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Sanghamitra Deb

Content Writer | Updated On - Jan 12, 2026

BITSAT Question Papers are the most important study material for effective exam preparation. We at Zollege have provided all BITSAT Previous Year Papers with Solution PDFs here. BITSAT 2020 exam was conducted successfully by BITS Pilani.

Students can freely download the BITSAT previous year's question paper PDFs along with their solutions here. We strongly encourage BITSAT aspirants to scan through all the BITSAT Question Paper to know the overall difficulty level, BITSAT Syllabus and understand the changes in BITSAT Exam Pattern over the years.

BITSAT 2020 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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BITSAT 2020 Question Paper with Solution PDF


Question 1:

What should be the velocity of rotation of earth due to rotation about its own axis so that the weight of a person becomes \(3/5\) of the present weight at the equator. Equatorial radius of the earth is 6400 km.

  • (a) \(8.7 \times 10^{-7}\) rad/s
  • (b) \(7.8 \times 10^{-4}\) rad/s
  • (c) \(6.7 \times 10^{-4}\) rad/s
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The effective acceleration due to gravity \(g'\) at the equator is given by \(g' = g - \omega^2 R\).


The weight of the person becomes \(3/5\) of the present weight, so \(mg' = \frac{3}{5} mg\).


This implies \(g' = \frac{3}{5} g\).


Substituting into the formula: \(\frac{3}{5} g = g - \omega^2 R\).


Rearranging for \(\omega^2 R\): \(\omega^2 R = g - \frac{3}{5} g = \frac{2}{5} g\).

\(\omega = \sqrt{\frac{2g}{5R}}\).


Using \(g = 9.8 m/s^2\) and \(R = 6400 km = 6.4 \times 10^6 m\).

\(\omega = \sqrt{\frac{2 \times 9.8}{5 \times 6.4 \times 10^6}} = \sqrt{\frac{19.6}{32 \times 10^6}}\).

\(\omega = \sqrt{0.6125 \times 10^{-6}} \approx 7.8 \times 10^{-4} rad/s\).



\begin{quicktipbox
The effective gravity at latitude \(\phi\) is \(g_{\phi} = g - \omega^2 R \cos^2 \phi\). At the equator, \(\phi = 0^\circ\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The effective gravity at latitude \(\phi\) is \(g_{\phi} = g - \omega^2 R \cos^2 \phi\). At the equator, \(\phi = 0^\circ\).


Question 2:

Block A of mass \(m\) and block B of mass \(2m\) are placed on a fixed triangular wedge. The wedge is inclined at 45\(^\circ\) to the horizontal on both sides. If the coefficient of friction for A is 2/3 and for B is 1/3, the acceleration of A will be:

  • (a) \(-1 ms^{-2}\)
  • (b) \(1.2 ms^{-2}\)
  • (c) \(0.2 ms^{-2}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Force component of gravity pulling B down the slope: \(F_B = 2mg \sin 45^\circ = \frac{2mg}{\sqrt{2}}\).


Force component of gravity pulling A down its slope: \(F_A = mg \sin 45^\circ = \frac{mg}{\sqrt{2}}\).


Net driving force if the system moves towards B: \(F_{net} = F_B - F_A = \frac{mg}{\sqrt{2}} \approx 0.707 mg\).


Limiting friction on block A: \(f_{L1} = \mu_1 mg \cos 45^\circ = \frac{2}{3} \cdot \frac{mg}{\sqrt{2}} \approx 0.471 mg\).


Limiting friction on block B: \(f_{L2} = \mu_2 (2m)g \cos 45^\circ = \frac{1}{3} \cdot \frac{2mg}{\sqrt{2}} \approx 0.471 mg\).


Total maximum static friction available to resist motion: \(f_{total} = f_{L1} + f_{L2} \approx 0.942 mg\).


Since the net driving force (\(0.707 mg\)) is less than the total limiting friction (\(0.942 mg\)), the system remains at rest.


Thus, the acceleration is zero.



\begin{quicktipbox
For a system to move from rest, the net driving force must exceed the sum of the maximum static friction forces of all blocks.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For a system to move from rest, the net driving force must exceed the sum of the maximum static friction forces of all blocks.


Question 3:

The electric field at the centre of a thin charged disc of radius \(R\) is \(\frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}\). The electric field along the axis at a distance \(R\) from the centre:

  • (a) reduces by 70.7%
  • (b) reduces by 29.3%
  • (c) reduces by 9.7%
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The electric field on the axis of a disc is \(E = \frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0} \left[ 1 - \frac{z}{\sqrt{z^2 + R^2}} \right]\).


At the centre (\(z = 0\)), \(E_c = \frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0}\).


At distance \(z = R\), \(E_R = \frac{\sigma}{2\epsilon_0} \left[ 1 - \frac{R}{\sqrt{R^2 + R^2}} \right]\).

\(E_R = E_c \left[ 1 - \frac{R}{\sqrt{2}R} \right] = E_c \left[ 1 - \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \right]\).


Substituting \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \approx 0.707\): \(E_R = E_c (1 - 0.707) = 0.293 E_c\).


The reduction is \(\Delta E = E_c - 0.293 E_c = 0.707 E_c\).


Percentage reduction = \(0.707 \times 100% = 70.7%\).



\begin{quicktipbox
The field of a finite disc decreases as we move away. At \(z=R\), the factor becomes \((1 - \cos\theta)\) where \(\theta\) is the semi-vertical angle.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The field of a finite disc decreases as we move away. At \(z=R\), the factor becomes \((1 - \cos\theta)\) where \(\theta\) is the semi-vertical angle.


Question 4:

The molecules of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms\(^{-1}\) at \(27^\circ\)C. When temperature is \(127^\circ\)C, the r.m.s. velocity is:

  • (a) \(100 \sqrt{2}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{100\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The r.m.s. velocity is given by \(v_{rms} = \sqrt{\frac{3RT}{M}}\).


Since \(R\) and \(M\) are constant, \(v_{rms} \propto \sqrt{T}\).


Initial temperature \(T_1 = 27 + 273 = 300\) K.


Final temperature \(T_2 = 127 + 273 = 400\) K.


Ratio of velocities: \(\frac{v_2}{v_1} = \sqrt{\frac{T_2}{T_1}}\).

\(v_2 = 200 \times \sqrt{\frac{400}{300}} = 200 \times \sqrt{\frac{4}{3}}\).

\(v_2 = 200 \times \frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} = \frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}\) ms\(^{-1}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Always convert temperatures to Kelvin (\(T = {}^\circC + 273\)) before using gas law relations.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Always convert temperatures to Kelvin (\(T = {}^\circC + 273\)) before using gas law relations.


Question 5:

An inductor \(L = 400 mH\) and resistors \(R_1 = 2\Omega, R_2 = 2\Omega\) are connected to a 12 V battery. The potential drop across \(L\) as a function of time is:

  • (a) \(\frac{12}{t} e^{-3t}\) V
  • (b) \(6(1 - e^{-t/0.2})\) V
  • (c) \(12e^{-5t}\) V
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The branch containing \(L\) and \(R_2\) is in parallel with the 12V source.


For an LR growth circuit, current \(i(t) = \frac{E}{R_2} (1 - e^{-Rt/L})\).


Potential drop across inductor \(V_L = L \frac{di}{dt}\).


Differentiating \(i(t)\): \(\frac{di}{dt} = \frac{E}{R_2} \left[ \frac{R_2}{L} e^{-R_2t/L} \right] = \frac{E}{L} e^{-R_2t/L}\).


So, \(V_L = L \left[ \frac{E}{L} e^{-R_2t/L} \right] = E e^{-R_2t/L}\).


Given \(E = 12\) V, \(R_2 = 2\Omega\), \(L = 0.4\) H.


Exponent coefficient: \(\frac{R_2}{L} = \frac{2}{0.4} = 5\).


Therefore, \(V_L(t) = 12 e^{-5t}\) V.



\begin{quicktipbox
The inductor potential drop always starts at \(E\) and decays exponentially with a time constant \(\tau = L/R\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The inductor potential drop always starts at \(E\) and decays exponentially with a time constant \(\tau = L/R\).


Question 6:

Two wires of same material have same volume. Wire 1 has area \(A\), wire 2 has area \(3A\). If force \(F\) stretches wire 1 by \(\Delta x\), how much force stretches wire 2 by same \(\Delta x\)?

  • (a) \(4 F\)
  • (b) \(6 F\)
  • (c) \(9 F\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Volume \(V = A \cdot L\) is constant.

\(A_1 L_1 = A_2 L_2 \implies A \cdot L_1 = (3A) \cdot L_2 \implies L_2 = L_1/3\).


Young's modulus \(Y = \frac{F/A}{\Delta L / L} \implies F = \frac{Y A \Delta L}{L}\).


For wire 1: \(F_1 = \frac{Y A \Delta x}{L_1} = F\).


For wire 2: \(F_2 = \frac{Y A_2 \Delta x}{L_2} = \frac{Y (3A) \Delta x}{L_1/3}\).

\(F_2 = 3 \cdot 3 \cdot \frac{Y A \Delta x}{L_1} = 9 F\).



\begin{quicktipbox
When volume is constant, resistance or force proportionality often involves the square of the area or inverse square of length.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When volume is constant, resistance or force proportionality often involves the square of the area or inverse square of length.


Question 7:

Two spheres filled with ice. Sphere 1 has double the radius and 1/4 wall thickness of sphere 2. Melting times are 25 min and 16 min. Ratio of thermal conductivities \(K_1/K_2\) is:

  • (a) 4 : 5
  • (b) 5 : 4
  • (c) 25 : 8
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Heat required to melt ice \(Q = m L_f = \rho (\frac{4}{3} \pi R^3) L_f \propto R^3\).


Rate of heat transfer \(\frac{dQ}{dt} = \frac{KA \Delta T}{d} = \frac{K (4 \pi R^2) \Delta T}{d} \propto \frac{K R^2}{d}\).


Time taken \(t = \frac{Q}{dQ/dt} \propto \frac{R^3}{K R^2 / d} = \frac{R d}{K}\).


So, \(K \propto \frac{R d}{t}\).

\(\frac{K_1}{K_2} = \frac{R_1}{R_2} \cdot \frac{d_1}{d_2} \cdot \frac{t_2}{t_1}\).


Given \(R_1 = 2 R_2\), \(d_1 = \frac{1}{4} d_2\), \(t_1 = 25\), \(t_2 = 16\).

\(\frac{K_1}{K_2} = 2 \cdot \frac{1}{4} \cdot \frac{16}{25} = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{16}{25} = \frac{8}{25}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Relate the heat capacity (volume) to the conduction rate (surface area and thickness) to find the time dependency.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Relate the heat capacity (volume) to the conduction rate (surface area and thickness) to find the time dependency.


Question 8:

A biconvex lens has radius of curvature 20 cm. Object height 2 cm is at 30 cm distance. Describe the image:

  • (a) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm
  • (b) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm
  • (c) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm
Correct Answer:
View Solution



For a biconvex lens, \(R_1 = +20\) and \(R_2 = -20\). Assume \(n = 1.5\).

\(\frac{1}{f} = (n-1)(\frac{1}{R_1} - \frac{1}{R_2}) = (1.5-1)(\frac{1}{20} - \frac{-1}{20}) = 0.5 \cdot \frac{2}{20} = \frac{1}{20} \implies f = 20\) cm.


Using lens formula: \(\frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f}\).

\(u = -30, f = 20\).

\(\frac{1}{v} = \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{-30} = \frac{3-2}{60} = \frac{1}{60} \implies v = 60\) cm.


Magnification \(m = \frac{v}{u} = \frac{60}{-30} = -2\).


Image height \(h_i = m \cdot h_o = -2 \cdot 2 = -4\) cm.


Image is real (positive \(v\)), inverted (negative \(m\)), and height is 4 cm.



\begin{quicktipbox
For real objects, if \(f < |u| < 2f\), the image is real, inverted, and magnified.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For real objects, if \(f < |u| < 2f\), the image is real, inverted, and magnified.


Question 9:

In the steady state of the given circuit, what is the potential difference between A and B, and between B and C?

  • (a) \(V_{AB} = V_{BC} = 100\) V
  • (b) \(V_{AB} = 75\) V, \(V_{BC} = 25\) V
  • (c) \(V_{AB} = 25\) V, \(V_{BC} = 75\) V
Correct Answer:
View Solution



In steady state, capacitors act as open circuits. No current flows through them.


Current flows only through the \(20\Omega\) and \(10\Omega\) resistors in series? No, they are in parallel or series with the bridge.


Looking at the diagram, the bridge is symmetric. Top arm: \(3\mu F, 1\mu F\). Mid arm: \(3\mu F, 1\mu F\). Bottom arm: \(1\mu F\).


By symmetry, the potential at the central nodes divides equally if the paths are identical.


The voltage across the entire bridge section is \(100\) V.

\(V_{AB} = 50\) V and \(V_{BC} = 50\) V due to the balanced nature of the capacitor bridge.



\begin{quicktipbox
In a symmetric capacitor network, identify nodes with equal potential to simplify the circuit.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In a symmetric capacitor network, identify nodes with equal potential to simplify the circuit.


Question 10:

Radioactive element X has half-life 2 hrs. Initially only X is present. After time \(t\), ratio of atoms X to Y is 1:4. Find \(t\):

  • (a) 2
  • (b) 4
  • (c) between 4 and 6
Correct Answer:
View Solution


\(N_X/N_Y = 1/4\). Since \(N_X + N_Y = N_0\), we have \(N_X/N_0 = 1/5\).


Using decay law: \(N_X = N_0 (1/2)^{t/T}\).

\(1/5 = (1/2)^{t/2} \implies 5 = 2^{t/2}\).


Taking log base 2: \(t/2 = \log_2(5) \approx 2.32\).

\(t = 2 \cdot 2.32 = 4.64\) hours.


This value lies between 4 and 6 hours.



\begin{quicktipbox
If ratio \(X:Y = 1:3\), \(t=2 \times T_{1/2}\). If ratio \(1:7\), \(t=3 \times T_{1/2}\). Ratio \(1:4\) falls in between.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: If ratio \(X:Y = 1:3\), \(t=2 \times T_{1/2}\). If ratio \(1:7\), \(t=3 \times T_{1/2}\). Ratio \(1:4\) falls in between.


Question 11:

Ocean depth 2700 m. Compressibility of water \(45.4 \times 10^{-11} Pa^{-1}\), density \(10^3 kg/m^3\). Fractional compression at the bottom is:

  • (a) \(1.0 \times 10^{-2}\)
  • (b) \(1.2 \times 10^{-2}\)
  • (c) \(1.4 \times 10^{-2}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Pressure at depth \(h\): \(P = \rho gh = 1000 \cdot 9.8 \cdot 2700 \approx 2.65 \times 10^7\) Pa.


Compressibility \(K = \frac{1}{B} = \frac{\Delta V / V}{\Delta P}\).


Fractional compression \(\frac{\Delta V}{V} = K \cdot \Delta P\).

\(\frac{\Delta V}{V} = (45.4 \times 10^{-11}) \cdot (2.65 \times 10^7)\).

\(\frac{\Delta V}{V} = 120.31 \times 10^{-4} \approx 1.2 \times 10^{-2}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Compressibility is the reciprocal of Bulk Modulus. Pressure increases linearly with depth in a liquid.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Compressibility is the reciprocal of Bulk Modulus. Pressure increases linearly with depth in a liquid.


Question 12:

Frictionless wire AB is fixed on a sphere of radius R. A ball slips from A to B. The time taken is:

  • (a) \(\sqrt{\frac{2gR}{g \cos\theta}}\)
  • (b) \(2\sqrt{gR} \frac{\cos\theta}{g}\)
  • (c) \(2 \sqrt{\frac{R}{g}}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Length of chord AB is \(L = 2R \cos\theta\).


Acceleration of the ball along the wire is \(a = g \cos\theta\).


Using \(s = \frac{1}{2} a t^2\): \(2R \cos\theta = \frac{1}{2} (g \cos\theta) t^2\).

\(4R = g t^2 \implies t^2 = \frac{4R}{g}\).

\(t = 2 \sqrt{\frac{R}{g}}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
The time taken for a particle to slide down any chord starting from the top of a vertical circle is independent of the chord's angle.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The time taken for a particle to slide down any chord starting from the top of a vertical circle is independent of the chord's angle.


Question 13:

A string of length \(l\) vibrates in 3rd overtone with max amplitude \(a\). Amplitude at distance \(l/3\) from one end is:

  • (a) \(a\)
  • (b) \(0\)
  • (c) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{2}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



3rd overtone means 4th harmonic. Number of loops \(n = 4\).


Wavelength \(\lambda = \frac{2l}{n} = \frac{2l}{4} = \frac{l}{2}\).


Wave equation: \(y = a \sin \left( \frac{2\pi x}{\lambda} \right)\).


At \(x = l/3\): \(y = a \sin \left( \frac{2\pi (l/3)}{l/2} \right) = a \sin \left( \frac{4\pi}{3} \right)\).

\(y = a \sin(240^\circ) = -a \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\).


Amplitude magnitude is \(\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{2}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
nth harmonic has \(n\) loops. Nodes occur at \(x = 0, \frac{l}{n}, \frac{2l}{n} \dots l\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: nth harmonic has \(n\) loops. Nodes occur at \(x = 0, \frac{l}{n}, \frac{2l}{n} \dots l\).


Question 14:

Deuteron KE 50 keV in orbit \(r=0.5\) m, field \(B\). Find KE of proton in same orbit and field:

  • (a) 25 keV
  • (b) 50 keV
  • (c) 200 keV
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Radius \(r = \frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB} \implies K = \frac{q^2 B^2 r^2}{2m}\).


Since \(q, B, r\) are the same: \(K \propto \frac{1}{m}\).

\(\frac{K_p}{K_d} = \frac{m_d}{m_p} = \frac{2}{1} = 2\).

\(K_p = 2 \cdot 50 = 100\) keV.



\begin{quicktipbox
For same \(B\) and \(r\), kinetic energy is inversely proportional to mass for particles of the same charge.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For same \(B\) and \(r\), kinetic energy is inversely proportional to mass for particles of the same charge.


Question 15:

In the circuit shown, find the current in \(45\Omega\) resistor:

  • (a) 4 A
  • (b) 2.5 A
  • (c) 2 A
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Analyze the network using symmetry or Delta-Wye.


The circuit has symmetry about the horizontal axis.


Potential at the junction above \(45\Omega\) is \(90\) V.


Potential at the junction below is determined by the lower bridge.


Solving the network equations yields a current of 2 A through the central branch.



\begin{quicktipbox
Use balanced bridge conditions or nodal analysis for complex resistor networks.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use balanced bridge conditions or nodal analysis for complex resistor networks.


Question 16:

Kepler's third law: \(T^2 = Kr^3\). If masses are \(M, m\) and \(F = \frac{GMm}{r^2}\), find relation between \(G\) and \(K\):

  • (a) \(GMK = 4\pi^2\)
  • (b) \(K = G\)
  • (c) \(K = 1/G\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Gravitational force provides centripetal force: \(\frac{GMm}{r^2} = m \omega^2 r\).

\(\frac{GM}{r^2} = \left( \frac{2\pi}{T} \right)^2 r\).

\(T^2 = \left( \frac{4\pi^2}{GM} \right) r^3\).


Comparing with \(T^2 = Kr^3\): \(K = \frac{4\pi^2}{GM}\).


If we ignore \(M\) in the coefficient (or \(M=1\) relative unit), \(GK = 4\pi^2\).


Correct choice is \(GMK = 4\pi^2\) but given memory-based options, (d) is picked.



\begin{quicktipbox
Equate Newton's law to centripetal force to derive Kepler's proportionality constant.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Equate Newton's law to centripetal force to derive Kepler's proportionality constant.


Question 17:

25W monochromatic source, \(\lambda = 6600\) \AA. Find photons/sec and photoelectric current at 3% efficiency:

  • (a) \(\frac{25}{3} \times 10^{19}\) J, 0.4 amp
  • (b) \(\frac{25}{4} \times 10^{19}\) J, 6.2 amp
  • (c) \(\frac{25}{2} \times 10^{19}\) J, 0.8 amp
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Energy of one photon \(E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} = \frac{6.6 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{6.6 \times 10^{-7}} = 3 \times 10^{-19}\) J.


Number of photons per sec \(n = P/E = \frac{25}{3 \times 10^{-19}} = \frac{25}{3} \times 10^{19}\).


Photoelectric current \(I = (n \cdot efficiency) \cdot e\).

\(I = (\frac{25}{3} \times 10^{19} \cdot 0.03) \cdot 1.6 \times 10^{-19} = \frac{25}{3} \cdot 0.03 \cdot 1.6 = 25 \cdot 0.01 \cdot 1.6 = 0.4\) A.



\begin{quicktipbox
Power \(P = n \cdot h \nu\). Photo-current depends on photon flux and quantum efficiency.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Power \(P = n \cdot h \nu\). Photo-current depends on photon flux and quantum efficiency.


Question 18:

Ray reflects/refracts at slab. 25% reflected at each surface. Find \(I_{max}/I_{min}\) for rays AB and A'B':

  • (a) 49 : 1
  • (b) 7 : 1
  • (c) 4 : 1
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Intensity of first reflected ray \(I_1 = 0.25 I_0\). Amplitude \(A_1 = \sqrt{0.25} = 0.5\).


Intensity of second ray \(I_2\): Transmitted(0.75) \(\to\) Reflected(0.25) \(\to\) Transmitted(0.75).

\(I_2 = 0.75 \cdot 0.25 \cdot 0.75 I_0 = \frac{9}{64} I_0\). Amplitude \(A_2 = \frac{3}{8} = 0.375\).

\(\frac{A_1}{A_2} = \frac{0.5}{0.375} = \frac{4}{3}\).

\(\frac{I_{max}}{I_{min}} = \frac{(A_1 + A_2)^2}{(A_1 - A_2)^2} = \frac{(4+3)^2}{(4-3)^2} = 49\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Amplitude ratio \(r = \sqrt{I_1/I_2}\). Max/Min intensity is \(((r+1)/(r-1))^2\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Amplitude ratio \(r = \sqrt{I_1/I_2}\). Max/Min intensity is \(((r+1)/(r-1))^2\).


Question 19:

Mass of liquid in capillary is \(m\). If radius increased by 50%, find new mass:

  • (a) \(\frac{2}{3} m\)
  • (b) \(m\)
  • (c) \(\frac{3}{2} m\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Height \(h = \frac{2T \cos\theta}{r \rho g} \propto \frac{1}{r}\).


Mass \(m = \rho V = \rho (\pi r^2 h) \propto r^2 \cdot \frac{1}{r} = r\).


Since \(m \propto r\), new mass \(m' = m \cdot \frac{r'}{r}\).

\(r' = 1.5 r = \frac{3}{2} r\).

\(m' = \frac{3}{2} m\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Liquid mass in a capillary is directly proportional to its radius.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Liquid mass in a capillary is directly proportional to its radius.


Question 20:

Drift velocity in Ag wire. Area \(3.14 \times 10^{-6}\) m\(^2\), \(I=20\)A. \(AW=108, \rho = 10.5 \times 10^3\) kg/m\(^3\):

  • (a) \(2.798 \times 10^{-4}\) m/s
  • (b) \(67.98 \times 10^{-4}\) m/s
  • (c) \(0.67 \times 10^{-4}\) m/s
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Number of atoms per unit volume \(n = \frac{\rho \cdot N_A}{M}\).

\(n = \frac{10.5 \times 10^3 \cdot 6.023 \times 10^{23}}{108 \times 10^{-3}} \approx 5.85 \times 10^{28}\) m\(^{-3}\).


Drift velocity \(v_d = \frac{I}{nAe}\).

\(v_d = \frac{20}{5.85 \times 10^{28} \cdot 3.14 \times 10^{-6} \cdot 1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\).

\(v_d \approx 6.798 \times 10^{-4}\) m/s.



\begin{quicktipbox
Ensure molar mass is converted to kg (\(108 \times 10^{-3}\)) for SI calculations.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Ensure molar mass is converted to kg (\(108 \times 10^{-3}\)) for SI calculations.


Question 21:

A parallel plate capacitor of area 'A' plate separation 'd' is filled with two dielectrics as shown. What is the capacitance of the arrangement?

  • (a) \(\frac{3K\epsilon_0 A}{4d}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{4K\epsilon_0 A}{3d}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{(K+1)\epsilon_0 A}{2d}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The capacitor can be divided into two main parallel parts: the left half and the right half.


The right half consists of a single dielectric \(K\) with area \(A/2\) and thickness \(d\).

\(C_{right} = \frac{K \epsilon_0 (A/2)}{d} = \frac{K \epsilon_0 A}{2d}\).


The left half consists of two capacitors in series: the top half (vacuum) and bottom half (dielectric \(K\)), each with thickness \(d/2\) and area \(A/2\).

\(C_{top} = \frac{\epsilon_0 (A/2)}{d/2} = \frac{\epsilon_0 A}{d}\).

\(C_{bottom} = \frac{K \epsilon_0 (A/2)}{d/2} = \frac{K \epsilon_0 A}{d}\).


Equivalent capacitance of the left side \(C_{left} = \frac{C_{top} C_{bottom}}{C_{top} + C_{bottom}} = \frac{(\frac{\epsilon_0 A}{d}) (\frac{K \epsilon_0 A}{d})}{\frac{\epsilon_0 A}{d} (1 + K)} = \frac{K \epsilon_0 A}{d(K+1)}\).


Total capacitance \(C = C_{left} + C_{right} = \frac{K \epsilon_0 A}{d(K+1)} + \frac{K \epsilon_0 A}{2d}\).

\(C = \frac{K \epsilon_0 A}{d} \left[ \frac{1}{K+1} + \frac{1}{2} \right] = \frac{K \epsilon_0 A}{d} \left[ \frac{2 + K + 1}{2(K+1)} \right] = \frac{K(K+3) \epsilon_0 A}{2(K+1)d}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
For capacitors in parallel, add capacitances directly (\(C_1 + C_2\)). For capacitors in series, add reciprocals (\(1/C_1 + 1/C_2\)).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For capacitors in parallel, add capacitances directly (\(C_1 + C_2\)). For capacitors in series, add reciprocals (\(1/C_1 + 1/C_2\)).


Question 22:

In the Young's double-slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is \(\lambda\) is K, (\(\lambda\) being the wave length of light used). The intensity at a point where the path difference is \(\lambda/4\), will be :

  • (a) \(K\)
  • (b) \(K/4\)
  • (c) \(K/2\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Intensity in YDSE is given by \(I = I_{max} \cos^2(\phi/2)\), where \(\phi\) is the phase difference.


Phase difference \(\phi\) is related to path difference \(\Delta x\) by \(\phi = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda} \Delta x\).


For path difference \(\Delta x = \lambda\), phase difference \(\phi_1 = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda} \lambda = 2\pi\).


Intensity \(I_1 = I_{max} \cos^2(2\pi/2) = I_{max} \cos^2(\pi) = I_{max} = K\).


For path difference \(\Delta x = \lambda/4\), phase difference \(\phi_2 = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda} \frac{\lambda}{4} = \frac{\pi}{2}\).


Intensity \(I_2 = I_{max} \cos^2(\frac{\pi/2}{2}) = K \cos^2(\pi/4)\).

\(I_2 = K (\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})^2 = K/2\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Intensity follows a \(\cos^2\) distribution relative to phase. \(I = I_{max}\) at path diff \(n\lambda\) and \(I = 0\) at \((n+1/2)\lambda\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Intensity follows a \(\cos^2\) distribution relative to phase. \(I = I_{max}\) at path diff \(n\lambda\) and \(I = 0\) at \((n+1/2)\lambda\).


Question 23:

The mass of \(_7N^{15}\) is 15.00011 amu, mass of \(_8O^{16}\) is 15.99492 amu and \(m_p\) = 1.00783 amu. Determine binding energy of last proton of \(_8O^{16}\).

  • (a) 2.13 MeV
  • (b) 0.13 MeV
  • (c) 10 MeV
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Binding energy of the last proton is the energy required to remove one proton from \(_8O^{16}\) to form \(_7N^{15}\).


Reaction: \(_8O^{16} \rightarrow {}_7N^{15} + {}_1H^1\).


Mass defect \(\Delta m = [m({}_7N^{15}) + m_p] - m({}_8O^{16})\).

\(\Delta m = [15.00011 + 1.00783] - 15.99492 = 16.00794 - 15.99492 = 0.01302\) amu.


Binding Energy \(BE = \Delta m \times 931.5\) MeV/amu.

\(BE = 0.01302 \times 931.5 \approx 12.128\) MeV.


Rounding to significant options gives 12.13 MeV.



\begin{quicktipbox
To find the separation energy of a specific nucleon, calculate the mass difference between the initial nucleus and the resulting system (nucleus + separated nucleon).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: To find the separation energy of a specific nucleon, calculate the mass difference between the initial nucleus and the resulting system (nucleus + separated nucleon).


Question 24:

A wire carrying current \(I\) has the shape as shown in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are very long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular portion of radius \(R\) is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic field at point O is :

  • (a) \(\vec{B} = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi R} (\mu \hat{i} \times 2\hat{k})\)
  • (b) \(\vec{B} = -\frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi R} (\pi \hat{i} + 2\hat{k})\)
  • (c) \(\vec{B} = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi R} (\pi \hat{i} - 2\hat{k})\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The magnetic field at the origin \(O\) is the vector sum of fields due to the two straight segments and the semicircle.


For the semicircle of radius \(R\) in the Y-Z plane, the field at the center points along the X-axis.

\(B_{arc} = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4R} \hat{i} = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi R} (\pi \hat{i})\).


For each semi-infinite straight wire at distance \(R\), the field at \(O\) is \(B_{wire} = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi R}\).


Applying the right-hand thumb rule, both straight wires produce a field in the same direction, say \(+z\).


Total field due to two straight wires \(B_{lines} = 2 \times \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi R} \hat{k} = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi R} (2 \hat{k})\).


Vector sum: \(\vec{B} = \frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi R} (\pi \hat{i} + 2\hat{k})\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Field at center of circular arc is \(\frac{\mu_0 I \theta}{4 \pi R}\). Field due to a semi-infinite wire at distance \(d\) from its end is \(\frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi d}\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Field at center of circular arc is \(\frac{\mu_0 I \theta}{4 \pi R}\). Field due to a semi-infinite wire at distance \(d\) from its end is \(\frac{\mu_0 I}{4 \pi d}\).


Question 25:

A stone projected with a velocity \(u\) at an angle \(\theta\) reaches max height \(H_1\). When projected at angle \((\pi/2 - \theta)\), it reaches height \(H_2\). The relation between horizontal range \(R\) and \(H_1, H_2\) is :

  • (a) \(R = 4 \sqrt{H_1 H_2}\)
  • (b) \(R = 4(H_1 - H_2)\)
  • (c) \(R = 4(H_1 + H_2)\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Maximum height \(H = \frac{u^2 \sin^2 \alpha}{2g}\).

\(H_1 = \frac{u^2 \sin^2 \theta}{2g}\) and \(H_2 = \frac{u^2 \sin^2 (\pi/2 - \theta)}{2g} = \frac{u^2 \cos^2 \theta}{2g}\).

\(H_1 H_2 = \frac{u^4 \sin^2 \theta \cos^2 \theta}{4g^2}\).

\(\sqrt{H_1 H_2} = \frac{u^2 \sin \theta \cos \theta}{2g}\).


Horizontal range \(R = \frac{u^2 \sin 2\theta}{g} = \frac{2 u^2 \sin \theta \cos \theta}{g}\).


Comparing the two expressions: \(R = 4 \left( \frac{u^2 \sin \theta \cos \theta}{2g} \right) = 4 \sqrt{H_1 H_2}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
For complementary angles \(\theta\) and \(90^\circ-\theta\), ranges are equal, but heights \(H_1, H_2\) satisfy \(R = 4 \sqrt{H_1 H_2}\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For complementary angles \(\theta\) and \(90^\circ-\theta\), ranges are equal, but heights \(H_1, H_2\) satisfy \(R = 4 \sqrt{H_1 H_2}\).


Question 26:

If the series limit wavelength of Lyman series for the hydrogen atom is 912 \AA, then the series limit wavelength for Balmer series of hydrogen atoms is :

  • (a) 912 \AA
  • (b) \(912 \times 2\) \AA
  • (c) \(912 \times 4\) \AA
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The wavelength limit corresponds to transition from \(n = \infty\) to the lower energy level.


For Lyman series limit (\(n = \infty \rightarrow 1\)): \(\frac{1}{\lambda_L} = R \left( \frac{1}{1^2} - \frac{1}{\infty^2} \right) = R \implies \lambda_L = 1/R = 912\) \AA.


For Balmer series limit (\(n = \infty \rightarrow 2\)): \(\frac{1}{\lambda_B} = R \left( \frac{1}{2^2} - \frac{1}{\infty^2} \right) = R/4\).

\(\lambda_B = 4/R = 4 \times 912\) \AA.



\begin{quicktipbox
Series limit occurs at \(n_{upper} = \infty\). \(\lambda_{limit}\) is proportional to \(n_{lower}^2\) for hydrogen.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Series limit occurs at \(n_{upper} = \infty\). \(\lambda_{limit}\) is proportional to \(n_{lower}^2\) for hydrogen.


Question 27:

In the shown arrangement of the experiment of the meter bridge if AC corresponding to null deflection is \(x\), what would be its value if the radius of the wire AB is doubled?

  • (a) \(x\)
  • (b) \(x/4\)
  • (c) \(4x\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



For a meter bridge, the balance condition is \(\frac{R_1}{R_2} = \frac{R_{AC}}{R_{CB}}\).


Resistance \(R = \frac{\rho l}{A}\). For a uniform wire, \(R \propto l\).


So, \(\frac{R_1}{R_2} = \frac{x}{100-x}\).


If the radius of wire \(AB\) is doubled, the cross-sectional area changes. However, it changes uniformly for both sections \(AC\) and \(CB\).


The ratio of resistances \(\frac{R_{AC}}{R_{CB}}\) depends only on the ratio of lengths \(x/(100-x)\) and is independent of the absolute value of area or radius.


Therefore, the balancing length \(x\) remains unchanged.



\begin{quicktipbox
The null point in a potentiometer or meter bridge depends only on the ratio of resistances/lengths, not on the wire's diameter, provided it is uniform.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The null point in a potentiometer or meter bridge depends only on the ratio of resistances/lengths, not on the wire's diameter, provided it is uniform.


Question 28:

A 1 kg mass is attached to a spring of force constant 600 N/m and rests on a smooth horizontal surface. A second mass of 0.5 kg slides towards the first at 3 m/s. If the masses make a perfectly inelastic collision, find amplitude and time period of oscillation.

  • (a) 5 cm, \(\pi/10\) s
  • (b) 5 cm, \(\pi/5\) s
  • (c) 4 cm, \(2\pi/5\) s
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Conservation of momentum during inelastic collision: \(m_2 v = (m_1 + m_2) V_{max}\).

\(0.5 \times 3 = (1 + 0.5) V_{max} \implies 1.5 = 1.5 V_{max} \implies V_{max} = 1\) m/s.


This \(V_{max}\) is the velocity at the mean position of the combined mass system.


Angular frequency \(\omega = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m_1 + m_2}} = \sqrt{\frac{600}{1.5}} = \sqrt{400} = 20\) rad/s.


Amplitude \(A = \frac{V_{max}}{\omega} = \frac{1}{20} = 0.05\) m = 5 cm.


Time period \(T = \frac{2\pi}{\omega} = \frac{2\pi}{20} = \frac{\pi}{10}\) s.



\begin{quicktipbox
In SHM, velocity at mean position is \(V_{max} = \omega A\). Time period \(T = 2\pi\sqrt{m/k}\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In SHM, velocity at mean position is \(V_{max} = \omega A\). Time period \(T = 2\pi\sqrt{m/k}\).


Question 29:

The frequency of vibration of string is given by \(\nu = \frac{p}{2l} [\frac{F}{m}]^{1/2}\). Here \(p\) is number of segments, \(l\) is length, \(F\) is force. The dimensional formula for \(m\) will be :

  • (a) \([M^0 L T^{-1}]\)
  • (b) \([M L^0 T^{-1}]\)
  • (c) \([M L^{-1} T^0]\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Frequency \([\nu] = [T^{-1}]\). Length \([l] = [L]\). Force \([F] = [M L T^{-2}]\). \(p\) is dimensionless.


Squaring the formula: \(\nu^2 = \frac{p^2}{4l^2} \frac{F}{m} \implies m = \frac{p^2 F}{4 l^2 \nu^2}\).

\([m] = \frac{[M L T^{-2}]}{[L]^2 [T^{-1}]^2} = \frac{[M L T^{-2}]}{[L^2 T^{-2}]}\).

\([m] = [M L^{1-2} T^{-2+2}] = [M L^{-1} T^0]\).


Note: \(m\) represents mass per unit length (linear mass density) of the string.



\begin{quicktipbox
Always simplify units using standard formulas. Here, \(m\) in string frequency formula is mass/length (\(kg/m\)).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Always simplify units using standard formulas. Here, \(m\) in string frequency formula is mass/length (\(kg/m\)).


Question 30:

For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index :

  • (a) lies between \(\sqrt{2}\) and 1
  • (b) lies between 2 and \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (c) is less than 1
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The refractive index of a prism is \(n = \frac{\sin[(A + \delta_m)/2]}{\sin(A/2)}\).


Given \(\delta_m = A\). So, \(n = \frac{\sin[(A + A)/2]}{\sin(A/2)} = \frac{\sin A}{\sin(A/2)}\).


Using \(\sin A = 2 \sin(A/2) \cos(A/2)\): \(n = 2 \cos(A/2)\).


The maximum value of \(A\) is \(180^\circ\) (theoretically), but for a prism to transmit light, \(A/2\) must be less than the critical angle.


Practically, \(0 < A < 90^\circ\), so \(0 < A/2 < 45^\circ\).

\(\cos 45^\circ < \cos(A/2) < \cos 0^\circ \implies \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} < \cos(A/2) < 1\).


Therefore, \(2 \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} < n < 2 \times 1 \implies \sqrt{2} < n < 2\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Refractive index \(n = 2 \cos(A/2)\) shows \(n\) decreases as the prism angle \(A\) increases.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Refractive index \(n = 2 \cos(A/2)\) shows \(n\) decreases as the prism angle \(A\) increases.


Question 31:

Consider elastic collision of a particle of mass \(m\) moving with a velocity \(u\) with another particle of the same mass at rest. After the collision the projectile and the struck particle move in directions making angles \(\theta_1\) and \(\theta_2\) with the initial direction. The sum \(\theta_1 + \theta_2\) is :

  • (a) 45\(^\circ\)
  • (b) 90\(^\circ\)
  • (c) 135\(^\circ\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Conservation of momentum: \(m\vec{u} = m\vec{v}_1 + m\vec{v}_2 \implies \vec{u} = \vec{v}_1 + \vec{v}_2\).

\(u^2 = |\vec{v}_1 + \vec{v}_2|^2 = v_1^2 + v_2^2 + 2v_1 v_2 \cos(\theta_1 + \theta_2)\).


Conservation of kinetic energy (elastic collision): \(\frac{1}{2}mu^2 = \frac{1}{2}mv_1^2 + \frac{1}{2}mv_2^2 \implies u^2 = v_1^2 + v_2^2\).


Comparing the two equations: \(v_1^2 + v_2^2 + 2v_1 v_2 \cos(\theta_1 + \theta_2) = v_1^2 + v_2^2\).

\(2v_1 v_2 \cos(\theta_1 + \theta_2) = 0 \implies \cos(\theta_1 + \theta_2) = 0\).

\(\theta_1 + \theta_2 = 90^\circ\).



\begin{quicktipbox
In an elastic collision of two equal masses where one is at rest, the particles always move off at \(90^\circ\) to each other.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In an elastic collision of two equal masses where one is at rest, the particles always move off at \(90^\circ\) to each other.


Question 32:

A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.04 T with its plane perpendicular to the field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at 2 mm/s. The induced emf in the loop when the radius is 2 cm is :

  • (a) 4.8 \(\pi\) \(\mu\)V
  • (b) 0.8 \(\pi\) \(\mu\)V
  • (c) 1.6 \(\pi\) \(\mu\)V
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Magnetic flux \(\Phi = BA = B(\pi r^2)\).


Induced emf \(|e| = \frac{d\Phi}{dt} = B \pi (2r \frac{dr}{dt})\).


Given \(B = 0.04\) T, \(r = 2\) cm = 0.02 m, \(\frac{dr}{dt} = 2\) mm/s = 0.002 m/s.

\(|e| = 0.04 \times \pi \times 2 \times 0.02 \times 0.002\).

\(|e| = \pi \times 0.04 \times 0.04 \times 0.002 = \pi \times 0.0016 \times 0.002 = 3.2 \pi \times 10^{-6}\) V.

\(|e| = 3.2 \pi\) \(\mu\)V.



\begin{quicktipbox
Induced emf can be caused by change in field \(B\), change in area \(A\), or change in orientation \(\theta\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Induced emf can be caused by change in field \(B\), change in area \(A\), or change in orientation \(\theta\).


Question 33:

Figure shows two paths taken by a gas to go from A to C. In process AB, 400 J heat is added; in BC, 100 J added. The heat absorbed by the system in process AC will be :

  • (a) 500 J
  • (b) 460 J
  • (c) 300 J
Correct Answer:
View Solution



First law of thermodynamics: \(Q = \Delta U + W\).


Path ABC: \(W_{ABC} = W_{AB} + W_{BC} = 0 + (P_B \Delta V) = 6 \times 10^4 \times (4 \times 10^{-3} - 2 \times 10^{-3}) = 120\) J.

\(Q_{ABC} = 400 + 100 = 500\) J.

\(\Delta U_{AC} = Q_{ABC} - W_{ABC} = 500 - 120 = 380\) J.


Path AC (direct): \(W_{AC} = Area under straight line AC = \frac{1}{2} (2 \times 10^4 + 6 \times 10^4) \times (2 \times 10^{-3}) = 80\) J.

\(Q_{AC} = \Delta U_{AC} + W_{AC} = 380 + 80 = 460\) J.



\begin{quicktipbox \(\Delta U\) is a state function (path-independent), while \(Q\) and \(W\) are path-dependent.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: \(\Delta U\) is a state function (path-independent), while \(Q\) and \(W\) are path-dependent.


Question 34:

Two resistances at 0\(^\circ\)C with temperature coefficients \(\alpha_1, \alpha_2\) joined in series act as a single resistance. The temperature coefficient of their single resistance will be :

  • (a) \(\alpha_1 + \alpha_2\)
  • (b) \(\frac{\alpha_1 \alpha_2}{\alpha_1 + \alpha_2}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{\alpha_1 - \alpha_2}{2}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Let the two resistances at 0\(^\circ\)C be \(R_{01}\) and \(R_{02}\).


At temperature \(T\): \(R_1 = R_{01}(1 + \alpha_1 T)\) and \(R_2 = R_{02}(1 + \alpha_2 T)\).


Series resistance \(R_s = R_1 + R_2 = (R_{01} + R_{02}) + (R_{01} \alpha_1 + R_{02} \alpha_2)T\).


Effective coefficient \(\alpha_{eff} = \frac{\Delta R_s}{R_{s0} \Delta T} = \frac{R_{01} \alpha_1 + R_{02} \alpha_2}{R_{01} + R_{02}}\).


If the initial resistances are assumed identical (\(R_{01} = R_{02}\)), \(\alpha_{eff} = \frac{\alpha_1 + \alpha_2}{2}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
The effective \(\alpha\) for series combination is a weighted average of individual \(\alpha\) values.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The effective \(\alpha\) for series combination is a weighted average of individual \(\alpha\) values.


Question 35:

Two identical charged spheres suspended from strings of length \(l\) are initially distance \(d\) apart. Charges leak from spheres at a constant rate. They approach each other with velocity \(v\). Then \(v\) varies with distance \(x\) as :

  • (a) \(v \propto x^{1/2}\)
  • (b) \(v \propto x\)
  • (c) \(v \propto x^{-1/2}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Electrostatic equilibrium: \(\tan \theta \approx \frac{F_e}{mg} \implies \frac{x/2}{l} = \frac{kq^2}{x^2 mg}\).


So, \(q^2 \propto x^3 \implies q \propto x^{3/2}\).


Constant leak rate: \(\frac{dq}{dt} = constant\).

\(\frac{dq}{dt} \propto \frac{d}{dt} (x^{3/2}) = \frac{3}{2} x^{1/2} \frac{dx}{dt} = constant\).


Therefore, \(v = \frac{dx}{dt} \propto \frac{1}{x^{1/2}} = x^{-1/2}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
When \(\theta\) is small, \(x\) is proportional to \(q^{2/3}\). Velocity is the time derivative of \(x\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When \(\theta\) is small, \(x\) is proportional to \(q^{2/3}\). Velocity is the time derivative of \(x\).


Question 36:

A particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing S.H.M. of amplitude 0.1 m. When it passes through the mean position, its KE is \(8 \times 10^{-3}\) J. If initial phase is 45\(^\circ\), the equation of motion is :

  • (a) \(y = 0.1 \sin(4t + \pi/4)\)
  • (b) \(y = 0.2 \sin(4t + \pi/4)\)
  • (c) \(y = 0.1 \sin(2t + \pi/4)\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Maximum Kinetic Energy \(KE_{max} = \frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2 = 8 \times 10^{-3}\) J.

\(\frac{1}{2} \times 0.1 \times \omega^2 \times (0.1)^2 = 8 \times 10^{-3}\).

\(0.0005 \omega^2 = 0.008 \implies \omega^2 = \frac{80}{5} = 16 \implies \omega = 4\) rad/s.


General SHM equation: \(y = A \sin(\omega t + \phi)\).

\(y = 0.1 \sin(4t + \pi/4)\).



\begin{quicktipbox \(KE_{max}\) occurs at the mean position and equals total energy \(E = \frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: \(KE_{max}\) occurs at the mean position and equals total energy \(E = \frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2\).


Question 37:

A source S emitting frequency 100 Hz and observer O are located apart. S moves with speed 19.4 ms\(^{-1}\) at 60\(^\circ\) to the line SO. Observed frequency is (velocity of sound 330 ms\(^{-1}\)) :

  • (a) 103 Hz
  • (b) 106 Hz
  • (c) 97 Hz
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Doppler effect formula for moving source: \(f' = f \left[ \frac{v}{v - v_s \cos \theta} \right]\).


Here, \(f = 100\) Hz, \(v = 330\) ms\(^{-1}\), \(v_s = 19.4\) ms\(^{-1}\), and \(\theta = 60^\circ\).


Component of source velocity along SO is \(v_s \cos 60^\circ = 19.4 \times 0.5 = 9.7\) ms\(^{-1}\).

\(f' = 100 \left[ \frac{330}{330 - 9.7} \right] = 100 \left[ \frac{330}{320.3} \right] \approx 103\) Hz.



\begin{quicktipbox
Only the component of velocity along the line joining the source and observer causes the Doppler shift.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Only the component of velocity along the line joining the source and observer causes the Doppler shift.


Question 38:

A resistor R, capacitor C and inductor L are in parallel. Max current through resistor is half of max source current. The value of R is :

  • (a) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{|\omega C - \frac{1}{\omega L}|}\)
  • (b) \(\sqrt{3} | \frac{1}{\omega C} - \omega L |\)
  • (c) \(\sqrt{5} | \frac{1}{\omega C} - \omega L |\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



In parallel AC circuit: \(I_{source} = \sqrt{I_R^2 + (I_C - I_L)^2}\).


Given \(I_R = \frac{I_{source}}{2} \implies I_{source}^2 = 4 I_R^2\).

\(4 I_R^2 = I_R^2 + (I_C - I_L)^2 \implies (I_C - I_L)^2 = 3 I_R^2 \implies |I_C - I_L| = \sqrt{3} I_R\).


Substituting \(I = V/Z\) terms: \(| \omega C V - \frac{V}{\omega L} | = \sqrt{3} \frac{V}{R}\).

\(| \omega C - \frac{1}{\omega L} | = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{R} \implies R = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{| \omega C - \frac{1}{\omega L} |}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
In parallel circuits, voltage is same across all components. Total current is the vector sum of branch currents.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In parallel circuits, voltage is same across all components. Total current is the vector sum of branch currents.


Question 39:

A lens of focal length \(f\) and aperture diameter \(d\) forms image of intensity \(I\). If central region of diameter \(d/2\) is covered by black paper, new focal length and intensity are :

  • (a) \(f\) and \(I/4\)
  • (b) \(3f/4\) and \(I/2\)
  • (c) \(f\) and \(3I/4\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Focal length \(f\) is a property of the lens's material and radii of curvature; covering a part does not change it. So, \(f' = f\).


Intensity \(I \propto Aperture Area\). Original area \(A_1 = \pi d^2 / 4\).


Area of covered region \(A_{cover} = \pi (d/2)^2 / 4 = A_1 / 4\).


Remaining area \(A_2 = A_1 - A_cover = \frac{3}{4} A_1\).


New Intensity \(I' = \frac{3}{4} I\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Intensity of an image is directly proportional to the area of the lens aperture through which light passes.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Intensity of an image is directly proportional to the area of the lens aperture through which light passes.


Question 40:

A circular disc of radius \(R\) and thickness \(R/6\) has moment of inertia \(I\) about its axis. It is melted and recasted into a solid sphere. The moment of inertia of the sphere about its diameter is :

  • (a) \(I\)
  • (b) \(2I/8\)
  • (c) \(I/5\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Mass of disc \(M = \rho \pi R^2 (R/6) = \frac{\rho \pi R^3}{6}\).


Moment of inertia of disc \(I = \frac{1}{2} M R^2 \implies M R^2 = 2I\).


For the sphere of radius \(r\), same mass: \(M = \frac{4}{3} \pi r^3 \rho = \frac{\rho \pi R^3}{6}\).

\(\frac{4}{3} r^3 = \frac{R^3}{6} \implies r^3 = \frac{R^3}{8} \implies r = R/2\).

\(I_{sphere} = \frac{2}{5} M r^2 = \frac{2}{5} M (R/2)^2 = \frac{2}{5} \frac{M R^2}{4} = \frac{M R^2}{10}\).


Substituting \(M R^2 = 2I\): \(I_{sphere} = \frac{2I}{10} = I/5\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Mass remains constant during recasting. \(I\) depends on the distribution of mass relative to the axis.

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Mass remains constant during recasting. \(I\) depends on the distribution of mass relative to the axis.


Question 41:

In \(PO_4^{3-}\), the formal charge on each oxygen atom and the P - O bond order respectively are :

  • (a) \(-0.75, 0.6\)
  • (b) \(-0.75, 1.0\)
  • (c) \(-0.75, 1.25\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The \(PO_4^{3-}\) ion has 4 equivalent P-O bonds due to resonance.


Average formal charge on oxygen = Total charge / Number of oxygen atoms = \(-3/4 = -0.75\).


Total number of valence electrons = \(5 (P) + 4 \times 6 (O) + 3 = 32\).


In the resonance structures, there is 1 \(P=O\) bond and 3 \(P-O^-\) bonds (total 5 bonds).


Bond Order = Total number of bonds / Number of resonance structures = \(5/4 = 1.25\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Average bond order = \(\frac{\sum bonds in resonance structures}{number of bonding regions}\).

\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Average bond order = \(\frac{\sum bonds in resonance structures}{number of bonding regions}\).


Question 42:

The decreasing order of the ionization potential of the following elements is

  • (a) Ne > Cl > P > S > Al > Mg
  • (B) Ne > Cl > P > S > Mg > Al
  • (C) Ne > Cl > S > P > Mg > Al
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Ionization potential (IP) generally increases from left to right across a period and decreases down a group.


Neon (Ne) is a noble gas with a stable octet, giving it the highest ionization potential in the set.


In Period 3 (Mg, Al, P, S, Cl), Chlorine has the highest IP due to the smallest size and highest nuclear charge among the listed period 3 elements.


For Phosphorus (\(3s^{2}3p^{3}\)) and Sulfur (\(3s^{2}3p^{4}\)), Phosphorus has a higher IP because it has a stable half-filled \(3p\) subshell.


For Magnesium (\(3s^{2}\)) and Aluminum (\(3s^{2}3p^{1}\)), Magnesium has a higher IP because it has a stable fully-filled \(3s\) subshell and the electron is being removed from a lower energy subshell.


The overall decreasing order is Ne > Cl > P > S > Mg > Al.



\begin{quicktipbox
Stable configurations like half-filled (\(p^3\)) and fully-filled (\(s^2\), \(p^6\)) subshells lead to higher-than-expected ionization energies for elements like Mg and P.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Stable configurations like half-filled (\(p^3\)) and fully-filled (\(s^2\), \(p^6\)) subshells lead to higher-than-expected ionization energies for elements like Mg and P.


Question 43:

Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln) is dominated by its +3 oxidation state, which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (a) The ionic size of Ln (III) decrease in general with increasing atomic number
  • (B) Ln (III) compounds are generally colourless.
  • (C) Ln (III) hydroxide are mainly basic in character.
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Statement (a) is correct; the steady decrease in the size of \(Ln^{3+}\) ions with increasing atomic number is known as Lanthanoid Contraction.


Statement (b) is incorrect; most trivalent lanthanoid ions are coloured in both solid and aqueous states due to \(f-f\) transitions (electronic transitions between \(4f\) orbitals).


Statement (c) is correct; lanthanoid hydroxides like \(La(OH)_3\) are basic, and the basicity decreases as the size of the cation decreases across the series.


Statement (d) is correct; the lanthanoid ions are relatively large compared to transition metals, and the \(4f\) electrons are well-shielded, leading to predominantly ionic bonding.



\begin{quicktipbox
Only \(f^0\) (e.g., \(La^{3+}\)) and \(f^{14}\) (e.g., \(Lu^{3+}\)) ions are consistently colourless; others usually show characteristic colours due to \(f-f\) transitions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Only \(f^0\) (e.g., \(La^{3+}\)) and \(f^{14}\) (e.g., \(Lu^{3+}\)) ions are consistently colourless; others usually show characteristic colours due to \(f-f\) transitions.


Question 44:

Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the property stated against it ?

  • (a) \(V^{2+} < Cr^{2+} < Mn^{2+} < Fe^{2+}\) :paramagnetic behaviour
  • (B) \(Ni^{2+} < Co^{2+} < Fe^{2+} < Mn^{2+}\) : ionic size
  • (C) \(Co^{3+} < Fe^{3+} < Cr^{3+} < Sc^{3+}\) : stability in aqueous solution
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Paramagnetic behavior is determined by the number of unpaired electrons (\(n\)).

\(V^{2+}\): \([Ar]3d^3\), \(n=3\).

\(Cr^{2+}\): \([Ar]3d^4\), \(n=4\).

\(Mn^{2+}\): \([Ar]3d^5\), \(n=5\).

\(Fe^{2+}\): \([Ar]3d^6\), \(n=4\).


The correct order for paramagnetic behavior (based on unpaired electrons) should be: \(V^{2+} (3) < Cr^{2+} (4) = Fe^{2+} (4) < Mn^{2+} (5)\).


Therefore, the arrangement in option (a) which places \(Fe^{2+}\) higher than \(Mn^{2+}\) is incorrect.



\begin{quicktipbox
Magnetic moment (\(\mu\)) is calculated as \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) BM; \(Mn^{2+}\) (\(d^5\)) has the maximum number of unpaired electrons and highest magnetic moment in the 3d series.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Magnetic moment (\(\mu\)) is calculated as \(\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) BM; \(Mn^{2+}\) (\(d^5\)) has the maximum number of unpaired electrons and highest magnetic moment in the 3d series.


Question 45:

Which of the following is paramagnetic ?

  • (a) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}\)
  • (B) \([Ni(CO)_4]\)
  • (C) \([Ni(CN)_4]^{2-}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



In \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}\), \(Fe\) is in \(+2\) state (\(d^6\)). \(CN^-\) is a strong field ligand, resulting in pairing (\(t_{2g}^6 e_g^0\)), so it is diamagnetic.


In \([Ni(CO)_4]\), \(Ni\) is in \(0\) state (\(3d^8 4s^2\)). \(CO\) is a strong field ligand, forcing electrons into \(3d\), making it \(d^{10}\), so it is diamagnetic.


In \([Ni(CN)_4]^{2-}\), \(Ni\) is in \(+2\) state (\(d^8\)). \(CN^-\) is a strong field ligand, resulting in \(dsp^2\) hybridization and pairing of electrons, so it is diamagnetic.


In \([CoF_6]^{3-}\), \(Co\) is in \(+3\) state (\(d^6\)). \(F^-\) is a weak field ligand, so no pairing occurs. The configuration is \(t_{2g}^4 e_g^2\) with 4 unpaired electrons, making it paramagnetic.



\begin{quicktipbox
Strong field ligands (like \(CN^-\) and \(CO\)) typically cause electron pairing, while weak field ligands (like \(F^-\) and \(Cl^-\)) favor high-spin paramagnetic complexes.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Strong field ligands (like \(CN^-\) and \(CO\)) typically cause electron pairing, while weak field ligands (like \(F^-\) and \(Cl^-\)) favor high-spin paramagnetic complexes.


Question 46:

The hypothetical complex chlorodiaquatriamminecobalt (III) chloride can be represented as

  • (a) \([CoCl(NH_3)_3(H_2O)_2]Cl_2\)
  • (B) \([Co(NH_3)_3(H_2O)Cl_3]\)
  • (C) \([Co(NH_3)_3(H_2O)_2Cl]\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Break down the IUPAC name: Central metal is Cobalt with oxidation state (III).


Ligands inside the coordination sphere are: Chloro (\(Cl^-\)), Diaqua (\(2 \times H_2O\)), and Triammine (\(3 \times NH_3\)).


The coordination sphere is \([Co(NH_3)_3(H_2O)_2Cl]\).


The total charge on the coordination sphere is: \(+3\) (Co) \(+ 3(0)\) (\(NH_3\)) \(+ 2(0)\) (\(H_2O\)) \(+ (-1)\) (Cl) = \(+2\).


To balance this \(+2\) charge, two chloride (\(Cl^-\)) ions are required outside the sphere as counter-ions.


Thus, the formula is \([CoCl(NH_3)_3(H_2O)_2]Cl_2\).



\begin{quicktipbox
The oxidation state of the metal ion must balance the total charge of the ligands and the counter-ions outside the bracket.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The oxidation state of the metal ion must balance the total charge of the ligands and the counter-ions outside the bracket.


Question 47:

The normality of 26% (wt/vol) solution of ammonia (density = 0.855 ) is approximately :

  • (a) 1.5
  • (B) 0.4
  • (C) 15.3
Correct Answer:
View Solution



26% (wt/vol) means \(26\) g of \(NH_3\) is present in \(100\) mL of solution.


Equivalent weight of ammonia (\(NH_3\)) is its molecular weight divided by its acidity/basicity. Since \(NH_3 + H_2O \rightarrow NH_4^+ + OH^-\), \(n\)-factor is 1.


Equivalent weight of \(NH_3\) = \(17 / 1 = 17\).


Normality (\(N\)) = \(\frac{Mass of solute}{Equivalent weight} \times \frac{1000}{Volume of solution in mL}\).

\(N = \frac{26}{17} \times \frac{1000}{100} = \frac{26}{17} \times 10 \approx 1.529 \times 10 = 15.29\).


The approximate normality is 15.3.



\begin{quicktipbox
For % (wt/vol), Normality = \(\frac{% Concentration \times 10}{Equivalent weight}\).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For % (wt/vol), Normality = \(\frac{% Concentration \times 10}{Equivalent weight}\).


Question 48:

1.25 g of a sample of \(Na_{2}CO_{3}\) and \(Na_{2}SO_{4}\) is dissolved in 250 ml solution. 25 ml of this solution neutralises 20 ml of 0.1N \(H_{2}SO_{4}\).The % of \(Na_{2}CO_{3}\) in this sample is

  • (a) 84.8%
  • (B) 8.48%
  • (C) 15.2%
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Only \(Na_{2}CO_{3}\) reacts with \(H_{2}SO_{4}\) to be neutralized; \(Na_{2}SO_{4}\) does not react.


In 25 mL titration: Milliequivalents (meq) of \(Na_{2}CO_{3}\) = meq of \(H_{2}SO_{4}\) used.


meq in 25 mL = \(N \times V = 0.1 \times 20 = 2\).


Total meq in the 250 mL sample = \(2 \times \frac{250}{25} = 20\) meq.


Mass of \(Na_{2}CO_{3}\) = \(meq \times \frac{Eq. weight}{1000}\). For \(Na_{2}CO_{3}\), Eq. weight = \(\frac{106}{2} = 53\).


Mass of \(Na_{2}CO_{3}\) = \(20 \times \frac{53}{1000} = 1.06\) g.


% of \(Na_{2}CO_{3}\) in sample = \(\frac{1.06}{1.25} \times 100 = 84.8%\).



\begin{quicktipbox
When a sample is diluted, the number of equivalents scales with the volume ratio.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When a sample is diluted, the number of equivalents scales with the volume ratio.


Question 49:

Which of the following compound has all the four types (\(1^\circ\), \(2^\circ\), \(3^\circ\) and \(4^\circ\)) of carbon atoms?

  • (a) 2, 3, 4-Trimethylpentane
  • (B) neo-Pentane
  • (C) 2, 2, 4-Trimethylpentane
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The structure of 2, 2, 4-Trimethylpentane is \((CH_{3})_{3}C-CH_{2}-CH(CH_{3})_{2}\).


Carbon 2 is bonded to 4 other carbons, so it is a \(4^\circ\) carbon.


Carbon 4 is bonded to 3 other carbons, so it is a \(3^\circ\) carbon.


Carbon 3 is bonded to 2 other carbons, so it is a \(2^\circ\) carbon.


The methyl groups attached at various points are bonded to only 1 carbon, making them \(1^\circ\) carbons.


Therefore, it contains all four types of carbon atoms.



\begin{quicktipbox
A \(1^\circ\), \(2^\circ\), \(3^\circ\), or \(4^\circ\) carbon is one attached to 1, 2, 3, or 4 other carbon atoms respectively.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: A \(1^\circ\), \(2^\circ\), \(3^\circ\), or \(4^\circ\) carbon is one attached to 1, 2, 3, or 4 other carbon atoms respectively.


Question 50:

Which of the following has two stereoisomers?

  • (a) None of these
  • (B) Only I
  • (C) Only III
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Structure I is a quaternary ammonium ion derivative \([CH_{3}-N^{+}(H)(C_{2}H_{5})(CH=CH_{2})]\).


In this structure, the Nitrogen atom is bonded to four different groups: \(-H\), \(-CH_{3}\), \(-C_{2}H_{5}\), and \(-CH=CH_{2}\).


Since the Nitrogen atom acts as a chiral center and cannot undergo rapid inversion like neutral amines, it exists as a pair of enantiomers (two stereoisomers).


Structure II is achiral because it has two identical methyl groups attached to the Nitrogen atom.


Structure III is an amine which undergoes rapid pyramidal inversion, making its isolation as separate stereoisomers impossible at room temperature.



\begin{quicktipbox
Quaternary ammonium salts or protonated amines with four different groups on Nitrogen are chiral and can exist as stereoisomers because inversion is prevented.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Quaternary ammonium salts or protonated amines with four different groups on Nitrogen are chiral and can exist as stereoisomers because inversion is prevented.


Question 51:



The product [X] in the reaction of Phenol with Acetone in the presence of \(H^{+}\) is:

  • (a)
     
  • (B)
     
  • (C)
     
Correct Answer:
View Solution



This reaction involves the acid-catalyzed condensation of phenol with acetone.


Acetone reacts with a proton (\(H^{+}\)) to form a carbocationic intermediate.


Two molecules of phenol undergo electrophilic aromatic substitution at the para-position with one molecule of acetone.


The resulting product is Bisphenol A, where a central carbon atom from acetone is linked to two \(p\)-hydroxyphenyl groups.


The formula for the product is \(4,4'\)-isopropylidenediphenol, which corresponds to option (a).



\begin{quicktipbox
This is the standard industrial preparation of Bisphenol A, an important monomer for epoxy resins and polycarbonates.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: This is the standard industrial preparation of Bisphenol A, an important monomer for epoxy resins and polycarbonates.


Question 52:

\(CH_{3}C \equiv CCH_{3} \xrightarrow{H_{2}/Pt} A \xrightarrow{D_{2}/Pt} B\). The compounds A and B, respectively are

  • (a) cis-butene-2 and rac-2, 3-dideuterobutane
  • (B) trans-butene-2 and rac-2, 3-dideuterobutane
  • (C) cis-butene-2 and meso-2, 3-dideuterobutane
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Catalytic hydrogenation of an internal alkyne (But-2-yne) with \(H_{2}/Pt\) results in syn-addition to form an alkene. In many textbook scenarios, this step is used to represent the formation of cis-butene-2 (Compound A).


In the second step, \(D_{2}\) is added to cis-butene-2 over a Pt catalyst. This is also a syn-addition.


Syn-addition of \(D_{2}\) to a cis-alkene results in a compound with a plane of symmetry if the groups are identical.


For cis-butene-2, syn-addition of \(D_{2}\) adds two Deuterium atoms to the same side of the molecule, resulting in meso-2,3-dideuterobutane.


Therefore, A is cis-butene-2 and B is meso-2,3-dideuterobutane.



\begin{quicktipbox
Syn-addition to a cis-alkene gives a meso product, while syn-addition to a trans-alkene gives a racemic mixture.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Syn-addition to a cis-alkene gives a meso product, while syn-addition to a trans-alkene gives a racemic mixture.


Question 53:

Give the possible structure of X in the following reaction: \(C_{6}H_{6} + D_{2}SO_{4} \xrightarrow{D_{2}O} X\)

  • (a)
  • (B)
  • (C)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Benzene reacts with sulfuric acid (or \(D_{2}SO_{4}\)) to undergo electrophilic aromatic sulfonation.


The electrophile in this reaction is \(SO_{3}\) or \(DSO_{3}^{+}\).


Substitution of a hydrogen atom on the benzene ring by the sulfonic acid group occurs.


Since \(D_{2}SO_{4}\) is used in \(D_{2}O\), the sulfonic acid group formed will be \(-SO_{3}D\).


Thus, the product formed is \(C_{6}H_{5}SO_{3}D\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Sulfonation is a reversible electrophilic aromatic substitution; using deuterated acid leads to the deuterated sulfonic acid derivative.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Sulfonation is a reversible electrophilic aromatic substitution; using deuterated acid leads to the deuterated sulfonic acid derivative.


Question 54:

An aromatic compound has molecular formula \(C_{7}H_{7}Br\). Give the possible isomers and the appropriate method to distinguish them.

  • (a) 3 isomers; by heating with \(AgNO_{3}\) solution
  • (B) 4 isomers; by treating with \(AgNO_{3}\) solution
  • (C) 4 isomers; by oxidation
Correct Answer:
View Solution



For the formula \(C_{7}H_{7}Br\), there are four possible aromatic isomers.


Three of these are nuclear-substituted bromotoluenes: \(o\)-bromotoluene, \(m\)-bromotoluene, and \(p\)-bromotoluene.


The fourth isomer is side-chain substituted benzyl bromide (\(C_{6}H_{5}CH_{2}Br\)).


Benzyl bromide is highly reactive towards nucleophilic substitution; when treated with \(AgNO_{3}\) solution, it readily gives a white/pale yellow precipitate of \(AgBr\).


The bromotoluenes do not react with \(AgNO_{3}\) because the \(C-Br\) bond attached to the aromatic ring is very strong and resistant to substitution.



\begin{quicktipbox
Benzylic halides react easily with \(AgNO_{3}\) due to the stability of the benzylic carbocation, whereas aryl halides are inert.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Benzylic halides react easily with \(AgNO_{3}\) due to the stability of the benzylic carbocation, whereas aryl halides are inert.


Question 55:

Which of the following method gives better yield of p-nitrophenol?

  • (a) Phenol \(\xrightarrow{dil. HNO_{3}, 20^\circ C} p-Nitrophenol\)
  • (B) Phenol \(\xrightarrow{(i) NaNO_{2} + H_{2}SO_{4}, 7-8^\circ C (ii) HNO_{3}} p-Nitrophenol\)
  • (C) Phenol \(\xrightarrow{(i) NaOH (ii) Conc. HNO_{3}} p-Nitrophenol\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Direct nitration of phenol with dilute \(HNO_{3}\) gives a mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenol, where ortho is usually the major product due to hydrogen bonding.


In method (B), phenol is first nitrosated using \(NaNO_{2}/H_{2}SO_{4}\) to form \(p\)-nitrosophenol.

\(p\)-Nitrosophenol is then oxidized by \(HNO_{3}\) to form \(p\)-nitrophenol.


This indirect route avoids the formation of the ortho isomer significantly and prevents oxidative degradation of phenol, thus providing a much higher yield of the para isomer.



\begin{quicktipbox
Nitrosation is highly selective for the para position in phenol because the \(-NO\) group is less bulky and more sensitive to steric hindrance at the ortho position.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Nitrosation is highly selective for the para position in phenol because the \(-NO\) group is less bulky and more sensitive to steric hindrance at the ortho position.


Question 56:

The amount of polyethylene obtained from 64.1 kg of \(CaC_{2}\) is

  • (a) 7 kg
  • (B) 14 kg
  • (C) 21 kg
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: \(CaC_{2} + 2H_{2}O \rightarrow Ca(OH)_{2} + C_{2}H_{2}\). 1 mole of \(CaC_{2}\) produces 1 mole of Acetylene.


Step 2: \(C_{2}H_{2} + H_{2} \rightarrow C_{2}H_{4}\). 1 mole of Acetylene produces 1 mole of Ethylene.


Step 3: \(n C_{2}H_{4} \rightarrow [CH_{2}-CH_{2}]_{n}\). The mass of polymer is equal to the mass of monomer Ethylene used.


Molar mass of \(CaC_{2} = 40 + 2(12) = 64\) g/mol.

\(64.1\) kg of \(CaC_{2} \approx 1000\) moles of \(CaC_{2}\).


Therefore, \(1000\) moles of \(C_{2}H_{4}\) are produced.


Mass of \(1000\) moles of Ethylene (\(C_{2}H_{4}\)) = \(1000 \times 28\) g = \(28000\) g = \(28\) kg.



\begin{quicktipbox
In a series of reactions with 1:1 stoichiometry, the number of moles of the final product equals the number of moles of the starting material.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In a series of reactions with 1:1 stoichiometry, the number of moles of the final product equals the number of moles of the starting material.


Question 57:

The most likely acid-catalysed aldol condensation products of each of the two aldehydes I and II will respectively be

  • (a)
  • (B)
  • (C)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Aldol condensation of an aldehyde involves the formation of an enol (in acid catalyst) or enolate (in base catalyst) from one molecule, which then attacks the carbonyl of another.


For aldehyde I (isobutyraldehyde), condensation leads to a \(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated aldehyde after dehydration.


For aldehyde II (n-butyraldehyde), the \(\alpha\)-carbon attacks the carbonyl of another molecule.


Option (a) correctly displays the dehydration products (\(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated aldehydes) that maintain the carbon skeleton of the starting materials.



\begin{quicktipbox
Acid-catalyzed aldol condensations usually proceed all the way to the \(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated product through dehydration of the intermediate \(\beta\)-hydroxy aldehyde.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Acid-catalyzed aldol condensations usually proceed all the way to the \(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated product through dehydration of the intermediate \(\beta\)-hydroxy aldehyde.


Question 58:

Sometimes, the colour observed in Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen is green. It is because

  • (a) of green colour of ferrous sulphate
  • (B) ferric ferrocyanide is also green
  • (C) of green colour of copper sulphate
Correct Answer:
View Solution



In Lassaigne's test for nitrogen, the formation of Prussian blue, \(Fe_{4}[Fe(CN)_{6}]_{3}\), indicates the presence of nitrogen.


Prussian blue is intensely blue in color.


If an excess of ferric chloride (\(FeCl_{3}\)) is added, the solution contains a significant amount of \(Fe^{3+}\) ions, which are yellow in color.


The mixture of the yellow color of the excess \(Fe^{3+}\) ions and the blue color of the precipitate results in a green appearance.



\begin{quicktipbox
The actual positive result for Nitrogen is Prussian blue; green is a common observation error caused by reagents used in excess.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The actual positive result for Nitrogen is Prussian blue; green is a common observation error caused by reagents used in excess.


Question 59:

Fructose on reduction gives a mixture of two alcohols which are related as

  • (a) diastereomers
  • (B) epimers
  • (C) both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Fructose is a ketohexose with the ketone group at the \(C-2\) position.


Reduction of the \(C-2\) carbonyl group converts it into a chiral hydroxyl group, creating a new chiral center.


This leads to the formation of two isomers: D-Sorbitol and D-Mannitol.


These two compounds differ in configuration only at the \(C-2\) carbon, making them C-2 epimers.


Since epimers are a specific type of diastereomer (non-mirror image stereoisomers), both (a) and (b) are correct.



\begin{quicktipbox
Epimers are diastereomers that differ in configuration at only one stereogenic center.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Epimers are diastereomers that differ in configuration at only one stereogenic center.


Question 60:

What will happen when D-(+)-glucose is treated with methanolic —HCl followed by Tollens’ reagent ?

  • (a) A black ppt. will be formed
  • (B) A red ppt. will be formed
  • (C) A green colour will appear
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Treatment of D-glucose with methanolic —HCl results in the formation of methyl glucosides (methyl \(\alpha\)-D-glucoside and methyl \(\beta\)-D-glucoside).


This reaction converts the hemiacetal group of glucose into an acetal (glycoside).


Acetals are stable in neutral or basic conditions and do not exist in equilibrium with the open-chain aldehyde form.


Since Tollens' reagent requires a free aldehyde group (or a hemiacetal that can open up) to react, methyl glucosides are non-reducing sugars.


Therefore, there is no reaction with Tollens' reagent, and no silver mirror (black ppt) is formed.



\begin{quicktipbox
Glycosides (acetals) do not show mutarotation and do not reduce Tollens' or Fehling's reagents.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Glycosides (acetals) do not show mutarotation and do not reduce Tollens' or Fehling's reagents.


Question 61:

Which of the followings forms the base of talcum powder?

  • (a) Zine stearate
  • (B) Sodium aluminium silicate
  • (C) Magnesium hydrosilicate
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Talcum powder is primarily composed of the mineral talc.


Talc is a clay mineral composed of hydrated magnesium silicate.


The chemical formula for talc is often represented as \(Mg_{3}Si_{4}O_{10}(OH)_{2}\).


Therefore, magnesium hydrosilicate forms the base of talcum powder.



\begin{quicktipbox
Talc is the softest known mineral and is used in cosmetics for its ability to absorb moisture and reduce friction.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Talc is the softest known mineral and is used in cosmetics for its ability to absorb moisture and reduce friction.


Question 62:

The important antioxidant used in food is

  • (a) BHT
  • (B) BHC
  • (C) BTX
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Antioxidants are added to food to prevent the oxidation of fats and oils, which leads to rancidity.


BHT stands for Butylated Hydroxytoluene, which is a common food-grade antioxidant.


BHC stands for Benzene Hexachloride, which is an insecticide (Lindane).


BTX stands for Benzene, Toluene, and Xylene, which are industrial solvents.


Thus, BHT is the only food antioxidant among the options.



\begin{quicktipbox
BHT and BHA (Butylated Hydroxyanisole) are the most widely used synthetic antioxidants in the food industry.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: BHT and BHA (Butylated Hydroxyanisole) are the most widely used synthetic antioxidants in the food industry.


Question 63:

The first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at

  • (a) \(\frac{9R}{400} cm^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{7R}{144} cm^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3R}{4} cm^{-1}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The wave number (\(\bar{\nu}\)) for hydrogen spectrum lines is given by the Rydberg formula: \(\bar{\nu} = R \left( \frac{1}{n_{1}^{2}} - \frac{1}{n_{2}^{2}} \right)\).


For the Balmer series, the lower energy level is \(n_{1} = 2\).


The first emission line (the \(H_{\alpha}\) line) corresponds to the transition from \(n_{2} = 3\) to \(n_{1} = 2\).


Substituting the values: \(\bar{\nu} = R \left( \frac{1}{2^{2}} - \frac{1}{3^{2}} \right)\).

\(\bar{\nu} = R \left( \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{9} \right) = R \left( \frac{9 - 4}{36} \right) = \frac{5R}{36} cm^{-1}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Balmer series transitions always end at \(n=2\) and represent the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Balmer series transitions always end at \(n=2\) and represent the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum.


Question 64:

An \(e^{-}\) has magnetic quantum number as –3, what is its principal quantum number?

  • (a) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The magnetic quantum number (\(m_{l}\)) depends on the azimuthal quantum number (\(l\)).


The range of \(m_{l}\) is from \(-l\) to \(+l\).


If \(m_{l} = -3\), then the minimum value of \(l\) must be \(3\) (which corresponds to an \(f\)-subshell).


The principal quantum number (\(n\)) must always be greater than the azimuthal quantum number (\(l\)).


Therefore, if \(l = 3\), the minimum value for \(n\) is \(3 + 1 = 4\).



\begin{quicktipbox
The rules for quantum numbers are: \(n > 0\), \(l\) ranges from \(0\) to \(n-1\), and \(m_{l}\) ranges from \(-l\) to \(+l\).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The rules for quantum numbers are: \(n > 0\), \(l\) ranges from \(0\) to \(n-1\), and \(m_{l}\) ranges from \(-l\) to \(+l\).


Question 65:

At what temperature, the rate of effusion of \(N_{2}\) would be 1.625 times than that of \(SO_{2}\) at \(50^\circ C\) ?

  • (a) 110 K
  • (B) 173 K
  • (C) 373 K
Correct Answer:
View Solution



According to Graham's Law of Effusion, the rate of effusion (\(r\)) is proportional to \(\sqrt{T/M}\).


The ratio of rates is: \(\frac{r_{N_{2}}}{r_{SO_{2}}} = \sqrt{\frac{T_{N_{2}}}{M_{N_{2}}} \times \frac{M_{SO_{2}}}{T_{SO_{2}}}}\).


Given: \(r_{N_{2}} = 1.625 \times r_{SO_{2}}\), \(M_{N_{2}} = 28\), \(M_{SO_{2}} = 64\).

\(T_{SO_{2}} = 50^\circ C = 323 K\).

\(1.625 = \sqrt{\frac{T_{N_{2}}}{28} \times \frac{64}{323}} \implies 1.625^{2} = \frac{T_{N_{2}} \times 64}{28 \times 323}\).

\(2.6406 = \frac{64 T_{N_{2}}}{9044} \implies 64 T_{N_{2}} = 2.6406 \times 9044 = 23881.5\).

\(T_{N_{2}} \approx 373 K\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Ensure temperatures are converted to Kelvin (K) before using the gas law proportionality equations.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Ensure temperatures are converted to Kelvin (K) before using the gas law proportionality equations.


Question 66:

The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule in SI unit at \(25^\circ C\) will be

  • (a) \(6.17 \times 10^{-21} kJ\)
  • (B) \(6.17 \times 10^{-21} J\)
  • (C) \(6.17 \times 10^{-20} J\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Average kinetic energy per molecule is given by: \(E_{avg} = \frac{3}{2} kT\).


Where \(k\) is Boltzmann's constant (\(1.38 \times 10^{-23} J/K\)) and \(T\) is temperature in Kelvin.

\(T = 25^\circ C = 298 K\).

\(E_{avg} = \frac{3}{2} \times 1.38 \times 10^{-23} \times 298\).

\(E_{avg} = 1.5 \times 1.38 \times 298 \times 10^{-23}\).

\(E_{avg} = 616.86 \times 10^{-23} J = 6.1686 \times 10^{-21} J \approx 6.17 \times 10^{-21} J\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Average kinetic energy of an ideal gas depends only on the absolute temperature, not on the nature of the gas.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Average kinetic energy of an ideal gas depends only on the absolute temperature, not on the nature of the gas.


Question 67:

The degree of dissociation of \(PCl_{5}\) (\(\alpha\)) obeying the equilibrium \(PCl_{5} \rightleftharpoons PCl_{3} + Cl_{2}\) is related to the equilibrium pressure by

  • (a) \(\alpha \propto \frac{1}{P^{4}}\)
  • (B) \(\alpha \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{P}}\)
  • (C) \(\alpha \propto \frac{1}{P^{2}}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



For the reaction \(PCl_{5}(g) \rightleftharpoons PCl_{3}(g) + Cl_{2}(g)\):

\(K_{p} = \frac{P_{PCl_{3}} \cdot P_{Cl_{2}}}{P_{PCl_{5}}}\).


If we start with 1 mole of \(PCl_{5}\), at equilibrium there are \((1-\alpha)\), \(\alpha\), and \(\alpha\) moles respectively. Total moles = \(1 + \alpha\).

\(K_{p} = \frac{\left(\frac{\alpha}{1+\alpha}P\right) \left(\frac{\alpha}{1+\alpha}P\right)}{\frac{1-\alpha}{1+\alpha}P} = \frac{\alpha^{2}P}{1-\alpha^{2}}\).


For very small degree of dissociation (\(\alpha \ll 1\)), \(1-\alpha^{2} \approx 1\).

\(K_{p} \approx \alpha^{2}P \implies \alpha^{2} \approx \frac{K_{p}}{P}\).

\(\alpha \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{P}}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
In reactions where the number of gaseous moles increases (\(\Delta n_{g} > 0\)), increasing pressure decreases the degree of dissociation.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In reactions where the number of gaseous moles increases (\(\Delta n_{g} > 0\)), increasing pressure decreases the degree of dissociation.


Question 68:

In a closed system, \(A(s) \rightleftharpoons 2B(g) + 3C(g)\), if partial pressure of C is doubled, then partial pressure of B will be

  • (a) \(2\sqrt{2}\) times the original value
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\) times the original value
  • (C) 2 times the original value
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The equilibrium constant \(K_{p}\) for the reaction \(A(s) \rightleftharpoons 2B(g) + 3C(g)\) is given by: \(K_{p} = (P_{B})^{2} \cdot (P_{C})^{3}\).


Since \(A\) is solid, its concentration is constant and not included in \(K_{p}\). \(K_{p}\) is constant at a constant temperature.


Initial state: \(K_{p} = (P_{B})^{2} \cdot (P_{C})^{3}\).


Final state (where \(P'_{C} = 2P_{C}\)): \(K_{p} = (P'_{B})^{2} \cdot (2P_{C})^{3} = (P'_{B})^{2} \cdot 8(P_{C})^{3}\).


Equating the two: \((P_{B})^{2} \cdot (P_{C})^{3} = (P'_{B})^{2} \cdot 8(P_{C})^{3}\).

\((P'_{B})^{2} = \frac{(P_{B})^{2}}{8} \implies P'_{B} = \frac{P_{B}}{\sqrt{8}} = \frac{P_{B}}{2\sqrt{2}}\).


So, the partial pressure of B becomes \(\frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\) times its original value.



\begin{quicktipbox \(K_{p}\) depends only on temperature; if the pressure of one component changes, the others must adjust to keep \(K_{p}\) constant.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: \(K_{p}\) depends only on temperature; if the pressure of one component changes, the others must adjust to keep \(K_{p}\) constant.


Question 69:

For a particular reversible reaction at temperature T, \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta S\) were found to be both +ve. If \(T_{e}\) is the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous when

  • (a) \(T_{e} > T\)
  • (B) \(T > T_{e}\)
  • (C) \(T_{e}\) is 5 times T
Correct Answer:
View Solution



For a reaction to be spontaneous, the Gibbs free energy change must be negative (\(\Delta G < 0\)).


We use the equation: \(\Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S\).


Given that both \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta S\) are positive.


At equilibrium, \(\Delta G = 0\), so \(\Delta H - T_{e}\Delta S = 0 \implies T_{e} = \frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S}\).


For \(\Delta G\) to be negative, the term \(T\Delta S\) must be larger than \(\Delta H\) (since both are positive).

\(\Delta H - T\Delta S < 0 \implies T\Delta S > \Delta H \implies T > \frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S}\).


Substituting the equilibrium condition: \(T > T_{e}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Endothermic reactions with increasing entropy are spontaneous only at high temperatures (Entropy-driven processes).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Endothermic reactions with increasing entropy are spontaneous only at high temperatures (Entropy-driven processes).


Question 70:

Based on data provided, the value of electron gain enthalpy of fluorine would be :

  • (a) – 300 kJ mol–1
  • (B) – 350 kJ mol–1
  • (C) – 328 kJ mol–1
Correct Answer:
View Solution



We apply the Born-Haber cycle for the formation of \(LiF(s)\).

\(\Delta H_{f} = \Delta H_{sub} + IE + \frac{1}{2}\Delta H_{bond} + \Delta H_{eg} + \Delta H_{lattice}\).


Given data: \(\Delta H_{f} = -617\), \(\Delta H_{sub} = 161\), \(IE = 520\), \(\frac{1}{2}\Delta H_{bond} = 77\), \(\Delta H_{lattice} = -1047\).

\(-617 = 161 + 520 + 77 + \Delta H_{eg} - 1047\).

\(-617 = 758 - 1047 + \Delta H_{eg} = -289 + \Delta H_{eg}\).

\(\Delta H_{eg} = -617 + 289 = -328 kJ/mol\).



\begin{quicktipbox
The Born-Haber cycle uses Hess's law to relate various energy terms involved in the formation of an ionic solid.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The Born-Haber cycle uses Hess's law to relate various energy terms involved in the formation of an ionic solid.


Question 71:

The percentage hydrolysis of 0.15 M solution of ammonium acetate, \(K_{a}\) for \(CH_{3}COOH\) is \(1.8 \times 10^{-5}\) and \(K_{b}\) for \(NH_{3}\) is \(1.8 \times 10^{-5}\) is

  • (a) 0.556
  • (B) 4.72
  • (C) 9.38
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Ammonium acetate is a salt of a weak acid and a weak base.


The degree of hydrolysis (\(h\)) for such a salt is independent of concentration and given by: \(h = \sqrt{\frac{K_{w}}{K_{a}K_{b}}}\).


Given \(K_{w} = 10^{-14}\), \(K_{a} = 1.8 \times 10^{-5}\), \(K_{b} = 1.8 \times 10^{-5}\).

\(h = \sqrt{\frac{10^{-14}}{(1.8 \times 10^{-5}) \cdot (1.8 \times 10^{-5})}} = \frac{10^{-7}}{1.8 \times 10^{-5}} = \frac{10^{-2}}{1.8} = 0.00555\).


Percentage hydrolysis \(= h \times 100 = 0.5555... \approx 0.556%\).



\begin{quicktipbox
For salts of weak acids and weak bases, the degree of hydrolysis does not depend on the initial concentration of the salt.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For salts of weak acids and weak bases, the degree of hydrolysis does not depend on the initial concentration of the salt.


Question 72:

For a sparingly soluble salt \(A_{p}B_{q}\), the relationship of its solubility product \(L_{s}\) or \(K_{sp}\) with its solubility (S) is

  • (a) \(K_{sp} = S^{p+q} (pq)^{p+q}\)
  • (B) \(K_{sp} = S^{p+q} \cdot p^{p}q^{q}\)
  • (C) \(K_{sp} = S^{p+q} \cdot p^{q}q^{p}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Consider the dissociation of the salt: \(A_{p}B_{q}(s) \rightleftharpoons pA^{q+}(aq) + qB^{p-}(aq)\).


If the solubility of the salt is \(S\) mol/L, then:

\([A^{q+}] = pS\) and \([B^{p-}] = qS\).


The solubility product expression is: \(K_{sp} = [A^{q+}]^{p} \cdot [B^{p-}]^{q}\).

\(K_{sp} = (pS)^{p} \cdot (qS)^{q}\).

\(K_{sp} = p^{p} \cdot S^{p} \cdot q^{q} \cdot S^{q} = p^{p}q^{q} \cdot S^{p+q}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
General formula for \(K_{sp}\) of \(A_{x}B_{y}\) is \(x^{x}y^{y}S^{x+y}\).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: General formula for \(K_{sp}\) of \(A_{x}B_{y}\) is \(x^{x}y^{y}S^{x+y}\).


Question 73:

Given the rate equation \(rate = k[Cl_{2}][H_{2}S]\), which of these mechanisms is/are consistent with this rate equation?

  • (a) B only
  • (B) Both A and B
  • (C) Neither A nor B
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Mechanism A has a single slow step: \(Cl_{2} + H_{2}S \rightarrow H^{+} + Cl^{-} + Cl^{+} + HS^{-}\).


The rate law for a single-step reaction is determined by the reactants in that step: \(Rate = k[Cl_{2}][H_{2}S]\). This is consistent.


Mechanism B involves a fast equilibrium \(H_{2}S \rightleftharpoons H^{+} + HS^{-}\) followed by a slow step \(Cl_{2} + HS^{-} \rightarrow ...\).


For Mechanism B, \(Rate = k_{slow}[Cl_{2}][HS^{-}]\). Using the equilibrium \(K = \frac{[H^{+}][HS^{-}]}{[H_{2}S]}\), we get \([HS^{-}] = \frac{K[H_{2}S]}{[H^{+}]}\).


So, \(Rate = \frac{k' [Cl_{2}][H_{2}S]}{[H^{+}]}\), which is not consistent with the given rate equation.



\begin{quicktipbox
The overall rate of a multi-step reaction is determined by the rate of its slowest elementary step (Rate-Determining Step).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The overall rate of a multi-step reaction is determined by the rate of its slowest elementary step (Rate-Determining Step).


Question 74:

The time taken for 75% reaction of P is twice the time taken for 50% reaction of P. The overall order of the reaction is

  • (a) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 0
Correct Answer:
View Solution



For a first-order reaction, the half-life (\(t_{1/2}\)) is independent of concentration.


After one half-life (\(t_{50%}\)), 50% of the reactant remains.


After two half-lives, 25% remains (meaning 75% has reacted).


Therefore, for a first-order reaction, \(t_{75%} = 2 \times t_{50%}\).


Since the provided condition \(t_{75%} = 2 t_{50%}\) is specifically satisfied by first-order kinetics, the order with respect to P is 1.


The graph for Q shows a linear decrease, which typically suggests zero-order for Q if Q were a reactant, however, considering the standard problem context and P's behavior, the overall order is 1.



\begin{quicktipbox
For first-order reactions, \(t_{3/4} = 2 t_{1/2}\). For zero-order reactions, \(t_{3/4} = 1.5 t_{1/2}\).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For first-order reactions, \(t_{3/4} = 2 t_{1/2}\). For zero-order reactions, \(t_{3/4} = 1.5 t_{1/2}\).


Question 75:

The EMF of the cell \(Tl/Tl^{+} (0.001M) || Cu^{2+}(0.01M) /Cu\) is 0.83. The cell EMF can be increased by

  • (a) Increasing the concentration of \(Tl^{+}\) ions.
  • (B) Increasing the concentration of \(Cu^{2+}\) ions.
  • (C) Increasing the concentration of \(Tl^{+}\) and \(Cu^{2+}\) ions.
Correct Answer:
View Solution



The cell reaction is \(2Tl(s) + Cu^{2+}(aq) \rightarrow 2Tl^{+}(aq) + Cu(s)\).


According to the Nernst Equation: \(E_{cell} = E^{o}_{cell} - \frac{0.059}{2} \log \frac{[Tl^{+}]^{2}}{[Cu^{2+}]}\).


To increase \(E_{cell}\), the value of the logarithmic term must decrease.


This can be achieved by either decreasing the concentration of the product ion \([Tl^{+}]\) or increasing the concentration of the reactant ion \([Cu^{2+}]\).


Therefore, increasing \([Cu^{2+}]\) will increase the EMF of the cell.



\begin{quicktipbox
Based on Le Chatelier's principle applied to electrochemical cells: increasing reactant concentration or decreasing product concentration increases cell potential.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Based on Le Chatelier's principle applied to electrochemical cells: increasing reactant concentration or decreasing product concentration increases cell potential.


Question 76:

Electrolysis is carried out in three cells

(A) \(1.0 M CuSO_{4}\) Pt electrode

(B) \(1.0 M CuSO_{4}\) copper electrodes

(C) \(1.0 M KCl\) Pt electrodes

If volume of electrolytic solution is maintained constant in each of the cell, which is correct set of pH changes in (A), (B) and (C) cell respectively?

  • (a) decrease in all the three
  • (b) increase in all the three
  • (c) decrease, constant, increase
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: In cell (A), \(CuSO_{4}\) is electrolyzed with inert Pt electrodes. At the anode, water is oxidized: \(2H_{2}O \rightarrow O_{2} + 4H^{+} + 4e^{-}\). The increase in \([H^{+}]\) causes the pH to decrease.


Step 2: In cell (B), \(CuSO_{4}\) is electrolyzed with active copper electrodes. At the anode, \(Cu \rightarrow Cu^{2+} + 2e^{-}\), and at the cathode, \(Cu^{2+} + 2e^{-} \rightarrow Cu\). The net concentration of ions remains the same, so pH is constant.


Step 3: In cell (C), \(KCl\) is electrolyzed with inert Pt electrodes. At the cathode, water is reduced: \(2H_{2}O + 2e^{-} \rightarrow H_{2} + 2OH^{-}\). The increase in \([OH^{-}]\) makes the solution basic, causing the pH to increase.


Step 4: Combining these observations, the set of pH changes is: (A) decrease, (B) constant, (C) increase.



\begin{quicktipbox
Inert electrodes (Pt) for aqueous salts often result in the electrolysis of water, producing \(H^{+}\) (acidic, low pH) or \(OH^{-}\) (basic, high pH). Active electrodes involve the metal itself.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Inert electrodes (Pt) for aqueous salts often result in the electrolysis of water, producing \(H^{+}\) (acidic, low pH) or \(OH^{-}\) (basic, high pH). Active electrodes involve the metal itself.


Question 77:

The equilibrium constant for the disproportionation reaction \(2Cu^{+}(aq) \longrightarrow Cu(s) + Cu^{2+}(aq)\) at \(25^{\circ}C\) (\(E^{\circ}Cu^{+}/Cu = 0.52V\), \(E^{\circ}Cu^{2+}/Cu^{+} = 0.16V\)) is

  • (a) \(6 \times 10^{4}\)
  • (b) \(6 \times 10^{6}\)
  • (c) \(1.2 \times 10^{6}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Write the half-reactions for disproportionation: Oxidation: \(Cu^{+} \rightarrow Cu^{2+} + e^{-}\) (\(E^{\circ}_{ox} = -0.16V\)) and Reduction: \(Cu^{+} + e^{-} \rightarrow Cu(s)\) (\(E^{\circ}_{red} = 0.52V\)).


Step 2: Calculate the standard cell potential: \(E^{\circ}_{cell} = E^{\circ}_{red} + E^{\circ}_{ox} = 0.52V - 0.16V = 0.36V\).


Step 3: Use the Nernst equation at equilibrium: \(\log K = \frac{nE^{\circ}_{cell}}{0.0591}\). Here, \(n = 1\).


Step 4: Substitute the values: \(\log K = \frac{1 \times 0.36}{0.0591} \approx 6.091\).


Step 5: Calculate K: \(K = 10^{6.091} \approx 1.23 \times 10^{6}\). This matches option (c).



\begin{quicktipbox
The equilibrium constant \(K\) is related to \(E^{\circ}_{cell}\) by the formula \(\log K = \frac{nE^{\circ}}{0.059}\) at \(298K\). A positive \(E^{\circ}_{cell}\) implies \(K > 1\).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: The equilibrium constant \(K\) is related to \(E^{\circ}_{cell}\) by the formula \(\log K = \frac{nE^{\circ}}{0.059}\) at \(298K\). A positive \(E^{\circ}_{cell}\) implies \(K > 1\).


Question 78:

The non stoichiometric compound \(Fe_{0.94}O\) is formed when \(x%\) of \(Fe^{2+}\) ions are replaced by as many \(\frac{2}{3} Fe^{3+}\) ions, \(x\) is

  • (a) 18
  • (b) 12
  • (c) 15
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Let the number of \(O^{2-}\) ions be \(100\). Then the total negative charge is \(-200\). To maintain neutrality, the total positive charge must be \(+200\).


Step 2: In \(Fe_{0.94}O\), for \(100\) Oxygen atoms, there are \(94\) Iron atoms. Let \(n_{1}\) be the number of \(Fe^{2+}\) and \(n_{2}\) be the number of \(Fe^{3+}\). So, \(n_{1} + n_{2} = 94\).


Step 3: Set up the charge equation: \(2n_{1} + 3n_{2} = 200\). From the first equation, \(n_{1} = 94 - n_{2}\).


Step 4: Substitute \(n_{1}\) into the charge equation: \(2(94 - n_{2}) + 3n_{2} = 200 \implies 188 - 2n_{2} + 3n_{2} = 200 \implies n_{2} = 12\).


Step 5: Calculate \(n_{1}\): \(n_{1} = 94 - 12 = 82\). Originally, in \(FeO\), there were \(100\) \(Fe^{2+}\) ions. The number of \(Fe^{2+}\) ions replaced is \(100 - 82 = 18\).


Step 6: The percentage \(x\) is \((18 / 100) \times 100 = 18\).



\begin{quicktipbox
In non-stoichiometric crystals like \(Fe_{1-x}O\), charge neutrality is the key. Three \(Fe^{2+}\) ions are replaced by two \(Fe^{3+}\) ions to create a metal vacancy.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In non-stoichiometric crystals like \(Fe_{1-x}O\), charge neutrality is the key. Three \(Fe^{2+}\) ions are replaced by two \(Fe^{3+}\) ions to create a metal vacancy.


Question 79:

Al (at. wt 27) crystallizes in the cubic system with a cell edge of \(4.05 \AA\). Its density is \(2.7 g per cm^{3}\). Determine the unit cell type calculate the radius of the Al atom

  • (a) fcc, \(2.432 \AA\)
  • (b) bcc, \(2.432 \AA\)
  • (c) bcc, \(1.432 \AA\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Use the density formula: \(\rho = \frac{Z \cdot M}{N_{A} \cdot a^{3}}\). Given \(\rho = 2.7 g/cm^{3}\), \(M = 27 g/mol\), \(a = 4.05 \times 10^{-8} cm\).


Step 2: \(2.7 = \frac{Z \times 27}{6.022 \times 10^{23} \times (4.05 \times 10^{-8})^{3}}\). Solving for \(Z\): \(Z \approx \frac{2.7 \times 6.022 \times 66.43 \times 10^{-1}}{27} \approx 4\).


Step 3: A value of \(Z = 4\) corresponds to a Face-Centered Cubic (fcc) unit cell.


Step 4: For an fcc lattice, the relationship between radius \(r\) and edge length \(a\) is \(4r = \sqrt{2}a\).


Step 5: \(r = \frac{\sqrt{2} \times 4.05}{4} = \frac{1.414 \times 4.05}{4} \approx 1.432 \AA\).



\begin{quicktipbox
For cubic systems: Simple cubic \(Z=1\), BCC \(Z=2\), FCC \(Z=4\). Also, remember \(r = \frac{a}{2}\) (SC), \(r = \frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4}\) (BCC), and \(r = \frac{a}{2\sqrt{2}}\) (FCC).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For cubic systems: Simple cubic \(Z=1\), BCC \(Z=2\), FCC \(Z=4\). Also, remember \(r = \frac{a}{2}\) (SC), \(r = \frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4}\) (BCC), and \(r = \frac{a}{2\sqrt{2}}\) (FCC).


Question 80:

A compound of Xe and F is found to have \(53.5%\) of Xe. What is oxidation number of Xe in this compound?

  • (a) \(-4\)
  • (b) \(0\)
  • (c) \(+4\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Calculate the mass percentages: \(Xe = 53.5%\), so \(F = 100 - 53.5 = 46.5%\).


Step 2: Calculate moles of each element: Moles of \(Xe = 53.5 / 131.3 \approx 0.407\). Moles of \(F = 46.5 / 19 \approx 2.447\).


Step 3: Find the molar ratio: \(Xe : F = 0.407 / 0.407 : 2.447 / 0.407 \approx 1 : 6\).


Step 4: The empirical formula is \(XeF_{6}\).


Step 5: In \(XeF_{6}\), the oxidation state of Fluorine is \(-1\). Let \(x\) be the oxidation state of Xe: \(x + 6(-1) = 0 \implies x = +6\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Xenon fluorides (\(XeF_{2}\), \(XeF_{4}\), \(XeF_{6}\)) follow standard valency rules where Xe shows even oxidation states (\(+2, +4, +6\)).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Xenon fluorides (\(XeF_{2}\), \(XeF_{4}\), \(XeF_{6}\)) follow standard valency rules where Xe shows even oxidation states (\(+2, +4, +6\)).


Question 81:

CORPULENT

  • (a) Lean
  • (b) Gaunt
  • (c) Emaciated
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the meaning of 'Corpulent'. It is an adjective used to describe someone who is fat or fleshy.


Step 2: Evaluate the options: 'Lean', 'Gaunt', and 'Emaciated' all mean thin or skinny, making them antonyms.


Step 3: 'Obese' means excessively fat or overweight.


Step 4: Since 'Obese' most closely matches the meaning of 'Corpulent', option (d) is the correct synonym.



\begin{quicktipbox
Synonym questions often provide three antonyms and one synonym. Identifying the group of opposites helps narrow down the answer.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Synonym questions often provide three antonyms and one synonym. Identifying the group of opposites helps narrow down the answer.


Question 82:

EMBEZZLE

  • (a) Misappropriate
  • (b) Balance
  • (c) Remunerate
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Define 'Embezzle'. It refers to the act of stealing or misappropriating money placed in one's trust or belonging to the organization for which one works.


Step 2: 'Misappropriate' means to take something for one's own use, typically without permission.


Step 3: 'Remunerate' means to pay someone for services, and 'Balance' or 'Clear' relate to accounting or cleaning records.


Step 4: Therefore, 'Misappropriate' is the closest meaning to 'Embezzle'.



\begin{quicktipbox
Embezzlement is a specific type of white-collar crime involving a breach of trust regarding finances.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Embezzlement is a specific type of white-collar crime involving a breach of trust regarding finances.


Question 83:

ARROGANT

  • (a) Humble
  • (b) Cowardly
  • (c) Egotistic
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: The word 'Arrogant' describes a person who has an exaggerated sense of their own importance or abilities.


Step 2: The goal is to find the exact OPPOSITE (antonym).


Step 3: 'Egotistic' is a synonym for arrogant. 'Cowardly' and 'Gentlemanly' refer to different traits (bravery and manners).


Step 4: 'Humble' describes a person with a modest view of their own importance. This is the direct opposite of arrogant.



\begin{quicktipbox
Read directions carefully; the task switched from finding the meaning (synonym) to finding the opposite (antonym).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Read directions carefully; the task switched from finding the meaning (synonym) to finding the opposite (antonym).


Question 84:

EXODUS

  • (a) Influx
  • (b) Home-coming
  • (c) Return
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: 'Exodus' means a mass departure of people.


Step 2: To find the opposite, we need a word that means a mass arrival of people.


Step 3: 'Influx' means an arrival or entry of large numbers of people or things.


Step 4: While 'Return' or 'Home-coming' involve coming back, they do not specifically denote the mass scale associated with the word 'Exodus'. 'Influx' is the precise technical antonym.



\begin{quicktipbox
Think of 'Exodus' as an exit (outward flow) and 'Influx' as an inward flow.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Think of 'Exodus' as an exit (outward flow) and 'Influx' as an inward flow.


Question 85:

According to the author of 'Mentality' of a nation is mainly product of its

  • (a) History
  • (b) international position
  • (c) Politics
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Refer to the passage. The author states that people should "begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality."


Step 2: This explicitly links the 'mentality' of a nation to its 'historical experience'.


Step 3: Therefore, the mentality is a product of its History.



\begin{quicktipbox
In reading comprehension, the answer is usually stated directly or closely paraphrased in the text. Look for keywords like 'resulting' or 'product of'.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In reading comprehension, the answer is usually stated directly or closely paraphrased in the text. Look for keywords like 'resulting' or 'product of'.


Question 86:

The need for a greater understanding between nations

  • (a) was always there
  • (b) is no longer there
  • (c) is more today than ever before
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: The passage begins with "At this stage of civilisation... it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished."


Step 2: The phrase "as never before" indicates that the urgency or necessity is currently at its highest point.


Step 3: This corresponds to the statement that the need is more today than ever before.



\begin{quicktipbox
Phrases like "as never before" or "it is essential" highlight the degree of importance the author places on the subject.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Phrases like "as never before" or "it is essential" highlight the degree of importance the author places on the subject.


Question 87:

The character of a nation is the result of its

  • (a) Mentality
  • (b) cultural heritage
  • (c) gross ignorance
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: The author mentions that one should know "the history... of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character."


Step 2: Here, the text directly attributes a nation's 'present character' to its 'social and political conditions'.


Step 3: This makes 'socio-political conditions' the correct answer.



\begin{quicktipbox
Keywords in the question like 'character' and 'result of' should be located in the text to find the determining factor mentioned immediately preceding them.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Keywords in the question like 'character' and 'result of' should be located in the text to find the determining factor mentioned immediately preceding them.


Question 88:

According to the author his countrymen should

  • (a) read the story of other nations
  • (b) have a better understanding of other nations
  • (c) not react to other actions
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: The author notes the fault of the English in expecting others to react as they do and suggests this "would be corrected if we knew the history... of the social and political conditions" of others.


Step 2: The overarching theme of the passage is to diminish "gross ignorance" and start to "understand a little of one another".


Step 3: Thus, the author argues his countrymen should strive for a better understanding of other nations.



\begin{quicktipbox
Identify the author's tone and the main argument. The passage is a call for cross-cultural empathy and historical understanding.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Identify the author's tone and the main argument. The passage is a call for cross-cultural empathy and historical understanding.


Question 89:

S1: A force of exists between everybody in the universe.

P: Normally it is very small but when the one of the bodies is a planet, like earth, the force is considerable.

Q: It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton.

R: Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth.

S: This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved.

S6: The greater the mass, the greater the earth's force of attraction on it. We can call this force of attraction gravity.

The Proper sequence should be:

  • (a) PRQS
  • (b) PRSQ
  • (c) QSRP
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: S1 introduces the existence of a universal force. Q follows logically as it mentions that this force has been investigated by scientists.


Step 2: After mentioning the investigation, S defines what the force depends on (mass of bodies).


Step 3: R provides a specific example of this force (everything near earth is attracted by its mass).


Step 4: P qualifies the magnitude of the force, stating it is normally small but considerable for planets. This leads naturally into S6, which summarizes that greater mass means greater attraction (gravity).


Step 5: The sequence is Q-S-R-P.



\begin{quicktipbox
In jumbled sentences, look for transition words and the flow from general concepts (force exists) to scientific background (Newton) to specific properties (mass dependence).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In jumbled sentences, look for transition words and the flow from general concepts (force exists) to scientific background (Newton) to specific properties (mass dependence).


Question 90:

S1: Calcutta unlike other cities kepts its trams.

P: As a result there horrendous congestion.

Q: It was going to be the first in South Asia.

R: They run down the centre of the road.

S: To ease in the city decided to build an underground railway line.

S6: The foundation stone was laid in 1972.

The Proper sequence should be:

  • (a) PRSQ
  • (b) PSQR
  • (c) SQRP
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: S1 mentions that Calcutta kept its trams. R explains where they run (down the centre of the road).


Step 2: P explains the consequence of trams running in the centre: "As a result there [is] horrendous congestion."


Step 3: S provides the solution to this congestion: building an underground railway line.


Step 4: Q provides a historical fact about the proposed underground line (first in South Asia).


Step 5: S6 concludes with the date the foundation stone was laid. The logical flow is R-P-S-Q.



\begin{quicktipbox
Look for cause-and-effect links. Here: Trams in centre (R) \(\rightarrow\) Congestion (P) \(\rightarrow\) Need for Underground (S).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Look for cause-and-effect links. Here: Trams in centre (R) \(\rightarrow\) Congestion (P) \(\rightarrow\) Need for Underground (S).


Question 91:

The miser gazed ...... at the pile of gold coins in front of him.

  • (a) Avidly
  • (b) Admiringly
  • (c) Thoughtfully
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the context: A 'miser' is someone who hoards wealth and loves money excessively.


Step 2: Evaluate the adverbs: 'Avidly' means with great interest or enthusiasm. 'Admiringly' implies respect. 'Thoughtfully' implies deep consideration. 'Earnestly' implies sincerity.


Step 3: 'Avidly' best captures the greedy and intense desire a miser feels towards gold.



\begin{quicktipbox
Select vocabulary that aligns with the specific character traits mentioned (miser \(\rightarrow\) greed/avidity).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Select vocabulary that aligns with the specific character traits mentioned (miser \(\rightarrow\) greed/avidity).


Question 92:

I saw a ...... of cows in the field.

  • (a) Group
  • (b) Herd
  • (c) Swarm
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the collective noun for cows.


Step 2: 'Herd' is the standard collective noun for cattle and cows.


Step 3: 'Swarm' is for insects, 'Flock' is for sheep or birds, and 'Group' is generic.



\begin{quicktipbox
Memorize standard collective nouns: Herd of cattle, Flock of sheep, Swarm of bees, Pride of lions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Memorize standard collective nouns: Herd of cattle, Flock of sheep, Swarm of bees, Pride of lions.


Question 93:

(a) We discussed about the problem so thoroughly

(b) on the eve of the examination

(c) that I found it very easy to work it out.

(d) No error.

  • (a) We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
  • (b) on the eve of the examination
  • (c) that I found it very easy to work it out.
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the verb 'discussed'.


Step 2: 'Discuss' is a transitive verb, meaning it acts directly on an object without a preposition.


Step 3: The correct usage is "We discussed the problem", not "discussed about the problem".



\begin{quicktipbox
Verbs like 'discuss', 'describe', and 'enter' (a place) generally do not take prepositions.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Verbs like 'discuss', 'describe', and 'enter' (a place) generally do not take prepositions.


Question 94:

(a) An Indian ship

(b) laden with merchandise

(c) got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.

(d) No error.

  • (a) An Indian ship
  • (b) laden with merchandise
  • (c) got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the word 'drowned'.


Step 2: 'Drowned' applies to living beings dying in water. For inanimate objects like ships, the correct term is 'sank'.


Step 3: The sentence should read "got sunk" or simply "sank".



\begin{quicktipbox
Distinguish between 'sink' (inanimate objects) and 'drown' (living beings).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Distinguish between 'sink' (inanimate objects) and 'drown' (living beings).


Question 95:

(a) I could not put up in a hotel

(b) because the boarding and lodging charges

(c) were exorbitant.

(d) No error.

  • (a) I could not put up in a hotel
  • (b) because the boarding and lodging charges
  • (c) were exorbitant.
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Check the phrasal verb 'put up'.


Step 2: The correct idiom for staying at a place is "put up at".


Step 3: "Put up in" is grammatically incorrect in this specific context.



\begin{quicktipbox
Idioms are fixed phrases. "Put up at a hotel" is the standard usage.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Idioms are fixed phrases. "Put up at a hotel" is the standard usage.


Question 96:

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 3
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the position of the black semicircle in each row.


Step 2: Row 1: Left, Right, Top.


Step 3: Row 2: Top, Left, ?. The missing position must be Right.


Step 4: Row 3: Right, Top, Left. This confirms the pattern that each row contains one Top, one Left, and one Right.


Step 5: Option (3) shows a circle with the right half shaded.



\begin{quicktipbox
In grid puzzles, check for the distribution of properties (like position) across rows and columns.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: In grid puzzles, check for the distribution of properties (like position) across rows and columns.


Question 97:

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 3
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Identify the symbols in the matrix rows.


Step 2: Row 1 has a plain cross, a cross with the bottom arm black, and a cross with the top arm black.


Step 3: Row 2 has Top-black, Plain, Bottom-black.


Step 4: Row 3 has Bottom-black, Top-black, ?.


Step 5: The missing symbol is the Plain cross to complete the set in the third row. Option (1) is the plain cross.



\begin{quicktipbox
Look for a Sudoku-like logic where each distinct symbol appears exactly once in each row and column.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Look for a Sudoku-like logic where each distinct symbol appears exactly once in each row and column.


Question 98:

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 3
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the line segments in the columns.


Step 2: Rule: Superimpose Column 1 and Column 2, and remove common lines (XOR logic) to get Column 3.


Step 3: Row 1: Left+Bottom (L) + Right+Bottom (J) \(\rightarrow\) Bottom is common and removed \(\rightarrow\) Left+Right (Parallel).


Step 4: Row 2: Left+Top + Right+Top \(\rightarrow\) Top is common and removed \(\rightarrow\) Left+Right (Parallel).


Step 5: Row 3: Left+Middle + Right+Middle \(\rightarrow\) Middle is common and removed \(\rightarrow\) Left+Right (Parallel vertical lines).


Step 6: Option (3) shows two parallel vertical lines.



\begin{quicktipbox
Visual arithmetic (addition/subtraction of lines) is a common pattern. 'XOR' means keep unique parts and discard overlapping parts.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Visual arithmetic (addition/subtraction of lines) is a common pattern. 'XOR' means keep unique parts and discard overlapping parts.


Question 99:

3, 4, 7, 7, 13, 13, 21, 22, 31, 34, ?

  • (a) 42
  • (b) 43
  • (c) 51
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: The series consists of two alternating sub-series.


Step 2: Odd terms (1st, 3rd, 5th...): 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, ?


Step 3: Differences in odd series: \(7-3=4\), \(13-7=6\), \(21-13=8\), \(31-21=10\). The next difference is 12.


Step 4: Next term = \(31 + 12 = 43\).


Step 5: (Check Even terms: 4, 7, 13, 22, 34... diffs 3, 6, 9, 12).



\begin{quicktipbox
When a series has repeated numbers or fluctuating lengths, check for two interleaved series.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When a series has repeated numbers or fluctuating lengths, check for two interleaved series.


Question 100:

Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the girl?

  • (a) Brother
  • (b) Nephew
  • (c) Uncle
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Break down the relationship chain from the end: "Father of my uncle". The girl's uncle's father is her Grandfather.


Step 2: "Daughter of [Grandfather]". This is either the girl's Mother or Aunt.


Step 3: "Son of [Mother/Aunt]". The boy is either the girl's Brother or Cousin.


Step 4: "Cousin" is not an option. "Brother" is an option (assuming the daughter is the girl's mother).



\begin{quicktipbox
Solve blood relation problems by backtracking from the end of the sentence to the beginning.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Solve blood relation problems by backtracking from the end of the sentence to the beginning.


Question 101:

QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, _____

  • (a) UAV
  • (b) UAT
  • (c) TAS
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze the first letters: Q, R, S, T. The next is U.


Step 2: Analyze the second letters: A, A, A, A. The next is A.


Step 3: Analyze the third letters: R, S, T, U. The next is V.


Step 4: Combine them: UAV.



\begin{quicktipbox
Analyze each letter position in the string independently to find the pattern.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Analyze each letter position in the string independently to find the pattern.


Question 102:

DEF, \(DEF_2\), \(DE_2F_2\), _____, \(D_2E_2F_3\)

  • (a) \(DEF_3\)
  • (b) \(D_3EF_3\)
  • (c) \(D_2E_3F\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Observe the subscript increments.


Step 2: Term 1: 1,1,1. Term 2: 1,1,2 (F increases). Term 3: 1,2,2 (E increases).


Step 3: Following the pattern, the next increment should be on D.


Step 4: Term 4: 2,2,2 (\(D\) increases). This gives \(D_2E_2F_2\).


Step 5: Check Term 5: 2,2,3 (F increases again). Pattern holds.



\begin{quicktipbox
Look for a cyclic or sequential increase in numbers/subscripts across the terms.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Look for a cyclic or sequential increase in numbers/subscripts across the terms.


Question 103:

Statements : Raman is always successful. No fool is always successful.

Conclusions :

I. Raman is a fool.

II. Raman is not a fool.

  • (a) If only conclusion I follows
  • (b) If only conclusion II follows
  • (c) If neither I nor II follows and
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Raman \(\in\) Successful People.


Step 2: Fools \(\cap\) Successful People = \(\emptyset\) (No fool is successful).


Step 3: Since Raman is in the "Successful" set and "Fools" are disjoint from it, Raman cannot be in the "Fool" set.


Step 4: Therefore, Raman is not a fool. Conclusion II follows.



\begin{quicktipbox
Use Venn diagrams or set logic. If A is B, and No C is B, then A is not C.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Use Venn diagrams or set logic. If A is B, and No C is B, then A is not C.


Question 104:

Statements : Some desks are caps. No cap is red.

Conclusions :

I. Some caps are desks.

II. No desk is red.

  • (a) If only conclusion I follows
  • (b) If only conclusion II follows
  • (c) If neither I nor II follows and
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: "Some desks are caps" implies "Some caps are desks" (Conversion). Thus, Conclusion I follows.


Step 2: "No cap is red" means Caps and Red things are disjoint.


Step 3: Desks overlap with Caps. The part of Desks that are Caps is not Red. However, the other part of Desks could be Red.


Step 4: We cannot conclude "No desk is red". Conclusion II does not follow.



\begin{quicktipbox
"Some A are B" always implies "Some B are A". Avoid determining universal negatives ("No A is C") from partial overlaps unless explicitly stated.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: "Some A are B" always implies "Some B are A". Avoid determining universal negatives ("No A is C") from partial overlaps unless explicitly stated.


Question 105:

Choose the set of figures which follows the given rule.

Rule : Closed figures losing their sides and open figures gaining their sides.

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 3
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Analyze Set 1 outer figures: Hexagon (6) \(\rightarrow\) Pentagon (5) \(\rightarrow\) Square (4) \(\rightarrow\) Triangle (3). These are closed figures losing sides.


Step 2: Analyze Set 1 inner figures: Line (1 side, open) \(\rightarrow\) V-shape (2 sides, open) \(\rightarrow\) Triangle (3 sides, closed) \(\rightarrow\) Square (4 sides, closed).


Step 3: The inner figures gain sides (1 \(\rightarrow\) 2 \(\rightarrow\) 3 \(\rightarrow\) 4).


Step 4: This perfectly matches the rule "Closed figures losing sides (outer) and open figures gaining sides (inner)".



\begin{quicktipbox
Check both the outer and inner patterns separately against the rule criteria.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Check both the outer and inner patterns separately against the rule criteria.


Question 106:

Let \(f(x) = \frac{ax+b}{cx+d}\), then \(fof(x) = x\), provided that :

  • (a) \(d = -a\)
  • (b) \(d = a\)
  • (c) \(a = b = 1\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Calculate \(f(f(x))\). \(f(f(x)) = \frac{a(\frac{ax+b}{cx+d}) + b}{c(\frac{ax+b}{cx+d}) + d}\).


Step 2: Simplify numerator and denominator: \(\frac{a^2x + ab + bcx + bd}{acx + bc + dcx + d^2} = \frac{x(a^2+bc) + b(a+d)}{x(c(a+d)) + (bc+d^2)}\).


Step 3: For this to equal \(x\), the coefficient of \(x\) in the numerator must be non-zero, and the constant term must be zero (\(b(a+d) = 0\)). Also, the \(x\) term in the denominator must be zero (\(c(a+d) = 0\)).


Step 4: This implies \(a+d = 0\), or \(d = -a\).



\begin{quicktipbox
For a linear fractional transformation \(f(x) = \frac{ax+b}{cx+d}\) to be its own inverse (\(f(f(x))=x\)), the trace of the matrix \(\begin{pmatrix} a & b
c & d \end{pmatrix}\) must be zero, i.e., \(a+d=0\).
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For a linear fractional transformation \(f(x) = \frac{ax+b}{cx+d}\) to be its own inverse (\(f(f(x))=x\)), the trace of the matrix \(\begin{pmatrix} a & b
c & d \end{pmatrix}\) must be zero, i.e., \(a+d=0\).


Question 107:

Two finite sets have \(m\) and \(n\) elements. The number of subsets of the first set is 112 more than that of the second set. The values of \(m\) and \(n\) respectively are,

  • (a) 4, 7
  • (b) 7, 4
  • (c) 4, 4
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Number of subsets of a set with \(k\) elements is \(2^k\).


Step 2: Given \(2^m - 2^n = 112\).


Step 3: Analyze powers of 2: 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, 256...


Step 4: We need a difference of 112. Notice that \(128 - 16 = 112\).


Step 5: \(128 = 2^7\) and \(16 = 2^4\). Thus, \(m=7\) and \(n=4\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Memorize powers of 2 up to 10 (\(2^{10}=1024\)) to quickly solve such integer equations.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Memorize powers of 2 up to 10 (\(2^{10}=1024\)) to quickly solve such integer equations.


Question 108:

If A and B are positive acute angles satisfying \(3\cos^2 A + 2\cos^2 B = 4\) and \(\frac{3\sin A}{\sin B} = \frac{2\cos B}{\cos A}\), Then the value of A + 2B is equal to :

  • (a) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Simplify eq 2: \(3\sin A \cos A = 2\sin B \cos B \implies 1.5 \sin 2A = \sin 2B\).


Step 2: Rewrite eq 1: \(3(1-\sin^2 A) + 2(1-\sin^2 B) = 4 \implies 5 - 3\sin^2 A - 2\sin^2 B = 4 \implies 3\sin^2 A + 2\sin^2 B = 1\).


Step 3: Substitute \(\sin^2 B = (1 - 3\sin^2 A)/2\) into the squared eq 2: \(9\sin^2 A (1-\sin^2 A) = 4\sin^2 B (1-\sin^2 B)\).


Step 4: Solving yields \(\sin A = 1/3\). Then \(\sin^2 B = 1/3 \implies \sin B = 1/\sqrt{3}\).


Step 5: Calculate \(\cos(A+2B) = \cos A \cos 2B - \sin A \sin 2B\). With \(\cos 2B = 1-2\sin^2 B = 1/3\) and \(\sin 2B = \sqrt{8}/3\), the expression evaluates to 0.


Step 6: \(\cos(A+2B) = 0 \implies A+2B = \pi/2\).



\begin{quicktipbox
When \(\cos(X) = 0\), the angle is \(\pi/2\) (for acute sums). Checking specific values for A and B can sometimes be faster than full derivation.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: When \(\cos(X) = 0\), the angle is \(\pi/2\) (for acute sums). Checking specific values for A and B can sometimes be faster than full derivation.


Question 109:

If \(\sin \theta_1 + \sin \theta_2 + \sin \theta_3 = 3\), then \(\cos \theta_1 + \cos \theta_2 + \cos \theta_3 =\)

  • (a) 0
  • (b) 1
  • (c) 2
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: The maximum value of \(\sin \theta\) is 1.


Step 2: For the sum to be 3, each term must be at its maximum. \(\sin \theta_1 = 1, \sin \theta_2 = 1, \sin \theta_3 = 1\).


Step 3: This implies \(\theta_1 = \theta_2 = \theta_3 = 90^\circ\).


Step 4: Consequently, \(\cos 90^\circ + \cos 90^\circ + \cos 90^\circ = 0 + 0 + 0 = 0\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Boundary value problems often require setting variables to their maximum or minimum limits.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Boundary value problems often require setting variables to their maximum or minimum limits.


Question 110:

If \(\tan (\cot x) = \cot (\tan x)\), then \(\sin 2x\) is equal to :

  • (a) \(\frac{2}{(2n+1)\pi}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{4}{(2n+1)\pi}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{2}{n(n+1)\pi}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Convert cot to tan: \(\tan(\cot x) = \tan(\frac{\pi}{2} - \tan x)\).


Step 2: Equate arguments: \(\cot x = n\pi + \frac{\pi}{2} - \tan x\).


Step 3: Rearrange: \(\tan x + \cot x = n\pi + \frac{\pi}{2} = \frac{(2n+1)\pi}{2}\).


Step 4: Simplify LHS: \(\frac{\sin x}{\cos x} + \frac{\cos x}{\sin x} = \frac{1}{\sin x \cos x} = \frac{2}{\sin 2x}\).


Step 5: \(\frac{2}{\sin 2x} = \frac{(2n+1)\pi}{2} \implies \sin 2x = \frac{4}{(2n+1)\pi}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Recall that \(\tan x + \cot x = \frac{2}{\sin 2x}\). This identity is very useful in trigonometric equations.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Recall that \(\tan x + \cot x = \frac{2}{\sin 2x}\). This identity is very useful in trigonometric equations.


Question 111:

The general solution of the equation \(\sin 2x + 2\sin x + 2 \cos x + 1 = 0\) is

  • (a) \(3n\pi - \frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (b) \(2n\pi + \frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (c) \(2n\pi + (-1)^n \sin^{-1}(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}})\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Use substitution \(\sin x + \cos x = t\). Then \(\sin 2x = t^2 - 1\).


Step 2: The equation becomes \((t^2 - 1) + 2t + 1 = 0 \implies t^2 + 2t = 0\).


Step 3: \(t(t+2) = 0\). So \(t=0\) or \(t=-2\).


Step 4: \(t = -2 \implies \sin x + \cos x = -2\), which has no real solution (min value is \(-\sqrt{2}\)).


Step 5: \(t = 0 \implies \sin x + \cos x = 0 \implies \tan x = -1\).


Step 6: General solution for \(\tan x = -1\) is \(x = n\pi - \frac{\pi}{4}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
For equations symmetric in sine and cosine, substitution \(t = \sin x \pm \cos x\) often simplifies the problem to a quadratic.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: For equations symmetric in sine and cosine, substitution \(t = \sin x \pm \cos x\) often simplifies the problem to a quadratic.


Question 112:

In a \(\Delta ABC\), if \(\frac{\cos A}{a} = \frac{\cos B}{b} = \frac{\cos C}{c}\), and the side \(a = 2\), then area of the triangle is

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Using Sine Rule (\(a = k \sin A\)), the given condition becomes \(\frac{\cos A}{k \sin A} = \frac{\cos B}{k \sin B} = \frac{\cos C}{k \sin C}\).


Step 2: This implies \(\cot A = \cot B = \cot C\), so \(A = B = C = 60^\circ\).


Step 3: The triangle is equilateral.


Step 4: Area = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} a^2 = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{4} (2)^2 = \sqrt{3}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
If \(\cot A = \cot B = \cot C\), the triangle is equilateral.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: If \(\cot A = \cot B = \cot C\), the triangle is equilateral.


Question 113:

If \(\sin^{-1}\left(\frac{2a}{1+a^2}\right) - \cos^{-1}\left(\frac{1-b^2}{1+b^2}\right) = \tan^{-1}\left(\frac{2x}{1-x^2}\right)\), then what is the value of x?

  • (a) \(a / b\)
  • (b) \(ab\)
  • (c) \(b / a\)
Correct Answer:
View Solution



Step 1: Use inverse trigonometric identities: \(2\tan^{-1}A = \sin^{-1}(\frac{2A}{1+A^2}) = \cos^{-1}(\frac{1-A^2}{1+A^2}) = \tan^{-1}(\frac{2A}{1-A^2})\).


Step 2: The equation becomes \(2\tan^{-1}a - 2\tan^{-1}b = 2\tan^{-1}x\).


Step 3: Divide by 2: \(\tan^{-1}a - \tan^{-1}b = \tan^{-1}x\).


Step 4: Use the formula \(\tan^{-1}a - \tan^{-1}b = \tan^{-1}(\frac{a-b}{1+ab})\).


Step 5: Thus, \(x = \frac{a-b}{1+ab}\).



\begin{quicktipbox
Recognize the standard forms for \(2\tan^{-1}x\) to simplify inverse trigonometric equations instantly.
\end{quicktipbox Quick Tip: Recognize the standard forms for \(2\tan^{-1}x\) to simplify inverse trigonometric equations instantly.


Question 114:

The arithmetic mean of numbers a, b, c, d, e is M. What is the value of (a – M) + (b – M) + (c – M) + (d – M) + (e – M) ?

  • (a) M
  • (b) a + b + c + d + e
  • (c) 0
  • (d) 5 M
Correct Answer: (c) 0
View Solution



The arithmetic mean \(M\) is defined as \(M = \frac{a+b+c+d+e}{5}\).


This implies \(\sum x = 5M\).


We want to find the sum of deviations from the mean: \(S = (a-M) + (b-M) + (c-M) + (d-M) + (e-M)\).


Grouping the terms: \(S = (a+b+c+d+e) - (M+M+M+M+M)\).


Substituting the sum: \(S = 5M - 5M\).

\(S = 0\).
Quick Tip: The algebraic sum of deviations of a set of values from their arithmetic mean is always zero.


Question 115:

The fourth term of an A.P. is three times of the first term and the seventh term exceeds the twice of the third term by one, then the common difference of the progression is

  • (a) 2
  • (b) 3
  • (c) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (d) –1
Correct Answer: (a) 2
View Solution



Let the first term be \(a\) and common difference be \(d\).


Condition 1: \(T_4 = 3 T_1 \implies a + 3d = 3a \implies 3d = 2a \implies a = 1.5d\).


Condition 2: \(T_7 = 2 T_3 + 1\).


Substitute terms: \(a + 6d = 2(a + 2d) + 1\).


Expand: \(a + 6d = 2a + 4d + 1\).


Rearrange: \(2d - a = 1\).


Substitute \(a = 1.5d\): \(2d - 1.5d = 1\).

\(0.5d = 1 \implies d = 2\).
Quick Tip: Write the word problem directly into linear equations using \(T_n = a + (n-1)d\) and solve the system.


Question 116:

The sum to n terms of the series \(\frac{1}{2} + \frac{3}{4} + \frac{7}{8} + \frac{15}{16} + \dots\) is

  • (a) \(n - 1 - 2^{-n}\)
  • (b) 1
  • (c) \(n - 1 + 2^{-n}\)
  • (d) \(1 + 2^{-n}\)
Correct Answer: (c) \(n - 1 + 2^{-n}\)
View Solution



The general term is \(T_r = \frac{2^r - 1}{2^r} = 1 - \frac{1}{2^r}\).


The sum is \(S_n = \sum_{r=1}^n \left( 1 - \frac{1}{2^r} \right)\).


Split the sum: \(S_n = \sum_{r=1}^n 1 - \sum_{r=1}^n \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^r\).


The first part is \(n\).


The second part is a G.P. with \(a=1/2, r=1/2\). Sum \(= \frac{1/2(1 - (1/2)^n)}{1 - 1/2} = 1 - \frac{1}{2^n}\).


Total sum \(S_n = n - \left( 1 - 2^{-n} \right) = n - 1 + 2^{-n}\).
Quick Tip: Recognize patterns like \(\frac{2^k-1}{2^k}\) as \(1 - \frac{1}{2^k}\) to simplify series summation.


Question 117:

If \(\log a, \log b, and \log c\) are in A.P. and also \(\log a - \log 2b, \log 2b - \log 3c, \log 3c - \log a\) are in A.P., then

  • (a) a, b, c, are in H.P.
  • (b) a, 2b, 3c are in A.P.
  • (c) a, b, c are the sides of a triangle
  • (d) none of the above
Correct Answer: (c) a, b, c are the sides of a triangle
View Solution



From first A.P.: \(2\log b = \log a + \log c \implies b^2 = ac\).


For the second A.P., let terms be \(x, y, z\). The sum \(x+y+z = 0\) (telescoping log terms).


If terms in A.P. sum to 0, the middle term is 0.


So, \(\log 2b - \log 3c = 0 \implies 2b = 3c \implies c = \frac{2b}{3}\).


Substitute into \(b^2 = ac\): \(b^2 = a(\frac{2b}{3}) \implies b = \frac{2a}{3} \implies a = \frac{3b}{2}\).


Ratios: \(a : b : c = \frac{3}{2} : 1 : \frac{2}{3} = 9 : 6 : 4\).


Triangle inequality: \(6+4 > 9\), \(9+4 > 6\), \(9+6 > 4\). All hold.
Quick Tip: If three numbers are in A.P. and their sum is 0, the middle number must be 0.


Question 118:

\(\left(x + \frac{1}{x}\right)^2 + \left(x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2}\right)^2 + \dots upto n terms is\)

  • (a) \(\frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^2-1} \times \frac{x^{2n+2}+1}{x^{2n}} + 2n\)
  • (b) \(\frac{x^{2n}+1}{x^2+1} \times \frac{x^{2n+2}-1}{x^{2n}} - 2n\)
  • (c) \(\frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^2-1} \times \frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^{2n}} - 2n\)
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (a) \(\frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^2-1} \times \frac{x^{2n+2}+1}{x^{2n}} + 2n\)
View Solution



Expand term \(k\): \((x^k + x^{-k})^2 = x^{2k} + x^{-2k} + 2\).


Sum has three parts: \(\sum x^{2k}\), \(\sum x^{-2k}\), and \(\sum 2\).


Part 1: \(x^2 \frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^2-1}\).


Part 2: \(x^{-2} \frac{x^{-2n}-1}{x^{-2}-1} = \frac{1-x^{2n}}{x^{2n}(1-x^2)} = \frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^{2n}(x^2-1)}\).


Combine parts 1 \& 2: \(\frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^2-1} \left( x^2 + \frac{1}{x^{2n}} \right) = \frac{x^{2n}-1}{x^2-1} \frac{x^{2n+2}+1}{x^{2n}}\).


Part 3 is \(2n\). Add to result.
Quick Tip: Sum the constant terms separately from the geometric progressions.


Question 119:

If \(z_1 = \sqrt{3} + i\sqrt{3}\) and \(z_2 = \sqrt{3} + i\), then the complex number \((\frac{z_1}{z_2})^{50}\) lies in the :

  • (a) first quadrant
  • (b) second quadrant
  • (c) third quadrant
  • (d) fourth quadrant
Correct Answer: (a) first quadrant
View Solution



Find argument of \(z_1\): \(\tan \theta_1 = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}} = 1 \implies \theta_1 = \frac{\pi}{4}\).


Find argument of \(z_2\): \(\tan \theta_2 = \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} \implies \theta_2 = \frac{\pi}{6}\).


Argument of \(\frac{z_1}{z_2}\) is \(\theta_1 - \theta_2 = \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{\pi}{6} = \frac{3\pi - 2\pi}{12} = \frac{\pi}{12}\).


Argument of power 50 is \(50 \times \frac{\pi}{12} = \frac{25\pi}{6}\).


Simplify angle: \(\frac{25\pi}{6} = 4\pi + \frac{\pi}{6}\).


The effective angle is \(\frac{\pi}{6}\), which is in the first quadrant.
Quick Tip: \(Arg(z^n) = n \times Arg(z)\). Always simplify the final angle modulo \(2\pi\) to find the quadrant.


Question 120:

If the matrix \(\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 3 & \lambda+2
2 & 4 & 8
3 & 5 & 10 \end{bmatrix}\) is singular, then \(\lambda =\)

  • (a) –2
  • (b) 4
  • (c) 2
  • (d) –4
Correct Answer: (b) 4
View Solution



For a singular matrix, the determinant is zero.

\(D = 1(40 - 40) - 3(20 - 24) + (\lambda + 2)(10 - 12) = 0\).

\(D = 0 - 3(-4) + (\lambda + 2)(-2) = 0\).

\(12 - 2(\lambda + 2) = 0\).

\(12 - 2\lambda - 4 = 0 \implies 8 = 2\lambda\).

\(\lambda = 4\).
Quick Tip: A square matrix is singular if and only if its determinant is zero.


Question 121:

Let \(\alpha_1, \alpha_2\) and \(\beta_1, \beta_2\) be the roots of \(ax^2 + bx + c = 0\) and \(px^2 + qx + r = 0\) respectively. If the system of equations \(\alpha_1 y + \alpha_2 z = 0\) and \(\beta_1 y + \beta_2 z = 0\) has a non-trivial solution, then

  • (a) \(\frac{b^2}{ac} = \frac{q^2}{pr}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{c^2}{r^2} = \frac{ab}{pq}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{a^2}{p^2} = \frac{bc}{qr}\)
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (a) \(\frac{b^2}{ac} = \frac{q^2}{pr}\)
View Solution



For non-trivial solution, the determinant of coefficients must be zero: \(\alpha_1 \beta_2 - \alpha_2 \beta_1 = 0\).


This implies \(\frac{\alpha_1}{\alpha_2} = \frac{\beta_1}{\beta_2}\), meaning the ratio of roots is the same for both equations.


Let ratio be \(k\). The condition for roots ratio \(k\) in \(Ax^2+Bx+C=0\) is \(\frac{B^2}{AC} = \frac{(k+1)^2}{k}\).


Since \(k\) is same, \(\frac{b^2}{ac} = \frac{q^2}{pr}\).
Quick Tip: If roots are in the same ratio, the discriminants normalized by the product of roots are proportional, specifically \(b^2/ac\).


Question 122:

If [ ] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to the real number under consideration and –1 < x < 0; 0 < y < 1; 1 < z < 2 , then the value of the determinant \(\begin{vmatrix} [x]+1 & [y] & [z]
[x] & [y]+1 & [z]
[x] & [y] & [z]+1 \end{vmatrix}\) is

  • (a) [z]
  • (b) [y]
  • (c) [x]
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (a) [z]
View Solution



Determine values: \([x] = -1\), \([y] = 0\), \([z] = 1\).


Substitute into determinant: \(\begin{vmatrix} -1+1 & 0 & 1
-1 & 0+1 & 1
-1 & 0 & 1+1 \end{vmatrix} = \begin{vmatrix} 0 & 0 & 1
-1 & 1 & 1
-1 & 0 & 2 \end{vmatrix}\).


Expand along first row: \(0(...) - 0(...) + 1(0 - (-1)) = 1\).


Check options: (a) \([z]=1\), (b) \([y]=0\), (c) \([x]=-1\).


Matches option (a).
Quick Tip: Evaluate the integer functions first to convert the algebraic determinant into a simple numerical one.


Question 123:

If \(\alpha, \beta\) are the roots of the equations \(x^2 – 2x – 1 = 0\), then what is the value of \(\alpha^2 \beta^{-2} + \alpha^{-2} \beta^2\)

  • (a) –2
  • (b) 0
  • (c) 30
  • (d) 34
Correct Answer: (d) 34
View Solution



Expression is \(\frac{\alpha^2}{\beta^2} + \frac{\beta^2}{\alpha^2}\). Let \(S = \frac{\alpha}{\beta} + \frac{\beta}{\alpha}\).


Then required value is \(S^2 - 2\).

\(S = \frac{\alpha^2 + \beta^2}{\alpha \beta}\).


From equation: \(\alpha+\beta=2, \alpha\beta=-1\).

\(\alpha^2+\beta^2 = (\alpha+\beta)^2 - 2\alpha\beta = 4 - 2(-1) = 6\).

\(S = \frac{6}{-1} = -6\).


Value \(= (-6)^2 - 2 = 36 - 2 = 34\).
Quick Tip: Use symmetric functions of roots. \(x^2+1/x^2 = (x+1/x)^2 - 2\).


Question 124:

If a, b and c are real numbers then the roots of the equation (x – a) (x – b) + (x – b) (x – c) + (x – c) (x – a) = 0 are always

  • (a) real
  • (b) imaginary
  • (c) positive
  • (d) negative
Correct Answer: (a) real
View Solution



The discriminant \(D\) of this quadratic is derived as \(4(a+b+c)^2 - 12(ab+bc+ca)\).


Simplify \(D/4 = a^2+b^2+c^2 - ab - bc - ca\).


Multiply by 2: \(2(D/4) = (a-b)^2 + (b-c)^2 + (c-a)^2\).


Since squares are always non-negative, \(D \ge 0\).


Therefore, roots are always real.
Quick Tip: The expression \(a^2+b^2+c^2-ab-bc-ca\) is always non-negative for real numbers.


Question 125:

\(\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{a^n + b^n}{a^n - b^n}\), where \(a > b > 1\), is equal to

  • (a) –1
  • (b) 1
  • (c) 0
  • (d) None
Correct Answer: (b) 1
View Solution



Divide numerator and denominator by the highest power base, \(a^n\).

\(\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1 + (b/a)^n}{1 - (b/a)^n}\).


Since \(a > b\), fraction \(\frac{b}{a} < 1\).


As \(n \to \infty, (b/a)^n \to 0\).


Limit becomes \(\frac{1+0}{1-0} = 1\).
Quick Tip: In limits of the form \(\frac{A^n}{B^n}\), divide by the term with the largest base.


Question 126:

The number of points at which the function \(f(x) = \frac{1}{\log |x|}\) is discontinuous is :

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 3
  • (d) 4
Correct Answer: (c) 3
View Solution



The function is discontinuous when the denominator is 0 or undefined.


1. Denominator undefined when argument of log is 0: \(|x| = 0 \implies x = 0\).


2. Denominator is zero: \(\log |x| = 0 \implies |x| = 1 \implies x = 1, x = -1\).


Total points of discontinuity are \(\{0, 1, -1\}\). Count is 3.
Quick Tip: Always check both domain constraints (log argument \(>0\)) and denominator zeros.


Question 127:

If \(f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{x \log \cos x}{\log(1+x^2)} & , x \neq 0
0 & , x = 0 \end{cases}\) then f(x) is

  • (a) continuous as well as differentiable at x = 0
  • (b) continuous but not differentiable at x = 0
  • (c) differentiable but not continuous at x = 0
  • (d) neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 0
Correct Answer: (a) continuous as well as differentiable at x = 0
View Solution



Continuity: \(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x (-x^2/2)}{x^2} = 0 = f(0)\). So continuous.


Differentiability: \(f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(h) - 0}{h} = \lim \frac{\log \cos h}{\log(1+h^2)}\).


Using L'Hospital or expansions: \(\frac{-h^2/2}{h^2} = -1/2\).


Since the limit exists, it is differentiable.
Quick Tip: Use series expansion \(\log(1+x) \approx x\) and \(\cos x \approx 1-x^2/2\) for quick limits near 0.


Question 128:

For any differentiable function y of x, \(\frac{d^2x}{dy^2} \left( \frac{dy}{dx} \right)^3 + \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} =\)

  • (a) 0
  • (b) y
  • (c) – y
  • (d) x
Correct Answer: (a) 0
View Solution



Use the relation between second derivatives: \(\frac{d^2x}{dy^2} = -\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} \cdot \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^{-3}\).


Multiply by \(\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^3\): \(\frac{d^2x}{dy^2} \left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^3 = -\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\).


Adding \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\) to both sides gives 0.
Quick Tip: Recall the identity \(\frac{d^2x}{dy^2} = - \frac{y''}{(y')^3}\).


Question 129:

The set of all values of a for which the function f(x) = (a\textsuperscript{2} – 3a + 2) (cos\textsuperscript{2}x/4 –sin\textsuperscript{2}x/4) + (a –1) x + sin 1 does not possess critical points is

  • (a) [1, \(\infty\))
  • (b) (0, 1) \(\cup\) (1, 4)
  • (c) (–2, 4)
  • (d) (1, 3) \(\cup\) (3, 5)
Correct Answer: (b) (0, 1) \(\cup\) (1, 4)
View Solution



Simplify \(f(x) = (a-1)(a-2)\cos(x/2) + (a-1)x + \sin 1\).

\(f'(x) = -\frac{1}{2}(a-1)(a-2)\sin(x/2) + (a-1)\).


For no critical points, \(f'(x) \neq 0\). Factoring out \((a-1)\): \((a-1)[1 - \frac{a-2}{2}\sin(x/2)] \neq 0\).


So \(a \neq 1\). And \(\sin(x/2) \neq \frac{2}{a-2}\).


This implies \(|\frac{2}{a-2}| > 1 \implies |a-2| < 2 \implies 0 < a < 4\).


Excluding \(a=1\), the set is \((0, 1) \cup (1, 4)\).
Quick Tip: For \(A \sin x + B \neq 0\) to hold for all \(x\), we need \(|B| > |A|\).


Question 130:

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: (A) f(x)=cos x (B) f(x)=ln x (C) f(x)=x\textsuperscript{2}-5x+4 (D) f(x)=e\textsuperscript{x}

  • (a) 1 4 5 3
  • (b) 1 3 5 4
  • (c) 5 4 2 3
  • (d) 5 3 2 4
Correct Answer: (c) 5 4 2 3
View Solution



(A) \(\cos x\): Periodic, cuts x-axis infinitely many times. Matches 5.


(B) \(\ln x\): Defined for \(x>0\), cuts x-axis at \(x=1\) only. Matches 4.


(C) \(x^2-5x+4 = (x-1)(x-4)\): Cuts x-axis at 1 and 4. Matches 2.


(D) \(e^x\): Always positive, never cuts x-axis. Cuts y-axis at 1. Matches 3.


Sequence: 5, 4, 2, 3.
Quick Tip: Analyze roots (\(f(x)=0\)) for x-axis intersections and \(f(0)\) for y-axis intersections.


Question 131:

What is the x-coordinate of the point on the curve f(x) = \(\sqrt{x}\) (7x – 6), where the tangent is parallel to x-axis?

  • (a) \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{6}{7}\)
  • (d) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (b) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
View Solution



The function is \(f(x) = 7x^{3/2} - 6x^{1/2}\).


For the tangent to be parallel to the x-axis, the derivative \(f'(x)\) must be zero.

\(f'(x) = 7 \left( \frac{3}{2} \right) x^{1/2} - 6 \left( \frac{1}{2} \right) x^{-1/2}\).


Set \(f'(x) = 0\):

\(\frac{21}{2} \sqrt{x} - \frac{3}{\sqrt{x}} = 0\).

\(\frac{21}{2} \sqrt{x} = \frac{3}{\sqrt{x}}\).


Multiply both sides by \(2\sqrt{x}\) (for \(x \neq 0\)):

\(21x = 6\).

\(x = \frac{6}{21} = \frac{2}{7}\).
Quick Tip: A tangent is parallel to the x-axis when the slope of the curve (the first derivative) is zero.


Question 132:

A wire 34 cm long is to be bent in the form of a quadrilateral of which each angle is 90°. What is the maximum area which can be enclosed inside the quadrilateral?

  • (a) 68 cm\textsuperscript{2}
  • (b) 70 cm\textsuperscript{2}
  • (c) 71.25 cm\textsuperscript{2}
  • (d) 72.25 cm\textsuperscript{2}
Correct Answer: (d) 72.25 cm\textsuperscript{2}
View Solution



A quadrilateral with each angle 90° is a rectangle.


Let length be \(l\) and width be \(w\). The perimeter is \(2(l+w) = 34\), so \(l+w = 17\).


We want to maximize Area \(A = l \times w = l(17-l)\).


For maximum area of a rectangle with fixed perimeter, it must be a square.

\(l = w = \frac{17}{2} = 8.5\) cm.


Max Area \(= 8.5 \times 8.5 = 72.25\) cm\textsuperscript{2.
Quick Tip: For a fixed perimeter, the rectangle with the maximum area is always a square. Area = \((Perimeter/4)^2\).


Question 133:

Consider the following statements in respect of the function f(x) = x\textsuperscript{3} – 1, x \(\in\) [–1, 1]. \newline I. f(x) is increasing in [– 1, 1] \newline II. f(x) has no root in (– 1, 1). \newline Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (a) Only I
  • (b) Only II
  • (c) Both I and II
  • (d) Neither I nor II
Correct Answer: (c) Both I and II
View Solution



Statement I: \(f'(x) = 3x^2\). Since \(x^2 \geq 0\) for all real \(x\), \(f'(x) \geq 0\). Thus, \(f(x)\) is increasing in \([-1, 1]\). Statement I is correct.


Statement II: Roots of \(f(x) = 0\) implies \(x^3 - 1 = 0 \implies x = 1\).


The root \(x=1\) lies at the boundary of the interval \([-1, 1]\), not in the open interval \((-1, 1)\).


Therefore, there is no root strictly inside \((-1, 1)\). Statement II is correct.
Quick Tip: Check interval boundaries carefully. An open interval \((a, b)\) does not include endpoints \(a\) and \(b\).


Question 134:

At an extreme point of a function f(x), the tangent to the curve is

  • (a) parallel to the x-axis
  • (b) perpendicular to the x-axis
  • (c) inclined at an angle 45° to the x-axis
  • (d) inclined at an angle 60° to the x-axis
Correct Answer: (a) parallel to the x-axis
View Solution



By Fermat's Theorem on stationary points, at a local extremum (maximum or minimum) of a differentiable function, the first derivative \(f'(x)\) is zero.

\(f'(x) = 0\) represents the slope of the tangent.


A slope of 0 implies the tangent line is horizontal, i.e., parallel to the x-axis.
Quick Tip: Extreme points (maxima/minima) occur where the slope of the tangent is zero.


Question 135:

The curve y = xe\textsuperscript{x} has minimum value equal to

  • (a) \(-\frac{1}{e}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{1}{e}\)
  • (c) – e
  • (d) e
Correct Answer: (a) \(-\frac{1}{e}\)
View Solution



Find the derivative: \(\frac{dy}{dx} = 1 \cdot e^x + x \cdot e^x = e^x(1+x)\).


Set to 0 for critical points: \(e^x(1+x) = 0 \implies x = -1\) (since \(e^x \neq 0\)).


Check second derivative: \(y'' = e^x(1+x) + e^x = e^x(x+2)\).


At \(x = -1\), \(y'' = e^{-1}(-1+2) = \frac{1}{e} > 0\). This indicates a minimum.


Minimum value \(y(-1) = (-1)e^{-1} = -\frac{1}{e}\).
Quick Tip: Use the second derivative test: if \(f'(c)=0\) and \(f''(c)>0\), then \(f(c)\) is a local minimum.


Question 136:

A ray of light coming from the point (1, 2) is reflected at a point A on the x-axis and then passes through the point (5, 3). The co-ordinates of the point A is

  • (a) \((\frac{13}{5}, 0)\)
  • (b) \((\frac{5}{13}, 0)\)
  • (c) (–7, 0)
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (a) \((\frac{13}{5}, 0)\)
View Solution



Let the point of reflection be \(A(x, 0)\).


The reflection of the point \(P(1, 2)\) in the x-axis is \(P'(1, -2)\).


Since light travels in a straight line path via reflection, the points \(P'\), \(A\), and \(Q(5, 3)\) must be collinear.


Find the equation of the line passing through \(P'(1, -2)\) and \(Q(5, 3)\):


Slope \(m = \frac{3 - (-2)}{5 - 1} = \frac{5}{4}\).


Equation: \(y - 3 = \frac{5}{4}(x - 5)\).


To find intersection with x-axis, set \(y=0\):

\(-3 = \frac{5}{4}(x - 5)\).

\(-12 = 5(x - 5) \implies -12 = 5x - 25\).

\(5x = 13 \implies x = \frac{13}{5}\).


Point \(A\) is \((\frac{13}{5}, 0)\).
Quick Tip: Reflection problems can be solved by reflecting the source point across the mirror axis and connecting it directly to the destination point.


Question 137:

The equation x\textsuperscript{2} – 2\(\sqrt{3}\)xy + 3y\textsuperscript{2 – 3x + 3\(\sqrt{3}\)y – 4 = 0 represents

  • (a) a pair of intersecting lines
  • (b) a pair of parallel lines with distance between them \(\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (c) a pair of parallel lines with distance between them \(5\sqrt{2}\)
  • (d) a conic section, which is not a pair of straight lines
Correct Answer: (b) a pair of parallel lines with distance between them \(\frac{5}{2}\)
View Solution



The quadratic terms form a perfect square: \((x - \sqrt{3}y)^2\). This indicates parallel lines.


Let the equation be \((x - \sqrt{3}y)^2 - 3(x - \sqrt{3}y) - 4 = 0\).


Let \(u = x - \sqrt{3}y\). Then \(u^2 - 3u - 4 = 0\).

\((u-4)(u+1) = 0\).


The lines are \(x - \sqrt{3}y - 4 = 0\) and \(x - \sqrt{3}y + 1 = 0\).


Distance \(d = \frac{|c_1 - c_2|}{\sqrt{a^2 + b^2}} = \frac{|-4 - 1|}{\sqrt{1^2 + (-\sqrt{3})^2}}\).

\(d = \frac{5}{\sqrt{1+3}} = \frac{5}{2}\).
Quick Tip: If \(ax^2 + 2hxy + by^2\) is a perfect square (\(h^2=ab\)), the equation represents parallel lines.


Question 138:

The line joining (5, 0) to (10cos\(\theta\), 10sin\(\theta\)) is divided internally in the ratio 2 : 3 at P. If \(\theta\) varies, then the locus of P is

  • (a) a pair of straight lines
  • (b) a circle
  • (c) a straight line
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (b) a circle
View Solution



Let \(P(h, k)\) divide the segment in ratio \(2:3\). \(A(5,0), B(10\cos\theta, 10\sin\theta)\).

\(h = \frac{2(10\cos\theta) + 3(5)}{2+3} = \frac{20\cos\theta + 15}{5} = 4\cos\theta + 3\).

\(k = \frac{2(10\sin\theta) + 3(0)}{5} = \frac{20\sin\theta}{5} = 4\sin\theta\).


Rearrange: \(\cos\theta = \frac{h-3}{4}\) and \(\sin\theta = \frac{k}{4}\).


Eliminate \(\theta\) using \(\sin^2\theta + \cos^2\theta = 1\).

\((\frac{k}{4})^2 + (\frac{h-3}{4})^2 = 1\).

\(k^2 + (h-3)^2 = 16\).


Replacing \((h,k)\) with \((x,y)\), we get \((x-3)^2 + y^2 = 16\), which is a circle.
Quick Tip: To find a locus involving a parameter \(\theta\), isolate \(\sin\theta\) and \(\cos\theta\) and use the identity \(\sin^2\theta + \cos^2\theta = 1\).


Question 139:

The number of integral values of \(\lambda\) for which x\textsuperscript{2 + y\textsuperscript{2 + \(\lambda\)x + (1 – \(\lambda\))y + 5 = 0 is the equation of a circle whose radius cannot exceed 5, is

  • (a) 14
  • (b) 18
  • (c) 16
  • (d) None
Correct Answer: (c) 16
View Solution



The radius \(R\) is given by \(\sqrt{g^2 + f^2 - c}\).

\(R = \sqrt{\left(\frac{\lambda}{2}\right)^2 + \left(\frac{1-\lambda}{2}\right)^2 - 5}\).


Given \(R \leq 5 \implies R^2 \leq 25\).

\(\frac{\lambda^2}{4} + \frac{(1-\lambda)^2}{4} - 5 \leq 25\).

\(\lambda^2 + (1 - 2\lambda + \lambda^2) - 20 \leq 100\).

\(2\lambda^2 - 2\lambda - 119 \leq 0\).


Roots of \(2\lambda^2 - 2\lambda - 119 = 0\) are \(\frac{2 \pm \sqrt{4 + 952}}{4} = \frac{2 \pm \sqrt{956}}{4} \approx \frac{2 \pm 30.9}{4}\).

\(\lambda \in [\approx -7.2, \approx 8.2]\).


Integral values are \(-7, -6, \dots, 0, \dots, 8\).


Total values = \(8 - (-7) + 1 = 16\).
Quick Tip: For \(ax^2+bx+c \le 0\) (with \(a>0\)), the solution is between the roots \([x_1, x_2]\).


Question 140:

The lengths of the tangent drawn from any point on the circle 15x\textsuperscript{2} + 15y\textsuperscript{2} – 48x + 64y = 0 to the two circles 5x\textsuperscript{2} + 5y\textsuperscript{2} – 24x + 32y + 75 = 0 and 5x\textsuperscript{2} + 5y\textsuperscript{2} – 48x + 64y + 300 = 0 are in the ratio of

  • (a) 1 : 2
  • (b) 2 : 3
  • (c) 3 : 4
  • (d) None
Correct Answer: (a) 1 : 2
View Solution



Let \(P\) be a point on \(C: 15(x^2+y^2) - 48x + 64y = 0\).


Note that for \(P\), \(x^2+y^2 = \frac{16}{5}(3x - 4y)\).


Tangent length to \(C_1\): \(L_1^2 = x^2+y^2 - \frac{24}{5}x + \frac{32}{5}y + 15\).


Substitute \(x^2+y^2\): \(L_1^2 = \frac{16}{5}(3x-4y) - \frac{8}{5}(3x-4y) + 15 = \frac{8}{5}(3x-4y) + 15\).


Tangent length to \(C_2\): \(L_2^2 = x^2+y^2 - \frac{48}{5}x + \frac{64}{5}y + 60\).


Substitute \(x^2+y^2\): \(L_2^2 = \frac{16}{5}(3x-4y) - \frac{16}{5}(3x-4y) + 60 = 60\).


Wait, calculation check. The locus circle \(C\) is actually the radical axis geometric definition?


Let's use specific point \((0,0)\) on \(C\). \(15(0)+15(0)-0+0=0\). It satisfies.


Length from origin to \(C_1\): \(L_1^2 = 75/5 = 15\). \(L_1 = \sqrt{15}\).


Length from origin to \(C_2\): \(L_2^2 = 300/5 = 60\). \(L_2 = \sqrt{60} = 2\sqrt{15}\).


Ratio \(L_1 : L_2 = \sqrt{15} : 2\sqrt{15} = 1 : 2\).
Quick Tip: If a result holds for "any point", pick the simplest point (like the origin) to calculate the answer quickly.


Question 141:

The length of the chord x + y = 3 intercepted by the circle x\textsuperscript{2} + y\textsuperscript{2} – 2x – 2y – 2 = 0 is

  • (a) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (c) \(\sqrt{14}\)
  • (d) \(\frac{\sqrt{7}}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (c) \(\sqrt{14}\)
View Solution



Center of circle \(C = (1, 1)\). Radius \(r = \sqrt{1^2 + 1^2 - (-2)} = \sqrt{4} = 2\).


Perpendicular distance \(d\) from \(C(1,1)\) to line \(x+y-3=0\):

\(d = \frac{|1 + 1 - 3|}{\sqrt{1^2 + 1^2}} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\).


Length of chord \(= 2\sqrt{r^2 - d^2}\).

\(= 2\sqrt{4 - \frac{1}{2}} = 2\sqrt{\frac{7}{2}} = 2 \frac{\sqrt{7}}{\sqrt{2}} = \sqrt{2} \cdot \sqrt{7} = \sqrt{14}\).
Quick Tip: Length of chord \(= 2\sqrt{r^2 - d^2}\), where \(d\) is perpendicular distance from center to chord.


Question 142:

The locus of the point of intersection of two tangents to the parabola y\textsuperscript{2} = 4ax, which are at right angle to one another is

  • (a) x\textsuperscript{2} + y\textsuperscript{2} = a\textsuperscript{2}
  • (b) ay\textsuperscript{2} =x
  • (c) x + a = 0
  • (d) x + y \(\pm\) a = 0
Correct Answer: (c) x + a = 0
View Solution



The locus of the intersection of perpendicular tangents to a parabola is its directrix.


For parabola \(y^2 = 4ax\), the directrix is the line \(x = -a\).


Equation: \(x + a = 0\).
Quick Tip: For any conic, the locus of perpendicular tangents is the director circle (for ellipse/hyperbola) or the directrix (for parabola).


Question 143:

The parabola having its focus at (3, 2) and directrix along the y-axis has its vertex at

  • (a) (2, 2)
  • (b) \((\frac{3}{2}, 2)\)
  • (c) \((\frac{1}{2}, 2)\)
  • (d) \((\frac{2}{3}, 2)\)
Correct Answer: (b) \((\frac{3}{2}, 2)\)
View Solution



The vertex is the midpoint of the perpendicular segment from the focus to the directrix.


Focus \(S = (3, 2)\). Directrix is x = 0 (y-axis).


The perpendicular from \(S\) to directrix is horizontal line \(y=2\).


Intersection point \(M = (0, 2)\).


Vertex \(V = Midpoint(S, M) = \left( \frac{3+0}{2}, \frac{2+2}{2} \right) = \left( \frac{3}{2}, 2 \right)\).
Quick Tip: Vertex is always exactly halfway between the focus and the directrix.


Question 144:

The number of values of r satisfying the equation \textsuperscript{39}C\textsubscript{3r – 1} – \textsuperscript{39}C\textsubscript{r\textsuperscript{2}} = \textsuperscript{39}C\textsubscript{r\textsuperscript{2} – 1} – \textsuperscript{39}C\textsubscript{3r} is

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 3
  • (d) 4
Correct Answer: (b) 2
View Solution



Rearranging the equation:

\(^{39}C_{3r-1} + ^{39}C_{3r} = ^{39}C_{r^2-1} + ^{39}C_{r^2}\).


Using Pascal's Identity \(^{n}C_{k-1} + ^{n}C_k = ^{n+1}C_k\):

\(^{40}C_{3r} = ^{40}C_{r^2}\).


This implies \(3r = r^2\) OR \(3r + r^2 = 40\).


Case 1: \(r^2 - 3r = 0 \implies r(r-3)=0\). \(r=0\) (invalid as \(3r-1<0\)) or \(r=3\).


Case 2: \(r^2 + 3r - 40 = 0 \implies (r+8)(r-5)=0\). \(r=-8\) (invalid) or \(r=5\).


Valid integer values for \(r\) are 3 and 5.


Number of values = 2.
Quick Tip: Recall \(^{n}C_x = ^{n}C_y \implies x=y or x+y=n\).


Question 145:

If \(\sum_{r=0}^{n} \frac{r+2}{r+1} \textsuperscript{n}C_r = \frac{2^8 – 1}{6}\), then n =

  • (a) 8
  • (b) 4
  • (c) 6
  • (d) 5
Correct Answer: (d) 5
View Solution



Rewrite term: \(\frac{r+2}{r+1} = 1 + \frac{1}{r+1}\).


Sum \(= \sum_{r=0}^n \left( ^{n}C_r + \frac{1}{r+1}^{n}C_r \right)\).


First part: \(\sum ^{n}C_r = 2^n\).


Second part: \(\sum \frac{1}{r+1}^{n}C_r = \frac{1}{n+1} \sum_{r=0}^n ^{n+1}C_{r+1} = \frac{2^{n+1}-1}{n+1}\).


Equation: \(2^n + \frac{2^{n+1}-1}{n+1} = \frac{255}{6} = 42.5\).


Test option (d) \(n=5\):

\(2^5 + \frac{2^6-1}{6} = 32 + \frac{63}{6} = 32 + 10.5 = 42.5\).


Matches.
Quick Tip: Integration identity: \(\int (1+x)^n dx\) leads to \(\sum \frac{C_r}{r+1}\). Or use property \(\frac{1}{r+1} C_r^n = \frac{1}{n+1} C_{r+1}^{n+1}\).


Question 146:

All the words that can be formed using alphabets A, H, L, U and R are written as in a dictionary (no alphabet is repeated). Rank of the word RAHUL is

  • (a) 71
  • (b) 72
  • (c) 73
  • (d) 74
Correct Answer: (d) 74
View Solution



Alphabetical order: A, H, L, R, U.


Words starting with A: \(4! = 24\).


Words starting with H: \(4! = 24\).


Words starting with L: \(4! = 24\).


Now we reach R.


Next letter A (matches): R A ...


Remaining: H, L, U.


Next letter H (matches): R A H ...


Remaining: L, U. Order L then U.


1. R A H L U (Rank \(24 \times 3 + 1 = 73\))


2. R A H U L (Rank 74)
Quick Tip: Count permutations for each preceding letter systematically.


Question 147:

If the sum of odd numbered terms and the sum of even numbered terms in the expansion of (x + a)\textsuperscript{n} are A and B respectively, then the value of (x\textsuperscript{2} – a\textsuperscript{2})\textsuperscript{n} is

  • (a) A\textsuperscript{2} – B\textsuperscript{2}
  • (b) A\textsuperscript{2} + B\textsuperscript{2}
  • (c) 4AB
  • (d) None
Correct Answer: (a) A\textsuperscript{2} – B\textsuperscript{2}
View Solution



We have \((x+a)^n = A + B\).


Also, \((x-a)^n = A - B\) (signs alternate for even positions).

\((x^2 - a^2)^n = [(x+a)(x-a)]^n = (x+a)^n (x-a)^n\).

\(= (A+B)(A-B) = A^2 - B^2\).
Quick Tip: \((x+a)^n = O + E\) and \((x-a)^n = O - E\). Their product gives the expansion of difference of squares.


Question 148:

If the third term in the expansion of \([x + x^{\log_{10} x}]^5\) is 10\textsuperscript{6, then x may be

  • (a) 1
  • (b) \(\sqrt{10}\)
  • (c) 10
  • (d) 10\textsuperscript{–2/5}
Correct Answer: (c) 10
View Solution


\(T_3 = ^{5}C_2 (x)^3 (x^{\log_{10} x})^2 = 10 x^3 x^{2\log x}\).


Given \(10 x^{3 + 2\log x} = 10^6\).

\(x^{3 + 2\log x} = 10^5\).


Take \(\log_{10}\): \((3 + 2\log x)\log x = 5\). Let \(y = \log x\).

\(2y^2 + 3y - 5 = 0 \implies (2y+5)(y-1) = 0\).

\(y = 1 \implies x = 10\).

\(y = -2.5 \implies x = 10^{-2.5}\).


Option (c) is 10.
Quick Tip: Convert exponential equations to algebraic quadratics by taking logarithms.


Question 149:

If three vertices of a regular hexagon are chosen at random, then the chance that they form an equilateral triangle is :

  • (a) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
  • (d) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (c) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
View Solution



Total ways to choose 3 vertices from 6: \(^{6}C_3 = \frac{6 \times 5 \times 4}{6} = 20\).


A regular hexagon has vertices \(V_1, V_2, V_3, V_4, V_5, V_6\).


Equilateral triangles are formed by choosing alternating vertices: \(\{V_1, V_3, V_5\}\) and \(\{V_2, V_4, V_6\}\).


There are exactly 2 such triangles.


Probability \(= \frac{2}{20} = \frac{1}{10}\).
Quick Tip: Visualizing the regular polygon helps count specific shapes inscribed within it.


Question 150:

A man takes a step forward with probability 0.4 and backward with probability 0.6. The probability that at the end of eleven steps he is one step away from the starting point is

  • (a) \(\frac{2^5 \cdot 3^5}{5^{10}}\)
  • (b) \(462 \times \left( \frac{6}{25} \right)^5\)
  • (c) \(231 \times \frac{3^5}{5^{10}}\)
  • (d) none of these
Correct Answer: (b) \(462 \times \left( \frac{6}{25} \right)^5\)
View Solution



Let \(F\) be forward steps and \(B\) be backward steps. \(F+B=11\).


Final position \(X = F - B\). We need \(|X|=1\), so \(F-B=1\) or \(F-B=-1\).


Case 1: \(F-B=1 \implies 2F=12 \implies F=6, B=5\).


Prob \(P_1 = ^{11}C_6 (0.4)^6 (0.6)^5\).


Case 2: \(F-B=-1 \implies 2F=10 \implies F=5, B=6\).


Prob \(P_2 = ^{11}C_5 (0.4)^5 (0.6)^6\).


Total Prob \(= P_1 + P_2 = ^{11}C_5 (0.4)^5 (0.6)^5 [0.4 + 0.6]\).

\(= 462 \cdot (0.24)^5 \cdot 1\).

\(= 462 \left( \frac{24}{100} \right)^5 = 462 \left( \frac{6}{25} \right)^5\).
Quick Tip: Sum probabilities of all disjoint favourable cases. Note that \(^{n}C_r = ^{n}C_{n-r}\).


*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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