CMAT 2024 Question Paper PDF with Solutions is available here after the exam. NTA has conducted CMAT 2024 on May 15, 2024, in Shift 1 from 9 AM to 12 Noon. Based on initial reaction of test takers, the overall CMAT 2024 difficulty level was moderate. We, at Zollege, provide CMAT question paper with solution PDFs for free download.

CMAT 2024 is an online, CBT exam. In the CMAT Question Paper, you have to answer 100 multiple choice questions. The questions are divided into 5 sections: quantitative techniques & data interpretation, logical reasoning, language comprehension, general awareness, and innovation & entrepreneurship. The exam duration is 3 hours. You score 4 marks for every correct answer and lose 1 mark for every incorrect answer.

Students can freely download the CMAT previous year's question paper PDFs along with their solutions here. We strongly encourage aspirants to scan through all the CMAT Question Paper to know the overall difficulty level, CMAT Syllabus and understand the changes in CMAT Exam Pattern over the years.

CMAT 2024 Question Paper with Solution PDF

CMAT 2024 May 15, 2024 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The total number of girls in the Engineering College is:

1. 138
2. 112
3. 102
4. 116

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Question 2:

The number of girls who opted for Mechanical is how much percent of the number of students who opted for Electronics?

1. 75%
2. 80%
3. 85%
4. 90%

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Question 3:

By what percent is the number of boys who opted for Mechanical more than the total number of students who opted for Electronics?

1. 15%
2. 12%
3. 13.5%
4. 17.5%

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Question 4:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In order to get a mixture worth Rs 16.5/kg, a grocer needs to mix two varieties of pulses costing Rs 15 and Rs 20 per kg respectively in the ratio 7 : 3.
Statement II: A merchant has 1000 kg of rice, part of which he sells at 8% profit and the rest at 16% profit. He gains 14% on the whole. The quantity of rice sold at 16% profit is 750 kg.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Question 5:

Ramesh invests Rs 1,200 at 5% simple interest. How much additional money must he invest at 8% simple interest so that his total annual income will be equal to 6% of his total investment during this year?

1. Rs 500
2. Rs 600
3. Rs 1,200
4. Rs 1,500

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Question 6:

If the digit in the unit's place of a two-digit number is halved and the digit in the ten's place is doubled, the number thus obtained is equal to the number obtained by interchanging the digits. Which of the following is definitely true?

1. Sum of the digits is a two-digit number.
2. Digit in the unit's place is half of the digit in the ten's place.
3. Digit in the unit's place and the ten's place are equal.
4. Digit in the unit's place is twice the digit in ten's place.

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Question 7:

A cylindrical vessel of radius 4 cm contains water. A solid sphere of 3 cm radius is lowered into the water until it is completely immersed. The water level in the vessel will rise by:

1. 2/9 cm
2. 4/9 cm
3. 9/4 cm
4. 9/2 cm

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Question 8:

If abc > 0, such that a, b, c are integers, then which of the following must be true?

1. a/b < 0
2. ab/c > 0
3. bc < 0
4. a > bc

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Question 9:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Ram and Shyam can finish a task by working together in 6 days. If Shyam can finish the task by working alone in 8 days, then Ram alone will take 24 days to finish it.
Statement II: If 6 persons working 8 hours a day earn Rs 8,400 per week, then 9 persons working 6 hours a day will earn Rs 9,450 per week.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Question 10:

A (1/x) : (1/y) : (1/z) = 2:3:5 then x : y : z = 15:10:6.
(B) If 4p = 6q = 9r, then p:q:r = 9:6:4.
(C) If 2A = 3B = 4C, then A : B : C = 3:4:6.
(D) P:Q:R = 2:3:4, then P/Q : Q/R = 9:8:24.

1. (C) only
2. (D) only
3. (A) and (B) only
4. (C) and (D) only

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Question 11:

Arrange the following in increasing order:

• (A) 4√3
• (B) 9√2
• (C) 6√5
• (D) 6√7

Options:

1. A < D < B < C
2. B < C < A < D
3. A < C < B < D
4. B < A < C < D

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Question 12:

A glass jar contains 1 red, 3 green, 2 blue, and 4 yellow marbles. If a single marble is chosen at random, choose the correct statements:

• (A) Probability of getting a yellow marble is 1/5.
• (B) Probability of getting a green marble is 3/10.
• (C) Probability of getting either a yellow or a green marble is 7/10.
• (D) Probability of getting either a red or a yellow marble is 3/10.

Options:

1. (A) and (D) only
2. (B) and (C) only
3. (A) and (C) only
4. (B) and (D) only

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Question 13:

Arrange the following in increasing order:

• (A) 16 2/3 %
• (B) 2/15
• (C) 0.17
• (D) 0.25% of 64

Options:

1. B < D < A < C
2. A < D < B < C
3. C < D < B < A
4. A < C < D < B

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Question 14:

A dishonest dealer sells his goods at 10% loss on cost price and uses 30% less weight. What is his profit or loss percentage?

1. 28 4/7 % loss
2. 28 3/7 % profit
3. 28 3/7 % loss
4. 28 4/7 % profit

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Question 15:

If the roots of the equation px² + x + r = 0 are reciprocal to each other, then which one of the following is correct?

1. p = 2r
2. p = r
3. 2p = r
4. p = 4r

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Question 16:

Match List-I with List-II:

Options:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
3. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
4. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

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Question 17:

Find the number of permutations that can be made from the letters of the word OMEGA, if the vowels occupy odd places.

1. 12 ways
2. 6 ways
3. 16 ways
4. 20 ways

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Question 18:

Match List-I with List-II:

Options:

1. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
2. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
3. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
4. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

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Question 19:

A train traveling at 48 km/h completely crosses another train having half the length of the first train and traveling in the opposite direction at 42 km/h in 12 seconds. The train traveling at 48 km/h also passes a railway platform in 45 seconds. What is the length of the platform?

1. 600 m
2. 300 m
3. 400 m
4. 200 m

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Question 20:

A certain amount of money at compound interest grows to ₹66,550 in 3 years and ₹73,205 in 4 years. The rate percent per annum is:

1. 10%
2. 9%
3. 5%
4. 11%

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Question 21:

Miss 'Lilly’ started her journey from her house and goes 2 km straight. Then, she turns towards her right and goes 1 km. She again turns towards her right and goes 1 km again. If finally she is in the north-west direction from her house, then in which direction did she go in the beginning?

1. North
2. South
3. East
4. West

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Question 22:

Take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Which conclusion would follow on the basis of given statements?

Statement:
‘Some bags are purses’, ‘All purses are containers’ and ‘All containers are suitcases’.

Conclusions:

• (A) Some suitcases are bags
• (B) All purses are bags
• (C) All purses are suitcases
• (D) Some containers are purses

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (B) and (D) only
3. (A) and (C) only
4. (A), (C) and (D) only

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Question 23:

Choose the correct word from the given alternatives which bears the same relationship to the third word as the first two.
Vigilant : Alert : : Viable : ?

1. Active
2. Hopeless
3. Feasible
4. Useful

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Question 24:

Bald is related to Blond in the same way as Barren is related to ?

1. Vegetation
2. Farm
3. Fertile
4. Inhabited

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Question 25:

Find the odd one out among the following:

1. Bajra
2. Barley
3. Mustard
4. Rice

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Question 26:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): A person with blood group O is supposed to be a universal donor.

Reason (R): Group O does not contain any antigens.

1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
4. Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

View Solution

Explanation:

• Blood group O is termed a universal donor because it lacks A or B antigens, ensuring that no antibodies in the recipient's blood will attack it.
• This makes the Reason (R) directly explain the Assertion (A).

Hence, both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

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Question 27:

Mr. X starts walking from his house towards west. After walking a distance of 30 metres, he turns towards right and walked 20 metres. He then turns left and moving a distance of 10 metres, turns to his left again and walked 40 metres. He now turns to the left and walks 5 metres. Finally he turns to his left. In which direction is he walking now?

1. North
2. South
3. South-East
4. East

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Question 28:

If ‘blue means green’, ‘green means white’, ‘white means yellow’, ‘yellow means black’, ‘black means red’ and ‘red means brown’, then what is the colour of milk?

1. Black
2. Brown
3. Yellow
4. Green

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Question 29:

In a row of boys facing the north, A is 16th from the left and C is 16th from the right end. B who is 4th to the right of A, is 5th to the left of C in the row. How many boys are there in the row?

1. 39
2. 40
3. 38
4. 42

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Question 30:

A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes slow at 10:00 AM on Monday and is 2 (1/2) minutes fast at 1:00 PM the following day. When did it show the correct time?

1. 10:30 PM Tuesday
2. 10:30 PM Monday
3. 10:45 PM Monday
4. 10:00 PM Monday

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Question 31:

A monkey climbs 20 feet at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he slips back 5 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent at 8:00 AM, at what time will he first touch a flag at 110 feet from the ground?

1. 2:00 PM
2. 3:00 PM
3. 4:00 PM
4. 2:30 PM

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Question 32:

Find the missing term in the following figure:

1. 5
2. 6
3. 11
4. 7

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Question 33:

The following question consists of a statement and arguments I and II. Choose the best option:

Statement: Should there be a compulsory medical examination of both the man and the woman before they marry each other?

Argument I: No, this is an intrusion into the privacy of an individual and hence cannot be tolerated.

Argument II: Yes, this will substantially reduce the risk of giving birth to children with serious ailments.

1. Only Argument I is strong
2. Only Argument II is strong
3. Neither Argument I nor Argument II is strong
4. Both Argument I and Argument II are strong

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Question 34:

In a certain code language, if HAND is written as SZMW, then what will be the code of MILK?

1. ORNP
2. PNRO
3. NROP
4. RNOP

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Question 35:

Consider the statement given below and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement: You know that your shirt is excellent when people ask about your tailor who tailored the shirt.

Assumptions:

• I. People do not ask about your tailor if your shirt is not good.
• II. People want to know the criteria of an excellent shirt.

1. Only Assumption I is implicit
2. Only Assumption II is implicit
3. Neither Assumption I nor II is implicit
4. Both Assumptions I and II are implicit

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Question 36:

Consider the statement given below followed by two conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follows from the information given in the statement.

Statement: Domestic demand has been increasing faster than production of indigenous crude oil.

Conclusions:

• I. Crude oil must be imported.
• II. Domestic demand should be reduced.

1. Only Conclusion I follows
2. Only Conclusion II follows
3. Either Conclusion I or II follows
4. Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

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Question 37:

Find the number of triangles in the following figure:

1. 16
2. 17
3. 19
4. 21

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Question 38:

A dice is thrown four times and its four different positions are shown below. Find the number on the face opposite the face showing 2.

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

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Question 39:

A cylinder is painted in 6 colours - Green, Blue, Yellow, Violet, Red, and Pink. Three positions are shown below. What is the colour in the empty space?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Violet
4. Yellow

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Question 40:

Arrange the following words in a meaningful sequence and choose the most appropriate sequence from the given alternatives:

• (A) Rain
• (B) Monsoon
• (C) Rescue
• (D) Flood
• (E) Shelter
• (F) Relief

1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F)
2. (A), (B), (D), (E), (C), (F)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C), (E), (F)
4. (D), (A), (B), (C), (F), (E)

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Question 41:

Pick the word opposite in meaning to the word “OBLIGATORY”.

1. Compulsory
2. Exclusionary
3. Voluntary
4. Exemplary

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Question 42:

Identify the usages of the word “PRINCIPAL” in the following sentence.

“In the meeting, the principal stated the principal reasons for the suggested changes in the statute.”

1. As a noun and as an adverb
2. As a noun and as a verb
3. As a noun and as an adjective
4. As a noun and as a noun

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Question 43:

Pick the correct answer from the options given below to replace the underlined words/phrase in the following sentence to make it grammatically correct:

“He keeps getting for me and I really don't know what wrong have I done.”

1. gets at me
2. get off at me
3. getting at me
4. getting by me

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Question 44:

Pick the odd one out from the following options:

1. hold back
2. hold high
3. hold on
4. hold up

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Question 45:

Pick the correct option to complete the following sentence:

“He often \_\_\_ cold in winter.”

1. catch
2. is catching
3. catches
4. have caught

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Question 46:

“Speech without any preparation” is known as

1. Ready-made
2. Natural
3. Present-minded
4. Extempore

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Question 47:

Pick the correct passive form of the following sentence:

“One sees this sort of advertisement everywhere.”

1. This sort of advertisement is seen everywhere.
2. This sort of advertisement sees everywhere.
3. The advertisement are seen everywhere by one.
4. This sort of advertisement is shown everywhere.

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Question 48:

Pick the appropriate replacement for (1):

1. provide
2. provides
3. provided
4. be provided

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Question 49:

Pick the appropriate replacement for (II):

1. a
2. an
3. the
4. None of the above

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Question 50:

Pick the appropriate replacement for (III):

1. concern
2. concerns
3. concerned
4. concerning

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Question 51:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

The details of the incident was not known.

Assertion (A): The above sentence does not adhere to the requirement of subject-verb agreement and hence it is a grammatically incorrect sentence.

Reason (R): In “Noun + Preposition + Noun" constructions, the verb agrees with the number and person of the noun preceding the preposition.

1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

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Question 52:

Rearrange the following components to get a meaningful sentence.

(A) balanced economic growth

(B) had to plan for

(C) the Indian Government

(D) and development of a huge country

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (A), (D), (B), (C)
3. (C), (A), (B), (D)
4. (C), (B), (A), (D)

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Question 53:

Rearrange the following sentences to get a meaningful paragraph:

(A) All Indian water bodies within and near population centres are now grossly polluted with organic and hazardous pollutants.

(B) India is facing a water situation that is significantly worse than any that previous generations had faced.

(C) That’s why interstate disputes over river waters are becoming intense and widespread.

(D) Not a single Indian city can provide clean water that can be consumed from a tap on a 24 x 7 basis.

1. (C), (A), (D), (B)
2. (C), (B), (A), (D)
3. (C), (D), (A), (B)
4. (B), (A), (D), (C)

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Question 54:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Modal verbs have only one form. They have no -ing or -ed forms and do not add -s to the 3rd person singular form.

Statement II: Modal verbs are followed by past participle form of the other verbs.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

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Question 55:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: "DARE" usually forms negatives and questions like an ordinary verb and is followed by an infinitive with to.

Statement II: It can also be used like a modal verb, especially in present tense negative forms, and is followed by an infinitive without to.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

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Question 56:

Which of the following are synonyms of the word “CAJOLE”?

(A) Coax

(B) Entice

(C) Bully

(D) Disenchant

1. (A) and (B) only
2. (A) and (C) only
3. (B) and (C) only
4. (C) and (D) only

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Question 57:

Match List-I with List-II:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
2. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
3. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

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Question 58:

Match List-I with List-II:

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
2. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
3. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

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Question 59:

Read the following passage and answer the next two questions:

Education, taken in its most extensive sense, is properly that which makes the man. One method of education, therefore, would only produce one kind of man; but the greater excellence of human nature consists in the variety of which it is capable. Instead then, of endeavouring, by uniform and fixed systems of education, to keep mankind always the same, let us give free scope to everything which may bid fair for introducing more variety among us. The varied character of the Athenians was certainly preferable to the uniform character of the Spartans, or to any uniform national character whatever. Uniformity is the characteristic of the brute creation. Among them every species of bird builds its nest with the same materials and in same form; the genius and disposition of one individual is that of all and it is only the education which men give them that raises any of them much above others. But it is the glory of human nature that the operations of reason, through variable and by no means infallible, are capable of infinite improvement. We come into the world worse provided than any of the brutes; but when their faculties are at a full stand and their enjoyments incapable of variety or increase, our intellectual powers are growing apace; we are perpetually deriving happiness from new sources, and even before we leave this world, are capable of tasting the felicity of angels.

59. Which of the following is true about the given passage?

1. It describes the state of education in our society.
2. It narrates the story of educational development in our society.
3. It reflects on the role and impact of education in life.
4. All of the above

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Question 60:

Which of the following statements are true about the given passage?

(A) The author creates a binary between uniformity and diversity in matters of education.

(B) It upholds a uniform and stable system of education.

(C) It holds uniformity as brutish but necessary for society.

(D) It holds diversity in education as a key to human excellence and progress.

1. (A) and (B) only
2. (A) and (C) only
3. (A) and (D) only
4. (B) and (D) only

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Question 61:

The famous football player Lionel Messi belongs to which country?

1. Jamaica
2. Portugal
3. Argentina
4. Spain

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Question 62:

Which of the following statement is NOT correct?

1. Chitranjan Das was not a member of Swaraj Party.
2. N. C. Kelkar was among the founding members of Swaraj Party.
3. The foundation of Swaraj Party was laid on January 1, 1923.
4. In the election held in 1923, the Swaraj Party captured 45 out of 145 seats.

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Question 63:

The 20th Asian Games - 2026 is scheduled to be held in which country?

1. China
2. Japan
3. India
4. Thailand

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Question 64:

Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to free and compulsory education for children of age 6 years to 14 years?

1. Article - 17
2. Article - 21A
3. Article - 46
4. Article - 356

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Question 65:

We celebrate National Constitution Day on:

1. 26th December
2. 9th December
3. 15th August
4. 26th November

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Question 66:

Kathakali is the famous dance of which state?

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Odisha

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Question 67:

Who is known as “The Father of Green Revolution in the world”?

1. M.S. Swaminathan
2. Dr. Verghese Kurien
3. Norman E. Borlaug
4. P.C. Mahalanobis

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Question 68:

The Author of the famous Book "My Life" is:

1. Barack Obama
2. Benazir Bhutto
3. Pervez Musharraf
4. Bill Clinton

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Question 69:

The world record of the First Space Tourist is of:

1. Anousheh Ansari
2. Adolf Von
3. Dennis Tito
4. Robert Edwin

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Question 70:

The Panchayat system first started in India from:

1. West Bengal
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Rajasthan
4. Bihar

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Question 71:

Arrange the following important National Days of India in chronological sequence.

(A) National Science Day
(B) National Teacher's Day
(C) National Youth Day
(D) National Hindi Day
(E) National Children's Day

1. (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
2. (B), (A), (D), (C), (E)
3. (C), (A), (B), (D), (E)
4. (C), (B), (A), (E), (D)

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Question 72:

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Indus Valley Civilization is one of the oldest civilizations of the world.

(B) People of this civilization were familiar with Wheat, Rice and Barley.

(C) They were the first people to produce cotton.

(D) They were living in villages with homes made with mud and soil.

(E) They were not familiar with metals like copper.

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (B), (C) and (D) only
3. (C), (D) and (E) only
4. (A), (D) and (E) only

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Question 73:

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) Men in Paleolithic age survived on hunting animals and birds, fishing, fruits, and nuts.

(B) Men in Mesolithic age domesticated some animals and started to stay in one place.

(C) Men in Mesolithic age invented the wheel for transportation.

(D) Men in Chalcolithic age started the practice of agriculture.

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (B) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

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Question 74:

Match List-I with List-II

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
2. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
3. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

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Question 75:

Match List-I with List-II

1. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

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Question 76:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.

Statement II: Diamond is highly transparent and the hardest known material.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Question 77:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Anthology is the branch of science that deals with the study of flowers.

Statement II: Pedology is the branch of science that deals with the study of fruits.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Question 78:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ajatashatru was the founder of the Haryanka Dynasty.

Statement II: The earliest capital of Magadha was Rajgir.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Question 79:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The founder of Buddhism, Gautam Buddha, was born in 540 BC at Lumbini.

Statement II: Buddhism followed the middle path for the attainment of salvation and believed in the concept of non-violence.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Question 80:

The first foreigner honored with the Bharat Ratna Award was:

1. Muhammad Ali Jinnah
2. Benazir Bhutto
3. Sirimavo Bandaranaike
4. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

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Question 81:

The entrepreneur:

1. is an aggressive catalyst for change in the world of business.
2. is an independent thinker who dares to be different amid a background of common events.
3. is a mere creator of business.
4. Both (1) and (2)

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Question 82:

A corporate manager who starts a new initiative for their company/organization which entails setting up a new distinct business unit can be regarded as:

1. Ecopreneur
2. Technopreneur
3. Intrapreneur
4. Businessman/Businesswoman

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Question 83:

The primary function of a new age entrepreneur is innovation. This statement was/is proposed and propagated by:

1. Henri Fayol
2. Steve Jobs
3. Schumpeter
4. Elon Musk

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Question 84:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: People’s attitudes have changed over the years leading to involvement of State (Government) in businesses globally.

Statement II: Increasing technicality is leading to State (Government) to make interventions in businesses globally.

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Question 85:

Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) MUDRA loans under PMMY include Shishu Category

(B) MUDRA loans under PMMY include Kishore Category

(C) MUDRA loans under PMMY include Shaishav Category

(D) MUDRA loans under PMMY include Tarun Category

(E) MUDRA loans under PMMY include Vyask Category

1. (C), (B) and (E) only
2. (C), (B) and (D) only
3. (A), (B) and (E) only
4. (A), (B) and (D) only

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Question 86:

Which of the following is NOT a form of organization to initiate a business/enterprise?

1. Partner Organization
2. Sole Proprietorship
3. Private Limited Company
4. Live and License

Question 87:

Match List-I with List-II:

1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
4. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

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Question 88:

Arrange the following stages of Entrepreneurship Creativity in sequence:

(A) Knowledge accumulation

(B) Incubation

(C) Implementation

(D) Idea experience

(E) Evaluation

1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
2. (A), (D), (B), (E), (C)
3. (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)
4. (E), (A), (B), (C), (D)

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Question 89:

Design thinking involves which of the following stages?

(A) Prototyping

(B) Define

(C) Empathize

(D) Modeling

(E) Test

1. (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
2. (A), (B), (C) and (E) only
3. (A), (D) and (E) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

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Question 90:

Which of the following factors must you judge to estimate the market potential?

(A) Present Market Demand

(B) Export Market Demand

(C) Future Market Demand

(D) Labour Demand

(E) Retailer’s Consumption Preferences

1. (B), (C) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (D) only
3. (A), (B) and (C) only
4. (B), (D) and (E) only

Question 91:

Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Small businesses are considered important to economic development.

Reason (R): Small businesses can be innovators of new products and provide specialist support to larger companies.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
2. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

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Question 92:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: An entrepreneur can get a lot of quality information about competitors from company reports and its website.

Statement II: The first step to avail finance for a new project is Promoter’s Biodata.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

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Question 93:

Match List-I with List-II:

1. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

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Question 94:

Scaling up of a business requires a firm to take care of the following things:

(A) Hiring, retaining, and motivating qualified employees
(B) Finding investors who share the same goals
(C) Time management and work assignment ability
(D) Adequate market potential and opportune time
(E) Business idea experiencing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B), (D), and (E)
2. (B), (C), and (D) only
3. (A), (B), (C), and (D) only
4. (C), (D), and (E) only

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Question 95:

Which of the following is an example of speculative business risk?

1. A customer is injured while using the product and sues the company
2. A supplier's shipment is lost in transit
3. A special promotion fails to increase the sales
4. A cashier gives unauthorized discounts to friends

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Question 96:

Which of the following can give an enterprise dealing in instant coffee a competitive edge?

1. Quality, taste, and location
2. Population increase in the city
3. Ambience and customer relationship
4. (1) and (3) only

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Question 97:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Yoga and focus on hobbies are good ways to deal with stress for an entrepreneur.
Statement II: Having stress for an entrepreneur is welcoming as it helps in better performance and helps him/her lead a balanced life.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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Question 98:

Social Enterprise Obligation includes:

(A) Environment
(B) Fair Business Practices
(C) Community Involvement
(D) Energy
(E) Shareholder’s Profit

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (C), and (E) only
2. (A), (C), and (D) only
3. (B), (C), and (D) only
4. (D) and (E) only

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Question 99:

Which of the following is NOT part of the Entrepreneurship Development Programme?

1. Identification of entrepreneurs for training
2. Selection of entrepreneurs for training
3. Developing entrepreneurial capabilities
4. Arranging infrastructural capabilities

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Question 100:

The Government of India has launched the following initiative a few years ago to drive the new-age ideas and enterprises:

1. Production Linked Incentive (PLI)
2. Special Economic Zone (SEZ)
3. Technology Development Board
4. Start-Up India

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