CUET General Test Question Paper 2024 SET B Download Solutions and Answer Key

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CUET 2024 General Test Question Paper (SET B) with Answer Key PDF

CUET 2024 General Test Question Paper with Answer Key Set B	Download	Check Solution

CUET 2024 General Test Question Paper with Solution

Question	Correct Answer	Solution
Q1: ”Jhulaghat Suspension Bridge” between India and which country has become fully operational now? (1) Bhutan (2) Nepal (3) China (4) Myanmar	(2) Nepal	The Jhulaghat Suspension Bridge connects India and Nepal, facilitating transportation and trade between the two countries. Quick Tip: Remember key international bridges and their locations for geography and current affairs questions.
Q2: Which organization developed and launched ’Ugram’ Indigenous Assault Rifle for the armed forces? (1) ISRO (2) BEL (3) HAL (4) DRDO	(4) DRDO	The Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) developed the Ugram rifle to enhance the capabilities of the armed forces. Quick Tip: DRDO is a key player in India’s defense research and development sector. Keep track of their major projects for competitive exams.
Q3: Who is the first para-athlete to receive the Padma Bhushan award in India? (1) Bhavina Patel (2) Devendra Jhajharia (3) Avani Lekhara (4) Mariyappan Thangavelu	(2) Devendra Jhajharia	Devendra Jhajharia is the first para-athlete to receive the prestigious Padma Bhushan award for his exceptional contributions to sports, particularly in the javelin throw. Quick Tip: Keep track of major national award recipients, especially in the field of sports and culture.
Q4: Which of the following substances is a bad conductor of electricity? (1) Diamond (2) Gold (3) Silver (4) Graphite	(1) Diamond	Diamond, despite being a form of carbon like graphite, is a bad conductor of electricity. Graphite, another carbon allotrope, conducts electricity well due to its free electrons. Quick Tip: Although diamond and graphite are both forms of carbon, their structure determines their electrical conductivity.
Q5: Due to ocean acidification, when the ocean becomes more acidic, what happens to the pH level of the ocean? (1) The pH level goes down. (2) The pH level stays the same. (3) The pH level goes up. (4) The pH level becomes zero.	(1) The pH level goes down	Ocean acidification occurs when the absorption of carbon dioxide by oceans increases, leading to a decrease in pH and making the ocean more acidic. Quick Tip: Ocean acidification is a key topic in environmental science. It highlights the impact of increased CO2 levels on marine ecosystems.
Q6: Zemu Glacier is located in which state of India? (1) Uttarakhand (2) Himachal Pradesh (3) Sikkim (4) Arunachal Pradesh	(3) Sikkim	Zemu Glacier is located in Sikkim, in the northeastern part of India. Quick Tip: Familiarizing yourself with famous glaciers and their locations helps in geography-related questions.
Q7: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Navy Institution) List-II (Place) (A) INS Chilka (I) Goa (B) INS Hansa (II) Andhra Pradesh (C) INS Satavahana (III) Kerala (D) INS Garuda (IV) Odisha (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)	(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)	For matching questions, start with familiar pairs to eliminate incorrect options quickly.
Q8: Who among the following is Chile’s first woman President? (1) Mary Robinson (2) Michelle Bachelet (3) Kim Campbell (4) Jennifer Shipley	(2) Michelle Bachelet	Michelle Bachelet was the first woman President of Chile. Quick Tip: Familiarizing yourself with key milestones in global political leadership is beneficial for general knowledge and exams.
Q9: DRDO has conducted the first successful flight test of Agni-5 missile equipped with MIRV technology. What is the full form of MIRV? (1) Multiple Independently Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle (2) Mission India Target Re-Entry Vehicle (3) Multiple Independently Technology Re-Entry Vehicle (4) Multiple Indirect Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle	(1) Multiple Independently Targetable Re-Entry Vehicle	MIRV technology allows multiple warheads to be launched from a single missile and target different locations. Quick Tip: MIRV technology increases the offensive capabilities of ballistic missiles significantly.
Q10: Which of the following diseases is caused due to the deficiency of proteins? (1) Arthritis (2) Kwashiorkor (3) Goitre (4) Night Blindness	(2) Kwashiorkor	Kwashiorkor is a disease caused by severe protein deficiency. Quick Tip: Kwashiorkor is a major malnutrition disorder due to protein deficiency, common in areas with famine.
Q11: Who has been appointed the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India? (1) Ajay Narayan Jha (2) Smt. Annie George Mathew (3) Pradip Kumar Mohanty (4) Dr. Arvind Panagariya	(3) Pradip Kumar Mohanty	Pradip Kumar Mohanty has been appointed as the Chairman of the 16th Finance Commission of India. Quick Tip: The Finance Commission of India defines the financial relations between the central and state governments.
Q12: The Election Commission of India gets the power to conduct elections from which of the following articles? (1) Article 324 (2) Article 280 (3) Article 264 (4) Article 26	(1) Article 324	The Election Commission of India derives its powers from Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections. Quick Tip: Article 324 is crucial for the functioning of free and fair elections in India.
Q13: Which Indian has won the ”Ramon Magsaysay Award-2023”? (1) Korvi Rakshand (2) Ashwini Kumar (3) Dipti Ranjan Sahoo (4) Dr. Ravi Kannan R.	(4) Dr. Ravi Kannan R.	Dr. Ravi Kannan R. was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2023 for his remarkable contributions in the field of public service. Quick Tip: Keep track of prominent award winners in recent years as they are commonly asked in competitive exams.
Q14: Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple, situated in Tamil Nadu, is dedicated to which deity? (1) Lord Shiva (2) Lord Vishnu (3) Goddess Durga (4) Goddess Lakshmi	(2) Lord Vishnu	Sri Ranganathaswamy Temple, located in Tamil Nadu, is dedicated to Lord Vishnu and is one of the most significant Vishnu temples in India. Quick Tip: Remember key temples and their associated deities as they are frequently asked in exams related to Indian culture and heritage.
Q15: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Centre of Handicraft) List-II (State) (A) Mon (I) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Nalbari (II) Assam (C) Pasighat (III) Meghalaya (D) Tura (IV) Nagaland (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) (2) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) (4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)	(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)	For matching questions, start with familiar pairs to eliminate incorrect options quickly.
Q16: What should come in the place of the mark (?) in the following alphanumeric series? A1X, B4P, E25J, J100F, ? (1) O289D (2) O225E (3) Q289D (4) Q225E	(3) Q289D	The pattern involves a progression in both the letters and numbers. The letters increase alphabetically while the numbers increase as squares. Quick Tip: Look for progressive patterns in both letters and numbers to solve alphanumeric sequences.
Q17: In which state is “Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary” located? (1) Assam (2) Rajasthan (3) Odisha (4) Manipur	(1) Assam	Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Assam and is known for its rich biodiversity. Quick Tip: Memorizing wildlife sanctuaries and their locations is helpful for environment-related questions.
Q18: In the given analogy, choose the word which will replace the mark: NEGI : MVTR :: SING : ? (1) TRNS (2) TRNT (3) FRMT (4) HRMT	(2) TRNT	In the analogy, each letter in the second word corresponds to the previous letter in reverse order from the alphabet sequence. Similarly, applying the same logic gives TRNT as the answer. Quick Tip: Focus on letter transformations in analogies by observing patterns like reversals, shifts, or replacements.
Q19: India’s first 3D-printed Post Office has been inaugurated in: (1) Guwahati (2) Kolkata (3) Mumbai (4) Bengaluru	(4) Bengaluru	India’s first 3D-printed post office was inaugurated in Bengaluru, showcasing innovation in construction technology. Quick Tip: Stay updated with the latest technological advancements and milestones for competitive exams.
Q20: Read the following information carefully to choose the best option for the question: ‘P + Q’ means that ‘P is the son of Q’ ‘P × Q’ means that ‘P is the husband of Q’ ‘P Q’ means that ‘P is the brother of Q’ Which of the following means ‘A is the son-in-law of G’? (1) A × U + S × G (2) A + S / U × G (3) A S + U × G (4) A × U / S + G	(1) A × U + S × G	By decoding each relationship and mapping it to the given conditions, we determine that ‘A × U + S × G’ represents ‘A is the son-in-law of G.’ Quick Tip: Break down logical relationships step by step to decode family tree-related questions.
Q21: In a certain code language, ‘ki ru pi’ means ‘nobody like cruel’, ‘ki mi cha’ means ‘king was cruel’ and ‘ru pi cha’ means ‘nobody like king’. What is the code for ‘was’ in the given code language? (1) ki (2) mi (3) cha (4) ru	(2) mi	By analyzing the common words across the sentences, it becomes clear that “mi” corresponds to “was.”
Q22: What will be the measurement of the angle made by the hour and minute hands of a clock when the time is ‘quarter past 3’ ? (1) 6 1/2 (2) 10 (3) 7 1/2 (4) 8 1/2	(4) 8 1/2	At ‘quarter past 3,’ the hour hand is slightly past 3, and the minute hand is at 15. Using the clock angle formula, the angle between the hands is calculated to be 8 1/2 degrees.
Q23: A boy leaves his house. He travels 6 km towards South, then travels 8 km towards West and further travels 9 km towards South. How far and in which direction is he from his house now? (1) 13 km, South West (2) 17 km, South West (3) 17 km, North West (4) 13 km, West	(2) 17 km, South West	The boy travels: 6 km South, followed by another 9 km South, making his total southward journey 15 km. 8 km West. To calculate the distance from his house, use the Pythagoras theorem: Distance = √(15² + 8²) = √(225 + 64) = √289 = 17 km. Since he is both South and West of his starting point, his final direction is South West.
Q24: If 26th January, 2020 was a Sunday, then what day of the week was it on 16th March of that year? (1) Sunday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday	(3) Tuesday	Counting the days between 26th January and 16th March gives a difference of 50 days, which corresponds to a shift of two days forward from Sunday, making it Tuesday.
Q25: The problem given below consists of a and two statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. How many sisters does Sunny have? 1. Sunny is the only son of his parents. 2. Sunny’s parents have three children. (1) Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question. (2) Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. (3) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question. (4) Either statement I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question.	(3) Statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.	From statement I, we know Sunny is the only son. From statement II, we know there are three children in total. Together, these statements imply Sunny has two sisters.
Q26: Find out which of the figures completes the figure matrix:	(4)	Analyzing the matrix, the logical progression across the rows indicates that option (4) completes the pattern.
Q27: If in a certain code language, ‘MERCURY’ is coded as ‘NGUGZXF’, then how will ‘ENTANGLE’ be coded in the same code language? (1) FPXFSSMSM (2) FPWEWSMSM (3) FPWESWSN (4) FPWFTNSM	(2) FPWEWSMSM	The coding follows a specific alphabetical shift pattern. After shifting each letter appropriately, ‘ENTANGLE’ becomes ‘FPWEWSMSM’.
Q28: The sequence of folding a piece of paper and the manner in which the folded paper has been cut is shown in the following figures. How would this paper look when unfolded?	(3)	When the paper is unfolded, the cuts appear symmetrically distributed across the paper.
Q29: Find out the missing (?) number and letter. (1) 59 and K (2) 61 and L (3) 61 and K (4) 59 and L	(3) 61 and K	The pattern involves a progressive increase in both numbers and letters.
Q30: A clock seen through a mirror shows ‘quarter to seven’. What is the correct time shown by the clock? (1) 6:15 (2) 6:17 (3) 5:17 (4) 5:15	(4) 5:15	The reflection of 6:45 in a mirror shows the time as 5:15.
Q31: What will be the next number in the series: 3, 6, 10.5, 17, 26, ? (1) 31 (2) 38 (3) 40 (4) 41	(2) 38	The pattern involves adding consecutive numbers with increasing increments: 3 + 3 = 6, 6 + 4.5 = 10.5, 10.5 + 6.5 = 17, 17 + 9 = 26. The next increment is 12: 26 + 12 = 38.
Q32: Six people E, H, K, M, S, and U are seated in a circle facing the center. U and H are immediate neighbors of M. E is the only person sitting between K and S. H is to the immediate right of S. Who is to the immediate right of U? (1) M (2) E (3) K (4) S	(1) M	By positioning each person according to the conditions: M is seated between U and H, E is seated between K and S, and H is to the immediate right of S. Thus, U’s immediate right is M.
Q33: Simplify: 24 ÷ 4 × 2 + 8 − 4 = ? (1) 1 (2) 7 (3) 16 (4) 56	(3) 16	Using the BODMAS rule: 24 ÷ 4 = 6, 6 × 2 = 12, 12 + 8 = 20, 20 − 4 = 16.
Q34: In a class of 40 students, Anjali’s rank is thrice that of Anita. There are 4 students who have ranks worse than that of Anjali. Anita’s rank in the class is: (1) 9th (2) 10th (3) 18th (4) 12th	(2) 10th	Anjali’s rank is 12th (40 - 4 = 36, divided by 3). Anita’s rank is 12 ÷ 3 = 10th.
Q35: Read the given statements and conclusions carefully, assuming the information given is true. Decide which of the conclusions logically follows from the statements. Statements: - No keyboard is a mouse. - All mouses are computers. - All computers are laptops. Conclusions: I. All mouses are laptops. II. All computers can never be keyboards. (1) Only conclusion I follows. (2) Only conclusion II follows. (3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. (4) Both conclusions I and II follow.	(4) Both conclusions I and II follow.	For syllogism questions, the Venn diagrams show that both conclusions logically follow from the statements.
Q36: Find out which of the figures can be formed using all the pieces given in the problem figure. Problem figure:	(3)	The given pieces in the problem figure can be rearranged to form Option (3). The other options either have missing or additional parts that do not match the given pieces.
Q37: The sum of LCM and HCF of two numbers is 854. If the LCM is 60 times the HCF and one of the numbers is 70, then the other number is: (1) 160 (2) 164 (3) 168 (4) 172	(3) 168	Let the HCF be x, so the LCM is 60x. The sum of HCF and LCM is 854: x + 60x = 854 ⇒ 61x = 854 ⇒ x = 14. The LCM = 60 × 14 = 840. The product of the numbers is: HCF × LCM = 70 × other number = 14 × 840. Solving for the other number: other number = 11760 ÷ 70 = 168.
Q38: The difference of the greatest and the smallest of the fractions 1/2, 8/11, 7/8, 5/6 is: (1) 3/8 (2) 6/7 (3) 7/8 (4) 5/3	(2) 6/7	The greatest fraction is 7/8 and the smallest is 8/11. Convert to a common denominator to calculate the difference: 7/8 − 8/11 = 77/88 − 64/88 = 13/88.
Q39: The present age of Harish is 8 times the sum of the ages of his two sons. After 8 years, his age will be twice the sum of the ages of his two sons. The present age of Harish (in years) is: (1) 31 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 34	(4) 34	Let the sum of the ages of Harish’s two sons be x. Then Harish’s present age is 8x. After 8 years: Harish’s age will be 8x + 8, and the sum of his sons’ ages will be x + 16. Given that 8x + 8 = 2(x + 16), solve for x: 8x + 8 = 2x + 32 ⇒ 6x = 24 ⇒ x = 4. Harish’s present age: 8x = 8 × 4 = 34.
Q40: In a class of 40 students, the ratio of boys to girls is 3:2. The average marks scored by boys is 42, and that by girls is 46. What is the average marks scored by the whole class? (1) 43.4 (2) 43.6 (3) 43.8 (4) 44	(2) 43.6	Let the number of boys be 3x and the number of girls be 2x. Since 3x + 2x = 40, x = 8. Therefore, there are 24 boys and 16 girls. Total marks scored by boys: 24 × 42 = 1008. Total marks scored by girls: 16 × 46 = 736. Average marks scored by the whole class: (1008 + 736) ÷ 40 = 1744 ÷ 40 = 43.6.
Q41: In an examination, it is required to get 300 marks to pass. A student gets 225 marks and is declared fail by 10 percentage marks. What are the maximum marks of the examination? (1) 700 (2) 750 (3) 800 (4) 850	(2) 750	1. The student’s score is 10% less than the passing marks: 225 = 0.9 × 300. 2. To find the maximum marks: Maximum marks = 225 / 0.9 = 750.
Q42: A certain sum becomes Rs.2356 in 3 years and Rs.2660 in 5 years on simple interest. What is the value of the sum? (1) Rs.1800 (2) Rs.1880 (3) Rs.1900 (4) Rs.1980	(3) Rs.1900	1. The difference in interest over 2 years: 2660 − 2356 = 304. 2. Annual interest: 304 / 2 = 152. 3. Sum: 2356 − (3 × 152) = 1900.
Q43: The sum of three numbers is 136. If the ratio between the first number and the second number is 2:3, and that between the second and the third number is 5:3, then the first number is: (1) 42 (2) 40 (3) 36 (4) 32	(2) 40	1. Let the three numbers be 2y, 3y, and 3z. 2. Since 3y = 5z, y = 5z / 3. 3. Substitute into the sum equation: 2y + 3y + 3z = 136. 4. Simplify: 25z / 3 + 3z = 136 =⇒ 34z / 3 = 136. 5. Solving for z: z = 12. 6. Calculate y: y = 20. 7. The first number is 2y = 40.
Q44: In a square, the lengths of the diagonals are (4k + 6) cm and (7k − 3) cm. What is the area of the square (in cm²)? (1) 144 (2) 162 (3) 169 (4) 172	(3) 169	1. Since the diagonals of a square are equal: 4k + 6 = 7k − 3 =⇒ 3k = 9 =⇒ k = 3. 2. Substituting k = 3: Diagonal length = 18 cm. 3. Using the formula for the area of a square: Area = (1/2) × Diagonal² = 162 cm².
Q45: An item is sold for Rs.504 after allowing a 20% discount and still a profit of 5% has been earned. The marked price is how much more than the cost price? (1) Rs.120 (2) Rs.135 (3) Rs.150 (4) Rs.160	(3) Rs.150	1. Let the cost price be x. The selling price is 1.05x. 2. Given that the item is sold for Rs.504 after a 20% discount, calculate the marked price: 0.8 × Marked Price = 504 =⇒ Marked Price = 630. 3. From the selling price equation: 1.05x = 504 =⇒ x = 480. 4. The difference between the marked price and cost price: 630 − 480 = 150.
Q46: A train running at the speed of 80 km/h crosses a 350 m long tunnel in 36 seconds. What is the length of the train (in meters)? (1) 350 (2) 380 (3) 420 (4) 450	(3) 420	1. Convert speed to meters per second: 80 × 1000 / 3600 = 22.22 m/s. 2. Total distance covered in 36 seconds: 22.22 × 36 = 800 meters. 3. Subtract the tunnel length to find the train length: 800 − 350 = 450 meters.
Q47: The volume of a cylinder having a base radius of 3 cm is 396 cm³. Find its curved surface area (in cm²). (Use π = 22/7) (1) 280 (2) 301.5 (3) 264 (4) 320.6	(2) 301.5	1. Use the formula for the volume of a cylinder: V = πr²h. Substituting V = 396 and r = 3: 396 = π(3)²h =⇒ 396 = 9πh =⇒ h = 14 cm. 2. Curved Surface Area: CSA = 2πrh = 2 × π × 3 × 14 = 301.5 cm².
Q48: If the mean of 3, 4, 9, 2k, 10, 8, 6 and (k + 6) is 8, and the mode of 2, 2, 3, 2p, (2p + 1), 4, 4, 5 and 6 (where p is a natural number) is 4, then the value of k − 2p is: (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3	(1) 0	1. Calculate the mean of the first set: 3 + 4 + 9 + 2k + 10 + 8 + 6 + (k + 6) / 8 = 8. 2. Simplify: 46 + 3k = 64 =⇒ 3k = 18 =⇒ k = 6. 3. For the mode to be 4: 2p = 4 =⇒ p = 2. 4. Calculate k − 2p: k − 2p = 6 − 4 = 0.
Q49: If tan A = 4/3, then 3 − tan A(1/2 + cos A) is: (1) 3/2 (2) 13/3 (3) 3/4 (4) 3	(2) 13/3	1. Using tan A = 4/3, calculate cos A: tan A = opposite / adjacent =⇒ hypotenuse = 5. Thus, cos A = 3/5. 2. Substituting values into the expression: 3 − (4/3) × (1/2 + 3/5). 3. Simplify: 3 − (4/3) × (11/10) = 3 − 44/30 = 3 − 22/15 = (45 − 22)/15 = 13/3.
Q50: In triangle ABC, points D and E are on AB and AC, respectively, such that DE is parallel to BC. If AD = 6 cm, DB = 4 cm, and AE = 9 cm, then the length of EC (in cm) is: (1) 7 (2) 6.4 (3) 6 (4) 5.5	(2) 6.4	1. Since DE ∥ BC, by the Basic Proportionality Theorem (Thales’ theorem): AD / DB = AE / EC. 2. Substituting the values: 6 / 4 = 9 / EC. 3. Cross-multiply to solve for EC: EC = (4 × 9) / 6 = 6.4 cm.
Q51: A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely? (1) 4 hours (2) 5 hours (3) 3 hours 30 minutes (4) 3 hours 45 minutes	(4) 3 hours 45 minutes	1. The first tap fills half the tank in: 6 / 2 = 3 hours. 2. After that, four taps are opened, so the remaining half is filled at four times the rate: 3 / 4 = 0.75 hours. 3. Total time taken: 3 + 0.75 = 3.75 hours = 3 hours 45 minutes.
Q52: From the given options, which pass connects Jammu with Srinagar? (1) Banihal pass (2) Nathula pass (3) Rohtang pass (4) Khyber pass	(1) Banihal pass	The Banihal pass is located in the Pir Panjal range and connects Jammu with Srinagar. It is a vital route for transportation between these two regions.
Q53: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Person) List-II (Area of Work) (A) Vishakhadatta (II) Poet (B) Kartikeya Sarabhai (III) Environmentalist (C) Charaka (I) Medicine (D) Satyendra Nath Bose (IV) Mathematics (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)	(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)	1. Vishakhadatta was a renowned poet, so (A) → (II). 2. Kartikeya Sarabhai is an environmentalist, so (B) → (III). 3. Charaka is associated with medicine, so (C) → (I). 4. Satyendra Nath Bose was a mathematician, so (D) → (IV).
Q54: A man can row a boat at 8 km/h in still water. If the speed of the water current is 2 km/h and it takes him 2 hours to row to a place and come back, how far off (in km) is the place? (1) 7.5 (2) 6 (3) 9.5 (4) 10	(1) 7.5	1. Let d be the distance to the place. The speed downstream is: 8 + 2 = 10 km/h, and upstream is: 8 − 2 = 6 km/h. 2. Total time is given as 2 hours: d / 10 + d / 6 = 2. 3. Solve for d: 3d + 5d / 30 = 2 =⇒ 8d / 30 = 2 =⇒ d = (30 × 2) / 8 = 7.5 km.
Q55: Which of the following is not correctly matched regarding Padma Awards-2024? (1) Padma Vibhushan Award → Shri Konidela Chiranjeevi (2) Padma Shri Award → Mithun Chakraborty (3) Padma Bhushan Award → M. Fathima Beevi (4) Padma Bhushan Award → Sitaram Jindal	(2) Padma Shri Award → Mithun Chakraborty	Option (2) is not correctly matched. Mithun Chakraborty has not received the Padma Shri Award in 2024.
Q56: Out of the given options, which scheme’s objective is to conduct an annual survey at the gram panchayat level to monitor the progress in the development process of rural areas? (1) Mission Antyodaya (2022-23) (2) Mission Karmayogi (2022-23) (3) Mission Rashtriya Gokul (2022-23) (4) Mission Atmanirbhar Bharat (2022-23)	(1) Mission Antyodaya	Mission Antyodaya’s objective is to conduct an annual survey at the gram panchayat level to monitor progress in rural development.
Q57: Who has become the first woman chairperson of the Railway Board of Indian Railways in 2023? (1) Jaya Verma Sinha (2) Mita Vashishth (3) Ravneet Kaur (4) Vasudha Gupta	(1) Jaya Verma Sinha	The correct answer is Jaya Verma Sinha. She became the first woman chairperson of the Indian Railway Board in 2023.
Q58: The following states were formed after 1960. What was the correct sequence of their formation? (A) Haryana (B) Sikkim (C) Nagaland (D) Goa (1) (C), (B), (A), (D) (2) (C), (A), (B), (D) (3) (C), (D), (A), (B) (4) (D), (C), (A), (B)	(2) (C), (A), (B), (D)	The correct sequence of state formation is: 1. Nagaland was formed in 1963. 2. Haryana was formed in 1966. 3. Sikkim was formed in 1975. 4. Goa was formed in 1987.
Q59: Match List-I with List-II: List-I (Country) List-II (Currency) (A) Myanmar (III) Kyat (B) Russia (I) Ruble (C) Malaysia (IV) Ringgit (D) Bhutan (II) Ngultrum (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II) (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)	(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)	1. Myanmar uses the Kyat as its currency, so (A) → (III). 2. Russia uses the Ruble, so (B) → (I). 3. Malaysia uses the Ringgit, so (C) → (IV). 4. Bhutan uses the Ngultrum, so (D) → (II).
Q60: Which one of the following countries is not a member of the "Quadrilateral Security Dialogue", also known as "QUAD"? (1) China (2) Japan (3) India (4) Australia	(1) China	The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) is a strategic alliance between the United States, Japan, India, and Australia. China is not a member of QUAD.