AILET 2025 BA LLB Question Paper (Available) Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf
| Updated On - Dec 10, 2024
AILET 2025 BA LLB Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available for download. NLU Delhi has conducted AILET 2025 on December 08, 2024. The question paper comprises a total of 150 questions divided among three sections.
AILET 2025 BA LLB Question Paper with Solution PDF
| AILET 2025 BA LLB Question Paper with Answer Key PDF |  Download |
Check Solution |
|---|
AILET 2025 BA LLB Question Paper with Solution
| Question | Answer | Detailed Solution |
|---|---|---|
| Q1. What does the Basel Ban amendment address? (1) prohibits use of CFCs in industrial settings (2) imposition of strict limitation of anthropogenic emissions by sources and removals by sinks (3) prohibits movement of hazardous waste from OCD and non-OCD states (4) prohibition of activities that threaten biological diversity by regulating the transportation of invasive species |
(3) prohibits movement of hazardous waste from OCD and non-OCD states | The Basel Ban Amendment to the Basel Convention, adopted in 1995, specifically addresses the movement of hazardous waste. It prohibits the export of hazardous waste from developed countries (OECD) to developing countries (non-OECD). This amendment aims to prevent the exploitation of less developed countries as dumping grounds for hazardous materials, ensuring that they do not become a source of environmental and health risks. |
| Q2. What is the main purpose of the Kyoto Protocol? (1) To eliminate CFCs and prevent ozone depletion (2) To set legally binding targets for greenhouse gas emissions reductions (3) To enforce limits on pollutants in the atmosphere (4) To regulate carbon dioxide emissions from vehicles |
(2) To set legally binding targets for greenhouse gas emissions reductions | The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, was an international treaty that set legally binding targets for industrialized countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions. The protocol aimed to combat global climate change by requiring these countries to reduce their emissions by an average of 5.2% below 1990 levels during the period 2008-2012. |
| Q3. Which of the following is a key principle of the Paris Agreement? (1) Countries must implement mandatory carbon taxes (2) The goal is to limit global temperature rise to below 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels (3) It provides financial compensation to affected countries (4) It ensures that only developed countries must reduce their emissions |
(2) The goal is to limit global temperature rise to below 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels | The Paris Agreement, adopted in 2015, focuses on global efforts to limit the increase in global temperature. The main goal is to limit global temperature rise to below 2°C, with an ambition to limit the rise to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels to avoid dangerous climate impacts. |
| Q4. What is the primary objective of the Montreal Protocol? (1) To ban the use of ozone-depleting chemicals (2) To eliminate all industrial pollutants (3) To reduce global carbon emissions (4) To regulate global water resources |
(1) To ban the use of ozone-depleting chemicals | The Montreal Protocol, adopted in 1987, aims to protect the ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS), including CFCs and halons. It has been successful in significantly reducing the amount of harmful chemicals released into the atmosphere. |
| Q5. The Green Climate Fund was established under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to: (1) Finance clean energy projects in developed countries (2) Provide financial assistance to developing countries to combat climate change (3) Enforce environmental regulations across the globe (4) Set a global carbon price |
(2) Provide financial assistance to developing countries to combat climate change | The Green Climate Fund was established in 2010 as part of the UNFCCC to support developing countries in their efforts to mitigate and adapt to climate change. The fund is designed to help these countries transition to low-emission, climate-resilient development paths. |
| Q6. What is the purpose of the Paris Agreement’s 'Nationally Determined Contributions' (NDCs)? (1) To set legally binding emissions reduction targets for each country (2) To establish a global carbon price (3) To allow countries to define their own climate action plans (4) To ban fossil fuel use in all countries |
(3) To allow countries to define their own climate action plans | The Paris Agreement uses Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) as a way for each country to set its own climate goals and plans. While the NDCs are not legally binding, they reflect each country’s commitment to reducing greenhouse gas emissions and addressing climate change based on their capacities and circumstances. |
| Q7. The Kyoto Protocol and Paris Agreement differ primarily in which of the following aspects? (1) The Kyoto Protocol focuses on binding emissions targets for developed countries, while the Paris Agreement includes voluntary targets for all countries (2) The Kyoto Protocol mandates emissions reductions for all countries, while the Paris Agreement includes no such mandates (3) The Kyoto Protocol provides financial assistance to developing countries, while the Paris Agreement does not (4) The Kyoto Protocol is a global agreement, while the Paris Agreement is regional |
(1) The Kyoto Protocol focuses on binding emissions targets for developed countries, while the Paris Agreement includes voluntary targets for all countries | The Kyoto Protocol set binding emissions targets for developed countries, while the Paris Agreement allows countries to set voluntary targets for emissions reduction. The Paris Agreement also includes more flexibility, encouraging all countries to contribute to the global climate effort, regardless of their level of development. |
| Q8. The Green Climate Fund is primarily financed through which of the following? (1) Government donations from developed countries (2) Private sector investments (3) A tax on carbon emissions (4) International bonds issued by the UNFCCC |
(1) Government donations from developed countries | The Green Climate Fund is primarily financed by government contributions from developed countries. These contributions help support the climate change mitigation and adaptation efforts of developing countries, particularly in terms of low-emission development and climate resilience. |
| Q9. Which of the following is the primary function of the World Bank’s Climate Change Action Plan? (1) To regulate international carbon markets (2) To assist in financing renewable energy projects worldwide (3) To coordinate global climate negotiations (4) To provide loans to developing countries for climate change mitigation and adaptation |
(4) To provide loans to developing countries for climate change mitigation and adaptation | The World Bank’s Climate Change Action Plan provides financial resources and technical support to developing countries to help them reduce emissions and adapt to climate change. This includes funding for renewable energy projects, climate-resilient infrastructure, and other environmental initiatives. |
| Q10. Which of the following environmental agreements is specifically focused on the protection of biodiversity? (1) The Basel Convention (2) The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) (3) The Kyoto Protocol (4) The Paris Agreement |
(2) The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) | The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), adopted in 1992, is a global treaty focused specifically on the conservation of biological diversity, the sustainable use of its components, and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources. It aims to address biodiversity loss and support sustainable development. |
| Q11. What is the main goal of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)? (1) To limit global warming to below 1.5°C (2) To provide financial assistance to developing countries (3) To establish a legally binding global agreement on emissions reductions (4) To promote international cooperation on climate change mitigation and adaptation |
(4) To promote international cooperation on climate change mitigation and adaptation | The main goal of the UNFCCC is to foster international cooperation to mitigate the effects of climate change and adapt to its consequences. It provides a framework for global negotiations and sets the foundation for binding agreements, such as the Paris Agreement. |
| Q12. The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise to well below which temperature compared to pre-industrial levels? (1) 1°C (2) 1.5°C (3) 2°C (4) 3°C |
(2) 1.5°C | The Paris Agreement's central goal is to limit the increase in global average temperature to well below 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels, in an effort to prevent catastrophic climate impacts. |
| Q13. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'climate justice'? (1) Ensuring that only industrialized nations bear the burden of emissions reductions (2) Focusing only on mitigation efforts to combat climate change (3) Ensuring equitable distribution of the impacts and benefits of climate change actions (4) Promoting the use of nuclear energy as a climate change solution |
(3) Ensuring equitable distribution of the impacts and benefits of climate change actions | Climate justice is centered around ensuring that the impacts of climate change and the efforts to mitigate and adapt to it are distributed equitably. It emphasizes addressing the vulnerabilities of marginalized groups, such as developing nations, low-income communities, and indigenous populations. |
| Q14. Which of the following is a key feature of the Paris Agreement's transparency framework? (1) A system of mandatory emissions reduction targets for all countries (2) Regular reporting by countries on their emissions and climate actions (3) A carbon tax on global emissions (4) A global carbon market to track emissions reductions |
(2) Regular reporting by countries on their emissions and climate actions | The Paris Agreement includes a transparency framework where countries are required to regularly report on their greenhouse gas emissions and the progress they are making in implementing their climate action plans. This ensures accountability and promotes trust among nations. |
| Q15. Which of the following mechanisms is included in the Paris Agreement to help developing countries address climate change? (1) Global emissions trading schemes (2) The Green Climate Fund (3) A cap-and-trade system (4) A worldwide carbon tax |
(2) The Green Climate Fund | The Green Climate Fund is a financial mechanism under the Paris Agreement aimed at helping developing countries mitigate and adapt to climate change. It provides funding to support low-emission and climate-resilient development projects in vulnerable countries. |
| Q16. What is the main aim of the Paris Agreement in terms of emissions? (1) To eliminate emissions from all countries (2) To ensure that emissions are reduced at a uniform rate globally (3) To keep global temperature rise below 2°C by reducing greenhouse gas emissions (4) To create a global carbon tax system to reduce emissions |
(3) To keep global temperature rise below 2°C by reducing greenhouse gas emissions | The Paris Agreement aims to limit global temperature rise to below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, primarily through reducing greenhouse gas emissions. The focus is on reducing emissions from all countries to slow the impacts of climate change. |
| Q17. Which of the following is the central feature of the 'Nationally Determined Contributions' (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement? (1) Each country sets its own climate action goals and targets (2) A global emissions cap is set for all countries (3) A system of penalties for failing to meet emissions targets (4) All countries must follow the same emission reduction pathway |
(1) Each country sets its own climate action goals and targets | Under the Paris Agreement, countries voluntarily determine their own climate action goals, known as Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). These goals are tailored to the country's circumstances and capabilities, and are intended to be updated every five years to increase ambition. |
| Q18. What does the term 'climate finance' refer to in the context of the Paris Agreement? (1) Funding for climate change mitigation and adaptation in developing countries (2) A global fund for promoting renewable energy projects (3) Subsidies for fossil fuel industries (4) Financial aid for disaster recovery efforts |
(1) Funding for climate change mitigation and adaptation in developing countries | Climate finance refers to financial resources provided to developing countries to help them mitigate and adapt to climate change. This funding helps these nations address the impacts of climate change while promoting sustainable development. |
| Q19. Which of the following is the primary source of greenhouse gases contributing to global warming? (1) Deforestation (2) Ozone-depleting substances (3) Fossil fuel combustion (4) Agricultural practices |
(3) Fossil fuel combustion | Fossil fuel combustion for electricity generation, transportation, and industrial processes is the primary source of greenhouse gases, particularly carbon dioxide, which contributes significantly to global warming. |
| Q20. Which of the following countries has not ratified the Paris Agreement as of 2021? (1) United States (2) China (3) India (4) Saudi Arabia |
(1) United States | The United States initially withdrew from the Paris Agreement under President Donald Trump but rejoined under President Joe Biden in 2021. Therefore, while the U.S. has officially ratified the agreement again, it had not been a member between 2017-2021. |
| Q21. Which of the following are key objectives of the Paris Agreement? (1) To provide financial support to developed countries (2) To limit global warming to below 2°C compared to pre-industrial levels (3) To reduce emissions only in developed countries (4) To prohibit the use of fossil fuels by 2050 |
(2) To limit global warming to below 2°C compared to pre-industrial levels | The Paris Agreement focuses on limiting global temperature rise to well below 2°C compared to pre-industrial levels, with efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C, to avoid the most dangerous impacts of climate change. |
| Q22. Which of the following countries has made the largest financial commitment to climate action under the Paris Agreement? (1) China (2) United States (3) European Union (4) India |
(2) United States | Under the Paris Agreement, the United States pledged the largest financial commitment to support climate action, particularly to developing countries. However, the amount and commitment may change with different administrations. |
| Q23. Which of the following is a major criticism of the Paris Agreement? (1) It does not include a mechanism to enforce compliance (2) It requires countries to reduce emissions only in the long term (3) It mandates specific actions for all countries (4) It places no financial burden on developed countries |
(1) It does not include a mechanism to enforce compliance | One major criticism of the Paris Agreement is the lack of an enforcement mechanism to ensure compliance with emission reduction targets. The agreement relies on voluntary commitments, and there are no penalties for non-compliance. |
| Q24. How often must countries update their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Agreement? (1) Every year (2) Every 5 years (3) Every 10 years (4) Every 15 years |
(2) Every 5 years | Countries are required to update their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) every five years to reflect greater ambition in reducing greenhouse gas emissions, in line with the goals of the Paris Agreement. |
| Q25. What is the role of the Green Climate Fund in the Paris Agreement? (1) To fund the development of fossil fuel infrastructure (2) To support developing countries with financial resources for climate adaptation and mitigation (3) To enforce emissions regulations for developed countries (4) To subsidize energy prices in developing countries |
(2) To support developing countries with financial resources for climate adaptation and mitigation | The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was established under the Paris Agreement to provide financial assistance to developing countries for climate change mitigation and adaptation efforts, helping them transition to low-emission and climate-resilient development. |
| Q26. Which term best characterises the fusion of traditional craftsmanship and cutting-edge technology in the context of creating sub-subparts, as discussed in the passage? (1) Dichotomy (2) Outmodedness (3) Paradox (4) Synergy |
(4) Synergy | The passage highlights the harmonious combination of traditional craftsmanship and modern technology as a form of synergy, where both elements complement each other to achieve precision in manufacturing. |
| Q27. Assertion (A): Sub-subparts like dowels and screws are often overlooked in woodworking. Reasoning (R): Sub-subparts play a crucial role in determining the structural integrity and functionality of the final product. Select the option that applies correctly to the assertion and reasoning. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true, but (R) is false (4) (A) is false, but (R) is true |
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) | Both the assertion and reasoning are true, but the reasoning does not fully explain why sub-subparts are often overlooked; their critical role is typically underestimated. Hence, the reasoning is true, but it does not fully explain the assertion. |
| Q28. The author would probably agree with which of the following statements? (1) Sub-subparts are irrelevant in modern carpentry (2) Modern techniques like laser cutting have improved precision in sub-subpart creation (3) Traditional craftsmanship has no place in woodworking today (4) Sub-subparts are only used for aesthetic purposes in carpentry |
(2) Modern techniques like laser cutting have improved precision in sub-subpart creation | The author highlights how modern techniques like laser cutting have revolutionized the precision and quality of sub-subparts in manufacturing, making them a vital part of the process. |
| Q29. Which of the following might the author cite as an example of the fusion of traditional craftsmanship and cutting-edge technology, as described in the passage? (1) The decline of traditional woodworking methods (2) The exclusive use of 3D printing in carpentry (3) The abandonment of sub-subparts in modern carpentry (4) The use of CAD for designing wood pieces |
(4) The use of CAD for designing wood pieces | The author emphasizes the role of CAD in combining traditional craftsmanship with modern technology to design and create precise woodworking components, illustrating the fusion of both approaches. |
| Q30. Given the author’s position on the importance of sub-subparts in carpentry, what stand would the author probably take on the issue of using alternative materials in woodworking? (1) The author would likely advocate for alternative materials (2) The author would likely reject alternative materials in favour of traditional ones (3) The author’s stance on alternative materials is unclear (4) The author would likely argue for a balanced approach, incorporating both traditional and modern materials |
(4) The author would likely argue for a balanced approach, incorporating both traditional and modern materials | Given the author’s emphasis on the synergy between traditional and modern techniques, it is likely that they would advocate for a balanced approach, using both traditional and alternative materials in woodworking. |
| Q31. Which of the following lines best summarises the essence of the conclusion regarding the significance of sub-subparts in modern manufacturing? (1) Traditional craftsmanship is no longer relevant in today’s industries (2) Sub-subparts are insignificant in modern manufacturing compared to larger components (3) The fusion of tradition and innovation stresses the importance of sub-subparts in modern manufacturing (4) Manufacturers should prioritise speed and quantity over craftsmanship |
(3) The fusion of tradition and innovation stresses the importance of sub-subparts in modern manufacturing | The conclusion emphasizes the synergy between traditional craftsmanship and modern technology, highlighting how this fusion makes sub-subparts essential in modern manufacturing. |
| Q32. What did Kaldi observe that led to the discovery of coffee? (1) Monks brewing coffee in a monastery (2) Goats eating red berries and becoming energetic (3) Coffee beans being roasted in a coffee house (4) Coffee plantations being established |
(2) Goats eating red berries and becoming energetic | Kaldi, a goat herder, noticed his goats becoming energetic after eating red berries from a particular tree. This led to the discovery of coffee’s stimulating effects. |
| Q33. How did the Industrial Revolution impact coffee consumption? (1) It led to the decline of coffee popularity (2) It resulted in the establishment of coffee plantations in Europe (3) It accelerated coffee production and introduced new brewing methods (4) It made coffee an exclusive drink for the wealthy |
(3) It accelerated coffee production and introduced new brewing methods | The Industrial Revolution led to faster production and new innovations in brewing methods, including the creation of instant coffee. |
| Q34. Consider the following statement - Coffee originated in Ethiopia and quickly spread to the Arabian Peninsula and beyond, where it became popular. Which of the following best supports the statement? (1) Coffee houses transformed into vital centers of cultural exchange and economic activity within the Islamic world (2) Monastic communities utilized coffee as a means to enhance concentration during extended periods of prayer (3) The invigorating properties of coffee gained significant appreciation among intellectuals during the Age of Enlightenment (4) The dissemination of coffee from Ethiopia catalyzed its cultivation across various regions, including Turkey and Europe |
(4) The dissemination of coffee from Ethiopia catalyzed its cultivation across various regions, including Turkey and Europe | The passage highlights how coffee spread from Ethiopia to the Arabian Peninsula, Turkey, and Europe, influencing its cultivation in multiple regions. |
| Q35. Statement 1: The introduction of coffee to the European market was met with immediate acceptance and no resistance from religious authorities. Statement 2: The cultural significance of coffee houses in Europe during the Age of Enlightenment extended beyond mere beverage consumption to become venues for political and philosophical discourse. Choose the correct option: (1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true (2) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false (3) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true (4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false |
(3) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true | Statement 1 is false because coffee faced initial resistance from religious authorities in Europe, particularly from the Catholic Church. Statement 2 is true as coffee houses became important cultural and intellectual hubs during the Age of Enlightenment, where political and philosophical discussions took place. |
| Q36. What does the phrase ‘emerging as social hubs’ mean in the context of the passage? (1) Gradually becoming popular locations for individual study and reflection (2) Gradually becoming isolated areas with limited social activity and interaction (3) Transforming into commercial businesses with some community involvement (4) Developing into centers for community interaction and cultural exchange |
(4) Developing into centers for community interaction and cultural exchange | The phrase refers to coffee houses transforming into gathering places where people could engage in social interaction, share music, and participate in intellectual discussions, making them centers of cultural and community exchange. |
| Q37. Which of the following words is a synonym for “cultivation” as used in the context of the passage? (1) Development (2) Tending (3) Growth (4) Destruction |
(1) Development | “Cultivation” in the passage refers to the development of coffee cultivation into a major global commodity, not just its physical growth. |
| Q38. Which among the following sentences uses the word ‘frolicking’ in the same sense as used in the passage? (1) The athletes were frolicking about their training regimen before the competition (2) The children were frolicking along the beach, their joy palpable in the cool evening air (3) She found the frolicking music to be very relaxing during her study session (4) The artist spent the afternoon frolicking with her paintbrushes on the canvas |
(2) The children were frolicking along the beach, their joy palpable in the cool evening air | “Frolicking” in the passage refers to lively, energetic movement, which matches the description of the children on the beach. |
| Q39. Statement 1: The spread of coffee cultivation in tropical regions was solely driven by domestic consumption in Ethiopia. Statement 2: The global demand for coffee prompted the establishment of plantations in various parts of the world, significantly influencing trade patterns. Choose the correct option: (1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true (2) Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false (3) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true (4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false |
(3) Statement 1 is false, but Statement 2 is true | Statement 1 is incorrect because coffee spread beyond Ethiopia due to global demand. Statement 2 is correct as the global demand for coffee led to the establishment of plantations worldwide. |
| Q40. What factors contributed to the transformation of coffee from a regional specialty to a major global commodity? (1) The establishment of colonial plantations and the growing global demand for coffee (2) The initial rejection of coffee by European consumers and its subsequent revival (3) The decrease in the prominence of coffee houses and a transition to home brewing (4) The popularity of instant coffee and a growing preference for tea instead of coffee |
(1) The establishment of colonial plantations and the growing global demand for coffee | The transformation of coffee into a global commodity was driven by the establishment of colonial plantations and the growing global demand for coffee. |
| Q41. In what ways has coffee maintained its cultural significance in modern society? (1) Coffee is only enjoyed in traditional ceremonies and has lost its daily appeal (2) Coffee is now primarily consumed in fast food chains, diminishing its cultural role (3) Coffee has become a luxury item, only accessible to wealthy consumers (4) Coffee remains a popular beverage and symbolizes social interaction |
(4) Coffee remains a popular beverage and symbolizes social interaction | Coffee continues to be a widely enjoyed beverage, playing a key role in social gatherings and cultural practices. It remains a symbol of social interaction and community. |
| Q42. Ensuring ‘even stitches and prevent puckering’ refers to the (1) Tension management (2) Colour selection (3) Yarn thickness (4) Stitch pattern |
(A) Tension management | The emphasis on ‘even stitches and prevent puckering’ refers to controlling tension to ensure consistent stitches and avoid uneven fabric. |
| Q43. What is the correct order of stitching steps to make a sleeve using the short-row technique? (1) Cast on stitches, create short rows, sew side seams, finish edges (2) Create short rows, cast on stitches, sew side seams, finish edges (3) Sew side seams, cast on stitches, create short rows, finish edges (4) Cast on stitches, sew side seams, finish edges, create short rows |
(A) Cast on stitches, create short rows, sew side seams, finish edges | The correct process for making a sleeve involves casting on stitches first, followed by creating short rows, sewing side seams, and finally finishing edges. |
| Q44. What is the primary focus of the Fair Isle method? (1) Creating seamless garments (2) Using multiple colours for intricate patterns (3) Speed and dexterity in knitting (4) Shaping complex garments using coloured yarns |
(B) Using multiple colours for intricate patterns | The Fair Isle method focuses on using multiple yarn colours in a single row to create detailed, visually appealing patterns. |
| Q45. What does the emphasis on wrapping the stitch before turning suggest about the short-row technique? (1) It is a complicated method that requires extensive practice (2) It is only relevant for advanced knitters (3) Proper execution is crucial to ensure a polished finish (4) It is optional and can be skipped for faster results |
(C) Proper execution is crucial to ensure a polished finish | The wrapping technique is important to ensure smooth transitions and a professional finish in the short-row method. |
| Q46. Based on the description of the Continental style, which of the following can be inferred about its efficiency? (1) It is slower than other knitting methods (2) It is best suited for complex patterns only (3) It requires more yarn than traditional methods (4) It enables quicker advancement in design |
(D) It enables quicker advancement in design | The Continental style is known for allowing quicker movements, which enhances the knitter’s speed and efficiency, especially in design development. |
| Q47. Considering the techniques discussed, what might be inferred about the overall skill level required for mastering Fair Isle and Continental knitting? (1) Both techniques can be mastered without any prior experience (2) Advanced techniques require a strong foundation in basic knitting skills (3) They are accessible only to expert knitters with years of experience (4) No specific skills are necessary for these techniques |
(B) Advanced techniques require a strong foundation in basic knitting skills | Both Fair Isle and Continental techniques require a solid understanding of basic knitting skills before moving on to these advanced methods. |
| Q48. Which option includes the most appropriate meaning of the underlined phrase in the given sentence? “With each stitch, simply pick the yarn with your right needle, forming a quick and fluid motion.” (1) Grasp the yarn firmly (2) Lift the yarn easily (3) Catch the yarn smoothly (4) Pull the yarn tightly |
(C) Catch the yarn smoothly | The phrase “pick the yarn” refers to catching the yarn smoothly with the needle in a fluid motion. |
| Q49. What can be inferred about the relationship between mastering advanced knitting techniques and a knitter’s design capabilities? (1) Mastering advanced techniques limits a knitter’s creativity to specific patterns (2) Advanced techniques enhance a knitter’s ability to create innovative and varied designs (3) Mastery of these techniques is irrelevant to design capabilities (4) A knitter can achieve the same results using only basic techniques |
(B) Advanced techniques enhance a knitter’s ability to create innovative and varied designs | Mastering advanced techniques opens up more creative possibilities and allows for more complex and varied design options. |
| Q50. How might the integration of both the Fair Isle method and the short-row technique influence a knitter’s approach to garment construction? (1) It streamlines the process, making it easier for all skill levels to create garments (2) It fosters creativity through intricate designs, needing advanced skills to execute (3) It restricts the knitter to simple patterns, limiting creative possibilities (4) It minimizes the need for precision, allowing for a more relaxed approach to knitting |
(B) It fosters creativity through intricate designs, needing advanced skills to execute | The combination of the Fair Isle and short-row techniques offers a wide array of intricate designs, requiring advanced skills for successful execution. |
| Q51. Which nation became the first country to adopt Bitcoin as a legal tender? (1) Nigeria (2) El Salvador (3) Republic of Turkey (4) Central African Republic |
(B) El Salvador | El Salvador made history by becoming the first country to officially adopt Bitcoin as legal tender in 2021. |
| Q52. Which among the following is considered as the world’s largest stateless population? (1) Chakmas (2) Feyli Kurd (3) Rohingyas (4) Tibetan Refugees |
(C) Rohingyas | The Rohingyas, a Muslim minority group from Myanmar, are considered the world’s largest stateless population, facing persecution and displacement. |
| Q53. Which athlete achieved the distinction of becoming the first Indian athlete from independent India to win two medals in a single edition of the Summer Olympics? (1) Neeraj Chopra (2) Harmanpreet Singh (3) Lakshya Sen (4) Manu Bhakar |
(D) Manu Bhakar | Manu Bhakar became the first Indian athlete from independent India to win two medals in a single edition of the Summer Olympics, achieving this feat in shooting. |
| Q54. Who is credited with being the first oncologist in India to have successfully performed a bone marrow transplant? (1) Dr. K. K. Agarwal (2) Dr. Suresh H. Advani (3) Dr. Mansoor Hasan (4) Dr. Indira Hinduja |
(B) Dr. Suresh H. Advani | Dr. Suresh H. Advani is known for being the first oncologist in India to successfully perform a bone marrow transplant, contributing significantly to cancer treatment in the country. |
| Q55. Which of the following is considered to be the closest equivalent of a ‘Nobel Prize’ in the field of Mathematics? (1) Hess-Leffler Medal (2) Gording-Harmander Award (3) Fields Medal (4) Shaw-Wolf Prize |
(C) Fields Medal | The Fields Medal is widely regarded as the most prestigious award in mathematics, often referred to as the "Nobel Prize" of the field. |
| Q56. The 2024 International Booker Prize was awarded to the book ‘Kairos’ by Jenny Erpenbeck. Which of the following makes this win notable? (1) First book translated from German to win the prize (2) First book written by a stateless person to win the prize (3) First book to win both the Booker Prize and Pulitzer Prize in the same year (4) First autobiography to win the prize |
(A) First book translated from German to win the prize | The win is notable because ‘Kairos’ is the first book translated from German to win the International Booker Prize. |
| Q57. M.S. Dhoni is considered to be one of the most successful captains and players in the popular Indian Premier League (IPL). Which other franchise in addition to the Chennai Super Kings has Dhoni played for? (1) Rising Pune Supergiants (2) Gujarat Titans (3) Rajasthan Royals (4) Sunrisers Hyderabad |
(A) Rising Pune Supergiants | In addition to Chennai Super Kings, M.S. Dhoni played for the Rising Pune Supergiants for two seasons (2016 and 2017). |
| Q58. Which Indian football sporting club won the inaugural ASEAN Football Championship hosted by Indonesia in 2003? (1) Mohan Bagan AC (2) Salgaocar FC (3) NorthEast United FC (4) East Bengal FC |
(D) East Bengal FC | East Bengal FC won the inaugural ASEAN Football Championship in 2003, a significant achievement in Indian football history. |
| Q59. Perseverance Rover, launched by NASA, is famous for its mission to explore the surface of which celestial body, particularly to seek signs of ancient life and collect samples for future return to Earth? (1) Mercury (2) Mars (3) Juno (4) Titan |
(B) Mars | The Perseverance Rover was launched by NASA with the primary mission to explore Mars, searching for signs of ancient life and collecting samples for future return to Earth. |
| Q60. The Nobel Peace Prize for 2024 was awarded to: (1) Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (2) Amnesty International (3) Nihon Hidankyo (4) UN Peacekeeping Force |
(C) Nihon Hidankyo | The Nobel Peace Prize for 2024 was awarded to Nihon Hidankyo, the Japanese organization advocating for the rights of hibakusha (atomic bomb survivors) and working towards nuclear disarmament. |
| Q61. Which of the following is not a member of the United Nations? (1) Taiwan (2) United States of America (3) Honduras (4) Brazil |
(A) Taiwan | Taiwan is not a member of the United Nations due to the One-China policy. While Taiwan functions as an independent nation, it is not recognized as a UN member state. |
| Q62. The third Japan-India 2+2 Ministerial Meeting was held in New Delhi in 2024. Which is a core focus area for these meetings? (1) Joint space exploration programme (2) Bilateral security and defence cooperation (3) Regional migration framework (4) Joint climate change action plan |
(B) Bilateral security and defence cooperation | The core focus of the Japan-India 2+2 Ministerial Meetings is on enhancing bilateral security and defense cooperation, including strategic and military ties between the two nations. |
| Q64. Nupi Lan, also known as the ‘Women War’, was a significant revolt against the British and is often credited as one of the earliest uprisings in India to be led entirely by women. In which present-day state did the uprising take place? (A) Manipur (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C) Chhattisgarh (D) Tripura |
(A) Manipur | Nupi Lan, also known as the Women’s War, was a significant uprising in Manipur against the British in the early 20th century, where women played a pivotal role in resisting colonial rule. |
| Q65. Who is the current Secretary General of the United Nations? (A) Ban-Ki Moon (B) Kofi Annan (C) Ursula von der Leyen (D) Antonio Guterres |
(D) Antonio Guterres | Antonio Guterres, the former Prime Minister of Portugal, has been serving as the Secretary General of the United Nations since January 1, 2017. |
| Q66. What is the international significance of 21st June? (A) Human Rights Day (B) Women’s Day (C) International Day of Yoga (D) World Day Against Child Labour |
(C) International Day of Yoga | The International Day of Yoga is celebrated on June 21 each year, highlighting the importance of physical and mental well-being through the practice of yoga. |
| Q67. According to the Swachh Survekshan 2023 rankings, which of the following cities was ranked as the cleanest in India? (A) Pune (B) Indore (C) Bhopal (D) Tirupati |
(B) Indore | Indore, located in Madhya Pradesh, was ranked as the cleanest city in India according to the Swachh Survekshan 2023 rankings, continuing its legacy of cleanliness. |
| Q68. The following are various dance forms found in different parts of India. While a certain dance form may be associated with more than one state, select the most appropriate response to the noted options below: S.no Dance form S.no. State A. Bharatanatyam I. Assam B. Sattriya II. Andhra Pradesh C. Kathakali III. Tamil Nadu D. Kuchipudi IV. Kerala |
(A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II | The correct matching of the dance forms with their respective states is: A. Bharatanatyam - Tamil Nadu B. Sattriya - Assam C. Kathakali - Kerala D. Kuchipudi - Andhra Pradesh Thus, the correct answer is Option (A). |
| Q69. Vinesh Phogat was disqualified from the wrestling competition at the 2024 Paris Olympics after exceeding the weight limit by 100 grams during the weigh-in for her 50 kg final. Her disqualification was upheld on appeal. To which international body did Vinesh Phogat and the Indian Olympic Association appeal? (A) Court of Arbitration for Sports (B) International Sports Arbitration Tribunal (C) International Athletic Arbitration Authority (D) Tribunal Internacional de Arbitraje |
(A) Court of Arbitration for Sports | Vinesh Phogat and the Indian Olympic Association appealed to the Court of Arbitration for Sports after her disqualification from the 2024 Paris Olympics. |
| Q70. In September 2024, a new scheme, Bio-RIDE, was approved in the area of biotechnology. Identify the components of the scheme. I. Biotechnology Research and Development II. Industrial Entrepreneurship Development III. Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry IV. Biotechnology parks and International Collaborations (A) I, II, III (B) II, III, IV (C) I, III, IV (D) I, II, IV |
(A) I, II, III | **Bio-RIDE** focuses on the following components: - Biotechnology Research and Development - Industrial Entrepreneurship Development - Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry The scheme is aimed at fostering growth and innovation in the biotechnology sector. |
| Q71. The quality of drinking water is regularly measured in terms of TDS. Higher the TDS, poorer the quality of drinking water. What does TDS stand for? (A) Total Dilution Solubility (B) Total Dissolved Solids (C) Total De-Salination (D) Total Density Solution |
(B) Total Dissolved Solids | TDS stands for Total Dissolved Solids. It refers to the total concentration of dissolved substances in water, such as salts, minerals, and organic matter. |
| Q72. In 2004, the Government of India decided to create a new category of languages known as ‘Classical Languages’. What are the latest criteria, announced in 2024, for inclusion of languages within this category? I. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years. II. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a heritage by generations of speakers. III. Knowledge texts, especially prose texts in addition to poetry, epigraphical and inscriptional evidence. IV. The classical languages and literature could be distinct from its current form or could be discontinuous with later forms of its offshoots. V. The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community. (A) Only I, II, III (B) Only II, III, IV (C) Only I, III, IV (D) Only I, II, III, IV |
(D) Only I, II, III, IV | The criteria for a language to be recognized as a 'Classical Language' include high antiquity, a body of ancient literature, a distinct literary tradition, and the preservation of ancient texts, among others. |
| Q73. The movie ‘The Man Who Knew Infinity’ depicts the life story of (A) Apurba Ramchandran (B) Ramanbhai Patel (C) Srinivasa Ramanujan (D) Venki Ramakrishna |
(C) Srinivasa Ramanujan | The movie “The Man Who Knew Infinity” tells the life story of the famous Indian mathematician Srinivasa Ramanujan, focusing on his journey and work in mathematics. |
| Q74. Who was known as the ‘Bard of Brahmaputra’? (A) Tarali Sarma (B) Bhupen Hazarika (C) Bishakh Jyoti (D) Niranjan Rout |
(B) Bhupen Hazarika | Bhupen Hazarika, a legendary figure in Assamese culture, is often referred to as the ‘Bard of Brahmaputra’ due to his contribution to music, literature, and Assamese culture. |
| Q75. In 2024, the Government of India introduced the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar, recognizing key contributions in the field of science and technology in India. In the first edition, awards were presented in the following four categories: I. Vigyan Ratna II. Vigyan Shri III. Vigyan Yuva IV. Vigyan Team V. Vigyan Aavishkar (A) Only I, II, III, IV (B) Only II, III, IV (C) Only I, III, IV (D) Only I, II, III, IV, V |
(A) Only I, II, III, IV | The four categories of the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar are Vigyan Ratna, Vigyan Shri, Vigyan Yuva, and Vigyan Team, which acknowledge excellence in science and technology. |
| Q76. As part of its NTMHP initiative, the Government of India recently introduced TELE-MANAS, a 24/7 toll-free helpline (14416). What does TELE-MANAS stand for? (A) Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States (B) Tele Medicine Assistance and National Support (C) Tele Mental Assistance and National Aid Service (D) Tele Medical Aid and Networking Across States |
(A) Tele Mental Health Assistance and Networking Across States | TELE-MANAS is a mental health initiative by the Government of India providing assistance and networking across states to offer mental health support via a toll-free helpline. |
| Q78. In the ongoing Israeli-Palestinian conflict, frequent references have been made to the ‘Iron Dome’. What does it refer to? (A) Ancient architectural buildings particularly religious buildings featuring a dome (B) An advanced cyber shield ensuring multilayer protection against invasive cyberattacks (C) A continuous remote sensing surveillance technology to detect deep underground tunnels (D) Multipurpose missile defense system designed to protect against a wide range of indirect and aerial threats |
(D) Multipurpose missile defense system designed to protect against a wide range of indirect and aerial threats | The ‘Iron Dome’ refers to an advanced missile defense system used to intercept short-range threats like missiles and rockets. |
| Q79. The Indian Air Force recently inaugurated a new training establishment, the Weapon Systems School (WSS), with the aim of recalibrating and transforming the Indian Air Force as a future-oriented force. In which city was the WSS located? (A) Gorakhpur, UP (B) Begumpet, Hyderabad (C) Tezpur, Assam (D) Jodhpur, Rajasthan |
(B) Begumpet, Hyderabad | The Weapon Systems School (WSS) of the Indian Air Force is located in Begumpet, Hyderabad. |
| Q80. Which of the following statements best describes the nature of the National Automated Clearing House (NACH) implemented by the National Payment Corporation of India (NPCI)? (A) It is a web-based solution to facilitate interbank, high volume, electronic transactions which are repetitive and periodic in nature (B) It is utilized to modify in real-time individual transactions between bank accounts (C) It facilitates direct government disbursements to beneficiaries under various schemes (D) It is an RBI mobile app to facilitate international wire transfers and foreign remittances |
(A) It is a web-based solution to facilitate interbank, high volume, electronic transactions which are repetitive and periodic in nature | The National Automated Clearing House (NACH) is a web-based platform used to manage high-volume, repetitive, and periodic interbank transactions, especially for purposes like recurring payments and direct debits. |
| Q81. Some Hyenas are Lions. All Lions are Cats. Some Cats are Wolves. Examine the following statements: I. Some Cats are Lions. II. Some Wolves are Lions. III. Some Cats are Hyenas. (A) Both I & II follows (B) Both II & III follows (C) Both I & III follows (D) Only III follows |
(C) Both I & III follows | - I. Some Cats are Lions: This follows because all Lions are Cats, so some Cats can be Lions. - II. Some Wolves are Lions: This does not follow as the relationship between Wolves and Lions is not specified. - III. Some Cats are Hyenas: This follows because some Hyenas are Lions, and all Lions are Cats, so some Cats can be Hyenas. |
| Q82. All Squirrels are Herbivores. Some Herbivores are Elephants. All Elephants are Mammals. Some Mammals are Carnivores. Examine the following statements: I. Some Mammals are Herbivores. II. All Elephants are Squirrels. III. Some Carnivores are Herbivores. (A) Only I follows (B) Both II & III follows (C) Both I & III follows (D) Only II follows |
(A) Only I follows | - I. Some Mammals are Herbivores: This follows because some Herbivores (like Elephants) are Mammals. - II. All Elephants are Squirrels: This does not follow as Elephants are not Squirrels. - III. Some Carnivores are Herbivores: This does not follow because Carnivores and Herbivores are mutually exclusive in this context. |
| Q83. All Engineers are Mathematicians. Some Mathematicians are Authors. No Author is a Scientist. Some Engineers are Scientists. Examine the following statements: I. No Author is an Engineer. II. Some Scientists are Engineers. III. Some Mathematicians are not Scientists. (A) Only II follows (B) Both I & III follows (C) Both II & III follows (D) Only I follows |
(C) Both II & III follows | - I. No Author is an Engineer: This does not follow as the relationship between Engineers and Authors is not specified. - II. Some Scientists are Engineers: This follows because some Engineers are Scientists. - III. Some Mathematicians are not Scientists: This follows because not all Mathematicians are Scientists (due to the ‘Some Engineers are Scientists’ statement). |
| Q84. All gadgets are machines. Some gadgets are tools. All machines are useful. Examine the following statements: I. Some tools are useful. II. All that is useful are machines. III. All tools are gadgets. (A) Only I follows (B) Only II follows (C) Both I & III follows (D) Both II & III follows |
(A) Only I follows | - I. Some tools are useful: This follows because all gadgets are machines, and some gadgets are tools. Since all machines are useful, some tools are useful. - II. All that is useful are machines: This does not follow because being useful does not necessarily mean it’s a machine. - III. All tools are gadgets: This does not follow as the relationship between tools and gadgets is only partial (some gadgets are tools). |
| Q85. All International Court of Justice (ICJ) judgments are binding on parties involved in the case. Some ICJ judgments have persuasive value in domestic courts. Judgments of domestic courts can be referenced by the ICJ, but they are not binding. Examine the following statements: I. Some ICJ judgments are binding on domestic courts. II. Some domestic court judgments are binding on the ICJ III. ICJ judgments can be used to strengthen arguments in domestic courts. (A) Only I follows (B) Both I and II follows (C) Both I and III follows (D) Only III follows |
(D) Only III follows | - I. Some ICJ judgments are binding on domestic courts: This does not follow as ICJ judgments are not binding on domestic courts. - II. Some domestic court judgments are binding on the ICJ: This does not follow as domestic court judgments are not binding on the ICJ. - III. ICJ judgments can be used to strengthen arguments in domestic courts: This follows because ICJ judgments can be referenced to strengthen arguments in domestic courts. |
| Q86. All drivers are Tall. Some Tall persons violate traffic lights. All who violate traffic lights are fined. B is Tall. Examine the following statements: I. B is a driver. II. B may violate a traffic light. III. B will definitely violate traffic light. IV. If B is a driver, he will get fined. V. B will definitely get fined. (A) Only I, III, and V (B) Only II (C) Only I and III (D) Only I and V |
(B) Only II | - I. B is a driver: This does not follow, as being Tall does not imply B is a driver. - II. B may violate a traffic light: This follows because some Tall persons violate traffic lights. - III. B will definitely violate traffic light: This does not follow as not all Tall persons violate traffic lights. - IV. If B is a driver, he will get fined: This does not necessarily follow because B’s violation is not certain. - V. B will definitely get fined: This does not follow as B’s violation is not certain. |
| Q87. A consumer advocacy group published a report accusing Alpha Electronics Company of producing faulty products, misleading advertising, and failing to provide adequate customer service. The report presented various customer testimonials and product reviews as evidence of these issues. Which of the following assumptions, if true, most strengthens the advocacy group’s claims? (A) Alpha’s competitors made larger profits than Alpha in the immediately previous year (B) Alpha had recently changed its advertising strategy to highlight customer satisfaction more prominently (C) Alpha was recently fined by a regulatory body for not complying with consumer protection standards (D) Alpha recently appointed a new CEO |
(C) Alpha was recently fined by a regulatory body for not complying with consumer protection standards | The assumption that Alpha was fined for not complying with consumer protection standards directly strengthens the claims of faulty products, misleading advertising, and poor customer service. |
| Q88. In scientific inquiry, the hypothesis is a testable statement that predicts the relationship between variables. According to the scientific method, the validity of a hypothesis is determined by its ability to withstand empirical testing and produce consistent results. Critics of this approach argue that relying solely on empirical data can lead to the neglect of theoretical frameworks that provide context for understanding phenomena. Which of the following assumption would allow the above statements to be properly made? (A) Empirical data alone can be sufficient to explain complex scientific phenomena (B) Theoretical frameworks often provide critical insights that cannot be derived from empirical testing alone (C) Many scientific theories are based on assumptions that cannot be empirically tested (D) Both b) and c) above |
(D) Both b) and c) above | - (A) Empirical data alone can be sufficient to explain complex scientific phenomena: This does not strengthen the critics’ argument. - (B) Theoretical frameworks often provide critical insights that cannot be derived from empirical testing alone: This supports the critics’ argument. - (C) Many scientific theories are based on assumptions that cannot be empirically tested: This also supports the critics’ argument. |
| Q89. Which of the following conclusion can be most accurately drawn from the above? (A) Remote work policies are universally beneficial for all companies and employees (B) The increase in productivity from remote work is solely due to employees’ ability to create personalized work environments (C) Companies that implement remote work policies may need to address potential feelings of isolation among employees to maintain team cohesion (D) Traditional in-office work arrangements are more effective in promoting team communication and collaboration than remote work |
(C) Companies that implement remote work policies may need to address potential feelings of isolation among employees to maintain team cohesion | The conclusion that companies may need to address isolation among remote employees is supported by the study’s findings about feelings of isolation and its impact on team cohesion. |
| Q90. In education policy, the concept of inclusive education advocates for integrating students with disabilities into mainstream classrooms to promote diversity and equal opportunities. However, critics claim that focusing too much on inclusion can strain resources and may lead to a decline in educational quality for students both with and without disabilities. Which of the following arguments would most strengthen the critics position? (A) Many parents prefer traditional classrooms for their children over inclusive settings (B) Schools often lack the resources needed to effectively implement inclusive education practices (C) The academic performance of students without disabilities is negatively impacted by inclusive classrooms (D) The academic performance of students with disabilities is negatively impacted by inclusive classrooms |
(B) Schools often lack the resources needed to effectively implement inclusive education practices | The argument that schools lack resources to effectively implement inclusive education strengthens the critics’ position, as it highlights a practical issue that could impact the quality of education for all students. |
*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.