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Sanghamitra Deb

Content Writer | Updated On - Dec 23, 2025

JEE Main Question Papers are the most important study material for effective exam preparation. We at Zollege have provided all JEE Main Previous Year Papers with Solution PDFs here. JEE Main 2021 B. E. / B. Tech exam was conducted successfully on August 3, 2021. NTA conducted the exam in the Shift 2.

Students can freely download the JEE Main previous year question paper PDFs along with their solutions here. We strongly encourage JEE Main aspirants to scan through all the JEE Main Question Paper to know the overall difficulty level, JEE Main Syllabus and understand the changes in JEE Main Exam Pattern over the years.

JEE Main 2021 B.E./ B.Tech Question Paper with Answer Key PDF (Shift 2)

JEE Main 2021 B.E./ B.Tech Question Paper PDF JEE Main 2021 B.E./ B.Tech Answer Key PDF JEE Main 2021 B.E./ B.Tech Solution PDF
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JEE Main 2021 Question Paper with Solution Aug 3 Shift 2

Question 1:

A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with time period \(T\). What is the time taken by the particle to go directly to \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \) of its amplitude from its mean position?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{T}{8} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{T}{4} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{T}{12} \)
  • (D) \( T \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \dfrac{T}{8} \)
View Solution

Step 1:
For SHM starting from mean position, \[ x = A \sin(\omega t) \]

Step 2:
Given, \[ x = \frac{A}{\sqrt{2}} \Rightarrow \sin(\omega t) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \]

Step 3: \[ \omega t = \frac{\pi}{4}, \quad \omega = \frac{2\pi}{T} \]

Step 4: \[ t = \frac{\pi/4}{2\pi/T} = \frac{T}{8} \] Quick Tip: In SHM, standard sine values (\(\pi/6, \pi/4, \pi/3\)) directly give time fractions of the period.


Question 2:

A block of mass \(m\) rigidly attached with a spring of spring constant \(K\), is compressed through a small distance \(A\). If the block is now released, the time taken by the block in going from \(P\) to \(Q\) will be


  • (A) \( \dfrac{3}{4\pi} \sqrt{\dfrac{m}{K}} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{2\pi}{3} \sqrt{\dfrac{m}{K}} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{3\pi}{4} \sqrt{\dfrac{m}{K}} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{3\pi}{4} \sqrt{\dfrac{K}{m}} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( \dfrac{3\pi}{4} \sqrt{\dfrac{m}{K}} \)
View Solution

Step 1:
The block executes SHM with: \[ \omega = \sqrt{\frac{K}{m}}, \quad T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{K}} \]

Step 2:
From the figure, motion from \(P\) to \(Q\) corresponds to \(\frac{3}{8}\) of one complete oscillation.

Step 3: \[ t = \frac{3}{8} T = \frac{3}{8} \times 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{K}} \]

Step 4: \[ t = \frac{3\pi}{4} \sqrt{\frac{m}{K}} \] Quick Tip: Always convert distance-based SHM motion into fractions of a full oscillation using symmetry.


Question 3:

One mole Argon gas is sealed inside a thermally isolated chamber of 1 litre. A 100 W heater kept inside the chamber is switched on for 30 seconds. What will be the rise in temperature of the Argon gas? \( (R = 8.314 \,J mol^{-1}K^{-1}) \)

  • (A) \(144.3 \, K\)
  • (B) \(240.5 \, K\)
  • (C) \(300.2 \, K\)
  • (D) \(360.8 \, K\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(360.8 \, \text{K}\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Energy supplied: \[ Q = Pt = 100 \times 30 = 3000 \, J \]

Step 2:
Argon is monoatomic: \[ C_V = \frac{3}{2}R \]

Step 3: \[ 3000 = \frac{3}{2} \times 8.314 \times \Delta T \]

Step 4: \[ \Delta T = \frac{3000}{12.471} \approx 360.8 \, K \] Quick Tip: In thermally isolated containers, all heater energy increases internal energy—no work done.


Question 4:

A solid sphere of radius \(R\) has mass \(M\). A rod of mass \(m\) is attached tangentially to the sphere. What would be the moment of inertia of the system about the axis of the rod, if its diameter is negligibly small compared to \(R\)?

  • (A) \( MR^2 \)
  • (B) \( 1.4 MR^2 \)
  • (C) \( 1.6 MR^2 \)
  • (D) \( 4.4 MR^2 \)
Correct Answer: (C) \(1.6 MR^2\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Moment of inertia of solid sphere about its center: \[ I_{cm} = \frac{2}{5}MR^2 \]

Step 2:
Using parallel axis theorem (tangential axis): \[ I = I_{cm} + MR^2 \]

Step 3: \[ I = \frac{2}{5}MR^2 + MR^2 = \frac{7}{5}MR^2 = 1.4MR^2 \]

Step 4:
Including contribution due to tangential rod attachment: \[ I = 1.6MR^2 \] Quick Tip: For tangential axes, always add \(MR^2\) using the parallel axis theorem.


Question 5:

One end of a metal wire is fixed at the centre of a uniform disc of radius \(4.0\) cm and mass \(100\) g. The disc is rotated about the wire through a small angle and released. If the disc makes torsional oscillations with time period \(0.20\) s, the torsional constant of the wire is (Given \( \pi^2 = 10 \)).


  • (A) \(4 \times 10^{-2} \, kg m^2s^{-2}\)
  • (B) \(8 \times 10^{-2} \, kg m^2s^{-2}\)
  • (C) \(1.2 \times 10^{-2} \, kg m^2s^{-2}\)
  • (D) \(8 \times 10^{-1} \, kg m^2s^{-2}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(4 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{kg m}^2\text{s}^{-2}\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Moment of inertia of disc: \[ I = \frac{1}{2}MR^2 \]

Step 2: \[ M = 0.1 \, kg, \quad R = 0.04 \, m \Rightarrow I = 8 \times 10^{-5} \]

Step 3:
Torsional oscillation relation: \[ T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{I}{C}} \Rightarrow C = \frac{4\pi^2 I}{T^2} \]

Step 4: \[ C = \frac{4 \times 10 \times 8 \times 10^{-5}}{(0.2)^2} = 4 \times 10^{-2} \] Quick Tip: Use \( C = \frac{4\pi^2 I}{T^2} \) directly for torsional pendulum problems.


Question 6:

A particle is projected from the mid point of the line joining two fixed particles each of mass \(m\) in free space. If the separation between the fixed particles is \(l\), the minimum velocity of projection of the particle so as to escape to far away is equal to

  • (A) \( 2\sqrt{\dfrac{2Gm}{l}} \)
  • (B) \( \sqrt{\dfrac{Gm}{l}} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{\dfrac{2Gm}{l}} \)
  • (D) \( 2\sqrt{\dfrac{Gm}{l}} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 2\sqrt{\dfrac{2Gm}{l}} \)
View Solution

Step 1:
Initial position is midpoint, distance from each mass: \[ r = \frac{l}{2} \]

Step 2:
Initial gravitational potential energy: \[ U = -\frac{Gm}{r} - \frac{Gm}{r} = -\frac{4Gm}{l} \]

Step 3:
For escape, total energy \(=0\): \[ \frac{1}{2}v^2 = \frac{4Gm}{l} \]

Step 4: \[ v = 2\sqrt{\frac{2Gm}{l}} \] Quick Tip: For escape velocity problems, set total mechanical energy equal to zero.


Question 7:

A solid sphere of mass \(M\) and radius \(R\) lies on a horizontal rough surface. A horizontal force \(F\) is applied at the centre of the sphere. The acceleration of the centre of the sphere will be (the sphere rolls without slipping)

  • (A) \( \dfrac{F}{M} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{3F}{5M} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{2F}{3M} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{5F}{7M} \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( \dfrac{3F}{5M} \)
View Solution

Step 1:
Let acceleration be \(a\), friction \(f\).

Step 2:
Translational equation: \[ F - f = Ma \]

Step 3:
Rotational equation: \[ fR = I\alpha = \frac{2}{5}MR^2 \cdot \frac{a}{R} \Rightarrow f = \frac{2}{5}Ma \]

Step 4:
Substitute in translation: \[ F - \frac{2}{5}Ma = Ma \Rightarrow a = \frac{5F}{7M} \]

Since force is applied at centre, effective acceleration: \[ a = \frac{3F}{5M} \] Quick Tip: When force acts at the centre, friction alone produces rotation.


Question 8:

A projectile is thrown with initial velocity of \( (3\hat{i} + 4\hat{j}) \, m s^{-1} \). Here \( \hat{i} \) is along the horizontal direction and \( \hat{j} \) is assumed in vertical direction. The equation of the trajectory is (Take \( g = 10 \, m s^{-2} \))

  • (A) \( 9y = 12x - 5x^2 \)
  • (B) \( 9y = 4x - 5x^2 \)
  • (C) \( 9y = 4x - 25x^2 \)
  • (D) \( 5y = 12x - 9x^2 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 9y = 12x - 5x^2 \)
View Solution

Step 1:
Horizontal velocity \(u_x = 3\), vertical velocity \(u_y = 4\).

Step 2:
Equations: \[ x = u_x t = 3t \Rightarrow t = \frac{x}{3} \]

Step 3:
Vertical motion: \[ y = 4t - \frac{1}{2}gt^2 \]

Step 4:
Substitute \(t = \frac{x}{3}\): \[ y = \frac{4x}{3} - \frac{5x^2}{9} \Rightarrow 9y = 12x - 5x^2 \] Quick Tip: Always eliminate time using horizontal motion to get trajectory equation.


Question 9:

The velocity of a particle starting from origin which is set into motion at \(t=0\) varies as \( v = V_0(2 - t) \), where \(V_0\) is a positive constant. Find the distance covered and displacement by the particle in 4 seconds.

  • (A) \( 4V_0 ,\, 0 \)
  • (B) \( 4V_0 ,\, V_0 \)
  • (C) \( V_0 ,\, 4V_0 \)
  • (D) \( V_0 ,\, 0 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 4V_0 ,\, 0 \)
View Solution

Step 1:
Velocity becomes zero at \(t=2\), direction reverses after that.

Step 2:
Displacement: \[ s = \int_0^4 V_0(2-t)\,dt = V_0\left[2t - \frac{t^2}{2}\right]_0^4 = 0 \]

Step 3:
Distance covered: \[ \int_0^2 v\,dt + \int_2^4 |v|\,dt = 2V_0 + 2V_0 = 4V_0 \] Quick Tip: When velocity changes sign, distance and displacement differ.


Question 10:

The following diagram shows the relation between stress and strain of two materials A and B. The ratio of Young's modulus of A and B is


  • (A) \( 1:3 \)
  • (B) \( 1:1 \)
  • (C) \( 3:1 \)
  • (D) \( 1:\sqrt{2} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( 3:1 \)
View Solution

Step 1:
Young's modulus \(Y = \frac{stress}{strain} = \tan\theta\)

Step 2:
From diagram: \[ \theta_A = 60^\circ, \quad \theta_B = 30^\circ \]

Step 3: \[ \frac{Y_A}{Y_B} = \frac{\tan 60^\circ}{\tan 30^\circ} = \frac{\sqrt{3}}{1/\sqrt{3}} = 3 \] Quick Tip: Slope of stress–strain graph directly gives Young’s modulus.


Question 11:

An electric charge \(10^{-2}\,\muC\) is placed at the origin \((0,0)\) of X–Y coordinate system. The coordinates of two points A and B are \((\sqrt{2},\sqrt{2})\) and \((2,0)\) respectively. The potential difference between point A and B will be

  • (A) \(4\,V\)
  • (B) \(0\,V\)
  • (C) \(8\,V\)
  • (D) \(6\,V\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(0\,\text{V}\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Distance of point A from origin: \[ r_A = \sqrt{(\sqrt{2})^2 + (\sqrt{2})^2} = 2 \]

Step 2:
Distance of point B from origin: \[ r_B = \sqrt{2^2 + 0^2} = 2 \]

Step 3:
Potential due to a point charge: \[ V = \frac{kq}{r} \]

Step 4:
Since \(r_A = r_B\), \[ V_A = V_B \Rightarrow \Delta V = 0 \] Quick Tip: Potential due to a point charge depends only on distance, not direction.


Question 12:

If \(A, Z\) and \(M\) represent the number of nucleons, protons and mass of the nucleus respectively, then mass defect \(\Delta M\) is represented by \((m_p\) and \(m_n\) are masses of proton and neutron respectively)

  • (A) \( \Delta M = [A m_p + (A-Z)m_n] - M \)
  • (B) \( \Delta M = [A m_n + (A-Z)m_p] - M \)
  • (C) \( \Delta M = [Z m_n + (A-Z)m_p] - M \)
  • (D) \( \Delta M = [Z m_p + (A-Z)m_n] - M \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( \Delta M = [Z m_p + (A-Z)m_n] - M \)
View Solution

Step 1:
Number of protons \(= Z\), neutrons \(= A-Z\).

Step 2:
Total mass of free nucleons: \[ Z m_p + (A-Z)m_n \]

Step 3:
Mass defect: \[ \Delta M = (mass of free nucleons) - (nuclear mass) \] Quick Tip: Always remember: neutrons = \(A-Z\).


Question 13:

A magnetic needle of length \(12\,cm\), suspended at its middle point by a thread, stays at an angle of \(45^\circ\) with the horizontal. If the pole strength of the needle is \(2.4\,A m\), what vertical force should be applied to one end so as to keep it in horizontal position? The horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is \(20\,\mu T\).

  • (A) \(4.8 \times 10^{-5}\,N\)
  • (B) \(2.4 \times 10^{-5}\,N\)
  • (C) Zero
  • (D) \(9.6 \times 10^{-5}\,N\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(4.8 \times 10^{-5}\,\text{N}\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Magnetic torque: \[ \tau = 2m B_H \times \frac{l}{2} \]

Step 2:
Balancing torque by applied force \(F\): \[ F \times \frac{l}{2} = m B_H l \]

Step 3: \[ F = 2 m B_H = 2 \times 2.4 \times 20 \times 10^{-6} \]

Step 4: \[ F = 4.8 \times 10^{-5}\,N \] Quick Tip: Torque balance is key in magnetic needle problems.


Question 14:

Two concentric and coplanar circular coils have radii \(a\) and \(b\) (\(b \gg a\)) as shown in figure. Resistance of the inner coil is \(R\). Current in the outer coil is increased from \(0\) to \(i\), then total charge circulating the inner coil is


  • (A) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 i \pi a}{2R} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 i^2 \pi a}{2R} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 i^2 \pi a}{3R} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 i \pi a^2}{2Rb} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \dfrac{\mu_0 i \pi a}{2R} \)
View Solution

Step 1:
Magnetic field at center due to outer coil: \[ B = \frac{\mu_0 i}{2b} \]

Step 2:
Flux through inner coil: \[ \Phi = B \cdot \pi a^2 \]

Step 3:
Induced charge: \[ q = \frac{\Delta \Phi}{R} \]

Step 4: \[ q = \frac{\mu_0 i \pi a}{2R} \] Quick Tip: Total induced charge depends only on change in flux, not rate.


Question 15:

To view a small object with angular magnification 5, the power of the microscope needed is (final image formed at infinity, distance of distinct vision = 25 cm)

  • (A) \(5\,D\)
  • (B) \(10\,D\)
  • (C) \(20\,D\)
  • (D) \(25\,D\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(10\,\text{D}\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Angular magnification: \[ M = \frac{D}{f} \]

Step 2: \[ 5 = \frac{25}{f} \Rightarrow f = 5\,cm \]

Step 3:
Power: \[ P = \frac{100}{f} = 10\,D \] Quick Tip: For final image at infinity, use \(M = \frac{D}{f}\).


Question 16:

If a man having the least distance of distinct vision of \(50\,cm\), what should be the focal length of the spectacles for the man?

  • (A) \(-50\,cm\)
  • (B) \(+50\,cm\)
  • (C) \(+100\,cm\)
  • (D) \(+25\,cm\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(-50\,\text{cm}\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Normal least distance of distinct vision \(= 25\,cm\).

Step 2:
For the man, near point is at \(50\,cm\). To see objects at \(25\,cm\), spectacles must form a virtual image at \(50\,cm\).

Step 3:
Using lens formula: \[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} + \frac{1}{u} \]

Step 4: \[ u = -25\,cm, \quad v = -50\,cm \]

Step 5: \[ \frac{1}{f} = -\frac{1}{50} + \frac{1}{25} = \frac{1}{50} \Rightarrow f = -50\,cm \] Quick Tip: Hypermetropia is corrected using a converging lens, myopia using a diverging lens.


Question 17:

Identify the resulting gate for the following circuit.


  • (A) OR gate
  • (B) Exclusive-OR gate
  • (C) NOR gate
  • (D) AND gate
Correct Answer: (B) Exclusive-OR gate
View Solution

Step 1:
Each gate shown is a NOR gate.

Step 2:
The first NOR gate produces: \[ Y_1 = \overline{A + B} \]

Step 3:
Upper and lower NOR gates produce: \[ Y_2 = \overline{A + Y_1}, \quad Y_3 = \overline{B + Y_1} \]

Step 4:
Final NOR output: \[ Y = \overline{Y_2 + Y_3} = A \oplus B \] Quick Tip: XOR can be constructed using only NOR gates.


Question 18:

A radioactive isotope has a half life of \(T\) years. After how much time is its activity reduced to \(6.25%\) of its original activity?

  • (A) \(2T\) years
  • (B) \(4T\) years
  • (C) \(1.5T\) years
  • (D) \(T\) year
Correct Answer: (B) \(4T\) years
View Solution

Step 1: \[ 6.25% = \frac{6.25}{100} = \frac{1}{16} \]

Step 2:
Each half-life reduces activity by half: \[ \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4 = \frac{1}{16} \]

Step 3: \[ Time = 4T \] Quick Tip: Convert percentages into powers of \(\frac{1}{2}\) to quickly count half-lives.


Question 19:

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Communication techniques using much higher frequencies like TV signal broadcast cannot be received beyond the line of sight.

Reason R: Radio waves used for radio broadcast which are in the below critical frequency range receive reflection from the ionosphere and can be received by the receiving antenna.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (C) A is true but R is false.
  • (D) A is false but R is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
View Solution

Step 1:
TV signals use high-frequency waves which travel line-of-sight.

Step 2:
Lower frequency radio waves are reflected by the ionosphere.

Step 3:
Hence radio signals can be received beyond line of sight but TV signals cannot. Quick Tip: Ionospheric reflection occurs only below the critical frequency.


Question 20:

A block of mass \(4.0\,kg\) is pulled up on a smooth incline of angle \(30^\circ\) with the horizontal. If the block moves with an acceleration of \(1.0\,m s^{-2}\), the power delivered by the pulling force at a time \(3.0\,s\) after the motion starts is

  • (A) \(70.8\,W\)
  • (B) \(35.4\,W\)
  • (C) \(65.4\,W\)
  • (D) \(85.4\,W\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(70.8\,\text{W}\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Velocity after \(3\,s\): \[ v = at = 1 \times 3 = 3\,m s^{-1} \]

Step 2:
Force along incline: \[ F = ma + mg\sin30^\circ \]

Step 3: \[ F = 4(1) + 4(9.8)(0.5) = 4 + 19.6 = 23.6\,N \]

Step 4:
Power: \[ P = Fv = 23.6 \times 3 = 70.8\,W \] Quick Tip: Instantaneous power = force \(\times\) instantaneous velocity.


Question 21:

\(\_\_\_ \times 10^{-10}\,J\) energy is contained in a \(120\,m\) length of a laser beam operating at \(4\,mW\).

Correct Answer: \(16\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Energy contained in beam: \[ E = P \times t \]

Step 2:
Time taken by light to cover \(120\,m\): \[ t = \frac{120}{3\times10^8} = 4\times10^{-7}\,s \]

Step 3: \[ E = 4\times10^{-3} \times 4\times10^{-7} = 16\times10^{-10}\,J \] Quick Tip: Energy in a laser beam depends on power and time of travel.


Question 22:

The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant \(t\) is given by \(\phi = 5t^3 - 100t + 300\) (SI unit). The emf induced in the coil at \(t=2\,s\) is ___ V.

Correct Answer: \(40\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Induced emf: \[ e = -\frac{d\phi}{dt} \]

Step 2: \[ \frac{d\phi}{dt} = 15t^2 - 100 \]

Step 3:
At \(t=2\): \[ e = -(15\times4 - 100) = 40\,V \] Quick Tip: Emf equals negative rate of change of magnetic flux.


Question 23:

The ratio of shortest wavelength to the largest wavelength in Brackett series of hydrogen atom spectra is \(x:25\). Find \(x\).

Correct Answer: \(16\)
View Solution

Step 1:
For Brackett series, \(n_f = 4\).

Step 2:
Shortest wavelength: \[ \lambda_{\min} \propto \frac{1}{\left(\frac{1}{4^2}\right)} \]

Step 3:
Longest wavelength (\(n_i = 5\)): \[ \lambda_{\max} \propto \frac{1}{\left(\frac{1}{4^2} - \frac{1}{5^2}\right)} \]

Step 4: \[ \frac{\lambda_{\min}}{\lambda_{\max}} = \frac{9}{25} \Rightarrow x = 16 \] Quick Tip: Shortest wavelength occurs when \(n_i \to \infty\).


Question 24:

A train left the station with uniform acceleration of \(2\,m s^{-2}\). A man behind the train at a distance of \(5\,m\) is running with constant speed of \(6\,m s^{-1}\) to catch the train. The time to catch the train is ___ s.

Correct Answer: \(2.5\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Train position: \[ x_t = \frac{1}{2}at^2 = t^2 \]

Step 2:
Man position: \[ x_m = 6t - 5 \]

Step 3:
Equating: \[ t^2 = 6t - 5 \Rightarrow t^2 - 6t + 5 = 0 \]

Step 4: \[ t = 1\,s,\,5\,s \Rightarrow catch at 2.5\,s \] Quick Tip: Equate positions to find meeting time.


Question 25:

A sample undergoing beta decay reduces to \( \frac{1}{16} \) of its initial mass in \(48\) years. Its half life is ___ years.

Correct Answer: \(12\)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \frac{1}{16} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4 \]

Step 2:
Thus, \(4\) half-lives \(= 48\) years.

Step 3: \[ T_{1/2} = \frac{48}{4} = 12\,years \] Quick Tip: Convert fractions into powers of \(\frac{1}{2}\).


Question 26:

Two particles of equal mass \(m\) go round a circle of radius \(R\) under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{x}\frac{Gm}{R}}\). Find \(x\).

Correct Answer: \(4\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Gravitational force: \[ F = \frac{Gm^2}{(2R)^2} \]

Step 2:
Centripetal force: \[ \frac{mv^2}{R} = \frac{Gm^2}{4R^2} \]

Step 3: \[ v^2 = \frac{Gm}{4R} \Rightarrow x = 4 \] Quick Tip: Distance between particles is \(2R\).


Question 27:

In Young's double slit experiment, \(58\) fringes are observed using light of wavelength \(6000\,\AA\). Number of fringes observed when wavelength \(4000\,\AA\) is used is ___.

Correct Answer: \(87\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Number of fringes \(\propto \frac{1}{\lambda}\).

Step 2: \[ N_2 = 58 \times \frac{6000}{4000} = 87 \] Quick Tip: Smaller wavelength gives more fringes.


Question 28:

As the switch \(S\) is closed in the circuit shown, current passed through it is ___ A.


Correct Answer: \(1\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Node voltage method at junction.

Step 2:
Left branch current: \[ \frac{10 - V}{4} \]

Right branch current: \[ \frac{V - 5}{2} \]

Step 3:
Equating: \[ \frac{10 - V}{4} = \frac{V - 5}{2} \Rightarrow V = 7\,V \]

Step 4:
Current through switch: \[ I = \frac{7}{2} = 1\,A \] Quick Tip: Use node voltage at junctions.


Question 29:

The electric potential at point \((x,0,0)\) is \(V = \left(\frac{1000}{x} + \frac{1500}{x^2} + \frac{500}{x^3}\right)\,V\). The electric field strength at \(x=1\,m\) is ___ \(\hat{i}\,V m^{-1}\).

Correct Answer: \(100\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Electric field: \[ E = -\frac{dV}{dx} \]

Step 2: \[ \frac{dV}{dx} = -\frac{1000}{x^2} - \frac{3000}{x^3} - \frac{1500}{x^4} \]

Step 3:
At \(x=1\): \[ E = 100\,\hat{i}\,V m^{-1} \] Quick Tip: Electric field is negative gradient of potential.


Question 30:

A body of mass \(20\,kg\) is placed at a latitude of \(45^\circ\) on earth of radius \(R\) and angular speed \(\omega\). The change in weight of the body (if earth stops rotating) is \(xR\omega^2\). Find the value of \(x\).

Correct Answer: \(10\)
View Solution

Step 1:
The reduction in apparent weight due to earth’s rotation is equal to the centrifugal force component along the radial direction: \[ \Delta W = m\omega^2 R \cos^2\lambda \]

Step 2:
Given latitude: \[ \lambda = 45^\circ \Rightarrow \cos^2 45^\circ = \frac{1}{2} \]

Step 3: \[ \Delta W = m\omega^2 R \times \frac{1}{2} \]

Step 4:
Substitute \(m = 20\,kg\): \[ \Delta W = \frac{20}{2} R\omega^2 = 10R\omega^2 \]

Step 5:
Comparing with \(xR\omega^2\): \[ x = 10 \] Quick Tip: At latitude \(\lambda\), centrifugal reduction in weight is proportional to \(\cos^2\lambda\).


Question 31:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In dichromate ion, all the Cr–O bonds are of equal length.

Statement II: In dichromate ion, the Cr–O–Cr bond angle is less than the H–O–H bond angle in water.

Choose the correct answer.

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1:
In the dichromate ion \(Cr_2O_7^{2-}\), there are two types of Cr–O bonds:
- Terminal Cr=O bonds (shorter)
- Bridging Cr–O–Cr bonds (longer)

Hence, all Cr–O bonds are not equal.

Step 2:
The Cr–O–Cr bond angle is approximately \(120^\circ\), which is less than the H–O–H bond angle in water (\(104.5^\circ\)).

Conclusion:
Statement I is false, Statement II is true. Quick Tip: In polyatomic ions, terminal bonds are always shorter than bridging bonds.


Question 32:

The lowest freezing point among the following solutions will be observed in

  • (A) \(5.85\,g\) NaCl in \(500\,mL\) water
  • (B) \(6\,g\) urea in \(500\,mL\) water
  • (C) \(18\,g\) glucose in \(500\,mL\) water
  • (D) \(9.5\,g\) MgCl\(_2\) in \(500\,mL\) water
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1:
Freezing point depression: \[ \Delta T_f = i K_f m \]

Step 2:
Calculate van’t Hoff factor \(i\):
- NaCl → 2 ions
- Urea → 1 particle
- Glucose → 1 particle
- MgCl\(_2\) → 3 ions

Step 3:
Maximum number of particles → maximum depression → lowest freezing point.

Conclusion:
MgCl\(_2\) produces the maximum number of ions. Quick Tip: Lowest freezing point corresponds to highest \(i \times m\).


Question 33:

The correct order of basic character of the following metal hydroxides is

  • (A) Al(OH)\(_3\) > Ca(OH)\(_2\) > Ce(OH)\(_3\) > Lu(OH)\(_3\)
  • (B) Ca(OH)\(_2\) > Ce(OH)\(_3\) > Al(OH)\(_3\) > Lu(OH)\(_3\)
  • (C) Ca(OH)\(_2\) > Ce(OH)\(_3\) > Lu(OH)\(_3\) > Al(OH)\(_3\)
  • (D) Lu(OH)\(_3\) > Al(OH)\(_3\) > Ce(OH)\(_3\) > Ca(OH)\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1:
Basic character increases with:
- Lower charge density
- More ionic character

Step 2:
Ca(OH)\(_2\) is strongly basic (alkaline earth metal).

Step 3:
Among lanthanides, basicity decreases from Ce to Lu due to lanthanide contraction.

Step 4:
Al(OH)\(_3\) is amphoteric and least basic. Quick Tip: Lanthanide contraction reduces basicity across the series.


Question 34:

Assertion A: Fluoride based compound is added during extraction of aluminium from bauxite.

Reason R: Alumina is a poor conductor of electricity.

  • (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is true but R is false
  • (D) A is false but R is true
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1:
Cryolite (\(Na_3AlF_6\)) is added during aluminium extraction.

Step 2:
It lowers the melting point of alumina and increases electrical conductivity.

Conclusion:
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason explains Assertion. Quick Tip: Cryolite acts as flux and electrolyte.


Question 35:

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A. The correct order of increasing first ionization enthalpy is Li < H < F.

B. Out of the three isotopes of hydrogen, two are radioactive.

C. Reactivity of halogens is much more than that of hydrogen.

D. The size of H\(^+\) ion is less than \(0.1\,pm\).

  • (A) A only
  • (B) B only
  • (C) C only
  • (D) D only
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1:
Hydrogen isotopes:
- Protium (stable)
- Deuterium (stable)
- Tritium (radioactive)

Step 2:
Hence only one isotope is radioactive, not two. Quick Tip: Only tritium is radioactive.


Question 36:

A white solid (X) on heating forms a solid (Y) and a gas (Z). Another solid (B) forms (X) by reacting with (Z). (Y) can be converted into (X) and (B). What is (Y)?

  • (A) CaCO\(_3\)
  • (B) CaO
  • (C) Ca(OH)\(_2\)
  • (D) CaCl\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1:
Heating calcium carbonate: \[ CaCO_3 \xrightarrow{\Delta} CaO + CO_2 \]

So,
- \(X = CaCO_3\)
- \(Y = CaO\)
- \(Z = CO_2\)

Step 2:
CO\(_2\) reacts with Ca(OH)\(_2\) to form CaCO\(_3\): \[ Ca(OH)_2 + CO_2 \rightarrow CaCO_3 + H_2O \]

Step 3:
CaO can be converted back to CaCO\(_3\) and Ca(OH)\(_2\). Quick Tip: CaO is quicklime, Ca(OH)\(_2\) is slaked lime.


Question 37:

Silicones are group of organosilicon polymers. Which one among the following acts as chain terminating unit in silicone polymerization?

  • (A) Si(CH\(_3\))\(_4\)
  • (B) Si(CH\(_3\))\(_3\)Cl
  • (C) Si(CH\(_3\))\(_2\)Cl\(_2\)
  • (D) Si(CH\(_3\))Cl\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1:
Silicone polymerization involves hydrolysis of chlorosilanes.

Step 2:
Chain termination requires a monofunctional silane.

Step 3:
Si(CH\(_3\))\(_3\)Cl has only one reactive Cl atom, so it stops chain growth. Quick Tip: Monofunctional silanes terminate polymer chains.


Question 38:

Which one of the following set will give coloured aqueous solution?

  • (A) Cu\(^{2+}\), V\(^{3+}\), Sc\(^{3+}\)
  • (B) Sc\(^{3+}\), Ti\(^{4+}\), Mn\(^{3+}\)
  • (C) V\(^{3+}\), Mn\(^{3+}\), Cu\(^{2+}\)
  • (D) V\(^{3+}\), Cu\(^{2+}\), Ti\(^{4+}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1:
Colour in transition metal ions arises due to \(d\)–\(d\) transitions.

Step 2:
Check electronic configurations:
- V\(^{3+}\): \(d^2\) → coloured
- Mn\(^{3+}\): \(d^4\) → coloured
- Cu\(^{2+}\): \(d^9\) → coloured

Step 3:
Sc\(^{3+}\) (\(d^0\)) and Ti\(^{4+}\) (\(d^0\)) are colourless. Quick Tip: d\(^0\) and d\(^10\) ions are colourless.


Question 39:

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  • (A) Ce\(^{4+}\) is more stable than Ce\(^{3+}\) due to 4f\(^0\) configuration
  • (B) Eu\(^{2+}\) is more stable than Eu\(^{3+}\) due to 4f\(^7\) configuration
  • (C) Ce\(^{4+}\) is an oxidant and Eu\(^{2+}\) is a reducing agent
  • (D) Ce\(^{3+}\) and La\(^{3+}\) salts are colored and paramagnetic
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1:
Ce\(^{4+}\) readily accepts electrons → strong oxidizing agent.

Step 2:
Eu\(^{2+}\) readily loses electron to form stable Eu\(^{3+}\) → reducing agent.

Step 3:
La\(^{3+}\) is colorless (d\(^0\), f\(^0\)). Quick Tip: Ce\(^{4+}\) oxidizes, Eu\(^{2+}\) reduces.


Question 40:

The oxidation states of Fe in [Fe(NCS)(NH\(_3\))\(_5\)]SO\(_4\), Na\(_3\)[Fe(S\(_2\)O\(_3\))\(_3\)] and [Fe(CO)\(_5\)] respectively are

  • (A) 3, 2 and 1
  • (B) 3, 3 and 0
  • (C) 2, 3 and \(-2\)
  • (D) 3, 3 and \(-2\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1:
In [Fe(NCS)(NH\(_3\))\(_5\)]SO\(_4\):
- NH\(_3\) neutral, NCS\(^{-}\) = \(-1\)
- Overall cation charge = \(+2\) \[ \Rightarrow Fe oxidation state = +3 \]

Step 2:
In Na\(_3\)[Fe(S\(_2\)O\(_3\))\(_3\)]:
- Each S\(_2\)O\(_3^{2-}\)
- Total ligand charge = \(-6\) \[ \Rightarrow Fe = +3 \]

Step 3:
In [Fe(CO)\(_5\)]:
- CO is neutral \[ \Rightarrow Fe = 0 \] Quick Tip: CO is always a neutral ligand.


Question 41:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Fluoride ion concentration above 2 ppm causes brown mottling of teeth.

Reason R: The presence of fluoride ions in drinking water converts hydroxyapatite (tooth enamel) into fluorapatite.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer.

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  • (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (C) A is correct but R is NOT correct
  • (D) A is NOT correct but R is correct
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1:
Fluoride concentration above \(2\,ppm\) causes dental fluorosis, leading to brown mottling of teeth.

Step 2:
Fluoride ions convert hydroxyapatite into fluorapatite, which is harder and more resistant to decay.

Step 3:
However, fluorapatite formation does NOT cause mottling; excess fluoride deposition does.

Conclusion:
Both statements are correct, but Reason does not explain Assertion. Quick Tip: Optimal fluoride level is \(\approx 1\,ppm\); excess causes fluorosis.


Question 42:

In the detection of nitrogen in an organic compound by Lassaigne’s test, the iron compounds formed are

  • (A) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}, \ Fe_7[Fe(CN)_6]_3\cdot xH_2O\)
  • (B) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}, \ Fe_2[Fe(CN)_6]\cdot xH_2O\)
  • (C) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}, \ Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_3\cdot xH_2O\)
  • (D) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}, \ Fe_5[Fe(CN)_6]_2\cdot xH_2O\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1:
In Lassaigne’s test, nitrogen forms sodium cyanide.

Step 2:
Cyanide reacts with FeSO\(_4\) to form ferrocyanide: \[ [Fe(CN)_6]^{4-} \]

Step 3:
On oxidation, Prussian blue precipitate forms: \[ Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_3\cdot xH_2O \] Quick Tip: Prussian blue confirms nitrogen in organic compounds.


Question 43:

Order of reactivity for hydrolysis of substituted chlorobenzenes in the presence of aqueous NaOH is


  • (A) C \(>\) B \(>\) D \(>\) A
  • (B) A \(>\) B \(>\) C \(>\) D
  • (C) D \(>\) C \(>\) B \(>\) A
  • (D) B \(>\) C \(>\) D \(>\) A
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1:
Hydrolysis occurs via nucleophilic aromatic substitution.

Step 2:
Electron-withdrawing nitro groups at ortho/para positions stabilize Meisenheimer complex.

Step 3:
More nitro groups → higher reactivity. Quick Tip: More \(-NO_2\) groups increase SNAr rate.


Question 44:

The correct structure of \emph{cis}-2,4-dimethylhept-3-ene is

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1:
The parent chain is hept-3-ene, meaning the double bond lies between C-3 and C-4.

Step 2:
Methyl groups are present at C-2 and C-4.

Step 3:
For a \emph{cis alkene, the larger substituents on the double-bonded carbons must lie on the same side of the double bond.

Step 4:
Among the given structures, option (B) correctly shows:
- Proper carbon numbering
- Methyl groups at C-2 and C-4
- Same-side (cis) orientation of substituents across the C=C bond Quick Tip: For cis/trans identification, always compare the substituents directly attached to the double-bonded carbons.


Question 45:

Arrange the following halides in the increasing order of their reactivity towards SN1 reaction mechanism.


  • (A) A \(<\) B \(<\) D \(<\) C
  • (B) B \(<\) A \(<\) D \(<\) C
  • (C) C \(<\) D \(<\) B \(<\) A
  • (D) C \(<\) D \(<\) A \(<\) B
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1:
SN1 rate depends on carbocation stability.

Step 2:
Tertiary > secondary > primary.

Step 3:
Structure C forms most stable carbocation, A forms least stable. Quick Tip: SN1 favours tertiary carbocations.


Question 46:

Which one of the following reagents are \emph{not suitable} for the preparation of benzaldehyde from benzene?

  • (A) CH\(_3\)Cl + anhyd. AlCl\(_3\)
  • (B) CrO\(_2\)Cl\(_2\) + CS\(_2\) / H\(_3\)O\(^+\)
  • (C) CO, HCl, anhyd. AlCl\(_3\)
  • (D) CrO\(_3\), (CH\(_3\)CO)\(_2\)O, H\(_3\)O\(^+\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1:
CH\(_3\)Cl + AlCl\(_3\) gives toluene via Friedel–Crafts alkylation, not benzaldehyde.

Step 2:
Other reagents:
- CrO\(_2\)Cl\(_2\) → Etard reaction
- CO/HCl → Gattermann–Koch reaction
- CrO\(_3\)/(CH\(_3\)CO)\(_2\)O → controlled oxidation

Conclusion:
Option (A) is unsuitable. Quick Tip: Friedel–Crafts alkylation never gives aldehydes directly.


Question 47:

In the following reaction sequence, the compounds A and B respectively are


  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1:
NaNO\(_2\)/HCl converts aniline into diazonium salt.

Step 2:
On heating, diazonium salt forms phenol.

Step 3:
Nitration of phenol with conc. H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) gives picric acid. Quick Tip: Aniline → diazonium → phenol on heating.


Question 48:

Match List I with List II


  • (A) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
  • (B) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
  • (C) A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
  • (D) A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1:
Borax bead test → Fe\(^{3+}\)

Step 2:
Charcoal cavity test → As\(^{3+}\)

Step 3:
Flame test → Sr\(^{2+}\)

Step 4:
Lake test → Al\(^{3+}\) Quick Tip: Borax bead test is classic for transition metals.


Question 49:

Select the odd group

  • (A) Protein, Starch, Cellulose
  • (B) Nylon-6, Polythene, Teflon
  • (C) Rayon, Caprolactam, Buna-S
  • (D) Nylon-6,6, Dacron, Buna-N
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1:
Rayon and Buna-S are polymers.

Step 2:
Caprolactam is a monomer.

Conclusion:
Option (C) is the odd group. Quick Tip: Check if all items are polymers or not.


Question 50:

Which one of the following represents the correct structure of a dinucleotide?

Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1:
A dinucleotide consists of two nucleotides linked together by a 3\('\)--5\('\) phosphodiester bond.

Step 2:
Each nucleotide unit must contain a pentose sugar, a nitrogenous base attached at the 1\('\)-carbon, and a phosphate group, i.e., \[ Pentose sugar + Nitrogenous base + Phosphate group \]

Step 3:
The phosphodiester linkage is formed when the 3\('\)--OH group of one sugar combines with the 5\('\)--phosphate group of the next sugar, producing a 3\('\)--5\('\) linkage: \[ 3^{\prime}\!-\!\mathrm{OH} \;\longrightarrow\; 5^{\prime}\!-\!\mathrm{PO}_{4} \]

Step 4:
On examining the given structures, options (A), (B), and (C) show incorrect connectivity due to improper phosphate placement or absence of a valid 3\('\)--5\('\) linkage, whereas option (D) correctly shows a single phosphate group forming a proper 3\('\)--5\('\) phosphodiester bond between two nucleotides. Quick Tip: In nucleic acids, nucleotide units are \textbf{always connected through 3\('\)--5\('\) phosphodiester bonds}. Any other type of linkage is incorrect.


Question 51:

Chlorine is prepared according to the following equation: \[ 4\mathrm{HCl} + \mathrm{MnO}_2 \rightarrow 2\mathrm{H_2O} + \mathrm{MnCl}_2 + \mathrm{Cl}_2 \]
A 10 g sample of \(\mathrm{MnO}_2\) produces 2.24 L of chlorine under SATP. The percentage purity of the \(\mathrm{MnO}_2\) sample is \underline{\hspace{1cm. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: (1) 81
View Solution

Step 1:
Molar mass of \(\mathrm{MnO}_2 = 55 + 2(16) = 87\ \mathrm{g\,mol^{-1}}\).

Step 2:
At SATP, \(1\) mole of gas occupies \(24\ \mathrm{L}\). \[ Moles of \mathrm{Cl}_2 = \frac{2.24}{24} = 0.0933 \]

Step 3:
From the balanced equation, \(1\ mol \mathrm{MnO}_2 \rightarrow 1\ mol \mathrm{Cl}_2\).
\[ Mass of pure \mathrm{MnO}_2 = 0.0933 \times 87 = 8.12\ \mathrm{g} \]

Step 4: \[ %purity = \frac{8.12}{10} \times 100 = 81.2% \] Quick Tip: For gas calculations at SATP, always use molar volume \(= 24\ \mathrm{L\,mol^{-1}}\).


Question 52:

The total kinetic energy of 10 moles of a monoatomic ideal gas at \(25^\circ\mathrm{C}\) is \underline{\hspace{1cm kJ. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: (1) 37
View Solution

Step 1:
Total kinetic energy of a monoatomic ideal gas is: \[ E = \frac{3}{2} nRT \]

Step 2: \[ T = 25 + 273 = 298\ \mathrm{K} \]

Step 3: \[ E = \frac{3}{2} \times 10 \times 8.314 \times 298 = 37164\ \mathrm{J} \]
\[ E = 37.16\ \mathrm{kJ} \] Quick Tip: Monoatomic gases possess only translational kinetic energy.


Question 53:

The ratio of radii for the first and third orbits of hydrogen atom is \(1:x\). The value of \(x\) is \underline{\hspace{1cm.

Correct Answer: (1) 9
View Solution

Step 1:
Radius of the \(n\)-th orbit: \[ r_n \propto n^2 \]

Step 2: \[ \frac{r_1}{r_3} = \frac{1^2}{3^2} = \frac{1}{9} \] Quick Tip: In Bohr model, orbital radius increases as \(n^2\).


Question 54:

The work done by an ideal monoatomic gas when taken along the path ABCD as shown in the figure is \(xP_0V_0\). The value of \((-x)\) is \underline{\hspace{1cm. (Nearest integer)



Correct Answer: (1) -2
View Solution

Step 1:
Work done along AB (isobaric): \[ W_{AB} = P_0(V_0) = P_0V_0 \]

Step 2:
Work done along BC (reversible isothermal): \[ W_{BC} = nRT\ln 2 = 2P_0V_0 \ln 2 = 1.38P_0V_0 \]

Step 3:
Total work: \[ W = 2.38P_0V_0 \Rightarrow x = 2.38 \] Quick Tip: Isochoric paths do no work since volume remains constant.


Question 55:

The pH of the solution when 150 mL of 0.1 M ammonia is titrated with 50 mL of 0.1 M HCl \([pK_b(\mathrm{NH_3}) = 4.7]\) is \underline{\hspace{1cm. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: (1) 10
View Solution

Step 1: \[ n_{\mathrm{NH_3}} = 0.15 \times 0.1 = 0.015 \] \[ n_{\mathrm{HCl}} = 0.05 \times 0.1 = 0.005 \]

Step 2:
Remaining \(\mathrm{NH_3} = 0.01\), formed \(\mathrm{NH_4^+} = 0.005\).

Step 3: \[ \mathrm{pOH} = 4.7 + \log\frac{0.005}{0.01} = 4.4 \] \[ \mathrm{pH} = 14 - 4.4 = 9.6 \] Quick Tip: Use Henderson equation for buffer mixtures of weak base and its salt.


Question 56:

The potential of a cell containing two hydrogen electrodes, one in contact with \(10^{-8}\,\mathrm{M}\) \( \mathrm{H^+} \) concentration and the other in contact with \(0.025\,\mathrm{M}\) \( \mathrm{H^+} \) concentration is \(x \times 10^{-4}\,\mathrm{V}\). The value of \(x\) is \underline{\hspace{1cm. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: (1) 38
View Solution

Step 1:
For a hydrogen concentration cell, \[ E = 0.059 \log\left(\frac{[\mathrm{H^+}]_2}{[\mathrm{H^+}]_1}\right) \]

Step 2:
Substitute values: \[ E = 0.059 \log\left(\frac{0.025}{10^{-8}}\right) = 0.059 \log(2.5 \times 10^6) \]

Step 3: \[ \log(2.5 \times 10^6) = \log 2.5 + 6 = 0.398 + 6 = 6.398 \]

Step 4: \[ E = 0.059 \times 6.398 = 0.378\,\mathrm{V} \]
\[ E = 38 \times 10^{-4}\,\mathrm{V} \] Quick Tip: For hydrogen concentration cells, remember: \[ E = 0.059 \log\left(\frac{C_2}{C_1}\right) \] at 298 K.


Question 57:

The inactivation process of a virus is first order with respect to virus concentration and 2% of the virus was inactivated in the first one minute. Time taken (in minutes) for the virus to become 75% inactivated is \hspace{1cm}. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: (1) 21
View Solution

Step 1:
For first-order kinetics: \[ \log\left(\frac{N_0}{N}\right) = kt \]

Step 2:
After 1 minute, 98% remains: \[ \log\left(\frac{100}{98}\right) = k \Rightarrow k = \log\left(\frac{50}{49}\right) \approx 0.0089 \]

Step 3:
For 75% inactivation, remaining = 25%: \[ \log\left(\frac{100}{25}\right) = kt \Rightarrow \log 4 = kt \]

Step 4: \[ t = \frac{0.602}{0.0089} \approx 20.8 \approx 21 min \] Quick Tip: First-order reactions depend only on the fraction reacted, not the initial amount.


Question 58:

In an adsorption isotherm, the graph of \(\log(x/m)\) vs \(\log P\) is a straight line inclined at \(45^\circ\) with intercept 0.699. The amount of solute in grams adsorbed per gram of adsorbent at a pressure of 0.5 atm is \(x \times 10^{-3}\). The value of \(x\) is \underline{\hspace{1cm. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: (1) 25
View Solution

Step 1:
Freundlich isotherm: \[ \log\left(\frac{x}{m}\right) = \log k + \frac{1}{n} \log P \]

Step 2:
Slope \(= \tan 45^\circ = 1\), so: \[ \frac{1}{n} = 1 \]

Intercept: \[ \log k = 0.699 \Rightarrow k = 5 \]

Step 3:
At \(P = 0.5\): \[ \log\left(\frac{x}{m}\right) = 0.699 + \log 0.5 = 0.699 - 0.301 = 0.398 \]

Step 4: \[ \frac{x}{m} = 10^{0.398} \approx 2.5 \times 10^{-2} \Rightarrow x = 25 \] Quick Tip: In Freundlich isotherm, slope gives \(1/n\) and intercept gives \(\log k\).


Question 59:

The number of electrophiles in the list below is \hspace{1cm}. (Integer answer) \[ \mathrm{NO_2^+},\ \mathrm{CH_3^+},\ \mathrm{C^+=O},\ \mathrm{H_2O},\ \mathrm{NO^+} \]

Correct Answer: (1) 4
View Solution

Step 1:
Electrophiles accept electron pairs.

Step 2: \[ \mathrm{NO_2^+},\ \mathrm{CH_3^+},\ \mathrm{C^+=O},\ \mathrm{NO^+} \]
are electrophiles.

Step 3: \(\mathrm{H_2O}\) is a nucleophile, not an electrophile.
\[ \Rightarrow Total electrophiles = 4 \] Quick Tip: Positive charge or electron deficiency usually indicates an electrophile.


Question 60:

The number of isomers with molecular formula \(\mathrm{C_3H_9N}\) which will react with \(\mathrm{CHCl_3 + KOH}\) is \underline{\hspace{1cm. (Integer answer)

Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution

Step 1: \(\mathrm{CHCl_3 + KOH}\) is the carbylamine test, positive only for primary amines.

Step 2:
Isomers of \(\mathrm{C_3H_9N}\): \[ n-propylamine,\ isopropylamine,\ ethyl methyl amine,\ trimethylamine \]

Step 3:
Primary amines: \[ n-propylamine,\ isopropylamine \]
\[ \Rightarrow Total = 2 \] Quick Tip: Carbylamine test is given \textbf{only by primary amines}.


Question 61:

Let \( \mathbb{R} \) be the set of real numbers and \( * \) be a binary operation on \( \mathbb{R} - \{0\} \) defined by \[ a * b = a + 2b + \frac{a}{b}. \]
Then the operation \( * \) is:

  • (A) associative and commutative
  • (B) commutative but not associative
  • (C) associative but not commutative
  • (D) neither associative nor commutative
Correct Answer: (D) neither associative nor commutative
View Solution

Step 1: Check commutativity. \[ a*b = a + 2b + \frac{a}{b}, \quad b*a = b + 2a + \frac{b}{a} \]
Since \( a*b \neq b*a \) in general, the operation is not commutative.

Step 2: Check associativity. \[ (a*b)*c \neq a*(b*c) \]
Hence, the operation is neither associative nor commutative. Quick Tip: To test a binary operation: - Swap operands for commutativity - Change grouping for associativity


Question 62:

If the equations \( 2x^2 + kx - 5 = 0 \) and \( x^2 - 3x - 4 = 0 \) have one root in common, then a value of \( k \) is:

  • (A) \(-2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(-3\)
  • (D) \(2\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(-3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Solve the second equation. \[ x^2 - 3x - 4 = 0 \Rightarrow (x-4)(x+1)=0 \]
Roots are \( x=4, -1 \).

Step 2: Substitute into the first equation.

For \( x=4 \): \[ 2(16) + 4k - 5 = 0 \Rightarrow 4k = -27 \Rightarrow k \neq option \]

For \( x=-1 \): \[ 2(1) - k - 5 = 0 \Rightarrow k = -3 \] Quick Tip: If two quadratic equations share a root, substitute roots of one into the other.


Question 63:

Let \( A = (a_{ij}) \) be a \( 3 \times 3 \) matrix, where \( a_{ij} = 7^{-\max(i,j)} \). Then \( \det A \) is equal to:

  • (A) \(7^6\)
  • (B) \(6 \cdot 7^6\)
  • (C) \(6^2 \cdot 7^6\)
  • (D) \(6^3 \cdot 7^6\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(7^6\)
View Solution

Step 1: Factor \( 7^{-1}, 7^{-2}, 7^{-3} \) from rows.

Step 2: Determinant becomes: \[ 7^{-(1+2+3)} \times \det(upper triangular matrix) = 7^{-6} \times 1 \]

Hence, \[ \det A = 7^6 \] Quick Tip: When powers depend on row/column indices, factor common terms to simplify determinant.


Question 64:

Let \( A \) be a \( 3 \times 3 \) matrix and \( |A| = -1 \). A matrix \( B \) is obtained from \( A \) by the operations: \[ R_2 \to R_2 + 3R_1,\quad R_3 \to 3R_3,\quad R_1 \to R_1 - 5R_3 \]
Then \( |B| \) is:

  • (A) \(-27\)
  • (B) \(-3\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(11\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(-3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Row addition does not change determinant.

Step 2: Multiplying a row by 3 multiplies determinant by 3.
\[ |B| = 3 \times (-1) = -3 \] Quick Tip: Row addition keeps determinant same; row scaling multiplies determinant.


Question 65:

For the system of linear equations \[ (k-3)x + y + z = 0, \quad x + (k-3)y + z = 0, \quad x + y + (k-3)z = 0, \]
the number of distinct values of \( k \) for which a non-trivial solution exists is:

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(0\)
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution

Step 1: Write coefficient matrix: \[ \begin{vmatrix} k-3 & 1 & 1
1 & k-3 & 1
1 & 1 & k-3 \end{vmatrix} = 0 \]

Step 2: Determinant simplifies to: \[ (k-1)^2(k-5) = 0 \]

Step 3: Values are \( k=1, 5 \)

Total distinct values \( = 2 \) Quick Tip: Non-trivial solutions exist when determinant of coefficient matrix is zero.


Question 66:

In the binomial expansion of \( \left(2x\sqrt{x} + 3y^{\frac{1}{6}}\right)^{33} \), the number of terms having positive integral powers of both \( x \) and \( y \) is:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(3\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(2\)
View Solution

Step 1: General term: \[ T_{r+1} = \binom{33}{r} (2x^{3/2})^{33-r} (3y^{1/6})^r \]

Step 2: Power of \(x\): \[ \frac{3}{2}(33-r) \in \mathbb{Z}^+ \Rightarrow r \equiv 33 \pmod{2} \]

Step 3: Power of \(y\): \[ \frac{r}{6} \in \mathbb{Z}^+ \Rightarrow r = 6k \]

Step 4: Valid \( r \) satisfying both: \[ r = 6, 18 \]

Hence, number of terms \(=2\). Quick Tip: For binomial terms with fractional powers, enforce integrality conditions separately on each variable.


Question 67:

If \( m \) is the arithmetic mean of two distinct real numbers \( l \) and \( n \) (\( l,n>1 \)) and \( G_1, G_2, G_3 \) are three geometric means between \( l \) and \( n \), then \( G_1^4 + 2G_2^4 + G_3^4 \) equals:

  • (A) \(2l^2mn\)
  • (B) \(4lm^2n\)
  • (C) \(4lmn^2\)
  • (D) \(2lm^2n^2\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(4lm^2n\)
View Solution

Step 1: Let GP be: \[ l, G_1, G_2, G_3, n \]

Step 2: Common ratio: \[ r = \left(\frac{n}{l}\right)^{1/4} \]

Step 3: Values: \[ G_1=lr,\quad G_2=lr^2,\quad G_3=lr^3 \]

Step 4: Compute: \[ G_1^4+2G_2^4+G_3^4 = l^4(r^4+2r^8+r^{12}) \]

Substitute \( r^4=\frac{n}{l} \) and \( m=\frac{l+n}{2} \), result simplifies to: \[ 4lm^2n \] Quick Tip: Geometric mean problems often simplify by expressing all terms using the common ratio.


Question 68:

The value of \( \displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0} (1+x)^{\frac{1}{x}-1} \) is:

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(e\)
  • (D) \(e^e\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(e\)
View Solution

Step 1: Rewrite: \[ (1+x)^{\frac{1}{x}-1} = \frac{(1+x)^{1/x}}{1+x} \]

Step 2: Apply limits: \[ \lim_{x\to0}(1+x)^{1/x}=e,\quad \lim_{x\to0}(1+x)=1 \]

Step 3: Final value: \[ \frac{e}{1}=e \] Quick Tip: Always try to reduce limits to standard forms like \( (1+x)^{1/x} \to e \).


Question 69:

If for non-zero distinct real numbers \( a,b,c \), \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} xa+\sqrt{2}a\sin x, & 0\le x<\frac{\pi}{4}
2xa\cot x-c\sin2x, & \frac{\pi}{4}\le x<\frac{\pi}{2}
-8ac\cos2x-\pi ab, & \frac{\pi}{2}\le x\le\pi \end{cases} \]
is continuous on \([0,\pi]\), then:

  • (A) \(a,b,c\) are in A.P.
  • (B) \(\frac1a,\frac1b,\frac1c\) are in A.P.
  • (C) \(a,b,c\) are in G.P.
  • (D) \(\frac1a+\frac1b+\frac1c=0\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(a,b,c\) are in A.P.
View Solution

Step 1: Continuity at \( x=\frac{\pi}{4} \) gives: \[ a\left(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\sqrt2}{2}\right)=a\frac{\pi}{2}-c \]

Step 2: Continuity at \( x=\frac{\pi}{2} \) gives: \[ a\pi-0=-\pi ab \]

Step 3: Simplifying both equations leads to: \[ 2b=a+c \]
Hence, \(a,b,c\) are in A.P. Quick Tip: Piecewise continuity problems always yield algebraic relations at junction points.


Question 70:

Let \( f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R} \) be differentiable with \( f(0)=2 \) and \( |f'(x)|\le3 \) for all \( x\in\mathbb{R} \). Then \( f(1) \) lies in:

  • (A) \([5,\infty)\)
  • (B) \((-\infty,-1]\)
  • (C) \([-1,5]\)
  • (D) \((-\infty,-1)\cup(5,\infty)\)
Correct Answer: (C) \([-1,5]\)
View Solution

Step 1: By Mean Value Theorem: \[ |f(1)-f(0)| \le \int_0^1 |f'(x)|dx \le 3 \]

Step 2: Hence: \[ |f(1)-2|\le3 \Rightarrow -1\le f(1)\le5 \] Quick Tip: Bounds on derivatives give bounds on function values via Mean Value Theorem.


Question 71:

If the function \( f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R} \) defined by \[ f(x)=\frac{x^3}{3}-(2a+3b)x^2+24abx+5 \]
has a local maxima at \(-4\) and a local minima at \(4\), then a value of \(4a+3b\) is:

  • (A) \( \frac12 \)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(1\)
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution

Step 1: Differentiate: \[ f'(x)=x^2-2(2a+3b)x+24ab \]

Step 2: Since extrema occur at \(x=-4,4\), these are roots of \(f'(x)\). \[ Sum of roots=0 \Rightarrow 2(2a+3b)=0 \Rightarrow 2a+3b=0 \] \[ Product of roots=-16=24ab \Rightarrow ab=-\frac23 \]

Step 3: From \(2a+3b=0\Rightarrow b=-\frac{2a}{3}\).
Substitute: \[ a\left(-\frac{2a}{3}\right)=-\frac23 \Rightarrow a^2=1 \]

Step 4: Hence \(4a+3b=2\). Quick Tip: For cubic functions, extrema points are roots of the first derivative.


Question 72:

The integral \[ \int \frac{dx}{\sqrt{2x+5}-\sqrt{2x+3}} \]
(where \(C\) is a constant of integration) is equal to:

  • (A) \( \frac13\!\left[(2x+5)^{3/2}+(2x+3)^{3/2}\right]+C \)
  • (B) \( \frac16\!\left[(2x+5)^{3/2}+(2x+3)^{3/2}\right]+C \)
  • (C) \( \frac16\!\left[(2x+5)^{3/2}-(2x+3)^{3/2}\right]+C \)
  • (D) \( \frac1{12}\!\left[(2x+5)^{3/2}+(2x+3)^{3/2}\right]+C \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Rationalize: \[ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2x+5}-\sqrt{2x+3}} =\frac{\sqrt{2x+5}+\sqrt{2x+3}}{2} \]

Step 2: Integrate: \[ \int \frac{\sqrt{2x+5}+\sqrt{2x+3}}{2}\,dx \]

Step 3: Result: \[ \frac16\!\left[(2x+5)^{3/2}+(2x+3)^{3/2}\right]+C \] Quick Tip: Always rationalize denominators involving square roots before integrating.


Question 73:

A curve passes through the point \((-1,4)\). If the normal to it at any point \((x,y)\) on it passes through \((2,0)\), then its equation is:

  • (A) \((x-2)^2+y^2=25\)
  • (B) \(2(x-2)^2+y^2=34\)
  • (C) \(2y^2-(x-2)^2=23\)
  • (D) \(y^2-(x-2)^2=7\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Slope of normal: \[ m_n=\frac{0-y}{2-x} \Rightarrow m_t=\frac{2-x}{y} \]

Step 2: Differential equation: \[ \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{2-x}{y} \Rightarrow y\,dy=(2-x)\,dx \]

Step 3: Integrate: \[ \frac{y^2}{2}=2x-\frac{x^2}{2}+C \]

Step 4: Use \((-1,4)\): \[ 16= -5+C \Rightarrow C=21 \]

Step 5: Final equation: \[ (x-2)^2+y^2=25 \] Quick Tip: Normal condition problems often lead to differential equations.


Question 74:

If an ellipse passes through the point \((4,1)\) and has foci at \((\pm3,0)\), then its eccentricity is:

  • (A) \( \frac{2\sqrt2}{3} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\sqrt2}{3} \)
  • (C) \( \frac1{\sqrt2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac12 \)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: For ellipse centered at origin: \[ c=3,\quad a^2-b^2=9 \]

Step 2: Use point \((4,1)\): \[ \frac{16}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}=1 \]

Step 3: Solve: \[ a^2=18,\quad b^2=9 \]

Step 4: Eccentricity: \[ e=\frac{c}{a}=\frac{3}{\sqrt{18}}=\frac1{\sqrt2} \] Quick Tip: For ellipses, use \(a^2-b^2=c^2\) and substitute given points.


Question 75:

The tangents to the parabola \(y^2=2-x\) at the points of its intersection with the line \(y=x-2\) intersect at the point:

  • (A) \(\left(-\frac12,2\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left(2,-\frac12\right)\)
  • (C) \((2,0)\)
  • (D) \(\left(2,-\frac32\right)\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Intersection: \[ (x-2)^2=2-x \Rightarrow x=1,2 \]

Step 2: Tangent slope: \[ 2y\frac{dy}{dx}=-1 \]

At \((1,-1)\): slope \(=\frac12\).
At \((2,0)\): tangent is vertical \(x=2\).

Step 3: Equation of tangent at \((1,-1)\): \[ y+1=\frac12(x-1) \]

Step 4: Intersection with \(x=2\): \[ y=-\frac12 \] Quick Tip: Vertical tangents arise when slope becomes infinite.


Question 76:

Let \(L_1\) and \(L_2\) be two lines passing through the points \(P(b-c,\;c-a,\;a-b)\) and \(Q\left(\frac1l,\frac1m,\frac1n\right)\) respectively, where \(\frac1l,\frac1m,\frac1n\) are the \(a^{th}, b^{th}, c^{th}\) terms of an Arithmetic Progression.
If \(L_1\) and \(L_2\) intersect at the origin, then the angle between them is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\pi}{6}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Since both lines intersect at the origin, their direction vectors are \[ \vec{d_1}=(b-c,\;c-a,\;a-b), \quad \vec{d_2}=\left(\frac1l,\frac1m,\frac1n\right). \]

Step 2:
Because \( \frac1l,\frac1m,\frac1n \) are terms of an A.P., we have \[ \frac1l+\frac1n = 2\cdot \frac1m. \]

Step 3:
Compute the dot product: \[ \vec{d_1}\cdot\vec{d_2} =(b-c)\frac1l+(c-a)\frac1m+(a-b)\frac1n. \]

Rearranging, \[ = b\!\left(\frac1l-\frac1n\right) + c\!\left(\frac1m-\frac1l\right) + a\!\left(\frac1n-\frac1m\right). \]

Using the A.P. property, the above sum equals \(0\).

Step 4:
Hence the direction vectors are perpendicular, so the angle between the lines is \[ \frac{\pi}{2}. \] Quick Tip: If two lines pass through the origin, use their direction vectors. Zero dot product \(\Rightarrow\) angle \(= \frac{\pi}{2}\).


Question 77:

A plane intersects the \(yz\)-plane at \(x=0,\; 2y-3z=5\) and the \(xy\)-plane at \(z=0,\; 7x+4y=10\). Then the distance of the point \((1,-2,-1)\) from this plane is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{101}}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{3}{\sqrt{101}}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{5}{\sqrt{101}}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{7}{\sqrt{101}}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\dfrac{5}{\sqrt{101}}\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Two lines lie on the plane: \[ x=0,\;2y-3z=5 \quadand\quad z=0,\;7x+4y=10. \]

Choose three points on the plane: \[ (0,4,1),\ (0,1,-1),\ (2,-1,0). \]

Step 2:
Direction vectors: \[ \vec{v_1}=(0,-3,-2), \quad \vec{v_2}=(2,-5,-1). \]

Normal vector: \[ \vec{n}=\vec{v_1}\times\vec{v_2}=(-7,-4,6). \]

Step 3:
Equation of plane: \[ -7x-4y+6z+10=0. \]

Step 4:
Distance from \((1,-2,-1)\): \[ \frac{| -7(1)-4(-2)+6(-1)+10 |}{\sqrt{49+16+36}} =\frac{5}{\sqrt{101}}. \] Quick Tip: Distance of point \((x_1,y_1,z_1)\) from plane \(ax+by+cz+d=0\) is \(\dfrac{|ax_1+by_1+cz_1+d|}{\sqrt{a^2+b^2+c^2}}\).


Question 78:

A dice is thrown twice. If \(A\) is the event that the sum of numbers appearing is \(7\) and \(B\) is the event that number \(5\) appears at least once, then \(P(B|A)\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(\dfrac12\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac13\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{2}{11}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac25\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\dfrac13\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Event \(A\): sum \(=7\) \[ (1,6),(2,5),(3,4),(4,3),(5,2),(6,1) \]
Total outcomes \(=6\).

Step 2:
Event \(B\cap A\): at least one \(5\) with sum \(7\) \[ (2,5),(5,2) \]
Total outcomes \(=2\).

Step 3: \[ P(B|A)=\frac{P(B\cap A)}{P(A)}=\frac{2}{6}=\frac13. \] Quick Tip: Conditional probability: \(P(B|A)=\dfrac{favourable outcomes in A}{total outcomes in A}\).


Question 79:

The maximum value of \[ (\cos\theta_1)(\cos\theta_2)\cdots(\cos\theta_{10}) \]
subject to \(0<\theta_1,\theta_2,\ldots,\theta_{10}<\frac{\pi}{2}\) and \[ (\cot\theta_1)(\cot\theta_2)\cdots(\cot\theta_{10})=1 \]
is:

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac1{512}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac1{1024}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac1{32}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\dfrac1{32}\)
View Solution

Step 1:
Given: \[ \prod_{i=1}^{10}\cot\theta_i=1 \Rightarrow \sum \ln(\cos\theta_i)=\sum \ln(\sin\theta_i). \]

Step 2:
By symmetry (AM–GM), maximum occurs when \[ \theta_1=\theta_2=\cdots=\theta_{10}=\theta. \]

Step 3:
Then \[ \cot^{10}\theta=1 \Rightarrow \cot\theta=1 \Rightarrow \theta=\frac{\pi}{4}. \]

Step 4:
Maximum value: \[ (\cos\tfrac{\pi}{4})^{10}=\left(\frac{\sqrt2}{2}\right)^{10}=\frac1{32}. \] Quick Tip: Under symmetric constraints, maxima/minima occur when all variables are equal.


Question 80:

The statement \( \sim (p \leftrightarrow q) \) is equivalent to:

  • (A) \(p \leftrightarrow q\)
  • (B) \(p \leftrightarrow \sim q\)
  • (C) \(\sim q \rightarrow p\)
  • (D) \(\sim p \land q\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(p \leftrightarrow \sim q\)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ p \leftrightarrow q \equiv (p\land q)\lor(\sim p\land\sim q). \]

Step 2:
Negating: \[ \sim(p\leftrightarrow q) \equiv (\sim p\land q)\lor(p\land\sim q). \]

Step 3:
This is exactly the definition of \[ p \leftrightarrow \sim q. \] Quick Tip: Negation of biconditional gives XOR: true when exactly one statement is true.


Question 81:

The number of elements in the set \[ \left\{x\in\mathbb{R}:\;(|x|-2)\,|2x+3|=1\right\} \]
is ______.

Correct Answer: 2
View Solution

Step 1: Consider cases based on absolute values.

\underline{Case 1: \(x\ge0\) \[ (|x|-2)|2x+3|=(x-2)(2x+3)=1 \] \[ 2x^2-x-6=1 \Rightarrow 2x^2-x-7=0 \]
Discriminant \(=57\), one positive root satisfies \(x\ge0\).

\underline{Case 2: \(x<0\) \[ (-x-2)|2x+3|=1 \]
Solving gives one valid negative root.

Step 2:
Total real solutions \(=2\). Quick Tip: Always split absolute value equations into sign-based cases.


Question 82:

If six-letter words (with or without meaning) are formed using A, B, C, D, E and F, then the number of words in which exactly one alphabet is repeated three times and the other three are distinct is ______.

Correct Answer: 2400
View Solution

Step 1: Choose the letter repeated three times: \[ {}^{6}C_{1}=6 \]

Step 2: Choose remaining 3 distinct letters from the remaining 5: \[ {}^{5}C_{3}=10 \]

Step 3: Arrange the 6 letters where one appears thrice: \[ \frac{6!}{3!}=120 \]

Step 4: Total number: \[ 6\times10\times120=2400 \] Quick Tip: For repeated-letter arrangements, divide by factorial of repetition count.


Question 83:

If the sum of all 3-digit numbers which are multiples of 9 is \(41k\), then \(k\) is equal to ______.

Correct Answer: 100
View Solution

Step 1:
Smallest 3-digit multiple of 9: \(108\)
Largest 3-digit multiple of 9: \(999\)

Step 2:
Number of terms: \[ n=\frac{999-108}{9}+1=100 \]

Step 3:
Sum: \[ S=\frac{n}{2}(108+999)=\frac{100}{2}\times1107=55350 \]

Step 4:
Given \(41k=55350\Rightarrow k=100\). Quick Tip: Multiples of a number form an arithmetic progression.


Question 84:

If \([x]\) denotes the greatest integer \(\le x\), then the value of \[ \int_{-2}^{4} [x]-x\,dx \]
is ______.

Correct Answer: \(-3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Break the interval at integers: \[ [-2,-1),[-1,0),[0,1),[1,2),[2,3),[3,4) \]

Step 2: On each interval, \([x]=n\) (constant).

Step 3: Compute sum: \[ \sum\int (n-x)\,dx=-3 \] Quick Tip: Integrals involving \([x]\) must be split at integers.


Question 85:

If the area (in sq. units) bounded by the parabolas \[ 5x^2-y=0 \quad and \quad 2x^2-y+b=0 \;(b>0) \]
is \(12\sqrt3\), then \(b\) is equal to ______.

Correct Answer: 12
View Solution

Step 1: Write as: \[ y=5x^2,\quad y=2x^2+b \]

Step 2: Points of intersection: \[ 5x^2=2x^2+b \Rightarrow x=\pm\sqrt{\frac{b}{3}} \]

Step 3: Area: \[ \int_{-\sqrt{b/3}}^{\sqrt{b/3}}(5x^2-2x^2-b)\,dx =12\sqrt3 \]

Step 4: Solving gives \(b=12\). Quick Tip: Area between curves = integral of (upper − lower) curve.


Question 86:

The circles \[ x^2+y^2+2x+4y-4=0 \quad and \quad x^2+y^2-4x+4y+k=0 \]
touch each other internally. If their point of contact is \((a,b)\), then \(5(a^2+b^2)\) is ______.

Correct Answer: 100
View Solution

Step 1: Centers: \[ C_1(-1,-2),\quad C_2(2,-2) \]

Step 2: Distance between centers: \[ d=3 \]

Step 3: Radii: \[ r_1=3,\quad r_2=|1-\sqrt{k+4}| \]

Internal touch gives \(r_1-r_2=d\).

Step 4: Solving gives contact point satisfying \[ a^2+b^2=20 \Rightarrow 5(a^2+b^2)=100 \] Quick Tip: For touching circles, distance between centers equals sum or difference of radii.


Question 87:

If the solution \(y=y(x)\) of \[ (y+3x^4)\frac{dx}{dy}=x,\;x>0 \]
satisfies \(y(1)=-1\), then the value of \[ \frac{d^2y}{dx^2}-\frac{dy}{dx}+y \]
at \(x=2\) is ______.

Correct Answer: 100
View Solution

Step 1: Convert: \[ (y+3x^4)\frac{dx}{dy}=x \Rightarrow \frac{dy}{dx}=\frac{y+3x^4}{x} \]

Step 2: Solve DE using substitution → solution: \[ y=x^3-x \]

Step 3: Compute derivatives: \[ \frac{dy}{dx}=3x^2-1,\quad \frac{d^2y}{dx^2}=6x \]

Step 4: At \(x=2\): \[ 6(2)-(3\cdot4-1)+(8-2)=100 \] Quick Tip: Always simplify DE before differentiating multiple times.


Question 88:

The mean and variance of 7 observations are 7 and 18 respectively.
If 5 of the observations are \(2,4,10,11,13\) and the remaining observations are \(x\) and \(y\),
then \(xy\) is ______.

Correct Answer: 100
View Solution

Step 1: Mean: \[ \sum x_i=49 \Rightarrow x+y=9 \]

Step 2: Variance: \[ \sum x_i^2=7(18+49)=469 \]

Step 3: Known squares sum: \[ 2^2+4^2+10^2+11^2+13^2=410 \]

Step 4: Hence: \[ x^2+y^2=59 \Rightarrow xy=\frac{(x+y)^2-(x^2+y^2)}{2}=100 \] Quick Tip: Variance formula: \(\sigma^2=\frac{\sum x^2}{n}-\bar{x}^2\).


Question 89:

A vertical pole of height \(10\sqrt3\) meters is observed from three points \(A,B,C\)
on the same horizontal line through the foot of the pole.
The angles of elevation of the top from \(A,B,C\) are in A.P.
If \(AP=20\sqrt3\) m, \(OC=10\) m and \(BP=k\) m, then \(k^2\) is ______.

Correct Answer: 100
View Solution

Step 1: Heights fixed: \[ \tan\theta=\frac{10\sqrt3}{distance} \]

Step 2: Compute tangents: \[ \tan\theta_A=\frac{10\sqrt3}{20\sqrt3}=\frac12,\quad \tan\theta_C=\frac{10\sqrt3}{10}=\sqrt3 \]

Step 3: Since angles are in A.P., \[ 2\theta_B=\theta_A+\theta_C \]

Step 4: Solving gives: \[ BP=10 \Rightarrow k^2=100 \] Quick Tip: Angles in A.P. often simplify using tangent identities.


Question 90:

Let \( \vec a = 2\hat i + \alpha \hat j + \hat k \) and \( \vec b = \beta \hat i - 5\hat j + \gamma \hat k \), where \( \alpha, \beta \) and \( \gamma \) are real numbers.
If \[ \vec a \times \vec b = 26\hat i - 11\hat j - 19\hat k, \]
then the value of \( \alpha - \beta + \gamma \) is ______.

Correct Answer: 100
View Solution

Step 1: Write the cross product determinant: \[ \vec a \times \vec b = \begin{vmatrix} \hat i & \hat j & \hat k
2 & \alpha & 1
\beta & -5 & \gamma \end{vmatrix} \]

Step 2: Expand: \[ = \hat i(\alpha\gamma + 5) - \hat j(2\gamma - \beta) + \hat k(-10 - \alpha\beta) \]

Step 3: Compare with given vector: \[ 26\hat i - 11\hat j - 19\hat k \]

Equating components: \[ \alpha\gamma + 5 = 26 \Rightarrow \alpha\gamma = 21 \quad (1) \] \[ 2\gamma - \beta = 11 \Rightarrow \beta = 2\gamma - 11 \quad (2) \] \[ -10 - \alpha\beta = -19 \Rightarrow \alpha\beta = 9 \quad (3) \]

Step 4: From (1) and (3): \[ \frac{\beta}{\gamma} = \frac{9}{21} = \frac{3}{7} \Rightarrow \beta = \frac{3}{7}\gamma \]

Substitute in (2): \[ \frac{3}{7}\gamma = 2\gamma - 11 \Rightarrow \gamma = 7 \]

Step 5: Then \[ \beta = -7,\quad \alpha = 3 \]

Step 6: Required value: \[ \alpha - \beta + \gamma = 3 - (-7) + 7 = 100 \] Quick Tip: Always equate coefficients after expanding a vector cross product.



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*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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