CMAT 2024 Question Paper with Solutions PDF (May 15 Shift 2)
Content Curator | Updated On - Jan 3, 2025
CMAT 2024 Question Paper PDF with Solutions is available here after the exam. NTA has conducted CMAT 2024 on May 15, 2024, in Shift 2 from 3 PM to 6 PM. Based on initial reaction of test takers, the overall CMAT 2024 difficulty level was moderate. We, at Zollege, provide CMAT question paper with solution PDFs for free download.
CMAT 2024 is an online, CBT exam. In the CMAT Question Paper, you have to answer 100 multiple choice questions. The questions are divided into 5 sections: quantitative techniques & data interpretation, logical reasoning, language comprehension, general awareness, and innovation & entrepreneurship. The exam duration is 3 hours. You score 4 marks for every correct answer and lose 1 mark for every incorrect answer.
Students can freely download the CMAT previous year's question paper PDFs along with their solutions here. We strongly encourage aspirants to scan through all the CMAT Question Paper to know the overall difficulty level, CMAT Syllabus and understand the changes in CMAT Exam Pattern over the years.
CMAT 2024 Question Paper with Solution PDF
| CMAT 2024 Question Paper with Solutions May 15, 2024 Shift 2 |  Download |
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CMAT 2024 May 15, 2024 Shift 2 Questions with Solutions
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1. What is the difference between the average number of linen kurtis sold by stores D and E together and the average number of cotton kurtis sold by the same stores together? (1) 2920 (2) 2880 (3) 2940 (4) 3060 |
(3) 2940. | Determine the number of linen and cotton kurtis for Stores D and E using the pie chart and their given ratios. Calculate the average for each type. Subtract the average cotton kurtis from the average linen kurtis to find the difference. | ||||||||||
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2. What is the respective ratio between the number of kurtis (linen and cotton) sold by store C and the number of linen kurtis sold by store F? (1) 30:41 (2) 40:49 (3) 22:31 (4) 20:29 |
(2) 40:49. | Calculate the total kurtis sold by Store C using the pie chart. Determine the number of linen kurtis sold by Store F using the given ratio. Divide the total kurtis sold by Store C by the number of linen kurtis sold by Store F to find the ratio. | ||||||||||
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3. Number of kurtis (linen and cotton) sold by store D is what percent more than the number of linen kurtis sold by store B? (1) 16% (2) 20% (3) 24% (4) 18% |
(2) 20%. | Calculate kurtis sold by Store D. Calculate linen kurtis sold by Store B. Find the percentage increase using (Difference / Linen kurtis sold by Store B) * 100. | ||||||||||
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4. There are two numbers which are greater than 21 and their LCM and HCF are 3003 and 21 respectively. What is the sum of these numbers? (1) 504 (2) 508 (3) 514 (4) 528 |
(1) 504. | Use LCM * HCF = x * y. Find factors of LCM/HCF. Determine the numbers and calculate their sum. | ||||||||||
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5. Mr. Seth inherits 2505 gold coins and divides them among his three sons: Brij, Purab, and Mohan in a certain ratio. Out of the total coins received by each of them, Brij sells 30 coins, Purab donates 30 coins, and Mohan loses 25 coins. Now, the ratio of gold coins with them is 46:41:34 respectively. How many coins did Purab receive from his father?
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(4) 850 | The number of coins Purab received was determined by solving the ratio equations and ensuring the total distributed coins matched the inheritance. This confirms the correct answer as 850. | ||||||||||
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6. Given below are two statements: Statement I: The perimeter of a triangle is greater than the sum of its three medians. Statement II: In any triangle ABC, if D is any point on BC, then ( AB + BC + CA > 2 AD ). Options: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true |
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. | Statement I is true. The perimeter of any triangle is greater than the sum of the lengths of its medians. Statement II is also true. This is a triangle inequality: if D is any point on side BC, then ( AB + BC + CA > 2 AD ). | ||||||||||
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7. If a% of a + b% of b = 2% of ab, then what percent of a is b? (1) 25% |
(4) 100% | Simplifying the equation step-by-step: (a2 / 100) + (b2 / 100) = (2ab / 100) Multiply by 100: a2 + b2 = 2ab This simplifies to (a - b)2 = 0, so a = b. Thus, b is 100% of a. |
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8. Arrange the following surds in increasing order: (A) cube root of 2 |
(4) A < D < C < B | Approximate values: A ≈ 1.26, D ≈ 1.40, C ≈ 1.50, B ≈ 1.73. Increasing order: A < D < C < B. |
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9. Given below are two statements: Statement I: If two chords XY and ZT of a circle intersect internally at point P, then PX * PY = PZ * PT. |
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true | Statement I follows the intersecting chords theorem, and Statement II describes the similarity of triangles formed by intersecting chords. | ||||||||||
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10. A container is filled with liquid, 6 parts of which are water and 10 parts milk. How much of the mixture must be drawn off and replaced with water, so that the mixture may be half water and half milk? (1) 1/3 |
(3) 1/5 | Solving the equations: Draw 1/5 of the total volume and replace with water to balance water and milk in equal parts. | ||||||||||
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11. Which two figures will have the same area?
Options: |
(3) A and C only | The areas of the circle (A) and the rectangle (C) are approximately the same:
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12. In terms of percentage profit, arrange the following transactions in decreasing order.
Options: |
(2) D > B > C > A | The percentage profit for each transaction is calculated as:
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13. A player can take a maximum of 4 chances to hit a bottle with a flying disc. The probability of hitting the bottle at the first, second, third, and fourth shots are 0.1, 0.2, 0.35, and 0.45 respectively. What is the probability that the player hits the bottle with the flying disc? Options: |
(3) 0.7426 | The probability that the player does not hit the bottle on a given shot is: - First shot: 1 - 0.1 = 0.9 - Second shot: 1 - 0.2 = 0.8 - Third shot: 1 - 0.35 = 0.65 - Fourth shot: 1 - 0.45 = 0.55 The probability that the player misses all 4 shots is: 0.9 × 0.8 × 0.65 × 0.55 = 0.2874 Thus, the probability that the player hits the bottle in at least one of the four shots is: 1 - 0.2874 = 0.7426 |
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14. A Glass jar contains 1 Red, 3 Green, 2 Blue, and 4 Yellow marbles. If a single marble is chosen, then match List I with List II:
Options: |
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) | Total number of marbles = 1 + 3 + 2 + 4 = 10. - Probability of choosing a yellow marble: P(Yellow) = 4/10 = (IV) - Probability of choosing a green marble: P(Green) = 3/10 = (I) - Probability of choosing either a green or yellow marble: P(Green or Yellow) = 7/10 = (II) - Probability of choosing either a red or yellow marble: P(Red or Yellow) = 5/10 = (III) |
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15. The graphs of ax + by = c and dx + ey = f will be: Options: |
(3) A and D only | The equations represent straight lines in the Cartesian plane: 1. If the lines are parallel, they will never intersect, which happens if the system has no solution. 2. If the lines are coincident, they will coincide at every point, and the system will have infinite solutions. 3. If the lines are intersecting, they will meet at exactly one point, and the system will have one solution. Statement A refers to parallel lines with no solution, and Statement D refers to intersecting lines with one solution. Thus, the correct answer is (3). |
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16. Ice-cream, completely filled in a cylinder of diameter 35 cm and height 32 cm, is to be served by completely filling identical disposable cones of diameter 4 cm and height 7 cm. The maximum number of cones that can be used in this way is
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(3) 1050 | The volume of the ice cream in the cylinder is:
Vcylinder = πr2h = π (35/2)2 × 32 = π × 17.52 × 32 ≈ 3.1416 × 306.25 × 32 = 3.1416 × 9800 = 30787.36 cm3 The volume of one cone is:Vcone = (1/3)πr2h = (1/3)π (4/2)2 × 7 = (1/3)π × 22 × 7 = (1/3)π × 4 × 7 = (28π)/3 ≈ 29.3215 cm3 The number of cones that can be filled is:Number of cones = Vcylinder / Vcone = 30787.36 / 29.3215 ≈ 1050 |
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17. A vessel of 160 L is filled with milk and water. 70% of milk and 30% of water is taken out of the vessel. It is found that the vessel is vacated by 55%, then the quantity of milk and water in the original mixture is
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(1) Milk = 100 L; Water = 60 L | Let the quantity of milk and water in the vessel initially be M and W, respectively. We know:
M + W = 160 Out of the total milk, 70% is removed, so the remaining milk is 0.3M. Similarly, 30% of water is removed, so the remaining water is 0.7W. After removing 55% of the total liquid, we have:0.3M + 0.7W = 0.45 × 160 = 72 Now, we have the system of equations:M + W = 160 (1) 0.3M + 0.7W = 72 (2) Multiply equation (1) by 0.3:0.3M + 0.3W = 48 (3) Subtract equation (3) from equation (2):(0.3M + 0.7W) - (0.3M + 0.3W) = 72 - 48 0.4W = 24 ⇒ W = 60 Substitute W = 60 into equation (1):M + 60 = 160 ⇒ M = 100 Thus, the quantity of milk is 100 L and the quantity of water is 60 L. |
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18. 3 men and 18 women together take 2 days to complete a piece of work. How many days will 9 women alone take to complete the piece of work if 6 men alone can complete the piece of work in 3 days?
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(2) 6 | Let the amount of work that 1 man can do in 1 day be M and the amount of work that 1 woman can do in 1 day be W. - From the information that 6 men alone can complete the work in 3 days, the total work done by 6 men in 1 day is:
6M × 3 = 1 ⇒ 6M = 1/3 ⇒ M = 1/18 Thus, 1 man does 1/18 of the work in 1 day. - For 3 men and 18 women working together for 2 days, the total work done is:(3M + 18W) × 2 = 1 Substitute M = 1/18:(3 × 1/18 + 18W) × 2 = 1 ⇒ (3/18 + 18W) × 2 = 1 (1/6 + 18W) × 2 = 1 ⇒ 1/3 + 36W = 1 ⇒ 36W = 2/3 ⇒ W = 1/54 Now, for 9 women working alone:9W × D = 1 ⇒ 9 × 1/54 × D = 1 ⇒ D = 6 Thus, 9 women will take 6 days to complete the work. |
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19. Match List I with List II:
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(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) | The formula for calculating the discount percentage is:
Discount Percentage = (Regular Price - Sale Price) / Regular Price × 100 For option (A):Discount Percentage for A = (65 - 55) / 65 × 100 = 10 / 65 × 100 = 15.38% For option (B):Discount Percentage for B = (60 - 50) / 60 × 100 = 10 / 60 × 100 = 16.66% For option (C):Discount Percentage for C = (70 - 50) / 70 × 100 = 20 / 70 × 100 = 28.57% For option (D):Discount Percentage for D = (75 - 65) / 75 × 100 = 10 / 75 × 100 = 13.33% Thus, the correct matches are:(A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) |
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20. There are 10 stations on a railway line. The number of different journey tickets required by the authorities is
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(2) 90 | If there are 10 stations, the number of ways to choose two distinct stations (i.e., the number of possible journeys between two stations) is given by the combination formula 10C2, where n is the total number of stations. Thus, the number of different journey tickets is:
10C2 = (10 × 9) / 2 = 45 This is the number of possible journeys in one direction. Since a ticket can be for a journey in either direction (forward or backward), we multiply by 2:45 × 2 = 90 Thus, the number of different journey tickets required is 90. |
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21. In the following number series, only one number is wrong, find out the wrong number: 888, 454, 237, 128.5, 76.25, 47.125 Options: |
(1) 7625 | Let's examine the pattern of the given series. The numbers are halved and reduced by a certain amount: 888 ÷ 2 - 2 = 454 454 ÷ 2 - 2 = 237 237 ÷ 2 - 2 = 128.5 128.5 ÷ 2 - 2 = 76.25 76.25 ÷ 2 - 2 = 47.125 Thus, 7625 does not follow the same pattern and is the wrong number in the sequence. |
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22. If 8th February, 2005 was a Tuesday, then what was the day on 8th February, 2004? Options: |
(3) Sunday | Since 2004 was a leap year, the number of days from 8th February, 2004 to 8th February, 2005 is 366 days. To find the day of the week, we calculate the remainder when 366 is divided by 7:
366 ÷ 7 = 52 weeks and 2 extra days Thus, the day on 8th February, 2004 was two days before Tuesday, which is Sunday. |
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23. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Tides indicate the regular and periodic rise and fall in the sea level. Reason (R): Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and sea level. Options: |
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false | Assertion (A) is correct because tides are indeed the regular rise and fall of sea levels. However, Reason (R) is incorrect. While tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the moon, it is the gravitational pull of both the moon and the sun that affects tides, not just the moon and sea level. | ||||||||||
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24. How many squares does the figure have? |
(4) 12 | In the given figure, the number of squares includes both smaller and larger squares. There are 9 smaller squares and 3 larger squares formed by combining the smaller ones. Thus, the total number of squares is: 9 + 3 = 12 |
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25. The sheet of paper shown in the figure below is folded to form a box. Choose the correct alternative which will represent the position of numbers in the above diagram. |
(4) 4 1 3 | When the sheet is folded to form a box, the positions of the numbers will correspond to the positions of the faces of the box. By carefully visualizing or folding the sheet, we find that the numbers will appear in the order 4, 1, 3 on the box. | ||||||||||
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26. At sunrise, Ajay and Vijay are having a conversation standing in front of each other. The shadow of Vijay is formed towards the right hand of Ajay. What direction is Vijay facing?
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(4) North | At sunrise, the sun rises in the east. Since Ajay and Vijay are standing in front of each other, and the shadow of Vijay is formed towards the right hand of Ajay, it means Vijay is facing North. This is because the right side at sunrise corresponds to the North direction when facing the sun. | ||||||||||
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27. A clock is set right at 10 am. The clock gains 10 minutes in a day. What will be the true time when the watch indicates 3 pm the next day?
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(4) 48 minutes past 2 pm | The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours, so in 29 hours, the clock will gain approximately 12.08 minutes. Therefore, the true time when the clock shows 3 pm is about 2:47:52 pm, approximately 48 minutes past 2 pm. | ||||||||||
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28. Find the next term in the series: XRF, UTI, RVM, ?
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(2) OXR | The pattern in the series follows a sequence for each letter position: first letter: X, U, R, O; second letter: R, T, V, X; third letter: F, I, M, R. Therefore, the next term is OXR. | ||||||||||
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29. If RAIN is written as 66, then CLOUD is written as
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(4) 80 | By adding the positions of each letter in the alphabet, for RAIN: 18 + 1 + 9 + 14 = 42, then multiplied by 2 gives 84. Subtracting 18 gives 66. Similarly for CLOUD, the sum is 55, adjusted to 80 by the same logic. | ||||||||||
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30. Find the odd one among the following:
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(1) Death : Disease | Death and disease are not directly related in the same way that the other pairs are. While grapes turn into wine, milk turns into butter, and water contains oxygen, death is not a direct result of disease. | ||||||||||
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31. Find the missing number from the given alternatives: 
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(2) 35 | To find the missing number, observe the relationship between the numbers in the rows. In the first row, 117 is related to 200, and 110 is related to the number in the third row. By applying the pattern, we find that 21, 34, and the missing number follow a similar relation, leading to the number 35 as the correct answer. | ||||||||||
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32. A B, C, D, E, F, G, H, and J are sitting around a circle facing the centre. C is third to the left of A. E is fourth to the right of A. D is fourth to the left of J, who is second to the right of A. F is third to the right of B. G is not an immediate neighbour of A. What is H's position with respect to E?
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(1) Third to the left | By arranging the individuals based on the given directions, we can find that H is located third to the left of E. The relationships of left and right movements determine the correct placement around the circle. | ||||||||||
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33. A and B are twins. B's sister is C. D is the husband of C. A's mother is E. E is wife of F. How is F related to D?
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(3) Father in law | From the given information, A and B are twins, C is B's sister, and D is C's husband. E is A's mother, and F is E's husband. Hence, F is the father-in-law of D. | ||||||||||
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34. Seeta and Geeta start moving towards each other from two places 200 m apart. After walking 40 m, Geeta turns left and goes 15 m, then she turns right and goes 25 m. She then turns right again and comes back to the road on which she had started walking. If Seeta and Geeta walk with the same speed, what is the distance between them now?
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(1) 40 m | By analyzing the path taken by Geeta and considering the distance between her final position and Seeta's, the distance between them is calculated to be 40 meters. | ||||||||||
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35. In a row of girl students facing north, Radhika is 10 to the left of Purnima, who is 21 from the right end. If Monika, who is 17 from the left end, is 4 to the right of Radhika, how many students are there in the row?
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(3) 43 | By carefully analyzing the positions of Radhika, Purnima, and Monika, and adding the positions together, the total number of students in the row is found to be 43. | ||||||||||
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36. ‘Fire’ is related to ‘Ashes’ in the same way as ‘Explosion’ is related to:
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(2) Debris | Just as fire results in ashes, an explosion typically results in debris. Therefore, the correct relationship is 'Explosion' is related to 'Debris.' | ||||||||||
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37. The following question consists of a statement and argument I and II. Choose the best option.
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(1) Only argument I is strong | Argument I is strong because an independent judiciary helps check the actions of the executive, ensuring that unlawful activities are curbed. Argument II is weak because an independent judiciary does not hinder bold measures but rather ensures fairness. | ||||||||||
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38. Consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
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(1) Only assumption I is implicit | The statement suggests that the northern grid has collapsed before, which makes assumption I implicit. However, assumption II is not explicitly supported by the statement. | ||||||||||
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39. All needles are threads. All threads are boxes. All trees are boxes. (A) No needle is a tree.
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(4) C only | Based on the logical relationships in the statement, the only valid conclusion is that some boxes are needles. The other options are not logically consistent with the given information. | ||||||||||
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40. A set of figures carrying certain characters is given below. Assuming that the characters in each set follow the same pattern, find the missing character. 
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(2) 142 | The missing character follows a specific pattern in the set of figures, and by analyzing the given options, 142 is found to be the correct one. | ||||||||||
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41. Pick the word opposite in meaning to the word “DOLEFUL":
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(1) Cheerful | "Doleful" means sorrowful or mournful, so the opposite of this word would be a word conveying happiness or joy. "Cheerful" fits this description, making it the correct choice. | ||||||||||
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42. Identify the usages of the word “PUZZLE" in the following sentence: “The students got puzzled solving the puzzle.”
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(4) as a verb and as a noun | In the sentence, "puzzled" is used as a verb in "got puzzled," and "puzzle" is used as a noun to refer to the problem the students are solving. Thus, the word "puzzle" is used as both a verb and a noun. | ||||||||||
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43. Pick the correct option given below to replace the underlined words/phrase in the following sentence to make it grammatically correct: “Do you know that dressing properly for an interview can earns you those brownie points which will help you get that dream job”?
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(1) can earn | The correct construction here is "can earn," as the modal verb "can" is followed by the base form of the verb "earn." The other options are grammatically incorrect. | ||||||||||
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44. Pick the odd one out from the following options:
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(3) Go fast | "Go about," "Go after," and "Go through" are all phrasal verbs that involve a specific action or direction. "Go fast" is simply an action describing speed and does not function in the same way as the others. | ||||||||||
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45. Pick the correct option to complete the following sentence: “The teacher never ___ in the class.”
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(1) sleeps | The correct verb form here is "sleeps," as it agrees with the singular subject "the teacher." The other options are either incorrect verb forms or tenses. | ||||||||||
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46. “An office without pay” is termed as:
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(4) Honorary | An honorary office or position is one in which the individual works without pay, typically as a gesture of goodwill or recognition. The other options do not fit this definition. | ||||||||||
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47. Pick the correct passive form of the following sentence: “He urged the council to reduce the rates.”
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(4) The council was urged to reduce the rates. | The correct passive construction of the sentence is "The council was urged to reduce the rates," where the object "the council" becomes the subject, and the action is performed on it. | ||||||||||
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Comprehension 48. Pick the appropriate replacement for (I):
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(1) does | In this context, "does" is the correct auxiliary verb to match the subject "it," as it is the third person singular form. | ||||||||||
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49. Pick the appropriate replacement for (II):
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(4) pursuing | The correct form here is "pursuing," as it functions as a present participle describing the action being undertaken in the sentence. | ||||||||||
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50. Pick the appropriate replacement for (III):
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(3) assumed | The past tense "assumed" is required here to maintain the past tense construction of the sentence. | ||||||||||
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51. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). ‘I wish it were possible.’
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(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) | The sentence "I wish it were possible" is correct despite the apparent subject-verb discord because it follows the rules of the subjunctive mood, which permits such constructions. The reason given in (R) accurately explains (A). | ||||||||||
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52. Rearrange the following components to get a meaningful sentence: (A) The Buddha
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(2) ACBD | The correct sentence is "The Buddha dissented against the orthodoxy of his time and the eightfold path stood revealed." | ||||||||||
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53. Rearrange the following sentences to get a meaningful paragraph: (A) However, Indian girls have not matched this rate of access to education.
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(3) CBDA | The meaningful order is: "The power of education in transforming communities is a gift that has changed India in the last few decades. However, Indian girls have not matched this rate of access to education. Still, the Indian girl child has been deprived of the gift, as largely girls are not considered worthy of literacy. India has seen a substantial increase in primary school enrolment due to the Right to Education (RTE) Act 2009." | ||||||||||
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54. Given below are two statements: Statement I: "VERY" is used with adjectives, past participles used as adjectives, and adverbs.
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(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true | "VERY" can be used with adjectives, past participles used as adjectives, and adverbs. However, it is not used with past participles that carry a passive meaning, as they do not convey the intended emphasis. | ||||||||||
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55. Given below are two statements: Statement I: "HARDLY" can be used to say that something is just true or possible.
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(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true | "HARDLY" indeed expresses the idea of something being barely true or possible, and it is a negative word. Therefore, it should not be used with other negative words like "not." | ||||||||||
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56. Which of the following are synonyms of the word “DELINEATE”? (A) Depict
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(2) A and C only | "Delineate" means to describe or depict something in detail. Therefore, "Depict" and "Describe" are synonyms. | ||||||||||
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57. Match List I with List II:
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(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I) | - Alma mater refers to one's own old school or college. - De Jure means "as a matter of legal right." - Ipso facto means "by the fact." - Quantum meruit refers to the reasonable value of service. |
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58. Match List I with List II:
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(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) | - "Fits and starts" means "at intervals." - "In less than no time" means "in a moment." - "Once in a blue moon" means "rarely." - "On the dot" means "at appropriate time." |
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59. Which of the following terms is closer to the central idea of the given passage?
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(4) Altruism | The passage emphasizes living for something greater than oneself and serving others, which aligns with the concept of altruism. | ||||||||||
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60. What does the passage suggest overall? (A) It suggests humanism as a religious practice.
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(4) C and E only | The passage suggests that altruism is a universal value (C) and places altruism in contrast to selfishness (E). | ||||||||||
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61. 22 Commonwealth Games 2022 were held in which city of the world?
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(1) Birmingham | The 22nd Commonwealth Games in 2022 were held in Birmingham, England. This event marked the first time Birmingham hosted the Games. | ||||||||||
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62. Who is the present Vice President of India?
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(3) Jagdeep Dhankhar | Jagdeep Dhankhar is the current Vice President of India. He assumed office on August 11, 2022. | ||||||||||
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63. The first National Education Policy of independent India was commenced in the year
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(1) 1968 | The first National Education Policy (NEP) of independent India was implemented in 1968. It aimed to promote education for all, with a special focus on education in rural areas. | ||||||||||
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64. In the Indian Constitution, Directive Principles of State Policy are taken from
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(4) Constitution of Ireland | The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution are derived from the Irish Constitution. These principles aim to guide the government in creating a welfare state. | ||||||||||
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65. The famous instrumentalist Bismillah Khan was associated with which of the following instrument?
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(4) Shehnai | Bismillah Khan was a renowned Shehnai player. He is credited with bringing the Shehnai to the center stage of Indian classical music. | ||||||||||
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66. The first country of the world to legalize Euthanasia was
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(2) Netherlands | The Netherlands was the first country in the world to legalize euthanasia, in 2002, under strict conditions. | ||||||||||
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67. Arrange the following Indian Defence organizations in terms of their foundation year (A) Border Security Force (BSF)
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(4) BCAED | The correct order is: - Indian Air Force (IAF) – 1932 - National Cadet Corps (NCC) – 1948 - Border Security Force (BSF) – 1965 - Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) – 1969 - National Security Guards (NSG) – 1984 |
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68. Which of the following statements are correct? (A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place in the year 1919.
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(1) A, B, and C only | The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place in 1919, people gathered there in protest against the arrest of Dr. Kitchlu and Dr. Satyapal, and General O'Dyer ordered the firing on the crowd. The other statements regarding Gandhiji's knighthood and Sardar Hardayal's involvement are incorrect. | ||||||||||
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69. Which of the following statements are correct? (A) Jainism came into existence around 600 B.C. in India.
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(3) A and B only | Jainism was founded around 600 B.C. in India and has 24 Tirthankaras. However, Mahavira, not Swami Mahavira, is the 24th Tirthankar, and Jainism does not believe in the existence of a creator god or the caste system. | ||||||||||
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70. Match List I with List II:
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(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) | - Lord Canning is known for his handling of the Revolt of 1857. - Lord Lytton is known for the Vernacular Press Act. - Lord Ripon is known for the Indian Universities Act. - Lord Curzon is known for being the founding father of local self-governance in India. |
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71. Match List I with List II:
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(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) | - Warren Hastings is known for the abolition of Dual Government in India. - Lord Cornwallis is recognized as the Father of civil services in India. - Lord Wellesley is known for the introduction of the Subsidiary Alliance. - Lord Hastings is known for the establishment of the Ryotwari system. |
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72. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Vitamin-A, Vitamin-B and Vitamin-C are all fat-soluble vitamins.
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(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false | Vitamins A, D, E, and K are fat-soluble, while vitamins B and C are water-soluble. Hence, both statements are incorrect. | ||||||||||
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73. Given below are two statements: Statement I: The Abbreviation of ASCII is Army Standard Code for Information Interchange.
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(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false | The correct abbreviation for ASCII is "American Standard Code for Information Interchange," and COBOL stands for "Common Business-Oriented Language." | ||||||||||
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74. Given below are two statements: Statement I: King Ashoka was the son of Chandragupta.
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(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false | Ashoka was the grandson of Chandragupta Maurya, not his son. After the war of Kalinga, Ashoka did indeed turn to Buddhism, not Jainism. | ||||||||||
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75. Given below are two statements: Statement I: In Indus Valley Civilization, houses were made of bricks.
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(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false | Houses in the Indus Valley Civilization were made of baked bricks, but the civilization was familiar with cotton, which they used for making textiles. | ||||||||||
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76. The youngest Prime Minister in the history of India was
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(3) Rajiv Gandhi | Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India at the age of 40, making him the youngest Prime Minister in Indian history. | ||||||||||
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77. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
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(3) Force | Force is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude and direction. Speed, work, and volume are scalar quantities. | ||||||||||
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78. The first Bharat Ratna Awards were not given to
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(1) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant | The first Bharat Ratna Awards, instituted in 1954, were given to Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, Dr. C. V. Raman, and Shri Chakravarti Rajagopalachari, but not to Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant. | ||||||||||
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79. Rudyard Kipling is the famous writer of which of the following books?
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(3) Jungle Book | Rudyard Kipling is best known for writing "The Jungle Book," a collection of stories about the adventures of Mowgli, a young boy raised by wolves. | ||||||||||
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80. The word ‘Blue Revolution’ is associated with
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(2) Fish Production | The "Blue Revolution" refers to the significant increase in fish production, especially in India, which was driven by advancements in aquaculture. | ||||||||||
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81. ‘Entrepreneur’ means:
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(2) to undertake | An entrepreneur is someone who undertakes the initiative to organize, manage, and assume the risks of a business or enterprise. | ||||||||||
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82. Becoming an entrepreneur is more about:
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(4) Mindset | Becoming an entrepreneur requires the right mindset, as it involves creativity, risk-taking, and persistence, rather than just financial resources or support. | ||||||||||
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83. Diffusion of Innovation theory is associated with:
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(4) E.M. Rogers | The Diffusion of Innovation theory, which explains how new ideas and technologies spread, was developed by Everett M. Rogers. | ||||||||||
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84. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Changing competition in the marketplace is the primary reason for government involvement in business globally.
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(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect | The changing competitive dynamics in the global market often prompt governments to intervene in business to regulate competition and maintain market fairness, while the cost of production is a secondary factor. | ||||||||||
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85. Which of the following statements are correct? (A) SMILE loans are aimed to pursue growth opportunities.
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(2) A, C, D only | SMILE loans are designed to help both manufacturing and service sectors pursue growth opportunities and improve infrastructure. They are not aimed at repaying earlier loans or meeting consumption needs for farm-based entrepreneurs. | ||||||||||
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86. The legal term for brand is:
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(4) Trademark | A trademark is a legal term used to refer to the brand name or logo that represents a company or product. | ||||||||||
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87. Match List I with List II:
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(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) | - A manager is responsible for getting work done. - A retailer adds value by selling goods to customers. - An entrepreneur calculates risk-taking and innovates new business models. - A businessman works on existing business models. |
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88. Design thinking has the following important stages. Arrange them in a sequence: (A) Define
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(1) BAECD | The correct sequence of design thinking stages is: Empathize, Define, Ideate, Prototype, and Test. | ||||||||||
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89. Following are the reasons for the success of entrepreneurial ventures: (A) Effective Market Research
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(3) A, B, C, E only | The success of entrepreneurial ventures depends on effective market research, good financial control, good management, and having a good idea. The caste of the entrepreneur is not a relevant factor. | ||||||||||
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90. Which of the following factors are not relevant for judging the adequacy of the market?
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(1) Labour Market | While the labour market may be an important factor for other considerations, it is not typically relevant for judging the adequacy of the market in the context of business or entrepreneurship. | ||||||||||
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91. To maintain consistent business throughout the year, an entrepreneur may: Options: |
(2) have more than one customer segment | Having more than one customer segment ensures that the business can target different groups, thus reducing dependency on a single market segment and maintaining steady sales throughout the year. | ||||||||||
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92. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Dividing the market into small niches is known as targeting. Statement II: Segmentation and targeting are essential components of understanding the market and tapping it effectively. Options: |
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true | Segmentation refers to dividing the market into smaller segments, while targeting refers to selecting the specific segment(s) to focus on. Both are crucial for effectively tapping into a market. | ||||||||||
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93. Match List I with List II:
Options: |
(2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) | - Plant and Machinery records relate to technical feasibility (B). - Profit statements are crucial for understanding financial feasibility (III). - Creativity and innovation are essential in business ideation (IV). - Empathize is part of the design thinking process (I). |
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94. Along with goal setting, major concerns for a growing enterprise are: (A) Time management. (B) Finding, retaining, and motivating able human resources. (C) Finding new financers. (D) Diversification and export potential. (E) Performance measurement and incentives. Options: |
(4) A, B, E only | For a growing enterprise, managing time, motivating human resources, and establishing performance metrics are critical. Finding new financers and exploring diversification are important, but less immediate than the others. | ||||||||||
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95. Shruti wants to launch a small floral shop in Nagarbhavi, Bengaluru. As part of her business plan, she prepared an engaging MS PowerPoint presentation to garner interest among potential investors and trigger discussion. This format of business plan is known as: Options: |
(2) Pitch deck | A pitch deck is a short presentation used by entrepreneurs to showcase their business ideas to potential investors. It is designed to be concise and engaging. | ||||||||||
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96. Hands-on learning can be best taught through: Options: |
(1) A, B, C only | Case study analysis, entrepreneurial audits, and profiling are practical methods that encourage hands-on learning in entrepreneurship by allowing participants to solve real-world problems and analyze business cases. | ||||||||||
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97. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Business ideation is an important aspect of venture creation. Statement II: Conversation that happens in an elevator is known as an elevator pitch. Options: |
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. | Business ideation is crucial for venture creation as it lays the foundation for the business model. However, an elevator pitch is a brief, persuasive speech about your business idea, not merely a conversation. | ||||||||||
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98. Bottom line measures of social performance for an entrepreneur include the following: (A) Unemployment rate (B) Relative poverty (C) GDP growth (D) Average commute time (E) Literacy rate Options: |
(1) A, B, D, E only. | Social performance for an entrepreneur is measured by factors like unemployment, relative poverty, commute times, and literacy rates, as these influence the community's overall well-being. | ||||||||||
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99. Critical evaluation points of Entrepreneurship Development Programmes (EDPs) are: (A) Organizational Policies (B) Suitable selection procedure of trainees and Faculty (C) Quality of Technical and Vocational Education and Training (D) Organization associated in the EDP Options: |
(3) A, B, C only. | Effective EDPs rely on sound organizational policies, the careful selection of trainees and faculty, and high-quality training programs. The organization itself is important but not the central evaluation point. | ||||||||||
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100. Shaadi.com, an online matchmaking service, is an example of the following startup model: Options: |
(1) Subscription-based business service model. | Shaadi.com follows a subscription-based model where users pay to access premium features for matchmaking services. |
*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.