects **proteins/antibodies**, not DNA fragments. - (C) is incorrect: **Recombinant DNA technology** does include **isolating the desired DNA fragment**. Therefore, the correct answer is **1. (A) and (C) only**. |
| Q30: Which of the following statements are true? (A) Milk obtained from ‘Rosie’ is nutritionally more balanced for human babies than natural human milk. (B) Biopiracy refers to the use of bioresources without proper authorization from MNCs. (C) GEAC is the decisive body for safety and validity of GMOs and GM research respectively. (D) Transgenic animals help us to understand the contribution of genes in the development of disease. Options: 1. (A) and (C) only 2. (C) and (D) only 3. (B) and (C) only 4. (A), (B), and (C) only |
2. (C) and (D) only | - (A) is false: While **Rosie** produces milk enriched with human proteins, it is **not** nutritionally more balanced than human milk. - (B) is false: **Biopiracy** involves unauthorized use of bioresources, not specifically related to MNCs. - (C) is true: **GEAC** regulates GMO safety and validity. - (D) is true: **Transgenic animals** help in understanding gene contributions to diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. (C) and (D) only**. |
| Q31: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Transgene) List-II (Used for/Products) (A) α-1-antitrypsin (I) Meloidogyne incognita (B) cryIAc (II) Corn borer (C) Antisense RNA (III) Treat emphysema (D) cryIAb (IV) Cotton bollworms Options: 1. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) 2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 3. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 4. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) |
3. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) | - (A) **α-1-antitrypsin**: Treats emphysema caused by genetic disorders. - (B) **cryIAc**: Effective against **corn borer** pest. - (C) **Antisense RNA**: Used to silence genes in **Meloidogyne incognita** (nematodes). - (D) **cryIAb**: Targets **cotton bollworms**. Therefore, the correct answer is **3. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)**. |
| Q32: Expand “GEAC”: 1. Genetic and Environmental Advisory Committee 2. Gene Establishment Approval Committee 3. Genetic Engineering Advisory Committee 4. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee |
4. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee | **GEAC** stands for **Genetic Engineering Approval Committee** and is responsible for the regulation and approval of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and related research in India. Therefore, the correct answer is **4. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee**. |
| Q33: When an insect feeds on the Bt plant, the insect dies due to the conversion of inactive protein to active protein in: 1. Alkaline pH of the gut. 2. Acidic pH of the gut. 3. Acidic pH of saliva. 4. Alkaline pH of saliva. |
1. Alkaline pH of the gut | The **Bt toxin** (produced by **Bacillus thuringiensis**) is an inactive protoxin. In an insect’s gut, the **alkaline pH** activates the toxin, which binds to the gut cells, creating pores and ultimately killing the insect. Therefore, the correct answer is **1. Alkaline pH of the gut**. |
| Q34: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Interspecies Relationships) List-II (Features) (A) Commensalism (I) One species is benefitted at the expense of the other (B) Mutualism (II) One species is harmed and the other is unaffected (C) Amensalism (III) Both species benefit (D) Parasitism (IV) One species benefits, the other remains unaffected Options: 1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) 3. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) | - **Commensalism**: One species benefits, the other remains unaffected. - **Mutualism**: Both species benefit. - **Amensalism**: One species is harmed, the other remains unaffected. - **Parasitism**: One species benefits at the expense of the other. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)**. |
| Q35: In a country, at any time, the population has the same number of young and mature ones. What type of growth does it reflect? 1. Expanding 2. Declining 3. Stable 4. S-shaped |
3. Stable | A **stable population** is characterized by **equal proportions** of young and mature individuals, indicating balanced birth and death rates, resulting in a constant population size. Therefore, the correct answer is **3. Stable**. |
| Q36: Two closely related species can co-exist indefinitely and violate Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ by: 1. Eliminating the inferior species. 2. Resource partitioning. 3. Interacting with each other symbiotically. 4. Changing the area of grazing. |
2. Resource partitioning | **Resource partitioning** allows two similar species to utilize different aspects of the environment or the same resources in different ways, reducing direct competition and enabling coexistence. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. Resource partitioning**. |
| Q37: The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of: 1. Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus. 2. Organic nutrients from humus. 3. Inorganic nutrients from humus. 4. Organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus. |
1. Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus | **Mineralisation** occurs when microorganisms break down organic matter in detritus, releasing inorganic nutrients essential for plant growth and forming humus that enhances soil fertility. Therefore, the correct answer is **1. Inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus**. |
| Q38: In which ecosystem is the biomass of primary consumers greater than producers? 1. Forests 2. Grassland 3. Desert 4. Sea |
4. Sea | In **aquatic ecosystems**, such as seas, the biomass of primary consumers (e.g., zooplankton) often exceeds that of producers (e.g., phytoplankton) due to the rapid turnover rate of phytoplankton, which reproduce quickly. Therefore, the correct answer is **4. Sea**. |
| Q39: Choose the correct statements with respect to decomposition from the following: (A) Decomposition is an anaerobic process. (B) Decomposition rate of detritus depends upon its chemical nature. (C) Water-soluble organic nutrients go into the soil and get precipitated in the process of leaching. (D) Humification follows mineralisation. Options: 1. (B) and (D) only 2. (A) and (C) only 3. (B) and (C) only 4. (A) and (D) only |
1. (B) and (D) only | - **(A)** is incorrect: Decomposition is primarily an **aerobic** process. - **(B)** is correct: The rate of decomposition depends on the **chemical nature** of detritus (e.g., lignin content). - **(C)** is incorrect: Water-soluble organic nutrients are leached into the soil but do not precipitate. - **(D)** is correct: **Humification** follows **mineralisation** in the decomposition process. Therefore, the correct answer is **1. (B) and (D) only**. |
| Q40: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Concepts) List-II (Explanation) (A) Standing state (I) Available biomass for heterotrophs (B) Secondary productivity (II) Rate of organic matter formation by consumers (C) Standing crop (III) Mass of living matter in a trophic level (D) Net primary productivity (IV) Amount of mineral nutrients in soil Options: 1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I) 2. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) 4. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) |
3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I) | - **(A) Standing state**: Refers to the amount of **nutrients** in soil at a given time. - **(B) Secondary productivity**: Rate at which **consumers** produce organic matter. - **(C) Standing crop**: Mass of living matter in a specific **trophic level**. - **(D) Net primary productivity**: Biomass available for **heterotroph** consumption. Therefore, the correct answer is **3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)**. |
| Q41: Which of the following is not a Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD)? 1. Chlamydiasis 2. Filariasis 3. Genital herpes 4. Trichomoniasis |
2. Filariasis | **Filariasis** is a vector-borne disease caused by parasitic worms transmitted through mosquito bites, not an STD. In contrast, Chlamydiasis, Genital herpes, and Trichomoniasis are sexually transmitted diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. Filariasis**. |
| Q42: Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)? 1. They are considered safe during the first trimester. 2. It is legalized in India from 1971. 3. MTPs can be performed even after 24 weeks, but with the opinion of 2 registered medical practitioners on specific grounds. 4. About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally. |
4. About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally. | - (1) is correct: MTPs are safe up to 12 weeks (first trimester). - (2) is correct: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was enacted in India in 1971. - (3) is correct: MTPs after 24 weeks require special approval for valid medical reasons. - (4) is incorrect: The actual global percentage of pregnancies undergoing MTP is significantly lower. Therefore, the correct answer is **4. About 20% of the total number of conceived pregnancies undergo MTP in a year globally**. |
| Q43: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (ART Techniques) List-II (Processes) (A) ZIFT (I) Formation of embryo in vitro by injecting sperm into ovum (B) ICSI (II) Transferring embryos with ¿8 blastomeres into uterus (C) IUI (III) Transfer of fertilized egg (up to 8 blastomeres) into fallopian tube (D) IUT (IV) Artificial transfer of semen into uterus Options: 1. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) 2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) 3. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I) 4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) | - **ZIFT**: Transfer of fertilized eggs with up to 8 blastomeres into the **fallopian tube**. - **ICSI**: Formation of embryos in vitro by direct injection of sperm into the **ovum**. - **IUI**: Artificial insemination of **semen into the uterus**. - **IUT**: Transfer of embryos with more than 8 blastomeres into the **uterus**. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)**. |
| Q44: Which of the following methods of contraception is not meant for females? 1. IUDs 2. Lactational amenorrhea 3. Vasectomy 4. Condoms |
3. Vasectomy | **Vasectomy** is a permanent contraceptive method performed on males, involving the surgical cutting or sealing of the vas deferens to prevent sperm release. Therefore, the correct answer is **3. Vasectomy**. |
| Q45: Saheli—an oral contraceptive pill, also known as the ‘Once a week’ pill, was developed by: 1. AIIMS 2. NBRI 3. CDRI 4. NBPGR |
3. CDRI | The **Saheli pill**, developed by the **Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI)**, Lucknow, is a unique non-steroidal contraceptive that is taken once a week. Therefore, the correct answer is **3. CDRI**. |
| Q46: Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stable biological community? 1. It must be resistant to invasions by alien species. 2. It should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year. 3. All the species are equally important in a stable community, and absence of any one leads to its instability. 4. It is resilient to occasional disturbances, whether natural or man-made. |
3. All the species are equally important in a stable community, and absence of any one leads to its instability. | In a stable community, not all species are equally important. **Keystone species** often have a disproportionately large impact on community stability, while other species may play minor roles. Therefore, the correct answer is **3. All the species are equally important in a stable community, and absence of any one leads to its instability**. |
| Q47: In the ‘rivet popper hypothesis,’ the ‘rivet’ signifies: 1. Key species 2. Endemic species 3. Community 4. Species |
4. Species | The **rivet popper hypothesis** compares species in an ecosystem to rivets in an airplane. Each species contributes to ecosystem stability, and the loss of too many species may lead to collapse. Therefore, the correct answer is **4. Species**. |
| Q48: The scientist who proved that species richness directly correlates with the stability of a community was: 1. Paul Ehrlich 2. David Tilman 3. Robert May 4. Edward Wilson |
2. David Tilman | **David Tilman**’s experiments demonstrated that ecosystems with greater species richness are more stable and resilient to environmental changes. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. David Tilman**. |
| Q49: Among vertebrates, which of the following is the most species-rich group? 1. Reptiles 2. Fishes 3. Insects 4. Mammals |
2. Fishes | **Fishes** are the most species-rich group among vertebrates, with over 33,000 known species. They occupy diverse aquatic habitats worldwide. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. Fishes**. |
| Q50: The following are the various hypotheses proposed in explaining the greatest biological diversity in tropics, except: 1. Temperate regions are subjected to glaciations, but tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed. 2. Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish. 3. Tropical environments are less seasonal and more constant. 4. There is more solar energy available in the tropics which contributes to higher productivity and hence, biodiversity. |
2. Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish. | While humidity and moisture may contribute to tropical diversity, other factors like **stability**, **solar energy**, and **lack of glaciation** are more significant. Therefore, the correct answer is **2. Tropical environments have more humidity/moisture which helps the diversity to flourish**. |
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