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Diksha Seth

Content Strategist | Updated On - Jan 18, 2025

IIT JAM 2024 Biotechnology Question Paper is available for download. The exam was successfully conducted by IIT Madras on February 11, 2024, from 2:30 PM to 5:30 PM. As per the students’ initial reactions, the Biotechnology paper was reported as Moderate to Tough. A few questions were direct and easy to answer, with Molecular Biology and Cell Biology having the maximum number of questions.

IIT JAM 2024 Biotechnology Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Candidates can download the IIT JAM 2024 Biotechnology Question Paper with Solution and Answer Key PDFs using the link below.

IIT JAM 2024 Biotechnology Question Paper PDF  download iconDownload Check Solution

IIT JAM 2024 Biotechnology Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

Which one of the following is a simple tissue system in plants?

  1. Epidermis
  2. Parenchyma
  3. Phloem
  4. Xylem
Correct Answer: (B) Parenchyma
View Solution

Simple tissues consist of one type of cell. Parenchyma is a simple tissue that forms the outer protective covering of plants, helping prevent water loss and providing protection against mechanical injury. Complex tissues like xylem and phloem, however, are composed of more than one type of cell.

Question 2:

In DNA replication, the Okazaki fragments are joined by:

  1. DNA helicase
  2. DNA ligase
  3. DNA polymerase
  4. DNA primase
Correct Answer: (B) DNA ligase
View Solution

Okazaki fragments are short DNA segments synthesized on the lagging strand during replication. DNA ligase plays a critical role by sealing nicks between these fragments to form a continuous DNA strand. Other enzymes like helicase and primase have distinct roles, such as unwinding DNA and synthesizing primers, respectively.

Question 3:

The most abundant type of RNA in a metabolically active mammalian cell is:

  1. mRNA
  2. rRNA
  3. snoRNA
  4. tRNA
Correct Answer: (B) rRNA
View Solution

Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) constitutes about 80% of the total RNA in a cell. It is a key component of ribosomes, where protein synthesis occurs. In contrast, messenger RNA (mRNA) and transfer RNA (tRNA) make up smaller proportions and serve as intermediaries in protein synthesis.

Question 4:

Which organelle in a eukaryotic cell is the site of the electron transport chain?

  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mitochondrion
  4. Peroxisome
Correct Answer: (C) Mitochondrion
View Solution

The electron transport chain is a series of protein complexes embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane. These complexes transfer electrons and pump protons to create an electrochemical gradient, driving ATP synthesis. Other organelles, like the Golgi apparatus or peroxisomes, are not involved in this process.

Question 5:

RNA is a polymer of:

  1. Glycosides
  2. Ribonucleosides
  3. Ribonucleotides
  4. Riboses
Correct Answer: (C) Ribonucleotides
View Solution

RNA is composed of ribonucleotides, each containing a ribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, uracil, cytosine, or guanine). This structure forms the backbone of RNA, enabling its various functions in cells, including protein synthesis.

Question 6:

Which one of the following is present in a bacterial cell?

  1. 28S rRNA
  2. 70S ribosome
  3. Chitinous cell wall
  4. Histones
Correct Answer: (B) 70S ribosome
View Solution

Bacteria possess 70S ribosomes, which are smaller than the 80S ribosomes found in eukaryotes. They lack chitinous cell walls (characteristic of fungi) and histones (associated with eukaryotic chromatin).

Question 7:

Which color of light excites a natural GFP to emit green fluorescence?

  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Infrared
  4. Red
Correct Answer: (A) Blue
View Solution

Green fluorescent protein (GFP) absorbs blue light and emits green fluorescence due to its specific chromophore structure. GFP is widely used in molecular biology as a reporter gene to visualize protein localization and expression.

Question 8:

Which one of the following hormones promotes fruit ripening?

  1. Abscisic acid
  2. Auxin
  3. Ethylene
  4. Gibberellin
Correct Answer: (C) Ethylene
View Solution

Ethylene is a plant hormone that promotes fruit ripening by triggering enzymes involved in cell wall degradation, starch-to-sugar conversion, and pigment synthesis. It is also commercially used in agriculture to ripen fruits like bananas and tomatoes.

Question 9:

Which one of the following has a catalytic RNA?

  1. Ribonuclease H
  2. Ribozyme
  3. RNA polymerase I
  4. RNA polymerase II
Correct Answer: (B) Ribozyme
View Solution

Ribozymes are RNA molecules with catalytic activity, capable of cleaving RNA and participating in RNA splicing. They are distinct from protein enzymes. One example is the self-splicing intron in Tetrahymena thermophila.

Question 10:

The number of significant figures in a reported measurement of 0.00361 is:

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
Correct Answer: (A) 3
View Solution

Significant figures include all the digits that are known accurately, plus one uncertain digit. The leading zeros in 0.00361 are placeholders and do not count as significant. Thus, the digits “3,” “6,” and “1” are the three significant figures.

Question 11:

Match the terminology in Group I with the stimulus in Group II that generates growth response of plants.

Group I Group II
P. Gravitropism 1. Light
Q. Phototropism 2. Touch
R. Thigmotropism 3. Chemical
S. Chemotropism 4. Gravity
  1. P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 1
  2. P – 2, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 4
  3. P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3
  4. P – 4, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 3
Correct Answer: (C) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3
View Solution

Gravitropism refers to growth towards or away from gravity (P – 4). Phototropism involves a response to light (Q – 1). Thigmotropism is a response to touch (R – 2). Chemotropism is a response to chemical stimuli (S – 3).

Question 12:

The correct hierarchy of taxa in the Linnaean classification of eukaryotes is:

  1. Kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus
  2. Kingdom, order, class, phylum, family, genus
  3. Kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus
  4. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus
Correct Answer: (D) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus
View Solution

The Linnaean system classifies organisms into: Kingdom > Phylum > Class > Order > Family > Genus > Species. This taxonomy reflects increasing specificity.

Question 13:

Which one of the following statements about polyploidy is correct?

  1. Autopolyploids are derived from a single species.
  2. Autopolyploids are derived from two different species.
  3. Allopolyploids are derived from a single species.
  4. Allopolyploids are not fertile when mated with each other.
Correct Answer: (A) Autopolyploids are derived from a single species.
View Solution

Polyploidy involves organisms having multiple sets of chromosomes. Autopolyploids arise from chromosome duplication within a single species, whereas allopolyploids result from hybridization between two different species.

Question 14:

Which one of the following hormones is a tyrosine derivative?

  1. Epinephrine
  2. Estradiol
  3. Progesterone
  4. Testosterone
Correct Answer: (A) Epinephrine
View Solution

Epinephrine (adrenaline) is synthesized from the amino acid tyrosine. Estradiol, progesterone, and testosterone are steroid hormones derived from cholesterol.

Question 15:

Which one of the following immunoglobulins crosses the human placenta?

  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Correct Answer: (C) IgG
View Solution

IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta, providing passive immunity to the fetus. Other types like IgA or IgM cannot cross the placenta.

Question 16:

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (A) and the Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The resolving power of a transmission electron microscope is higher than that of the light microscope.

Reason (R): The wavelength of electrons is shorter than that of visible light.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct reason for (A).
  3. Both (A) and (R) are false.
  4. (A) is true but (R) is false.
Correct Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A).
View Solution

The resolving power of a microscope depends on the wavelength of the source used. Electron microscopes use electrons with much shorter wavelengths compared to visible light, thereby achieving higher resolution.

Question 17:

Match the morphology in Group I with the corresponding microorganism in Group II.

Group I Group II
P. Coccus 1. Treponema
Q. Rod 2. Bacillus
R. Comma 3. Neisseria
S. Spiral 4. Vibrio
  1. P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1
  2. P – 4, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 2
  3. P – 2, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 3
  4. P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4
Correct Answer: (A) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1
View Solution

Coccus (P) refers to spherical bacteria, exemplified by Neisseria (3). Rod-shaped bacteria (Q) include Bacillus (2). Comma-shaped bacteria (R) are Vibrio (4). Spiral bacteria (S) are typified by Treponema (1).

Question 18:

Which one of the following genetic crosses and their results indicates cytoplasmic inheritance?

  1. Wild-type male × mutant female → 100% progeny are mutant
  2. Wild-type male × mutant female → 25% progeny are wild-type
  3. Mutant male × wild-type female → 50% progeny are mutant
  4. Mutant male × wild-type female → 75% progeny are wild-type
Correct Answer: (A) Wild-type male × mutant female → 100% progeny are mutant
View Solution

Cytoplasmic inheritance involves genes in organelles (e.g., mitochondria) that are passed on from the mother only. Therefore, if the mother is mutant, all progeny inherit the mutant trait.

Question 19:

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic morphological feature of apoptotic cells?

  1. Disassembly of nuclear envelope
  2. DNA fragmentation
  3. Increased cell size
  4. Membrane blebbing
Correct Answer: (C) Increased cell size
View Solution

During apoptosis, cells typically undergo shrinkage rather than enlargement. DNA fragmentation, nuclear envelope disassembly, and membrane blebbing are characteristic of apoptotic cell death.

Question 20:

Competition between two populations in an ecosystem is:

  1. Beneficial (+) to both the populations
  2. Deleterious (-) to both the populations
  3. Beneficial (+) to one population, but deleterious (-) to the other population
  4. Beneficial (+) to one population, but no effect (0) on the other population
Correct Answer: (B) Deleterious (-) to both the populations
View Solution

Competition arises when two populations share a limited resource. Both populations are negatively impacted since the resource must be divided among them.

Question 21:

Adenine constitutes 0.16 mole fraction in a given single-stranded DNA. What is the mole fraction of uracil in the resultant RNA, if this entire DNA fragment is transcribed?

  1. 0.16
  2. 0.32
  3. 0.34
  4. 0.68
Correct Answer: (A) 0.16
View Solution

In transcription, adenine in the DNA template pairs with uracil in RNA. Since adenine’s mole fraction in DNA is 0.16, uracil’s mole fraction in RNA will also be 0.16.

Question 22:

Which one of the following is NOT used as a component in subunit vaccines?

  1. Capsular polysaccharide
  2. Inactivated exotoxin
  3. Inactivated virus
  4. Viral glycoprotein
Correct Answer: (C) Inactivated virus
View Solution

Subunit vaccines include only specific parts of the pathogen, such as capsular polysaccharides, inactivated exotoxins, or viral glycoproteins. They do not use the entire inactivated virus.

Question 23:

Metabolic acidosis is associated with decreased plasma level of:

  1. Bicarbonate
  2. Lactate
  3. Oxygen
  4. Urea
Correct Answer: (A) Bicarbonate
View Solution

Metabolic acidosis is caused by the accumulation of acids or loss of bicarbonate, resulting in decreased plasma bicarbonate levels and a drop in blood pH.

Question 24:

Genes in two species that are derived from the same ancestral gene in their most recent common ancestor are called:

  1. Analogs
  2. Heterologs
  3. Orthologs
  4. Paralogs
Correct Answer: (C) Orthologs
View Solution

Orthologs are genes in different species that arose from a common ancestral gene. They usually retain the same function across species. Paralogs, on the other hand, result from gene duplications within the same species.

Question 25:

An object is placed 15 cm in front of a convex mirror, which has a radius of curvature 30 cm. Which one of the following is true of the image formed?

  1. Real and inverted
  2. Real and upright
  3. Virtual and inverted
  4. Virtual and upright
Correct Answer: (D) Virtual and upright
View Solution

Convex mirrors always produce virtual, upright, and diminished images, regardless of the object’s position. The mirror equation confirms this outcome.

Question 26:

If a variable z shows a standard normal distribution, then the percent probability that 0 ≤ z² ≤ 1 is:

  1. 34
  2. 68
  3. 95
  4. 99
Correct Answer: (B) 68
View Solution

The standard normal distribution has 68% of its probability within one standard deviation of the mean. Since z² is bounded between 0 and 1, the percentage probability is 68%.

Question 27:

In the chick embryo, the ectoderm generates:

  1. Alveolar cells
  2. Germ cells
  3. Neurons
  4. Red blood cells
Correct Answer: (C) Neurons
View Solution

The ectoderm layer gives rise to the nervous system, including neurons, and also forms the epidermis of the skin.

Question 28:

The boiling points of Iodomethane, Dibromomethane, Bromomethane, Chloromethane follow the order:

  1. Bromomethane > Dibromomethane > Iodomethane > Chloromethane
  2. Bromomethane > Iodomethane > Chloromethane > Dibromomethane
  3. Dibromomethane > Iodomethane > Bromomethane > Chloromethane
  4. Iodomethane > Bromomethane > Chloromethane > Dibromomethane
Correct Answer: (C) Dibromomethane > Iodomethane > Bromomethane > Chloromethane
View Solution

Boiling points depend on molecular weight and intermolecular forces. Dibromomethane has the highest boiling point due to its greater molecular weight and polarity compared to the others.

Question 29:

Chromosome duplication during the cell cycle occurs in:

  1. G1 phase
  2. G2 phase
  3. M phase
  4. S phase
Correct Answer: (D) S phase
View Solution

DNA replication occurs in the S (synthesis) phase of the cell cycle, ensuring each daughter cell receives an identical set of chromosomes.

Question 30:

Ionic character of the covalent bonds in the compounds Cl2, HCl, NaCl, NaF follows the order:

  1. Cl2 > NaCl > HCl > NaF
  2. HCl > Cl2 > NaF > NaCl
  3. HCl > NaCl > NaF > Cl2
  4. NaF > NaCl > HCl > Cl2
Correct Answer: (D) NaF > NaCl > HCl > Cl2
View Solution

Ionic character depends on the electronegativity difference between the bonded atoms. NaF has the highest ionic character due to the large difference between sodium and fluorine.

Question 31:

Which of the following is/are lateral meristems?

  1. Cork cambium
  2. Procambium
  3. Protoderm
  4. Vascular cambium
Correct Answer: (A) and (D)
View Solution

Lateral meristems, such as cork cambium and vascular cambium, are responsible for secondary growth in plants, increasing the girth. Procambium and protoderm are primary meristems involved in elongation.

Question 32:

Which of the following statement(s) about Golden Rice is/are correct?

  1. Consumption of it increases vitamin A levels
  2. Consumption of it increases vitamin D levels
  3. Consumption of it increases vitamin K levels
  4. It is a transgenic crop containing beta-carotene
Correct Answer: (A) and (D)
View Solution

Golden Rice is genetically engineered to contain beta-carotene, a precursor to vitamin A, helping address vitamin A deficiency. It does not affect vitamin D or K levels.

Question 33:

Which of the following statement(s) about eukaryotic DNA topoisomerase is/are correct?

  1. Topoisomerase I creates transient single-strand breaks
  2. Topoisomerase I creates transient double-strand breaks
  3. Topoisomerase II creates transient single-strand breaks
  4. Topoisomerase II creates transient double-strand breaks
Correct Answer: (A) and (D)
View Solution

Topoisomerase I relaxes supercoils by creating single-strand breaks, while Topoisomerase II creates double-strand breaks to untangle DNA during replication.

Question 34:

Which of the following method(s) is/are used to estimate protein concentration?

  1. Anthrone
  2. Biuret
  3. Bradford
  4. Lowry
Correct Answer: (B), (C) and (D)
View Solution

The Biuret, Bradford, and Lowry methods are colorimetric techniques for estimating protein concentration. Anthrone is used for carbohydrate estimation.

Question 35:

Which of the following is/are example(s) of a lotic ecosystem?

  1. Lake
  2. Pond
  3. River
  4. Stream
Correct Answer: (C) and (D)
View Solution

Lotic ecosystems are characterized by flowing water, such as rivers and streams. Lakes and ponds represent lentic (still water) ecosystems.

Question 36:

Which of the following statement(s) about the effect of genetic drift is/are correct?

  1. It can cause changes in the frequency of alleles at random
  2. It is a mechanism of evolution
  3. It can lead to loss of genetic variation within small populations
  4. It is significant in large populations
Correct Answer: (A), (B) and (C)
View Solution

Genetic drift is a random process that can cause unpredictable changes in allele frequencies, particularly in small populations. It is one of the mechanisms of evolution and can lead to a loss of genetic variation over time. However, its effects are not significant in large populations due to the stabilizing impact of larger gene pools.

Question 37:

Which of the following technique(s) can be used to determine the three-dimensional structure of an organic compound?

  1. Mass spectrometry
  2. NMR spectroscopy
  3. UV-visible spectroscopy
  4. X-ray crystallography
Correct Answer: (B) and (D)
View Solution

NMR spectroscopy and X-ray crystallography are widely used for determining the three-dimensional structure of organic compounds. NMR provides information about molecular structure through nuclear spin interactions, while X-ray crystallography directly visualizes the molecular arrangement via crystal diffraction.

Question 38:

Which of the following entity(ies) is/are found inside the intact nucleus of eukaryotic cells?

  1. Centrosome
  2. Lysosome
  3. Nucleolus
  4. Nucleosome
Correct Answer: (C) and (D)
View Solution

Inside the nucleus, the nucleolus is responsible for ribosomal RNA synthesis, while nucleosomes are the fundamental structural units of chromatin (DNA wrapped around histones). Centrosomes and lysosomes are present in the cytoplasm.

Question 39:

Which of the following is/are trace element(s)?

  1. Mn
  2. P
  3. S
  4. Zn
Correct Answer: (A) and (D)
View Solution

Trace elements, such as manganese (Mn) and zinc (Zn), are required in small quantities for enzymatic and metabolic functions. Phosphorus (P) and sulfur (S) are macronutrients needed in larger amounts for cellular processes.

Question 40:

Which of the following is/are true about Retrovirus?

  1. It contains double-stranded RNA genome
  2. It can cause cancer
  3. It contains reverse transcriptase
  4. It contains double-stranded DNA genome
Correct Answer: (B) and (C)
View Solution

Retroviruses, such as HIV, carry reverse transcriptase that converts their single-stranded RNA into DNA. They can sometimes integrate into the host genome, leading to oncogenesis. They do not have a double-stranded RNA or DNA genome.

Question 41:

A wooden plant accumulates 10 mg/kg of 14C during its life span. A fossil of this plant was discovered and contains 2.5 mg/kg of 14C. The age of this fossil at the time of discovery is (use 5730 years as the half-life of 14C):

Correct Answer: 11460 to 11460 years
View Solution

Using the half-life formula:

t = [ln(N0 / N) / ln(2)] × T1/2

Here, N0 = 10 mg/kg, N = 2.5 mg/kg, T1/2 = 5730 years. Substituting:

t = [ln(10 / 2.5) / ln(2)] × 5730 = 11460 years.

Question 42:

A cylinder contains 50 L of an ideal gas at a pressure of 50 atm. Assuming that the temperature remains unchanged, the volume of the gas at 1 atm is:

Correct Answer: 2500 L
View Solution

Using Boyle's law: P1 × V1 = P2 × V2

Where P1 = 50 atm, V1 = 50 L, and P2 = 1 atm. Thus:

V2 = (P1 × V1) / P2 = (50 × 50) / 1 = 2500 L.

Question 43:

One molecule of the protein myoglobin contains one atom of iron. A myoglobin sample was found to contain 0.34% iron. The molecular weight of myoglobin is (use atomic mass of iron = 55.9 g/mol):

Correct Answer: 16440 to 16445 g/mol
View Solution

The molecular weight of myoglobin can be calculated by:

Molecular weight = (Mass of Fe × 100) / % of Fe

Substituting Mass of Fe = 55.9 g/mol and % of Fe = 0.34:

Molecular weight = (55.9 × 100) / 0.34 = 16441.18 g/mol.

Question 44:

The wavelength of visible light for the green color is 600 nm. The energy of photons of this color is (Planck's constant h = 6.63 × 10^-34 J·s, 1 eV = 1.6 × 10^-19 J, speed of light c = 3 × 10^8 m/s):

Correct Answer: 2.0 to 2.2 eV
View Solution

Using E = (h × c) / λ

Substitute h = 6.63 × 10^-34 J·s, c = 3 × 10^8 m/s, and λ = 600 nm = 600 × 10^-9 m:

E = (6.63 × 10^-34 × 3 × 10^8) / (600 × 10^-9) = 3.315 × 10^-19 J.

Converting to eV: E = (3.315 × 10^-19 J) / (1.6 × 10^-19 J/eV) ≈ 2.07 eV.

Question 45:

A ball dropped from a bridge hits the surface of the water in 3 s. The height of the bridge, ignoring air resistance, is (use g = 9.8 m/s^2):

Correct Answer: 44.1 to 44.1 m
View Solution

Using s = 0.5 × g × t^2

Substitute g = 9.8 m/s^2 and t = 3 s:

s = 0.5 × 9.8 × (3)^2 = 44.1 m.

Question 46:

For a given square, if the area of its incircle is 100 cm2, then the area of its circumcircle is:

Correct Answer: 200 cm2
View Solution

Let the area of the incircle be 100 cm2. The radius of the incircle (r) is given by r = √(Area of incircle / π) = √(100 / π).

For a square, the radius of the circumcircle (R) is √2 times the incircle radius: R = √2 × r = √2 × √(100 / π).

The area of the circumcircle is then π × R2, which simplifies to 200 cm2.

Question 47:

The number of peaks in the 1H NMR spectrum of methoxymethane (CH3OCH3) is:

Correct Answer: 1
View Solution

Methoxymethane (dimethyl ether) has two methyl groups attached to the same oxygen atom. Both methyl groups are chemically equivalent, so all the hydrogen atoms are in the same environment. Consequently, there is only one NMR peak.

Question 48:

The amount of agarose required to prepare 250 mL of 0.8% agarose gel is:

Correct Answer: 2 g
View Solution

For a 0.8% solution, there are 0.8 g of agarose per 100 mL. To make 250 mL of this solution:

Weight = 0.8 g/100 mL × 250 mL = 2 g.

Question 49:

Three genes x, y, and z are located on a chromosome in a linear order. If the recombination frequency between x and y is 0.15, and between y and z is 0.10, the expected frequency of double crossovers is:

Correct Answer: 0.015
View Solution

The frequency of a double crossover is the product of the two single-crossover frequencies:

0.15 × 0.10 = 0.015.

Question 50:

A bacterial cell suspension contains 2 × 105 cells/mL. The volume of this suspension required to obtain 1.4 × 106 cells is:

Correct Answer: 7 mL
View Solution

The required volume is found by dividing the total cells needed by the cell concentration per mL:

Volume = (1.4 × 106 cells) / (2 × 105 cells/mL) = 7 mL.

Question 51:

The data provided in the table were obtained from the following reaction, carried out at 273 K:

A + B → C

Initial [A] (mol/L) Initial [B] (mol/L) Initial Rate of Formation of C (mol/L/s)
0.2 0.2 0.3
0.4 0.2 0.6
0.4 0.4 2.4

The order of the reaction with respect to [A] is:

Correct Answer: 1
View Solution

To determine the order with respect to A, compare the initial rates for the same concentration of B. The rate doubles (from 0.3 to 0.6) when [A] doubles (from 0.2 to 0.4), indicating the reaction is first order with respect to A.

Question 52:

Ammonia is synthesized in the Haber process in the following reaction:

N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

The temperature above which the reaction becomes spontaneous is:

Correct Answer: 463.0 K
View Solution

For spontaneity, ΔG = 0. Using ΔG = ΔH − TΔS and rearranging:

0 = −92.2 × 103 J/mol − T × (−199 J/K·mol)

Solving for T:

T = (92.2 × 103 J/mol) / (199 J/K·mol) = 463.0 K.

Question 53:

In the given molecule, the number of chiral centers is:

Correct Answer: 5
View Solution

A chiral center is a carbon atom bonded to four different groups. By examining the structure, there are 5 carbons each bonded to four distinct substituents.

Question 54:

Two resistors of 2 Ω and 4 Ω are combined in parallel. If this combination is connected to a battery of 16 V, the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery is:

Correct Answer: 12 A
View Solution

The total resistance Rtotal of the parallel combination is given by:

1 / Rtotal = 1/2 + 1/4 = 3/4, so Rtotal = 4/3 Ω.

Using Ohm's law (I = V / R):

I = 16 V / (4/3 Ω) = 12 A.

Question 55:

A box of mass 20 kg is pulled at constant speed across a floor by a rope. The rope makes an angle of 45° with the horizontal. Assuming that friction is negligible, the work done in pulling the box by a distance of 20 m is:

Correct Answer: 2740 J
View Solution

The force needed to pull the box at constant speed is equal to its weight because friction is negligible:

F = m × g = 20 kg × 9.8 m/s2 = 196 N.

The work done is W = F × d × cos(θ). Substituting F = 196 N, d = 20 m, and θ = 45°:

W = 196 × 20 × cos(45°) ≈ 2740 J.

Question 56:

Consider an enzyme that follows simple Michaelis-Menten kinetics, and has a KM of 5 μM. The initial velocity of the reaction will be 10% of the maximum velocity at a substrate concentration of:

Correct Answer: 0.54 μM
View Solution

For Michaelis-Menten kinetics, when the velocity is 10% of Vmax, we have v0 = 0.1 × Vmax.

The equation is v0 = (Vmax × [S]) / (KM + [S]). Substituting v0 = 0.1 Vmax and KM = 5:

0.1 = [S] / (5 + [S]). Multiplying both sides by (5 + [S]) gives 0.1(5 + [S]) = [S].

0.5 + 0.1[S] = [S]. Hence, 0.5 = 0.9[S], and [S] = 0.5 / 0.9 = 0.54 μM.

Question 57:

The value of the limit as x approaches 3 of (x2 − 9) / (x2 − 4x + 3) is:

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Factorize numerator and denominator:

x2 − 9 = (x − 3)(x + 3),
x2 − 4x + 3 = (x − 3)(x − 1).

The expression becomes [(x − 3)(x + 3)] / [(x − 3)(x − 1)]. Canceling (x − 3), we get (x + 3) / (x − 1). Substituting x = 3 gives (3 + 3) / (3 − 1) = 6/2 = 3.

Question 58:

A population of 1000 plants are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Two alleles R and r determine a particular trait in this population. If the number of plants with RR genotype is 640, Rr genotype is 320, and rr genotype is 40, the frequency of the r allele (in percentage) in this population is:

Correct Answer: 20
View Solution

The genotype frequencies are RR = 640/1000 = 0.64, Rr = 320/1000 = 0.32, rr = 40/1000 = 0.04. For the recessive genotype rr, the frequency of r is q, so q2 = 0.04 and q = 0.2. In percentage, q is 20%.

Question 59:

If a fair coin is tossed two times, the probability that the first or the second toss will be heads is:

Correct Answer: 0.75
View Solution

Let H1 be the event that the first toss is heads, and H2 be the event that the second toss is heads. P(H1) = 1/2, P(H2) = 1/2. The probability of both heads (H1 & H2) is 1/4.

Using the inclusion-exclusion principle:

P(H1 ∪ H2) = P(H1) + P(H2) − P(H1 ∩ H2) = 1/2 + 1/2 − 1/4 = 3/4 = 0.75.

Question 60:

The number of bands that will be visible in the gel when exposed to UV light after complete digestion of a circular plasmid with EcoRI and XhoI is:

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Suppose EcoRI cuts the plasmid into two fragments (2 kb and 3 kb), and XhoI cuts it into two fragments (2 kb and 5 kb). The restriction map indicates two EcoRI sites and two XhoI sites, leading to three distinct bands on the gel under UV light after complete digestion.

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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