AILET 2025 LLM Question Paper (Available) Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf
| Updated On - Dec 10, 2024
AILET 2025 LLM Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF is available for download. NLU Delhi has conducted AILET 2025 on December 08, 2024. The question paper comprises a total of 100 questions divided among three sections.
AILET 2025 LLM Question Paper with Solution PDF
| AILET 2025 LLM Question Paper with Answer Key PDF |  Download |
Check Solution |
|---|
AILET 2025 LLM Question Paper with Solution
| Question | Answer | Detailed Solution |
|---|---|---|
| Q1. What does the Basel Ban amendment address? (1) prohibits use of CFCs in industrial settings (2) imposition of strict limitation of anthropogenic emissions by sources and removals by sinks (3) prohibits movement of hazardous waste from OCD and non-OCD states (4) prohibition of activities that threaten biological diversity by regulating the transportation of invasive species |
(3) prohibits movement of hazardous waste from OCD and non-OCD states | The Basel Ban Amendment to the Basel Convention, adopted in 1995, specifically addresses the movement of hazardous waste. It prohibits the export of hazardous waste from developed countries (OECD) to developing countries (non-OECD). This amendment aims to prevent the exploitation of less developed countries as dumping grounds for hazardous materials, ensuring that they do not become a source of environmental and health risks. |
| Q2. “The state should focus on factoring in ways through which unequal consequences of sex differences can be eliminated. It is state’s duty to ensure circumstances of safety which inspire confidence in women to discharge the duty freely in accordance to the requirements of the profession they choose to follow”. The above observation was made in: (1) Anuj Garg v. Hotel Association of India AR 2008 SC 663 (2) SR Bommai v. Union of India AR 1994 SC 1918 (3) DC Wadhwa v. State of Bihar AR 1987 SC 579 (4) E. P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu AR 1974 SC 555 |
(1) Anuj Garg v. Hotel Association of India AR 2008 SC 663 | In the case of Anuj Garg v. Hotel Association of India (2008), the Supreme Court emphasized that the state must work to eliminate the unequal consequences of sex differences, particularly in the workplace. The Court observed that it is the state’s duty to ensure that women have a safe and conducive environment to discharge their duties without fear or discrimination. This landmark judgment highlighted the necessity of creating an environment where women are free to choose their professions and discharge their duties confidently. |
| Q3. Which of the following jurists gave the Bad Man theory? (1) HLA Hart (2) Spencer (3) Justice OW Holmes (4) Austin |
(3) Justice OW Holmes | The Bad Man Theory was formulated by Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes. This theory is grounded in the idea that the law should not be understood in terms of abstract morality or justice, but rather from the perspective of an individual (the "bad man") who is concerned only with avoiding legal consequences. According to Holmes, the law is a set of rules that governs the behavior of people in a society, and the focus should be on the consequences of breaking the law rather than its moral or ethical underpinnings. |
| Q4. Which of the following is not a core international human rights treaty? (1) International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination (2) Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (3) International Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance (4) Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees |
(4) Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees | The Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees is an important international treaty, but it is not considered a core human rights treaty. The core international human rights treaties typically focus on issues like racial discrimination, women’s rights, and enforced disappearances. These treaties form the foundation of international human rights law, whereas refugee status is governed by a separate international framework, namely the 1951 Refugee Convention. |
| Q5. An Anton Piller order is: (1) An order for delivery-up of infringing goods (2) An order to arrest the infringer (3) An order to carry out search and seizure (4) A freezing order |
(3) An order to carry out search and seizure | An Anton Piller order is a court order that authorizes a party to carry out a search and seizure of evidence before a trial. This order is typically used in cases of intellectual property infringement or fraud, where there is a concern that the defendant may destroy evidence if left unchecked. The Anton Piller order allows the claimant to enter the defendant’s premises to search for and seize potentially damaging evidence. |
| Q6. The Supreme Court’s judgment in Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority [1979] 3 S.C.R. 1014 is considered a landmark case for establishing the principle of: (1) Public accountability in administrative actions (2) Non-arbitrariness in government contracts (3) Application of natural justice in administrative decisions (4) Preventing the delegation of essential legislative functions |
(2) Non-arbitrariness in government contracts | In the case of Ramana Dayaram Shetty v. International Airport Authority (1979), the Supreme Court established the principle of non-arbitrariness in government contracts. The Court held that government actions must not be arbitrary, and that contracts with public authorities should be made based on fairness, transparency, and equality. The judgment is significant because it emphasized that even when the government is involved, its actions must adhere to principles of fairness and reasonableness, ensuring that no one is unfairly discriminated against. |
| Q7. India adopted its National Competition Law Policy in the year: (1) 2012 (2) 1991 (3) It is yet to adopt a National Competition Law Policy (4) 2002 |
(1) 2012 | India adopted its National Competition Law Policy in 2012. The policy was framed to promote and sustain competition in the market, ensuring that businesses operate within a framework that encourages fairness and prevents monopolies or anti-competitive practices. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was set up to enforce this policy and oversee its implementation. The policy aims to create a healthy competitive environment to benefit consumers and the economy. |
| Q8. Which of the following cases dealt with a challenge to the exclusion of couples from sexual and gender minority communities from marriage laws as being violative of fundamental rights under Articles 14, 15, 19 and 21 of the Constitution? (1) Supriyo v. Union of India 2023 NSC 920 (2) Joseph Shine v. Union of India AR 2018 SC 4898 (3) Naz Foundation v. Govt. of NCT of Delhi 2010 CR. L. J. 94, 2009 (4) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India AR 2018 SC 4321 |
(4) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India AR 2018 SC 4321 | The landmark judgment in Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018) struck down Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, which criminalized consensual same-sex relations. The case also dealt with the exclusion of couples from sexual and gender minority communities from marriage laws, asserting that such exclusion was violative of fundamental rights under Articles 14 (Right to Equality), 15 (Right against Discrimination), 19 (Freedom of Speech and Expression), and 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty). The ruling was a major step towards securing the rights of LGBTQ+ individuals in India. |
| Q9. Under which Section of BNS 2023, an offence committed by a child of seven years of age is not to be considered a crime? (1) Section 22 (2) Section 21 (3) Section 19 (4) Section 20 |
(2) Section 21 | Under Section 21 of the BNS 2023, an offence committed by a child of seven years of age is not considered a crime. This provision acknowledges the developmental stage of children and exempts those under seven from criminal responsibility. The law recognizes that children in this age group may not have the mental capacity to understand the consequences of their actions. |
| Q10. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 was enacted as an upshot of: (1) Kaushal Kishor v. State of Uttar Pradesh 2023 SCC OnLine SC 6 (2) Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) 6 SCC 161 (3) Subhash Desai v. Governor of Maharashtra 2023 SCC OnLine SC 607 (4) Priyam v. Union of India 2023 SCC OnLine SC 1348 |
(2) Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023) 6 SCC 161 | The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023 was enacted as a consequence of the judgment in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India (2023). The case dealt with issues relating to the independence and autonomy of the Election Commission of India, leading to the enactment of the Act to ensure transparent and fair appointments and conditions for the Election Commissioners. |
| Q11. Which of the following statement is correct under the Mediation Act 2023? (1) Terms of the mediated settlement agreement cannot extend beyond the disputes referred to mediation (2) Mediator must necessarily be of a nationality different from that of the parties (3) A mediated settlement agreement should be signed by the parties and authenticated by the mediator (4) Mediated settlement agreement resulting from online mediation, requires additional approval from the mediation service provider |
(1) Terms of the mediated settlement agreement cannot extend beyond the disputes referred to mediation | Under the Mediation Act 2023, it is emphasized that the terms of a mediated settlement agreement cannot extend beyond the disputes referred to mediation. This ensures that the mediation process remains focused on resolving the specific issues brought before it, and that the settlement reached is limited to those issues. It prevents the inclusion of unrelated matters, ensuring fairness and maintaining the integrity of the process. |
| Q12. Which of the following is true about Maternity Leave in India? I. The leave is available to both private as well as government female employees. II. The leave is available to both private as well as government female employees if they are working in establishments that employ 10 or more people. III. The leave is not available to females adopting a child. IV. The Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017 has increased the maximum period of leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks. Select the correct option: (1) Both I and III (2) Both II and IV (3) II, III, and IV (4) All of them |
(2) Both II and IV | In India, the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017 extended the maximum maternity leave period from 12 weeks to 26 weeks for female employees. However, the leave is available only to women working in establishments that employ 10 or more employees. This means that it is not available in smaller establishments. Furthermore, the Act also includes provisions for women who adopt a child, granting them maternity leave under certain conditions, contrary to what is stated in statement III. Thus, the correct answer is option (2), which is Both II and IV. |
| Q13. Match the following I. Uti possidetis II. Pacta sunt servanda III. Condominium IV. Rebus sic stantibus 1. Principle in customary international law providing that where there has been a fundamental change of circumstances since an agreement was concluded, a party to that agreement may withdraw from or terminate it. 2. Two or more states equally exercise sovereignty with respect to a territory and its inhabitants. 3. Doctrine that territory remains with the possessor state at the end of war or occupation unless otherwise determined by a treaty or an agreement. 4. Proposition that treaties are binding upon the parties to them and must be performed in good faith. Select the correct option: (1) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4 (2) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2 (3) I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3 (4) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1 |
(4) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1 | Here’s the correct matching of terms to their definitions:
|
| Q14. Which of the following is an incorrect statement for explaining the condition and warranty under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930? (1) A condition is a stipulation essential to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives rise to a right to treat the contract as repudiated. (2) A warranty is a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of which gives rise to a claim for damages but not to a right to reject the goods and treat the contract as repudiated. (3) Whether a stipulation in a contract of sale is a condition or a warranty does not depend on the construction of the contract. (4) A stipulation may be a condition, though called a warranty in the contract. |
(3) Whether a stipulation in a contract of sale is a condition or a warranty does not depend on the construction of the contract. | - Option (a) correctly explains a condition. - Option (b) correctly explains a warranty. - Option (d) correctly states that a stipulation can be a condition, even if called a warranty in the contract. - However, Option (c) is incorrect. Whether a stipulation is a condition or a warranty does depend on the construction of the contract, as the terms used by the parties and the overall context play a role in determining this classification. Thus, the correct answer is (c). |
| Q15. Which of the following theories relate to the function of rights? Select the correct option: A. Bracket theory B. Will theory C. Interest theory D. Purpose theory (1) Only A and B (2) Only B and C (3) A, B, C, D (4) None of the above |
(3) A, B, C, D | The function of rights is discussed through several theories that explain their nature and role:
|
| Q16. Subrogation under Section 92, Transfer of Property Act, 1882 confers a right upon a person only wherein mortgaged property has been: (1) Redeemed in full (2) Consented to be redeemed in full (3) Redeemed in part (4) None of the above |
(1) Redeemed in full | Under Section 92 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, subrogation is a right conferred upon a person who has redeemed the mortgaged property in full. This means that once the mortgaged property is fully redeemed, the person who redeemed it can claim the rights of the mortgagee and exercise them for their own benefit. |
| Q17. The following is not true about the Cement Cartelization Case in India: (1) The Competition Commission of India imposed a penalty of 0.5 times of the net profits of certain cement-producing companies for the year 2009-10 and 2010-2011 (2) Companies were engaging in unfair and not restrictive trade practices by controlling the price of cement by artificially curtailing their output capacity (3) The market was oligopolistic in nature, with the possibility of collusion between companies (4) None of the above |
(4) None of the above | The Cement Cartelization Case dealt with the anti-competitive practices of cement-producing companies in India. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) found that the companies had been controlling cement prices by curtailing output capacity, thereby creating an oligopolistic market. The penalty imposed on these companies for their actions was 0.5 times the net profits for the years 2009-2010 and 2010-2011. |
| Q18. —– is concerned with ‘is law’, and —– is concerned with ‘ought law’. (1) Expositorial Jurisprudence, Censorial Jurisprudence (2) Censorial Jurisprudence, Analytical Jurisprudence (3) Censorial Jurisprudence, Expositorial Jurisprudence (4) Expositorial Jurisprudence, Philosophical school of law |
(4) Expositorial Jurisprudence, Philosophical school of law | Expositorial Jurisprudence is concerned with understanding and explaining ‘is law’—what the law is in its current form. Philosophical jurisprudence deals with ‘ought law’—the ideal or moral dimension of law, asking what the law should be. The difference lies in the practical approach of the former and the normative or ideal approach of the latter. |
| Q19. Under which provision of the Income Tax Act, 1961 is the scope of the resident’s ‘total income’ covered? (1) Section 5 (2) Section 10 (3) Section 30 (4) Section 8 |
(1) Section 5 | Section 5 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 defines the scope of a resident’s total income. It outlines the criteria for determining the total income, considering the individual’s residential status and the sources of income within and outside India. This section is fundamental to understanding how income is taxed for residents in India. |
| Q20. In which of the following cases was it held that “the tribunal has unfettered jurisdiction to adjudicate the dispute raised as well as to decide the legality of an order of the Central Government, or even the opinion of TRA or any other expert body”? (1) Cellular Operators Association of India v. Union of India 2003 (3) SCC 186 (2) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India Supp SCC 87 1981 (3) Tata Cellular v. Union of India 6 SCC 651 (1994) (4) SCAORA v. Union of India 4 SCC 441 (1993) |
(1) Cellular Operators Association of India v. Union of India 2003 (3) SCC 186 | In the case of Cellular Operators Association of India v. Union of India (2003), the Supreme Court held that the tribunal has unfettered jurisdiction to adjudicate disputes raised before it. The tribunal can decide the legality of orders issued by the Central Government or opinions provided by expert bodies like the TRA. This case reaffirmed the independence and jurisdictional power of tribunals in such matters. |
| Q21. The new definition of employees has been widened under the Code on Social Security but does not include: (1) International migrant workers (2) Construction workers (3) Film industry workers (4) Platform workers |
(3) Film industry workers | The Code on Social Security, 2020 aims to expand the definition of employees to include a wider range of workers. It extends coverage to various categories such as international migrant workers, construction workers, and platform workers. However, it does not specifically include workers from the film industry. Therefore, film industry workers are not covered under this broadened definition. |
| Q22. The following is true about pawnor and pawnee under Indian Contract Act, 1872: (1) The pawnor has the right of possession, enjoyment, and disposition of the property. (2) The pawnee has a limited right to retain possession till the debt is paid off. (3) The pawnee’s right of disposition is limited to the disposition of the pledge rights only, and the right to sell after giving reasonable notice to the pawnor. (4) All of the above. |
(4) All of the above | Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the relationship between the pawnor (the person who pledges the goods) and the pawnee (the person who receives the goods as security for a debt) is governed by specific rights and duties. The pawnor retains the right of possession, enjoyment, and disposition of the property. The pawnee, on the other hand, has the right to retain possession until the debt is paid and may dispose of the pledged property only under certain conditions, including giving reasonable notice to the pawnor before selling it. |
| Q23. Indian Copyright Act, 1957 recognises the Moral rights of authors under —— as ——–. (1) Section 17, Economic Rights (2) Section 57, Author’s Special Rights (3) Section 69, Non-economic Rights (4) Section 14, Non-economic Rights |
(2) Section 57, Author’s Special Rights | Under the Indian Copyright Act, 1957, Moral Rights of authors are recognized under Section 57. These rights include the right to attribution (the right to be identified as the author) and the right to integrity (the right to object to distortion or modification of their work). These are considered non-economic rights that protect the personal and reputational interests of the author, separate from their economic rights in the work. |
| Q24. Which of the following is not a State for the purposes of Article 54 (Election of President)? (1) National Capital Territory of Delhi (2) Union Territory of Puducherry (3) Chandigarh (4) Punjab |
(3) Chandigarh | Under Article 54 of the Indian Constitution, the Election of the President is conducted by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories. However, Chandigarh is not considered a State for the purpose of this election, as it is a Union Territory with a Legislative Assembly but no separate electoral college for Presidential elections. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Chandigarh. |
| Q25. Match the following I. Arbitration of excepted matters II. Conditional Arbitration Clauses III. Separability of Arbitration Agreement - Kompetenz Kompetenz IV. Arbitrability of fraud 1. A. Ayyasamy v. A. Paramasivam, (2016) 10 SCC 386 2. In re - Interplay between Arb Agreements and Stamp Act 2023 INSC 1066 3. Vulcan Insurance Co Ltd v. Maharaj Singh and Anr (1976) 1 SCC 943 4. Mitra Guha Builders (India) Co v. ONGC (2020) 3 SC 222 |
d) I-4, II-2, III-3, IV-1 | The correct matching is as follows: - I. Arbitration of excepted matters relates to Mitra Guha Builders v. ONGC (2020), which discusses exceptions in arbitration clauses. - II. Conditional Arbitration Clauses deals with the In re - Interplay between Arb Agreements and Stamp Act 2023, addressing the implications of conditional clauses in arbitration agreements. - III. Separability of Arbitration Agreement - Kompetenz Kompetenz is a concept discussed in Vulcan Insurance Co Ltd v. Maharaj Singh (1976), which involves the principle that the arbitration clause is separable from the main contract. - IV. Arbitrability of fraud was addressed in Ayyasamy v. A. Paramasivam (2016), where the issue of fraud in arbitration agreements was examined. |
| Q26. The following are Members in a company: a) The subscriber to the memorandum of the company who shall be deemed to have agreed to become a member of the company, and on its registration, shall be entered as a member in its register of members. b) No other person who agrees in writing to become a member of the company and whose name is entered in the register of members of the company. c) Every person holding shares of the company and whose name is entered as a beneficial owner in the records of a depository. d) Both a) and c) will be members. |
d) Both a) and c) will be members | A person becomes a member of a company in two ways: 1. By subscribing to the memorandum of association during the formation of the company, as mentioned in option (a). 2. By holding shares and having their name entered in the records of a depository, as per option (c). Thus, both (a) and (c) describe valid ways in which an individual can be a member of a company. |
| Q27. Which Section of BNS 2023, provides Solitary Confinement as a punishment? a) Section 10 b) Section 11 c) Section 22 d) Section 14 |
b) Section 11 | Under Section 11 of the BNS 2023, solitary confinement can be imposed as a punishment. This section defines the conditions under which solitary confinement is applicable and provides the framework for its usage in specific situations. |
| Q28. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court observe that an order suspending internet services indefinitely is impermissible under the existing law, and any order suspending internet must adhere to the principle of proportionality and must not extend beyond the necessary duration? a) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union Of India AR 2020 SC 1308 b) Subhash Desai v. Governor of Maharashtra 2023 SCC OnLine SC 607 c) Nabam Rebia Bamang Felix v. Dy. Speaker, Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly (2016) 8 SCC 1 d) Neeraj Chandra v. Union of India (2023) 5 SCC 1 |
a) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union Of India AR 2020 SC 1308 | In Anuradha Bhasin v. Union Of India (2020), the Supreme Court ruled that indefinite suspension of internet services is impermissible. The Court emphasized that such suspension must adhere to the principle of proportionality and be for the shortest period necessary to address the issue at hand. |
| Q29. For an agreement without consideration to be valid under Section 25(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, it is necessary that: a) Agreement in question must refer to a debt which the creditor might have enforced, but for the limitation b) There must be a distinct promise to pay c) The promise is in writing, signed by debtor or his agent d) All of the above are necessary |
d) All of the above are necessary | For an agreement without consideration to be valid under Section 25(3) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, it must refer to a debt that the creditor could have enforced if not for the limitation. Furthermore, there must be a clear promise to pay, and this promise must be in writing and signed by the debtor or their agent. |
| Q30. Arrest by police without a warrant is covered under which Section of BNS 2023? a) Section 35 b) Section 36 c) Section 37 d) Section 34 |
b) Section 36 | Section 36 of BNS 2023 allows the police to arrest a person without a warrant under specific circumstances. This provision outlines the conditions under which such an arrest can be made, ensuring it is done within legal limits. |
| Q31. In Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2023) 5 SCC 1, the Supreme Court: a) upheld the constitutional validity of the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019 that empowered the State to enact special provisions for the advancement of economically weaker sections (“EWS”) of society. b) declared the EWS reservation under The Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014 unconstitutional. c) held that the EWS reservation exceeds the 50 d) ruled that only socially and educationally backward classes are eligible for reservation, excluding EWS. |
a) upheld the constitutional validity of the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019 that empowered the State to enact special provisions for the advancement of economically weaker sections (“EWS”) of society. | In Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2023), the Supreme Court upheld the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019, which empowered the State to create special provisions for the advancement of economically weaker sections (EWS) of society. The Court held that such provisions are constitutional, despite concerns about the 50% cap on reservations. |
| Q32. Paragraph 7 of the X Schedule to the Constitution of India was struck down in which of the following cases? a) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu and Others 1992 SCR (1) 686 b) Anjum Kadri v. U.O.I. 2024 INSC 831 (Nov. 2024) c) Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Speaker, Manipur Legislative Assembly ARonline 2020 SC 54 d) State of U.P. v. M/s Lalta Prasad Vaish and Sons. 2024 NSC 813 (Oct. 2024) |
a) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu and Others 1992 SCR (1) 686 | In the case of Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu and Others (1992), the Supreme Court struck down Paragraph 7 of the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) of the Constitution of India. This provision, which dealt with the disqualification of members of the legislature, was found to be in conflict with certain provisions of the Constitution, leading to its invalidation. |
| Q33. The real test of determining distinction between lease and license was laid down by the Supreme Court in which of the following cases? a) Nirmal Chandra v. Vimal Chand b) Mangilal v. Sugan Chand c) Associated Hotel of India v. R.N. Kapoor d) None of the above. |
c) Associated Hotel of India v. R.N. Kapoor | The Supreme Court in Associated Hotel of India v. R.N. Kapoor (1959) laid down the real test to distinguish between a lease and a license. The Court observed that the main difference between the two is the right to exclusive possession. A lease grants exclusive possession, while a license merely allows the licensee to use the property without granting such possession. |
| Q34. In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India AIR 1970 SC 150, the Supreme Court recognised the evolving nature of quasi-judicial powers, holding that certain powers previously deemed administrative could now be quasi-judicial. Which of the following best encapsulates the Court’s approach to the application of natural justice in administrative proceedings? a) Natural justice is limited to formal quasi-judicial functions where a statute expressly mandates its application, excluding purely administrative decisions. b) The procedural requirements of natural justice are irrelevant to administrative functions unless personal rights are specifically affected by a statute. c) The distinction between administrative and quasi-judicial powers is no longer determinative, and natural justice principles must be applied whenever individual rights or interests are at stake, regardless of the classification of the power. d) Natural justice principles apply to all quasi-judicial decisions, but administrative decisions are exempt unless there is a statutory provision requiring it. |
c) The distinction between administrative and quasi-judicial powers is no longer determinative, and natural justice principles must be applied whenever individual rights or interests are at stake, regardless of the classification of the power. | In A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India (1970), the Supreme Court recognized the evolving nature of quasi-judicial powers and held that the distinction between administrative and quasi-judicial functions is no longer determinative. The Court emphasized that the principles of natural justice should apply whenever individual rights or interests are at stake. |
| Q35. Who can be a Certifying Officer under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946? I. Industrial Tribunal II. Labour Commissioner III. A Regional Labour Commissioner Select the correct option: a) Both I and II b) Only II c) Both II and III d) All of the above |
d) All of the above | Under the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946, the Certifying Officer can be the Industrial Tribunal, the Labour Commissioner, or a Regional Labour Commissioner. These officers are responsible for certifying the standing orders of industrial establishments in compliance with the Act. |
| Q36. Which of the following statement best outlines the principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) in international environmental law? a) recognises that while all countries are responsible for addressing environmental degradation, developed countries should take greater responsibility due to their historical contributions to global emissions and their greater capacity to act b) all countries must equally share the burden of combating environmental degradation regardless of their development status c) mandates only developed countries contribute to global environmental efforts based on their capabilities d) emphasises that each country should be allowed to define its own environmental targets without any obligations to collaborate internationally |
a) recognises that while all countries are responsible for addressing environmental degradation, developed countries should take greater responsibility due to their historical contributions to global emissions and their greater capacity to act | The principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) recognizes that while all countries are responsible for addressing environmental degradation, developed countries should bear a greater responsibility. This is due to their historical contributions to global emissions and their greater capacity to take action. The principle is a cornerstone of international environmental law, particularly in the context of climate change. |
| Q37. The following is not true about novation of contracts: a) Acquiescence is a way of giving consent for the purposes of novation of a contract under S. 62 of the Contract Act. b) Acquiescence means tacit or passive acceptance. It is an implied and reluctant consent to an act. c) When acquiescence takes place, there is knowledge against a particular act. Based on this knowledge, a new contract comes into existence with renewed terms. d) For an acceptance to be legally valid, it is optional for parties to have the knowledge of the terms which they are accepting. |
d) For an acceptance to be legally valid, it is optional for parties to have the knowledge of the terms which they are accepting | In novation, for an acceptance to be legally valid, the parties must have knowledge of the terms they are agreeing to. Acquiescence is a passive form of consent, where a party, knowing about the act, does not object to it, leading to the creation of a new contract. |
| Q38. First information related to the commission of a cognisable offence is recorded under which provision of BNSS, 2023? a) Section 173 b) Section 154 c) Section 155 d) Section 156 |
b) Section 154 | Under Section 154 of the BNSS, 2023, the first information related to the commission of a cognisable offence is recorded. This is known as the First Information Report (FIR), and it is an essential part of the criminal law process for cognisable offences. |
| Q39. Which of the following is not allowed as a deduction for computing profits and gains from business or profession under Section 37 of the Income Tax Act, 1961? a) Personal expenses b) Capital expenditure c) Expenses on Corporate Social Responsibility d) All of the above |
d) All of the above | Under Section 37 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, deductions are not allowed for personal expenses, capital expenditure, or expenses related to corporate social responsibility (CSR). These expenses are generally considered outside the scope of deductions allowed for business profits. |
| Q40. Key managerial personnel in relation to a company do not include the following: a) the Chief Executive Officer or the Managing Director or the Manager b) the Company Secretary c) the Whole-time Director d) the Chief Financial Officer |
d) the Chief Financial Officer | Under Section 2(51) of the Companies Act, 2013, key managerial personnel (KMP) include the Chief Executive Officer (CEO), the Managing Director (MD), the Manager, the Company Secretary (CS), and the Whole-time Director (WTD). The Chief Financial Officer (CFO) is not included as KMP by default unless specifically designated as such in certain cases. |
| Q41. A fundamental principle of international humanitarian law is the principle of proportionality. Which of the following statement most appropriately describes the principle? a) prohibits attacks against military objectives which are expected to cause incidental loss of civilian life, injury to civilians, damage to civilian objects, or a combination, which would be excessive in relation to the concrete and direct military advantage anticipated b) permits measures which are actually essential to accomplish a legitimate military purpose and are not otherwise prohibited by international humanitarian law c) requires forces to, at all times, distinguish between the civilian population and combatants and between civilian objects and military objectives and accordingly direct operations only against military objectives d) prohibits use of means and methods of warfare which are of such nature so as to cause superfluous injury or unnecessary suffering |
a) prohibits attacks against military objectives which are expected to cause incidental loss of civilian life, injury to civilians, damage to civilian objects, or a combination, which would be excessive in relation to the concrete and direct military advantage anticipated | The principle of proportionality in international humanitarian law ensures that the harm caused to civilians and civilian property is not excessive in relation to the concrete and direct military advantage anticipated from an attack. It seeks to balance military necessity with humanitarian considerations. |
| Q42. Which of the following are the contents of a provisional specification, as provided under Section 10 of the Patent Act, 1970? a) Title, Description, Abstract b) Title, Description and Claims c) Title, Description and Drawings (if any) d) Title, Description, Drawing, Claims and Abstract |
d) Title, Description, Drawing, Claims and Abstract | Under Section 10 of the Patent Act, 1970, a provisional specification should include the Title, Description, Drawings (if any), Claims, and Abstract. This helps in securing the priority date for the invention. |
| Q43. What designs are prohibited from being registered under the Designs Act, 2000? a) Designs which are not new and original b) Designs which contain scandalous or obscene matter c) Design which is significantly distinguishable from known designs or their combination d) Only a) and b) |
d) Only a) and b) | Under the Designs Act, 2000, designs that are not new and original, or designs that contain scandalous or obscene matter, cannot be registered. Designs must be novel and must not offend public morals. |
| Q44. Which of the following constitutes an offence of Rioting under BNS, 2023? a) Use of force or violence by two persons to prosecute a common object. b) Use of force or violence by five or more persons to prosecute a common object. c) An unlawful gathering of five or more persons. d) A single individual causing public disturbance. |
b) Use of force or violence by five or more persons to prosecute a common object. | Rioting under BNS, 2023 refers to the use of force or violence by five or more persons in furtherance of a common object. This defines the criminal act of rioting. |
| Q45. A class action suit may be filed by prescribed number of members of a company before the Tribunal on behalf of the members or depositors for seeking any of the following orders except: a) to restrain the company from committing an act which is ultra vires the articles or memorandum of the company b) to restrain the company from committing breach of any provision of the company’s memorandum or articles c) to declare a resolution following the memorandum or articles of the company as void if the resolution was passed by suppression of material facts or obtained by mis-statement to the members or depositors d) to restrain the company and its directors from acting on such resolution |
d) to restrain the company and its directors from acting on such resolution | Class action suits are typically filed to seek remedies such as restraining the company from committing ultra vires acts, declaring resolutions as void, or preventing breaches of the company’s articles or memorandum. However, restraining the company and its directors from acting on a resolution is not typically an action sought in such suits. |
| Q46. Pick the incorrect statement: a) If an agreement is signed by a party without reading it, the agreement will not be void under S. 20 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. b) The defence of nudum pactum ex quo non oritur actio would not be available to the plaintiff when he signs any agreement without reading it. c) The defence of nudum pactum ex quo non oritur actio would be available to the plaintiff when he signs any agreement without reading it. d) An agreement without consideration is void. |
c) The defence of nudum pactum ex quo non oritur actio would be available to the plaintiff when he signs any agreement without reading it. | Nudum pactum refers to a contract without consideration, and it cannot give rise to a valid legal action. In the case of signing an agreement without reading it, the plaintiff cannot rely on the defence of nudum pactum. An agreement signed without reading it is still binding, and the lack of consideration is what makes it void under Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. |
| Q47. In relation to the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, match the following and identify the correct answer: (A) Conditions for a Hindu Marriage (i) Section 13 (B) Registration of Hindu Marriage (ii) Section 10 (C) Judicial Separation (iii) Section 5 (D) Divorce (iv) Section 8 |
b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) | The correct matching is as follows: (A) Conditions for a Hindu Marriage: This is outlined in Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, which sets out the conditions for a valid Hindu marriage. (B) Registration of Hindu Marriage: The registration of Hindu marriages is dealt with under Section 8 of the Act. (C) Judicial Separation: Judicial separation is governed by Section 13 of the Act. (D) Divorce: Divorce provisions are provided in Section 10 of the Act. |
| Q48. A company may issue fully paid bonus shares to its shareholders and use the following funds: a) its free reserves b) the securities premium account c) the capital redemption reserve account d) All of the above |
d) All of the above | A company may issue fully paid bonus shares by utilizing the following sources of funds: - Free reserves - Securities premium account - Capital redemption reserve account These funds are legally permissible sources for issuing bonus shares as per the Companies Act. |
| Q49. Which of the following reasonable restrictions is Article 25 of the Constitution of India subject to? a) Public order and morality b) Public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part c) Public order, morality and decency d) Public order, security of the state and decency |
b) Public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part | Article 25 of the Constitution of India guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion. However, this right is subject to public order, morality, and health, as well as other provisions of Part III of the Constitution. |
| Q50. Doctrine of ‘Cypres’ means the interference of Courts: a) To carry out the purpose of accumulation in certain event b) To supervise the event of accumulation c) To implement the rules against accumulation d) To see that the accumulated interest is properly expended |
a) To carry out the purpose of accumulation in certain event | The doctrine of cypres is applied by courts in cases where a specific purpose for a trust cannot be carried out exactly as specified, but the court can carry out the general intent of the trust as closely as possible, often by directing the use of funds for a similar purpose. |
| Q51. In which of the following cases was the basic structure doctrine applied without a constitutional amendment being challenged? a) Supreme Court Advocates-On-Record Association v. Union of India AR 1994 SC 268 b) SR Bommai v. Union of India (1994) 3 SCC 1 c) Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu and Others 1992 SCR (1) 686 d) Sankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India AR 1951 SC 458 |
b) SR Bommai v. Union of India (1994) 3 SCC 1 | In the case of SR Bommai v. Union of India (1994), the Supreme Court applied the basic structure doctrine and ruled that the power of the President to dissolve state assemblies was subject to judicial review, without the need for a constitutional amendment being challenged. |
| Q52. Generally, time is not of the essence in contracts unless specified. Pick the correct option: a) If completion of the work, which is the subject matter of the contract, is of essence to the contract, then the parties would not voluntarily extend the time. b) The fact that the parties to the contract agreed to extend the time for the completion of the project indicates that the time was not of essence to the contract, as required under S. 55 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. c) If the party to the contract has clearly and repeatedly stipulated the fact that time is of utmost importance and that the sale consideration needs to be paid on the specified date, it will be established that time is of essence to the contract under S. 55 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. d) All of the above are correct. |
c) If the party to the contract has clearly and repeatedly stipulated the fact that time is of utmost importance and that the sale consideration needs to be paid on the specified date, it will be established that time is of essence to the contract under S. 55 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. | Section 55 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 establishes that if time is explicitly stipulated as a vital condition, then time will be considered of the essence. In this case, the repeated stipulation of time being important, particularly for payment of the sale consideration, will make time of the essence. |
| Q53. A society that has codified its primitive law and cannot have any further modification or growth, will be a —– society as per Henry Maine. a) Stable b) Strong c) Static d) Stereotypical |
c) Static | According to Henry Maine, a static society is one that has codified its law and does not allow for further modification or growth. This concept contrasts with a dynamic society, which allows for continuous change and evolution of law. |
| Q54. Pick the incorrect option under the Companies Act, 2013: a) Every company shall have a Board of Directors consisting of individuals as Directors b) Every company shall have a Board of Directors consisting of corporate Directors c) A minimum number of three Directors in the case of a public company and two Directors in the case of a private company are required d) There can be a maximum of fifteen Directors in a company |
b) Every company shall have a Board of Directors consisting of corporate Directors | Under the Companies Act, 2013, the board of directors must consist of individuals, not corporate directors. Corporate Directors are not allowed to hold office as directors. The law requires that at least one director be an individual, and certain companies may appoint additional directors subject to the limit of 15. |
| Q55. In 2023, the Supreme Court held that the fixed-term employees would be entitled to full maternity benefits under Section 5 of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (“Maternity Benefit Act”), even after the expiry of their contractual term in the case of: a) Dr. Kavita Yadav v. The Secretary, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare Department and Ors. b) Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Female Workers (Muster Roll) Another c) Kapila Hingorani v. State of Bihar d) Lieutenant Colonel Nitisha and Ors. v. Union of India |
b) Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Female Workers (Muster Roll) Another | In this case, the Supreme Court held that fixed-term employees are entitled to full maternity benefits, even after the expiration of their contractual term. The ruling emphasized that the entitlement to maternity benefits is based on the worker’s need, not their contractual status. |
| Q56. The decision of the Supreme Court in PV Narasimha Rao v. State (1998) 4 SCC 626 that pertained to whether a Member of Parliament or the Legislative Assembly, as the case may be, can claim immunity from prosecution on a charge of bribery in a criminal court under Articles 105 and 194 of the Constitution was: a) Overruled in Sita Soren v. Union of India (2024) b) Upheld in Sita Soren v. Union of India (2024) c) Overruled in Subhash Desai v. Principal Secretary (2023) d) Upheld in Subhash Desai v. Principal Secretary (2023) |
b) Upheld in Sita Soren v. Union of India (2024) | The correct answer is (b) Upheld in Sita Soren v. Union of India (2024). In the case of PV Narasimha Rao v. State, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional immunity of Parliament members from prosecution for actions done in the course of their legislative duties. This immunity, under Articles 105 and 194, allows members of Parliament and state legislatures to perform their functions without fear of criminal prosecution. The decision in Sita Soren reaffirmed this immunity, maintaining that members of the legislature cannot be prosecuted for bribery unless the legislature waives immunity. |
| Q57. The following is incorrect about malicious prosecution in tort law: a) That the plaintiff was prosecuted by the defendant b) That the proceedings terminated in plaintiff’s favour if they are capable of such termination c) That there was reasonable or probable cause for the prosecution d) That the prosecution was instituted with a malicious intention |
c) That there was reasonable or probable cause for the prosecution | The correct answer is (c) That there was reasonable or probable cause for the prosecution. In malicious prosecution, the defendant’s actions are considered malicious if they initiated the prosecution without reasonable or probable cause. The absence of reasonable cause is crucial for claiming malicious prosecution. A plaintiff may claim damages if the prosecution was brought maliciously, with improper intentions. |
| Q59. Which legal principle did the Supreme Court deal with in the case of Motilal Padampat Sagar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of UP (1979) 2 SCC 409? a) Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel b) Doctrine of Waiver c) Doctrine of Legitimate Expectation d) Doctrine of Public Trust |
a) Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel | The correct answer is (a) Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel. In the case of Motilal Padampat Sagar Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of UP, the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine of promissory estoppel. This doctrine prevents a party from going back on a promise made, even in the absence of a formal contract, if the other party has relied on that promise to their detriment. It applies even to government promises. |
| Q60. Which of the following means ‘Fact’ as per BSA, 2023? a) Observable physical events b) Any mental condition of which a person is conscious c) Legal documents, both recorded and written d) A document filed in the Court |
a) Observable physical events | The correct answer is (a) Observable physical events. According to the BSA, 2023, a "fact" refers to observable, physically verifiable events or circumstances. These facts are crucial for establishing truth in legal proceedings and can be witnessed, recorded, and proven. |
| Q61. Consider the following statements with respect to Geographical Indication protection: (i) The WTO TRIPs Agreement identifies Geographical Indications as Intellectual Property (ii) Lucknow Chikankari and Bikaneri Bhujia are recognised GIs in India (iii) The GI registration can be obtained in respect of goods and services (iv) The GI registration is valid for a period of 15 years only and is non-renewable Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect? a) (i) and (ii) b) (i), (ii) and (iii) c) (iii) and (iv) d) All of the above |
c) (iii) and (iv) | The correct answer is (c) (iii) and (iv). - Statement (iii) is incorrect because GI registration can only be obtained for goods, not services. - Statement (iv) is incorrect because GI registration is valid for an initial period of 10 years and can be renewed indefinitely. - Statement (i) is correct: The TRIPs Agreement recognizes Geographical Indications as Intellectual Property. - Statement (ii) is correct: Lucknow Chikankari and Bikaneri Bhujia are both recognized as GIs in India. |
| Q62. In which of the following cases was the registration of Hindu marriage made compulsory? a) Ashok Kumar v. Vimla Devi b) Seema v. Ashwini Kumar c) Ashok Hurra v. Rupa Hurra d) None of the above |
b) Seema v. Ashwini Kumar | The correct answer is (b) Seema v. Ashwini Kumar. - In the Seema v. Ashwini Kumar case, the Supreme Court held that the registration of Hindu marriages is compulsory under Section 8 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. The Court ruled that registration is essential for the purposes of legal recognition and proving the marriage, to avoid disputes about the validity of the marriage. - This case emphasized the need for a formalized system of marriage registration to ensure legal clarity. |
| Q63. The Chancellor, Masters Scholars of the University of Oxford & Ors. v. Rameshwari Photocopy Services and Ors. is a Delhi High Court decision dealing with: a) Moral rights of authors b) Idea Expression Dichotomy c) Performers Rights d) Fair Use Exception |
d) Fair Use Exception | The correct answer is (d) Fair Use Exception. - The case dealt with the issue of whether the photocopying of books by a commercial photocopying service (for educational purposes) amounted to infringement of copyright. - The Delhi High Court ruled in favor of the "fair use" exception, allowing the photocopying service to make copies for educational use, provided it met certain conditions. - The Court emphasized the importance of balancing copyright protection with the needs of education. |
| Q64. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India may be removed: a) at the Pleasure of the President b) by the Parliament in the same manner and on the like grounds as that of a Supreme Court Judge as per Article 148 c) by the Parliament in the same manner and on the like grounds as that of the Prime Minister of India as per Article 149 of the Constitution d) by the Parliament in the same manner and on the like grounds as that of a High Court Judge as per Article 148 |
b) by the Parliament in the same manner and on the like grounds as that of a Supreme Court Judge as per Article 148 | The correct answer is (b) by the Parliament in the same manner and on the like grounds as that of a Supreme Court Judge as per Article 148. - The Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) can only be removed by the President of India, but only after the Parliament passes a resolution for the removal in the same manner as the removal of a Supreme Court Judge (i.e., by a special majority in both Houses of Parliament). - This process ensures that the CAG is independent and cannot be easily removed by the executive. |
| Q65. Inference about the existence of the contract can be made from the letters, emails, and other correspondence between the parties. Pick the correct options: a) The offer specifying the terms and conditions of the contract can be made through email and the unconditional acceptance of the offer can also be communicated through email. b) Mere absence of a formal, written, and signed agreement would not vitiate the validity of the unconditional acceptance of the offer nor the implementation of the contract. c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above |
c) Both a) and b) | The correct answer is (c) Both a) and b). - Contract law allows for agreements to be formed without a written, formal contract. - An offer can be made through email, and acceptance can also be communicated via email, thereby forming a valid contract. The absence of a written agreement does not affect the existence of the contract if the offer and acceptance are clear and unconditional. |
| Q66. As per the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, sapinda relationship with reference to any person extends as far as: a) the third generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother, and the fifth (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father. b) the fifth generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and father, both. c) the third generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father, and the fifth (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother. d) the fifth generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother, and the seventh (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the father. |
b) the fifth generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and father, both. | The correct answer is (b) the fifth generation (inclusive) in the line of ascent through the mother and father, both. - Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a sapinda relationship is prohibited up to the fifth degree of the line of ascent through both mother and father. This prevents marriage between individuals who are closely related by blood. |
| Q67. An arbitration would be an international commercial arbitration, if the dispute arises from a legal relationship considered as commercial under the laws in force in India and where at least one of the parties is: i. an individual who is a national of, or habitually resident in, any country other than India ii. a body corporate which is incorporated in any country other than India iii. an association or a body of individuals whose central management and control is exercised in any country other than India iv. the Government of a foreign country Select the correct option: a) i, ii, iii, iv b) Only i and iv c) Only iii and iv d) Only iv |
a) i, ii, iii, iv | The correct answer is (a) i, ii, iii, iv. - International commercial arbitration applies when the dispute arises from a commercial legal relationship. The defining feature is that at least one party is from a foreign country in one of the following forms: i. An individual who is a national or resident outside India. ii. A body corporate incorporated outside India. iii. An association or body with central management in a foreign country. iv. The Government of a foreign country. This ensures that arbitration can be truly international, involving parties or entities from multiple countries. |
| Q68. The expression ‘law’ under Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution of India does include which of the following? a) Only ordinances, bye-law, rule, regulation b) Ordinance, custom or usage, constitutional amendments, etc. c) Only ordinance, regulation, notification d) Only ordinance, order, bye-law |
b) Ordinance, custom or usage, constitutional amendments, etc. | The correct answer is (b) Ordinance, custom or usage, constitutional amendments, etc. - Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution defines "law" to include ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, and also customs, usages, and constitutional amendments. This wide definition allows courts to review any law that violates fundamental rights, regardless of its source. |
| Q69. Which of the following statements is correct, as per Section 44 of BSA, 2023? a) The question is, whether A was the legitimate son of B. The fact that A was always treated as such by members of the family, is not relevant. b) The question is, whether A and B were not married. The fact that they were usually received and treated by their friends as husband and wife, is not relevant. c) The question is, whether A and B were married. The fact that they were usually received and treated by their friends as husband and wife, is irrelevant. d) The question is, whether A was the legitimate son of B. The fact that A was always treated as such by the members of the family, is relevant. |
d) The question is, whether A was the legitimate son of B. The fact that A was always treated as such by the members of the family, is relevant. | The correct answer is (d) The question is, whether A was the legitimate son of B. The fact that A was always treated as such by the members of the family, is relevant. - Section 44 of the BSA, 2023, considers whether a person is legitimate or not based on the facts and circumstances surrounding their family life. If a child is treated as the legitimate child of a family, this fact is considered important when establishing legitimacy, even if there is no formal acknowledgment. |
| Q70. In which of the following cases did a seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court uphold the constitutional validity of sub-classification in the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe categories? a) E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004) b) State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024) c) The State of Bihar v. Gaurav Kumar (2024) d) Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (2019) |
a) E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004) | The correct answer is (a) E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004). - In the case of E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh, the seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of sub-classification within the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. This judgment clarified the constitutional provision allowing for such sub-classification to provide more focused benefits to the deserving groups within the broader categories. |
| Q71. Identify the correct option under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882: A. Gift I. Section 134 B. Mortgaged debt II. Section 118 C. Exchange III. Section 105 D. Lease IV. Section 122 Select the correct option: |
a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV | The correct answer is (c) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I. - Section 122 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, defines "Gift" as a transfer of certain existing movable or immovable property made voluntarily and without consideration. - Section 118 defines "Exchange" as the transfer of ownership of one thing for the ownership of another. - Section 105 defines "Lease" as a transfer of a right to enjoy immovable property for a certain time in exchange for a price or rent. - Section 134 deals with the extinguishment of a mortgaged debt. |
| Q72. Which constitutional authority is allowed to empower any other court (except the Supreme Court) to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any of the powers (to issue directions or orders or writs) exercisable by the Supreme Court under Article 32? a) The Parliament of India b) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India c) The Supreme Court Collegium d) The National Judicial Appointment Commission |
b) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India | The correct answer is (b) The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. - Under Article 32 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court has the power to issue writs. However, it is the President, acting in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, who can empower other courts (except the Supreme Court) to exercise these powers within their jurisdiction. |
| Q73. Find the odd one out: a) According to Blackstone, it is an established rule to abide by the former precedents where the same points come again in litigation. b) Ratio decidendi really is that principle of law on which a judicial decision is based. c) Persuasive precedents are those precedents which the judges are under an obligation to follow but which they may take into consideration. d) A conditionally authoritative precedent is one which though ordinarily binding on the court to which it is cited, is liable to be disregarded in certain circumstances. |
c) Persuasive precedents are those precedents which the judges are under an obligation to follow but which they may take into consideration. | The correct answer is (c) Persuasive precedents are those precedents which the judges are under an obligation to follow but which they may take into consideration. - Persuasive precedents are not binding on judges, but they can be considered. Option (c) describes a misinterpretation, as persuasive precedents are not obligatory. The other options correctly describe authoritative and binding precedents in legal systems. |
| Q74. Match the following: I. Right to a wholesome environment is a facet of the right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India II. Right to information and community participation for protection of environment and human health is also a right which flows from Article 21 III. Precautionary principle and polluter pays principle are part of law of the land IV. Role of gram sabha in safeguarding the customary and religious rights of scheduled tribes and other traditional forest dwellers under the Forest Rights Act Table 1: Match the correct case with the corresponding environmental law principle. Select the correct option: 1. a) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4 2. b) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2 3. c) I-2, II-1, III-3, IV-4 4. d) I-3, II-4, III-2, IV-1 |
b) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2 | The correct answer is (b) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2. • I. Right to a wholesome environment is derived from Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991), where the Court affirmed the right to a healthy environment as a part of the right to life under Article 21. • II. Right to information and community participation was highlighted in Research Foundation for Science Technology and Natural Resource Policy v. Union of India (2005), recognizing the need for transparency and public participation in environmental matters. • III. Precautionary principle and polluter pays principle were discussed in Vellore Citizen Welfare Forum v. Union of India (1996), where the Court incorporated these principles into Indian environmental law. • IV. Role of gram sabha in protecting the rights of forest dwellers under the Forest Rights Act was addressed in Orissa Mining Corpn Ltd v. Ministry of Environment and Forests (2013). |
| Q75. An order for the maintenance of wives, children and parents is provided under which Section of BNSS, 2023? 1. a) Section 143 2. b) Section 144 3. c) Section 125 4. d) Section 127 |
c) Section 125 | The correct answer is (c) Section 125. • Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) provides for the maintenance of wives, children, and parents who are unable to support themselves. • This section allows individuals who are unable to maintain themselves to claim maintenance from those who have the means to provide it. |
| Q76. Which of the following cases held that a constitutional authority cannot do indirectly what it is not permitted to do directly, specifically in the context of repromulgation of ordinances, and considered this practice as a fraud on the Constitution? 1. a) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980) 2. b) DC Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986) 3. c) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006) 4. d) Kunhayammed Ors v. State of Kerala (2000) |
b) DC Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986) | The correct answer is (b) DC Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1986). • In this case, the Supreme Court held that repromulgation of ordinances, without seeking approval from the legislature, is unconstitutional and amounts to a fraud on the Constitution. • The Court noted that repromulgating ordinances indefinitely would bypass the legislative process, which is not allowed by the Constitution. |
| Q77. Which of the following is a ground for revocation of patent? a) That the patent was obtained wrongfully in contravention of rights of petitioner b) That the invention, so far as claimed in any claim of the complete specification, was claimed in a valid claim of earlier priority date contained in the complete specification of another patent granted in India c) That the invention, so far as claimed in any claim of the complete specification, is not useful d) All of the above |
d) All of the above | The correct answer is (d) All of the above. • Under the Indian Patents Act, 1970, several grounds for revocation of a patent exist, including: a) Wrongful obtaining of a patent in contravention of the petitioner’s rights. b) Claims overlapping with a valid claim of earlier priority in another granted patent. c) Claims in the complete specification that are not useful. • Revocation ensures that patents are not granted for non-novel or non-utility inventions. |
| Q78. As per —— of the Copyright Act, 1957, copyright in a design shall cease to exist if the article to which the design has been applied has been reproduced more than —– by an industrial process. a) Section 15, fifty times b) Section 11, thirty times c) Section 32, five times d) Section 52, fifteen times |
a) Section 15, fifty times | The correct answer is (a) Section 15, fifty times. • Under Section 15 of the Copyright Act, 1957, copyright protection for a design ceases if the article to which the design is applied has been reproduced more than fifty times by an industrial process. • This ensures that widely manufactured industrial designs are protected under the Designs Act rather than copyright law. |
| Q79. In which of the following cases, talaq-e-biddat was declared as unconstitutional by the Supreme Court? a) Shah Bano v. Union of India b) Shayara Bano v. Union of India c) Shamim Ara v. State of Uttar Pradesh d) Noor Saba Khatoon v. Mohd. Quasim |
b) Shayara Bano v. Union of India | The correct answer is (b) Shayara Bano v. Union of India. • In **Shayara Bano v. Union of India**, the Supreme Court declared **talaq-e-biddat** (instant triple talaq) unconstitutional. • The judgment emphasized that this practice violated the constitutional rights of Muslim women, including their right to equality and dignity. |
| Q80. Under the Legal Services Authorities Act 1987, which of the following persons who have to file or defend a case is entitled to legal services under the Act: I. Member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe II. Victim of trafficking in human beings or beggar as referred to in Article 23 of the Constitution III. Woman or a child IV. Industrial workman Select the correct option: a) I, II and III b) I, II and IV c) I, III and IV d) I, II, III and IV |
d) I, II, III and IV | The correct answer is (d) I, II, III and IV. • The **Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987** provides legal services to various vulnerable groups. • The Act covers: I. **Members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.** II. **Victims of trafficking in human beings or beggars** (Article 23 of the Constitution). III. **Women and children.** IV. **Industrial workmen.** |
| Q81. Under Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the transferor or his representative may require the transferee to make his election if the transferee does not signify the same: a) Within two years b) Within one year c) Within a reasonable time d) None of the above |
c) Within a reasonable time | The correct answer is (c) Within a reasonable time. • As per **Section 35 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882**, if the transferee does not signify their intention, the transferor or their representative may require the transferee to make an election within a reasonable time. • The term "reasonable time" is flexible and depends on the circumstances of the case. |
| Q82. Which of the following rights did the Supreme Court recognise for nonminorities in the T.M.A. Pai Foundation case (2002) 8 SCC 481 regarding the establishment and administration of educational institutions? a) Right to equality under Article 14 and right to property under Article 300A b) Right to freedom of religion under Article 25 and right to establish institutions under Article 30 c) Right to freedom of speech under Article 19(1)(a) and right to privacy under Article 21 d) Right to carry on any occupation under Article 19(1)(g) and right to manage charitable institutions under Article 26 |
a) Right to equality under Article 14 and right to property under Article 300A | The correct answer is (a) Right to equality under Article 14 and right to property under Article 300A. • In the **T.M.A. Pai Foundation case (2002)**, the Supreme Court recognised that even nonminority educational institutions have the right to establish and administer educational institutions under the right to equality (Article 14) and the right to property (Article 300A). • The court held that the establishment of educational institutions was not limited to minority institutions but extended to all individuals, including non-minorities, under these constitutional provisions. |
| Q83. Match the following offences with the corresponding Sections under BNS, 2023. Offences (A) Voyeurism (B) Word, gesture or act intended to insult (C) Stalking (D) Sexual Harassment Sections (1) Section 77 (2) Section 79 (3) Section 75 (4) Section 78 |
a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 | The correct answer is (a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4. • (A) **Voyeurism**: This offence is covered under **Section 77** of the BNS, 2023. Voyeurism involves the act of watching someone without their consent, typically in a private setting. • (B) **Word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a woman**: This is addressed in **Section 79** of the BNS, 2023, which deals with actions intended to insult or harm the modesty of a woman. • (C) **Stalking**: This offence is detailed in **Section 75** of the BNS, 2023, which defines stalking and makes it a punishable offence. • (D) **Sexual Harassment**: Sexual harassment is dealt with under **Section 78** of the BNS, 2023, addressing various forms of harassment towards women. |
| Q84. At the heart of the Paris Agreement climate change regime is Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC). Which of the following best describes an NDC? a) Legally binding targets for reducing greenhouse gas emissions for all countries, regardless of their economic status b) Fixed regional targets set by the United Nations that countries must comply with to mitigate climate change c) Voluntary commitments made by countries outlining their plans to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adapt to climate impacts, based on national circumstances d) Financial mechanism to provide developing countries with funding for climate adaptation and mitigation efforts |
c) Voluntary commitments made by countries outlining their plans to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adapt to climate impacts, based on national circumstances | The correct answer is (c) voluntary commitments made by countries outlining their plans to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adapt to climate impacts, based on national circumstances. • NDCs (Intended Nationally Determined Contributions) are voluntary, country-specific plans that outline the actions each country intends to take to reduce emissions and adapt to climate change. • NDCs are not legally binding but are central to the Paris Agreement’s goal of limiting global warming and addressing climate change based on the national capacities and circumstances of each country. |
| Q85. Match the following with the relevant provisions of the Protection of Plant Variety and Farmers Rights Act, 2001: I. Breeders Rights II. Researchers Rights III. Farmers Rights IV. Rights of Communities Select the correct option: a) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B b) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D c) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A |
b) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D | The correct answer is (b) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D. • Breeders Rights are provided under Section 28, which grants rights to the breeders of plant varieties. This corresponds to option I-C. • Researchers Rights are specified under Section 30, which allows researchers to use varieties for research purposes, making this option II-A. • Farmers Rights are granted under Section 39, which protects the rights of farmers with respect to the use and saving of plant varieties, making this III-B. • Rights of Communities are provided under Section 41, which recognizes the role of communities in maintaining plant varieties, thus corresponding to IV-D. |
| Q86. As per the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, which of the following statement is false? a) A Hindu male or a female who is of sound mind and is not a minor can adopt a son or daughter. b) Only the father, mother or the guardian of the child has the capacity to give the child in adoption. c) If the adoption is by a male and the person to be adopted is a female, or if the adoption is by a female and the person to be adopted is a male, the person adopting shall be at least eighteen years older than the person to be adopted. d) The person being adopted shall necessarily be Hindu. Select the correct option: |
d) The person being adopted shall necessarily be Hindu. | The correct answer is (d) The person being adopted shall necessarily be Hindu. • As per the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956, the person adopting a child must be Hindu, but there is no such requirement for the person being adopted. A non-Hindu child can also be adopted by a Hindu individual. • Option (d) is incorrect because it imposes a restriction on the religion of the person being adopted, which is not mandated by the Act. |
| Q87. Which Constitutional Amendment Act introduced the concept of consequential seniority in promotions for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes? a) 85th Amendment Act, 2001 b) 77th Amendment Act, 1995 c) 86th Amendment Act, 2002 d) 81st Amendment Act, 2000 Select the correct option: |
a) 85th Amendment Act, 2001 | The correct answer is (a) 85th Amendment Act, 2001. • The 85th Amendment Act of 2001 introduced the concept of "consequential seniority" in promotions for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs). It ensures that when an SC/ST candidate is promoted, their seniority will be counted from the date of promotion, even if they are promoted on the basis of a reservation policy. • This amendment addressed issues arising from the non-grant of seniority in some cases of promotions. |
| Q88. Which of the following is correct regarding the ‘Accomplice’ under BSA, 2023? a) Is not a Competent witness against an accused person b) Is a Competent witness against an accused person but any conviction based on that is illegal c) Is a Competent witness against an accused person and conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice d) Is not a Competent witness against an accused person but its conviction is not illegal Select the correct option: |
c) Is a Competent witness against an accused person and conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice | The correct answer is (c) Is a Competent witness against an accused person and conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the corroborated testimony of an accomplice. • An accomplice is considered a competent witness in a trial. However, the conviction cannot solely rest on the testimony of an accomplice unless it is corroborated by other evidence. • If the testimony is corroborated, then a conviction can be made based on it. Option (c) correctly captures this legal principle. |
| Q89. Marshalling securities under Section 81 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means the entitlement of subsequent mortgagee to have the prior mortgage debt satisfied out of the property: a) Not mortgaged to him but to the prior mortgagee alone b) Mortgaged commonly to him and to the prior mortgagee c) Not mortgaged to him, but owned by the mortgager d) None of the above Select the correct option: |
a) Not mortgaged to him but to the prior mortgagee alone | The correct answer is (a) Not mortgaged to him but to the prior mortgagee alone. • Marshalling securities under Section 81 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, allows a subsequent mortgagee to have the prior mortgage debt satisfied out of property that was mortgaged to the prior mortgagee but not to the subsequent mortgagee. • This ensures that the subsequent mortgagee’s interests are protected by having recourse to other assets owned by the mortgagor. |
| Q90. Decide the incorrect statement with respect to Hart-Fuller debate on the Nazi Grudger case: a) Hart argued from a positivist approach that moral issues should not be considered within a legal system and that a law should not be invalidated on moral judgment. The wives could not be punished on the ground that it was not law but later could be punished on the ground that it was retrospective legislation. b) Fuller explained that the wives were correctly sentenced because at the time there was no Nazi law as it was devoid of morality and thus had no legitimacy. c) Fuller contended that the women in the case would become criminally liable not because what they did was illegal but because a later statute rendering it illegal by repealing the Nazi law and assuming retrospective effect. d) Hart admits that it could be wrong to punish a person when what they did was then permitted by statute because of the Latin principle of Nulla Poena Sine Lege which means there can be no punishment without law. Select the correct option: |
b) Fuller explained that the wives were correctly sentenced because at the time there was no Nazi law as it was devoid of morality and thus had no legitimacy. | The correct answer is (b) Fuller explained that the wives were correctly sentenced because at the time there was no Nazi law as it was devoid of morality and thus had no legitimacy. • Hart, a legal positivist, argued that laws should be evaluated based on their sources, not their morality. He believed that the wives could not be punished under Nazi law but could be punished later under retrospective legislation. • Fuller, on the other hand, emphasized that laws must have a moral basis to be legitimate. He did not justify the wives' punishment based on the lack of a Nazi law but rather critiqued the immorality of the Nazi regime. • The statement in (b) is incorrect because Fuller did not accept the validity of laws that lacked moral legitimacy. |
| Q91. Match the following: The Code on Wages A. Employees Compensation Industrial Relations Code B. The Equal Remuneration Act The Code on Social Security C. The Trade Unions Act Code on Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions D. The Contract Labour Regulation Act Select the correct option: |
b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D | The correct answer is (b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D. • The Code on Wages relates to the Equal Remuneration Act (Option B) as it covers wage determination and equal pay. • The Industrial Relations Code corresponds to the Trade Unions Act (Option C), as it deals with union matters and industrial disputes. • The Code on Social Security aligns with the Employees Compensation Act (Option A), focusing on compensation and benefits for employees. • The Code on Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions corresponds to the Contract Labour Regulation Act (Option D), which governs working conditions for contract workers. |
| Q92. Match the following: School of Jurisprudence A. Rules Based on reason Analytical B. Principles enforced by courts Realism C. Immutable and eternal rules based on moral/divine law Philosophical D. Law as it is Select the correct option: |
c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A | The correct answer is (c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A. • Natural Law is based on immutable and eternal rules rooted in moral or divine law (Option C). • Analytical School focuses on law as it is, or the factual approach to law (Option D). • Realism emphasizes principles enforced by courts and the practical application of laws (Option B). • Philosophical School views law as based on reason and rational principles (Option A). |
| Q93. Which of the following statements best describes a social media intermediary? a) a platform that provides e-commerce services and facilitates online shopping by connecting online retailer with buyers b) an intermediary which enables online interaction between two or more users and allows them to create, upload, share, disseminate, modify or access information using its services c) an intermediary that primarily facilitates financial transactions between individuals and businesses d) a website that hosts digital content but does not enable any interaction between users Select the correct option: |
b) an intermediary which enables online interaction between two or more users and allows them to create, upload, share, disseminate, modify or access information using its services | The correct answer is (b) an intermediary which enables online interaction between two or more users and allows them to create, upload, share, disseminate, modify or access information using its services. • A social media intermediary is a platform that facilitates interactions between users and enables content creation, uploading, sharing, and modifying. • Examples include platforms like Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, etc., where users can share and interact with content. |
| Q94. A key pillar of International Refugee Law is that “No Contracting State shall expel or return [. . . ] a refugee in any manner whatsoever to the frontiers of territories where his life or freedom would be threatened on account of his race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social group or political opinion.” This is also referred to as: a) principle of non-refoulment b) right to asylum c) access to durable solution d) protection against discrimination Select the correct option: |
a) principle of non-refoulment | The correct answer is (a) principle of non-refoulment. • The principle of non-refoulment is a key aspect of international refugee law, which prohibits returning refugees to territories where their life or freedom would be at risk. • This principle is aimed at protecting refugees from being sent back to situations where they would face persecution based on their race, religion, nationality, social group, or political opinion. |
| Q95. A transfer of property may be made without writing in every case in which writing is not expressly required by law. Which of the following would be such a case? a) Gift of immovable property b) Transfer of actionable claim c) Sale of immovable property of the value of less than 100 d) Simple mortgage irrespective of the amount secured Select the correct option: |
b) Transfer of actionable claim | The correct answer is (b) Transfer of actionable claim. • Actionable claims, such as claims to money, can be transferred without writing, provided the Transfer of Property Act does not expressly require writing. • In contrast, the gift or sale of immovable property typically requires written documentation. |
| Q96. What does the principle of non-regression mean in International Environmental Law? a) measures of environmental protection already achieved should not be reversed or diminished b) all environmental laws must be continuously revised to be more lenient c) acknowledges inherent flexibility whereby stringent environmental standards may be reversed to accommodate developmental concerns d) requires that states moderate their commitments to international environmental agreements over time Select the correct option: |
a) measures of environmental protection already achieved should not be reversed or diminished | The correct answer is (a) measures of environmental protection already achieved should not be reversed or diminished. • The principle of non-regression in environmental law ensures that once protective measures are implemented, they cannot be undone or weakened. • This principle safeguards against backsliding in environmental protection efforts and promotes continuous progress. |
| Q97. Which of the following statements best captures the key difference between a Lok Adalat and Permanent Lok Adalat? a) Permanent Lok Adalat mediates, while Lok Adalats conciliates b) Jurisdiction of Permanent Lok Adalat includes any civil matter, while Lok Adalats is limited to public utility services c) Permanent Lok Adalat has the power to adjudicate the matter if the dispute does not relate to any offence, while Lok Adalat has no powers of adjudication d) Award of a Permanent Lok Adalat cannot be appealed against, while decision of the Lok Adalat is subject to regular appeal process Select the correct option: |
c) Permanent Lok Adalat has the power to adjudicate the matter if the dispute does not relate to any offence, while Lok Adalat has no powers of adjudication | The correct answer is (c) Permanent Lok Adalat has the power to adjudicate the matter if the dispute does not relate to any offence, while Lok Adalat has no powers of adjudication. • Permanent Lok Adalats have the authority to adjudicate disputes, including those related to civil matters (except offences), while Lok Adalats only offer conciliatory resolution without adjudicating the matter. • Lok Adalats are primarily designed for resolving disputes through mediation and conciliation, while Permanent Lok Adalats can make binding decisions. |
| Q98. “Associate company” in relation to another company means a company: a) In which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company. b) Where control of at least twenty per cent of total voting power, or control of or participation in business decisions is given under an agreement. c) Where a joint arrangement whereby the parties that have joint control of the arrangement have rights to the net assets of the arrangement. d) All of the above. Select the correct option: |
d) All of the above. | The correct answer is (d) All of the above. • An "associate company" is one where another company has significant influence, generally defined as holding at least 20% of the voting power. This influence is not sufficient to constitute control (i.e., the company is not a subsidiary). • It includes joint venture companies and arrangements where there is joint control or participation in business decisions. • The association may also be under an agreement to exercise control over business decisions or net assets. |
| Q99. What is the condition prescribed under Section 6 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 for an individual to be classified as a ‘Resident’ in India for tax purposes? a) The individual stays in India for 90 days or more during the relevant financial year. b) The individual stays in India for 182 days or more during the relevant financial year. c) The individual has stayed in India for at least 150 days in the past 4 years. d) The individual must own property in India. Select the correct option: |
b) The individual stays in India for 182 days or more during the relevant financial year. | The correct answer is (b) The individual stays in India for 182 days or more during the relevant financial year. • According to Section 6 of the Income Tax Act, 1961, an individual is classified as a "Resident" if they stay in India for at least 182 days during the relevant financial year. • This is one of the conditions for determining tax residency, which influences the individual's tax liabilities in India. |
| Q100. Pick the correct statement: a) A pure monopoly may be either regulated such as power generation or unregulated having control over natural resources or technology driven firms. b) Monopolistic competition is characterised by product differentiation, brand loyalty and there is no price competition. c) In an oligopoly, there are few sellers in the market who are highly sensitive to each other’s pricing and marketing strategies. d) All of the above are correct. Select the correct option: |
d) All of the above are correct. | The correct answer is (d) All of the above are correct. • (a) A pure monopoly can be either regulated (e.g., power generation) or unregulated (e.g., firms controlling natural resources or technology-driven firms). • (b) Monopolistic competition is characterized by product differentiation and brand loyalty, with some level of price competition, even though it is limited. • (c) In an oligopoly, there are few firms that dominate the market and are highly sensitive to each other’s pricing and marketing strategies. |
*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.