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Nidhi Bamnawat

| Updated On - Mar 31, 2026

The JEE Main 2023 Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download. The exam was successfully conducted by NTA on January 31, 2023, in the second shift.

Students can download JEE Main previous year question papers PDFs with detailed solutions to practice and improve their performance. Solving these papers helps aspirants understand the JEE Main exam pattern, analyze the difficulty level, and prepare according to the latest JEE Main syllabus.

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JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Jan 31 Shift 2 with Solution Pdf

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JEE Main 2023 Question Paper Jan 31 Shift 2 with Solution Pdf

Physics

SECTION A

Question 1:

The H amount of thermal energy is developed by a resistor in 10 s when a current of 4A is passed through it. If the current is increased to 16A, the thermal energy developed by the resistor in 10 s will be:

  • (1) H
  • (2) 16H
  • (3) \( \frac{H}{4} \)
  • (4) 4H
Correct Answer: (2) 16H
View Solution

The thermal energy developed by the resistor is given by the formula: \[ E = I^2 R t \]
where \( E \) is the thermal energy, \( I \) is the current, \( R \) is the resistance, and \( t \) is the time.

In the first case, the thermal energy is \( E_1 = I_1^2 R t \), and in the second case, the thermal energy is \( E_2 = I_2^2 R t \).

Since the time \( t \) and resistance \( R \) remain constant, the thermal energy ratio is: \[ \frac{E_2}{E_1} = \frac{I_2^2}{I_1^2} = \left( \frac{16}{4} \right)^2 = 16 \]
Thus, the thermal energy developed is 16 times the initial value. Quick Tip: The thermal energy developed in a resistor is proportional to the square of the current.


Question 2:

A body is moving with constant speed, in a circle of radius 10 m. The body completes one revolution in 4 s. At the end of the 3rd second, the displacement of the body (in m) from its starting point is:

  • (1) 30
  • (2) \( 15\pi \)
  • (3) \( 5\pi \)
  • (4) \( 10\sqrt{2} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 10\sqrt{2} \)
View Solution

The body completes one revolution in 4 s, so the time for one full circle is 4 seconds. At the end of 3 seconds, the body would have completed three-quarters of a full revolution.

The displacement at the end of 3 seconds forms a right-angled triangle, where the sides are the radius of the circle. Thus, the displacement from the starting point is given by the formula: \[ Displacement = \sqrt{r^2 + r^2} = \sqrt{2r^2} = r\sqrt{2} \]
Substituting \( r = 10 \, m \): \[ Displacement = 10\sqrt{2} \, m \] Quick Tip: For circular motion, the displacement from the starting point after \( \frac{3}{4} \) of a revolution is \( r\sqrt{2} \), where \( r \) is the radius.


Question 3:

A microscope is focused on an object at the bottom of a bucket. If liquid with refractive index \( \frac{5}{3} \) is poured inside the bucket, then the microscope has to be raised by 30 cm to focus the object again. The height of the liquid in the bucket is:

  • (1) 75 cm
  • (2) 50 cm
  • (3) 18 cm
  • (4) 12 cm
Correct Answer: (1) 75 cm
View Solution

The apparent depth \( d' \) when viewed through a liquid is related to the real depth \( d \) by the refractive index \( n \) of the liquid: \[ d' = \frac{d}{n} \]
In this case, the microscope had to be raised by 30 cm, which means the apparent depth has been reduced by 30 cm. Thus, the relation becomes: \[ d - d' = 30 \, cm \]
Substitute \( d' = \frac{d}{n} \) and \( n = \frac{5}{3} \): \[ d - \frac{d}{\frac{5}{3}} = 30 \] \[ d - \frac{3d}{5} = 30 \] \[ \frac{2d}{5} = 30 \] \[ d = 75 \, cm \] Quick Tip: The apparent depth decreases when the refractive index increases, and the object appears to be closer to the surface.


Question 4:

A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to the end of a massless string of length 1 m. If the breaking tension of the string is 400 N, then maximum linear velocity the stone can have without breaking the string, while rotating in horizontal plane, is:

  • (1) 20 m/s
  • (2) 40 m/s
  • (3) 400 m/s
  • (4) 10 m/s
Correct Answer: (1) 20 m/s
View Solution

The maximum linear velocity occurs when the centripetal force is equal to the maximum tension in the string. The centripetal force is given by: \[ F_c = \frac{mv^2}{r} \]
where \( m \) is the mass of the stone, \( v \) is the linear velocity, and \( r \) is the radius (which is the length of the string).

Setting the centripetal force equal to the maximum tension: \[ \frac{mv^2}{r} = T \]
Substitute \( m = 1 \, kg \), \( r = 1 \, m \), and \( T = 400 \, N \): \[ \frac{1 \times v^2}{1} = 400 \] \[ v^2 = 400 \] \[ v = 20 \, m/s \] Quick Tip: The maximum velocity occurs when the centripetal force equals the maximum tension in the string.


Question 5:

For a solid rod, the Young's modulus of elasticity is \( 3.2 \times 10^{11} \, Nm^{-2} \) and density is \( 8 \times 10^3 \, kg m^{-3} \). The velocity of longitudinal wave in the rod will be:

  • (1) \( 145.75 \times 10^3 \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 3.65 \times 10^3 \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 18.96 \times 10^3 \, ms^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 6.32 \times 10^3 \, ms^{-1} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 6.32 \times 10^3 \, \text{ms}^{-1} \)
View Solution

The velocity \( v \) of longitudinal waves in a solid rod is given by the formula: \[ v = \sqrt{\frac{Y}{\rho}} \]
where \( Y \) is the Young's modulus and \( \rho \) is the density.

Substitute the given values \( Y = 3.2 \times 10^{11} \, Nm^{-2} \) and \( \rho = 8 \times 10^3 \, kg m^{-3} \): \[ v = \sqrt{\frac{3.2 \times 10^{11}}{8 \times 10^3}} = \sqrt{4 \times 10^7} = 6.32 \times 10^3 \, ms^{-1} \] Quick Tip: The velocity of longitudinal waves in a solid is determined by the Young's modulus and density of the material.


Question 6:

A long conducting wire having a current \( I \) flowing through it, is bent into a circular coil of \( N \) turns. Then it is bent into a circular coil of \( n \) turns. The magnetic field is calculated at the centre of coils in both the cases. The ratio of the magnetic field in first case to that of second case is:

  • (1) \( n : N \)
  • (2) \( n^2 : N^2 \)
  • (3) \( N^2 : n^2 \)
  • (4) \( n : N \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( N^2 : n^2 \)
View Solution

The magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil is given by the formula: \[ B = \frac{\mu_0 I N}{2r} \]
where \( \mu_0 \) is the permeability of free space, \( I \) is the current, \( N \) is the number of turns, and \( r \) is the radius of the coil.

Since the current and the radius are constant, the ratio of the magnetic field in the two cases is: \[ \frac{B_1}{B_2} = \frac{N_1^2}{N_2^2} = \frac{N^2}{n^2} \] Quick Tip: The magnetic field at the centre of a coil is directly proportional to the square of the number of turns in the coil.


Question 7:

Heat energy of 735 J is given to a diatomic gas allowing the gas to expand at constant pressure. Each gas molecule rotates around an internal axis but does not oscillate. The increase in the internal energy of the gas will be:

  • (1) 525 J
  • (2) 441 J
  • (3) 572 J
  • (4) 735 J
Correct Answer: (1) 525 J
View Solution

For a diatomic gas, the increase in internal energy is given by: \[ \Delta U = n C_V \Delta T \]
where \( C_V \) is the molar heat capacity at constant volume and \( n \) is the number of moles.

The given heat energy is used to increase the rotational kinetic energy, so only the rotational energy contributes to the increase in internal energy. For a diatomic gas, the rotational contribution is \( \frac{3}{2} \) of the total energy, so: \[ \Delta U = \frac{3}{2} \times 735 = 525 \, J \] Quick Tip: For diatomic gases, rotational energy contributes \( \frac{3}{2} \) of the total energy increase during an expansion at constant pressure.


Question 8:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: For transmitting a signal, size of antenna (\( l \)) should be comparable to wavelength of signal (at least \( l = \frac{\lambda}{4} \) in dimension).
Statement II: In amplitude modulation, amplitude of carrier wave remains constant (unchanged).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Correct Answer: (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
View Solution

Statement I: The size of the antenna for efficient signal transmission should be comparable to the wavelength of the signal. Specifically, for effective resonance, the length of the antenna is ideally \( \frac{\lambda}{4} \), where \( \lambda \) is the wavelength of the signal. Hence, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: In amplitude modulation (AM), the amplitude of the carrier wave changes depending on the information signal, while the frequency and phase remain constant. Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is that Statement I is correct, while Statement II is incorrect. Quick Tip: In AM, the carrier wave's amplitude varies in accordance with the modulating signal. It is the phase and frequency of the carrier wave that remain constant.


Question 9:

The number of turns of the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is increased in order to increase current sensitivity by 50%. The percentage change in voltage sensitivity of the galvanometer will be:

  • (1) 100%
  • (2) 50%
  • (3) 75%
  • (4) 0%
Correct Answer: (4) 0%
View Solution

The voltage sensitivity \( V_s \) of a moving coil galvanometer is inversely proportional to the number of turns of the coil. Therefore, if the current sensitivity is increased by 50%, the voltage sensitivity will remain unchanged.

Since current sensitivity and voltage sensitivity are inversely related, increasing the number of turns increases current sensitivity but does not change the voltage sensitivity. Quick Tip: Voltage sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer depends inversely on the number of turns of the coil.


Question 10:

If the two metals A and B are exposed to radiation of wavelength 350 nm. The work functions of metals A and B are 4.8 eV and 2.2 eV. Then choose the correct option:

  • (1) Metal B will not emit photo-electrons
  • (2) Both metals A and B will emit photo-electrons
  • (3) Both metals A and B will not emit photo-electrons
  • (4) Metal A will not emit photo-electrons
Correct Answer: (4) Metal A will not emit photo-electrons
View Solution

The energy of the photons is given by the equation: \[ E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} \]
where \( h \) is Planck’s constant, \( c \) is the speed of light, and \( \lambda \) is the wavelength of the radiation.

Substituting \( \lambda = 350 \, nm = 350 \times 10^{-9} \, m \), we can calculate the photon energy:
\[ E = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^8}{350 \times 10^{-9}} = 5.69 \, eV \]

Since the photon energy \( 5.69 \, eV \) is greater than the work function of metal B (2.2 eV) but less than the work function of metal A (4.8 eV), metal B will emit photo-electrons, but metal A will not. Quick Tip: For photoelectric emission to occur, the photon energy must be greater than the work function of the material.


Question 11:

A body weight \( W \), is projected vertically upwards from earth's surface to reach a height above the earth which is equal to nine times the radius of earth. The weight of the body at that height will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{W}{91} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{W}{100} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{W}{9} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{W}{3} \)
Correct Answer: (2) \( \frac{W}{100} \)
View Solution

The weight of the body at a height \( h \) above the earth's surface is given by the formula: \[ W' = W \left( \frac{R^2}{(R + h)^2} \right) \]
where \( R \) is the radius of the earth and \( h = 9R \) (since the height is nine times the radius).

Substituting into the formula: \[ W' = W \left( \frac{R^2}{(R + 9R)^2} \right) = W \left( \frac{R^2}{(10R)^2} \right) = \frac{W}{100} \] Quick Tip: The weight of an object decreases with the square of the distance from the center of the Earth.


Question 12:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                          List-II
A. Angular momentum        I. \([ML^2T^{-2}]\)
B. Torque                              II. \([ML^2T^{-2}]\)
C. Stress                               III. \([ML^{-2}T^{-2}]\)
D. Pressure gradient           IV. \([ML^{-1}T^{-2}]\)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Correct Answer: (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
View Solution

We match the physical quantities with their dimensions:

- Angular momentum (A): The dimensional formula of angular momentum is \([ML^2T^{-1}]\), which matches with III.

- Torque (B): The dimensional formula of torque is \([ML^2T^{-2}]\), which matches with I.

- Stress (C): Stress is force per unit area, so its dimensional formula is \([ML^{-1}T^{-2}]\), which matches with IV.

- Pressure gradient (D): The pressure gradient is the rate of change of pressure with respect to distance, and its dimensional formula is \([ML^{-2}T^{-2}]\), which matches with II.

Thus, the correct matching is:
A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II Quick Tip: For matching dimensional formulas, remember that torque and angular momentum share similar dimensions, and stress and pressure gradient have different dimensional formulas based on their respective definitions.


Question 13:

An alternating voltage source \( V = 260 \sin (628t) \) is connected across a pure inductor of 5 mH. The inductive reactance in the circuit is:

  • (1) 3.14Ω
  • (2) 6.28Ω
  • (3) 0.5Ω
  • (4) 0.318Ω
Correct Answer: (1) 3.14Ω
View Solution

The inductive reactance \( X_L \) is given by the formula: \[ X_L = \omega L \]
where \( \omega = 2\pi f \) is the angular frequency and \( L \) is the inductance.

Given that \( V = 260 \sin (628t) \), we have: \[ \omega = 628 \, rad/s \]
and \( L = 5 \, mH = 5 \times 10^{-3} \, H \).

Thus, the inductive reactance is: \[ X_L = 628 \times 5 \times 10^{-3} = 3.14 \, \Omega \] Quick Tip: The inductive reactance \( X_L \) depends on the frequency of the alternating current and the inductance. It is directly proportional to both.


Question 14:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                   List-II
A. Microwaves              I. Physiotherapy
B. UV rays                     II. Treatment of cancer
C. Infra-red rays           III. Lasik eye surgery
D. X-rays                       IV. Aircraft navigation

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
View Solution

- Microwaves (A): Used in Lasik eye surgery, as they can target and alter tissue with precision.

- UV rays (B): Used for the treatment of cancer, as they have high energy that can kill cancer cells.

- Infra-red rays (C): Used in physiotherapy, as they provide heat that can ease muscle pain and stiffness.

- X-rays (D): Used in aircraft navigation, particularly for imaging and structural inspection.

Thus, the correct matching is:
A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV Quick Tip: Different types of radiation are used for specific medical and industrial applications. Understanding their properties helps in their correct use.


Question 15:

The radius of electron's second stationary orbit in Bohr's atom is \( R \). The radius of the 3rd orbit will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{R}{3} \)
  • (2) 2.25R
  • (3) 3R
  • (4) 9R
Correct Answer: (2) 2.25R
View Solution

The radius of the \( n \)-th orbit in Bohr's model is given by the formula: \[ r_n = n^2 \times r_1 \]
where \( r_1 \) is the radius of the first orbit.
For the second orbit, the radius is \( r_2 = 2^2 \times r_1 = 4r_1 \), and for the third orbit, the radius is \( r_3 = 3^2 \times r_1 = 9r_1 \).
Thus, the radius of the third orbit is \( 9 \times r_1 \), or \( 2.25R \). Quick Tip: In Bohr’s model, the radius of orbits increases by the square of the orbit number.


Question 16:

Under the same load, wire A having length 5.0 m and cross section \( 2.5 \times 10^{-5} \, m^2 \) stretches uniformly by the same amount as another wire B of length 6.0 m and a cross section of \( 3.0 \times 10^{-5} \, m^2 \). The ratio of the Young's modulus of wire A to that of wire B will be:

  • (1) 1:4
  • (2) 1:1
  • (3) 1:10
  • (4) 1:2
Correct Answer: (2) 1:1
View Solution

The formula for Young's modulus is given by: \[ Y = \frac{F \times L}{A \times \Delta L} \]
where \( F \) is the force, \( L \) is the length, \( A \) is the cross-sectional area, and \( \Delta L \) is the elongation.

Since the elongation is the same for both wires under the same load, we have: \[ \frac{Y_A}{Y_B} = \frac{L_A \times A_B}{L_B \times A_A} \]
Substituting the values: \[ \frac{Y_A}{Y_B} = \frac{5 \times 3.0 \times 10^{-5}}{6.0 \times 2.5 \times 10^{-5}} = 1 \]
Thus, the ratio is 1:1. Quick Tip: Young's modulus is inversely proportional to the product of the length and cross-sectional area for equal strain.


Question 17:

Considering a group of positive charges, which of the following statements is correct?

  • (1) Net potential of the system cannot be zero at a point but net electric field can be zero at that point.
  • (2) Net potential of the system at a point can be zero but net electric field can't be zero at that point.
  • (3) Both the net potential and the net electric field can be zero at a point.
  • (4) Both the net potential and the net electric field cannot be zero at a point.
Correct Answer: (1) Net potential of the system cannot be zero at a point but net electric field can be zero at that point.
View Solution

The electric field is the gradient of the potential, meaning it can be zero even when the potential is not zero. For example, at the point equidistant from two charges, the electric field can cancel out due to symmetry, but the potential is not zero. Therefore, it is possible for the net electric field to be zero while the net potential is nonzero. Quick Tip: The electric field is related to the gradient of potential, so it is possible for the field to be zero even when the potential is nonzero.


Question 18:

A body of mass 10 kg is moving with an initial speed of 20 m/s. The body stops after 5 s due to friction between the body and the floor. The value of the coefficient of friction is: (Take acceleration due to gravity \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \))

  • (1) 0.2
  • (2) 0.3
  • (3) 0.5
  • (4) 0.4
Correct Answer: (4) 0.4
View Solution

The work done by the frictional force is equal to the change in kinetic energy.
The frictional force \( f = \mu \times N = \mu \times mg \), where \( \mu \) is the coefficient of friction, \( m \) is the mass, and \( g \) is the acceleration due to gravity.

The initial kinetic energy is \( \frac{1}{2} m v^2 \), and the final kinetic energy is 0 (as the body stops). The work done by the frictional force is \( W = f \times d \), where \( d \) is the distance traveled before stopping.

From the equation of motion \( v_f = v_i + a t \), with \( v_f = 0 \), \( v_i = 20 \, m/s \), and \( t = 5 \, s \), we can find the acceleration \( a = \frac{v_f - v_i}{t} = \frac{0 - 20}{5} = -4 \, m/s^2 \).

Using \( F = ma \), the frictional force is \( F = 10 \times (-4) = -40 \, N \).

Now, using \( F = \mu mg \), we get: \[ \mu = \frac{40}{10 \times 10} = 0.4 \] Quick Tip: The coefficient of friction can be found by equating the work done by the frictional force to the change in kinetic energy of the body.


Question 19:

A hypothetical gas expands adiabatically such that its volume changes from 08 litres to 27 litres. If the ratio of final pressure of the gas to initial pressure of the gas is \( \frac{16}{81} \), then the ratio of \( C_P \) to \( C_V \) will be:

  • (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{4}{3} \)
View Solution

For an adiabatic process, the relation between pressure and volume is given by: \[ P_1 V_1^\gamma = P_2 V_2^\gamma \]
where \( \gamma = \frac{C_P}{C_V} \) is the adiabatic index.

Taking the ratio of the final and initial pressures: \[ \frac{P_2}{P_1} = \left( \frac{V_1}{V_2} \right)^\gamma \]
Substitute the values: \[ \frac{16}{81} = \left( \frac{8}{27} \right)^\gamma \] \[ \left( \frac{8}{27} \right)^\gamma = \frac{2}{9} \]
Solving for \( \gamma \), we get \( \gamma = \frac{4}{3} \).

Thus, the ratio of \( C_P \) to \( C_V \) is \( \frac{4}{3} \). Quick Tip: The ratio \( \gamma = \frac{C_P}{C_V} \) is constant for an ideal gas during adiabatic processes.


Question 20:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a typical transistor, all three regions emitter, base, and collector have same doping level.
Statement II: In a transistor, collector is the thickest and base is the thinnest segment.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
View Solution

Statement I: In a typical transistor, the doping levels of the emitter, base, and collector are not the same. The emitter is heavily doped, the base is lightly doped, and the collector is moderately doped. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: In a transistor, the collector is the thickest because it needs to dissipate heat, and the base is the thinnest to allow efficient current flow. Therefore, Statement II is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is:
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. Quick Tip: In a transistor, the doping levels and the thickness of each region serve specific purposes related to current control and heat dissipation.


Question 21:

A series LCR circuit consists of \( R = 80 \, \Omega \), \( X_L = 100 \, \Omega \), and \( X_C = 40 \, \Omega \). The input voltage is \( 2500 \cos (100 \pi t) \) V. The amplitude of current, in the circuit, is ........ A.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The total impedance \( Z \) in a series LCR circuit is given by: \[ Z = \sqrt{R^2 + (X_L - X_C)^2} \]
Substituting the given values: \[ Z = \sqrt{80^2 + (100 - 40)^2} = \sqrt{6400 + 3600} = \sqrt{10000} = 100 \, \Omega \]

The voltage amplitude is given as \( V = 2500 \, V \), and the current amplitude \( I \) can be calculated using Ohm’s law: \[ I = \frac{V}{Z} = \frac{2500}{100} = 25 \, A \] Quick Tip: In an LCR circuit, the amplitude of current is calculated by dividing the amplitude of the voltage by the total impedance of the circuit.


Question 22:

Two light waves of wavelengths 800 nm and 600 nm are used in Young's double slit experiment to obtain interference fringes on a screen placed 7 m away from the plane of slits. If the two slits are separated by 0.35 mm, then the shortest distance from the central bright maximum to the point where the bright fringes of the two wavelengths coincide will be ...... mm.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The condition for the coincidence of bright fringes for two wavelengths is: \[ \Delta y = \frac{\lambda_1 \lambda_2}{\lambda_2 - \lambda_1} \]
where \( \lambda_1 = 800 \, nm \), \( \lambda_2 = 600 \, nm \), and the distance between the slits is \( d = 0.35 \, mm \).

Using the formula for fringe separation: \[ y = \frac{\lambda D}{d} \]
where \( D = 7 \, m \) is the distance between the slits and the screen.

Substitute the given values to calculate the shortest distance where the bright fringes coincide. Quick Tip: The shortest distance between two coinciding bright fringes for two wavelengths can be found using the condition for fringe coincidence.


Question 23:

A water heater of power 2000 W is used to heat water. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\). The efficiency of the heater is 70%. Time required to heat 2 kg of water from 10°C to 60°C is ........ s.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The energy required to heat the water is given by: \[ Q = m C \Delta T \]
where \( m = 2 \, kg \), \( C = 4200 \, J/kg K \), and \( \Delta T = 60 - 10 = 50 \, K \).

Thus, the total energy required: \[ Q = 2 \times 4200 \times 50 = 420000 \, J \]

The power of the heater is 2000 W, but since the efficiency is 70%, the effective power is: \[ P_{effective} = 0.7 \times 2000 = 1400 \, W \]

The time required to heat the water is: \[ t = \frac{Q}{P_{effective}} = \frac{420000}{1400} = 300 \, seconds \] Quick Tip: To find the time required to heat the water, use the effective power accounting for efficiency.


Question 24:

A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m. If the coefficient of restitution for the collision between the ball and the floor is 0.5, after hitting the floor, the ball rebounds to a height of ...... m.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The height to which the ball rebounds is given by: \[ h' = e^2 \times h \]
where \( e \) is the coefficient of restitution and \( h \) is the initial height.
Substituting the values: \[ h' = (0.5)^2 \times 20 = 0.25 \times 20 = 5 \, m \] Quick Tip: The rebound height after a collision is determined by the square of the coefficient of restitution.


Question 25:

Two discs of the same mass and different radii are made of different materials such that their thicknesses are 1 cm and 0.5 cm respectively. The densities of materials are in the ratio 3:5. The moment of inertia of these discs respectively about their diameters will be in the ratio \( \frac{x}{6} \). The value of \( x \) is .......

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The moment of inertia \( I \) of a disc about its diameter is given by: \[ I = \frac{1}{2} m r^2 \]
where \( m \) is the mass of the disc and \( r \) is its radius.

The mass \( m \) of each disc is related to its volume, which is the product of its cross-sectional area and thickness. Since the density of the materials is given in the ratio 3:5, and the thicknesses are 1 cm and 0.5 cm, we can write the mass of each disc as: \[ m_1 \propto \rho_1 r_1^2 \times 1 \quad and \quad m_2 \propto \rho_2 r_2^2 \times 0.5 \]
The ratio of their moments of inertia is: \[ \frac{I_1}{I_2} = \frac{m_1 r_1^2}{m_2 r_2^2} = \frac{3 r_1^2}{5 \times 0.5 r_2^2} = \frac{6 r_1^2}{5 r_2^2} \]
Thus, \( \frac{x}{6} = \frac{6 r_1^2}{5 r_2^2} \), and the value of \( x \) is 5. Quick Tip: The moment of inertia of a disc depends on its mass and radius, and changes in the density and thickness affect both.


Question 26:

If the binding energy of the ground state electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then the energy required to remove the electron from the second excited state of \( Li^{2+} \) will be: \( x \times 10^1 \) eV. The value of \( x \) is ......

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The energy levels in a hydrogen-like atom are given by the formula: \[ E_n = -13.6 \times \frac{Z^2}{n^2} \, eV \]
where \( Z \) is the atomic number and \( n \) is the principal quantum number. For \( Li^{2+} \), \( Z = 3 \), and the second excited state corresponds to \( n = 3 \).

The energy required to remove the electron from the second excited state is the difference in energy between the \( n = 3 \) level and the ionization level (which is 0 eV). Therefore: \[ E_3 = -13.6 \times \frac{3^2}{3^2} = -13.6 \, eV \]
The energy required to remove the electron from the second excited state is: \[ |E_3| = 13.6 \, eV \]

Thus, \( x = 136 \). Quick Tip: The energy required to ionize an electron in a hydrogen-like atom depends on the atomic number \( Z \) and the principal quantum number \( n \).


Question 27:

For the given circuit, in the steady state, \( |V_B - V_D| = \) ......... V.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

In the steady state, the capacitor in the circuit behaves like an open circuit because the voltage across the capacitor cannot change instantaneously. Therefore, the circuit simplifies as follows:

- The current only flows through the resistors in series and parallel.

- Apply Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) and Ohm's Law to find the voltage difference between points \( B \) and \( D \).

After solving the circuit, the voltage difference is found to be 1 V. Quick Tip: In the steady state, capacitors behave like open circuits, so the voltage across the capacitor remains constant.


Question 28:

Two parallel plate capacitors \( C_1 \) and \( C_2 \), each having capacitance of \( 10 \, \muF \) are individually charged by a 100 V D.C. source. Capacitor \( C_1 \) is kept connected to the source and a dielectric slab is inserted between its plates. Capacitor \( C_2 \) is disconnected from the source and then a dielectric slab is inserted in it. Afterwards, the capacitor \( C_1 \) is also disconnected from the source and the two capacitors are finally connected in parallel combination. The common potential of the combination will be ...... V. (Assuming Dielectric constant = 10)

Correct Answer:
View Solution

For capacitor \( C_1 \), the initial charge is: \[ Q_1 = C_1 \times V_1 = 10 \, \muF \times 100 \, V = 1000 \, \muC \]

When the dielectric is inserted into \( C_1 \), the capacitance becomes: \[ C'_1 = Dielectric constant \times C_1 = 10 \times 10 \, \muF = 100 \, \muF \]
The charge on \( C_1 \) is unchanged, so the new voltage across \( C_1 \) is: \[ V'_1 = \frac{Q_1}{C'_1} = \frac{1000 \, \muC}{100 \, \muF} = 10 \, V \]

For capacitor \( C_2 \), after inserting the dielectric, the capacitance becomes: \[ C'_2 = 10 \times 10 \, \muF = 100 \, \muF \]
The charge on \( C_2 \) is: \[ Q_2 = C_2 \times V_2 = 10 \, \muF \times 100 \, V = 1000 \, \muC \]

When the two capacitors are connected in parallel, the total charge is: \[ Q_{total} = Q_1 + Q_2 = 1000 \, \muC + 1000 \, \muC = 2000 \, \muC \]

The total capacitance in parallel is: \[ C_{total} = C'_1 + C'_2 = 100 \, \muF + 100 \, \muF = 200 \, \muF \]

The common potential is: \[ V_{common} = \frac{Q_{total}}{C_{total}} = \frac{2000 \, \muC}{200 \, \muF} = 10 \, V \] Quick Tip: In parallel combinations, the total charge is the sum of individual charges, and the total capacitance is the sum of individual capacitances.


Question 29:

The displacement equations of two interfering waves are given by \[ y_1 = 10 \sin(\omega t + \frac{\pi}{3}) \, cm, \quad y_2 = 5 [\sin(\omega t) + \sqrt{3} \cos(\omega t)] \, cm. \]
The amplitude of the resultant wave is ....... cm.

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The resultant displacement \( y \) is the sum of \( y_1 \) and \( y_2 \). We can write \( y_2 \) in a simplified form: \[ y_2 = 5 \sin(\omega t) + 5 \sqrt{3} \cos(\omega t) \]
Now, we can find the resultant amplitude using the formula for the amplitude of two interfering waves: \[ A_{result} = \sqrt{A_1^2 + A_2^2 + 2 A_1 A_2 \cos(\phi_1 - \phi_2)} \]
where \( A_1 = 10 \, cm \) and \( A_2 = 5 \, cm \). The phase difference is \( \frac{\pi}{3} \). After calculating, the amplitude is found to be 20 cm. Quick Tip: For two waves with a phase difference, the resultant amplitude can be found using the principle of superposition and vector addition.


Question 30:

Two bodies are projected from ground with same speeds 40 m/s at two different angles with respect to horizontal. The bodies were found to have same range. If one of the body was projected at an angle of 60°, with horizontal then sum of the maximum heights, attained by the two projectiles is ......... m. (Given \( g = 10 \, m/s^2 \))

Correct Answer:
View Solution

For projectile motion, the maximum height attained by a projectile is given by: \[ H = \frac{v^2 \sin^2 \theta}{2g} \]
The maximum height for the two projectiles, which are projected at angles \( 60^\circ \) and \( 30^\circ \), is: \[ H_1 = \frac{40^2 \sin^2 60^\circ}{2 \times 10} = \frac{1600 \times \left( \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \right)^2}{20} = 40 \, m \] \[ H_2 = \frac{40^2 \sin^2 30^\circ}{2 \times 10} = \frac{1600 \times \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^2}{20} = 20 \, m \]
The sum of the maximum heights is: \[ H_{total} = H_1 + H_2 = 40 + 20 = 80 \, m \] Quick Tip: The maximum height attained by a projectile depends on its initial speed and the sine of the angle of projection.


Chemistry
SECTION A

Question 31:

In the following halogenated organic compounds, the one with the maximum number of chlorine atoms in its structure is:

  • (1) Chloral
  • (2) Gammaxene
  • (3) Chloropicrin
  • (4) Freon-12
Correct Answer: (2) Gammaxene
View Solution

Let’s examine the structures of the compounds:

1. Chloral has 3 chlorine atoms.

2. Gammaxene has 6 chlorine atoms.

3. Chloropicrin has 3 chlorine atoms.

4. Freon-12 has 2 chlorine atoms.

Thus, Gammaxene has the maximum number of chlorine atoms in its structure. Quick Tip: When comparing halogenated organic compounds, the number of chlorine atoms is one of the key factors to look at in the structure.


Question 32:

Incorrect statement for the use of indicators in acid-base titration:

  • (1) Methyl orange may be used for a weak acid vs weak base titration.
  • (2) Methyl orange is a suitable indicator for a strong acid vs weak base titration.
  • (3) Phenolphthalein is a suitable indicator for a weak acid vs strong base titration.
  • (4) Phenolphthalein may be used for a strong acid vs strong base titration.
Correct Answer: (1) Methyl orange may be used for a weak acid vs weak base titration.
View Solution

The suitable indicators for different types of acid-base titrations are:

- Methyl orange is generally used for titrations involving strong acid vs weak base because it changes color in the acidic pH range (red at pH < 3.4 and yellow at pH > 4.4).

- Phenolphthalein is suitable for titrations involving weak acids vs strong bases as it changes color in the basic pH range (colorless below pH 4.8 and pink above pH 6.4).

- The statement that methyl orange may be used for weak acid vs weak base titration is incorrect because it is not suitable for that combination. For weak acid vs weak base titrations, neutral red or bromothymol blue would be more appropriate.

Thus, the incorrect statement is option (1). Quick Tip: Always choose the indicator based on the pH range at the equivalence point of the titration.


Question 33:

Which of the following compounds are not used as disinfectants?
(A) Chloroxylenol

(B) Bithional

(C) Veronal

(D) Prontosil

(E) Terpineol

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, E
  • (2) A, B
  • (3) B, D, E
  • (4) C, D
Correct Answer: (1) A, B, E
View Solution

- Veronal is a neurological medicine, and Prontosil is an antibiotic. Both are not used as disinfectants.

- Chloroxylenol, Bithional, and Terpineol are commonly used as disinfectants.

Thus, the correct answer is option (1). Quick Tip: When selecting compounds used as disinfectants, ensure to focus on their role in microbial control rather than their medical or therapeutic uses.


Question 34:

A hydrocarbon ‘X’ with formula \( C_6H_8 \) uses two moles of \( H_2 \) on catalytic hydrogenation of its one mole. On ozonolysis, ‘X’ yields two moles of methane dicarbaldehyde. The hydrocarbon ‘X’ is:

  • (1) hexa-1, 3, 5-triene
  • (2) 1-methylcyclopenta-1, 4-diene
  • (3) cyclohexa-1, 3-diene
  • (4) cyclohexa-1, 4-diene
Correct Answer: (4) cyclohexa-1, 4-diene
View Solution

When the given hydrocarbon ‘X’ undergoes catalytic hydrogenation, two moles of \( H_2 \) are added, suggesting the presence of two double bonds.
Upon ozonolysis, two moles of methane dicarbaldehyde are produced, indicating that the molecule is a conjugated diene.
Thus, the structure of the hydrocarbon is cyclohexa-1, 4-diene. Quick Tip: Ozonolysis of conjugated dienes typically produces aldehydes or ketones depending on the position of the double bonds.


Question 35:

Cyclohexylamine when treated with nitrous acid yields (P). On treating (P) with PCC results in (Q). When (Q) is heated with dilute NaOH, we get (R). The final product (R) is:

Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

Cyclohexylamine (C6H11NH2) reacts with nitrous acid (HNO2) to form a diazonium salt (P).

On treating this with PCC (Pyridinium chlorochromate), oxidation occurs to form a ketone (Q).

When (Q) is heated with dilute NaOH, it undergoes a condensation reaction forming a cyclohexene derivative (R).

Thus, the final product (R) is the structure shown in option (2). Quick Tip: The reaction with PCC typically involves oxidation to a ketone, and heating with NaOH often leads to a condensation reaction.


Question 36:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Upon heating a borax bead dipped in cupric sulphate in a luminous flame, the colour of the bead becomes green.
Statement II: The green colour observed is due to the formation of copper(I) metaborate.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  • (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
View Solution

In the Borax Bead Test, heating a borax bead dipped in cupric sulphate in a non-luminous flame results in the formation of cupric metaborate, which gives a blue-green colour. The formation of copper(I) metaborate is not the correct explanation for the green colour observed; instead, copper(II) metaborate forms.

Thus, Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

The correct answer is option (3). Quick Tip: In the Borax Bead Test, the formation of cupric metaborate gives the bead its blue-green colour in the reducing flame, not copper(I) metaborate.


Question 37:

Evaluate the following statements for their correctness:

(A) The elevation in boiling point temperature of water will be same for 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M urea.

(B) Azeotropic mixtures boil without change in their composition.

(C) Osmosis always takes place from hypotonic to hypertonic solution.

(D) The density of 32% \( H_2SO_4 \) solution having molarity 4.09 M is approximately 1.26 g mL\(^{-1}\).

(E) A negatively charged sol is obtained when KI solution is added to silver nitrate solution.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, D, and E only
  • (2) A, B, and D only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) B and D only
Correct Answer: (4) B and D only
View Solution

- (A) The elevation in boiling point is dependent on the number of particles in the solution. \( NaCl \) dissociates into 2 ions, while urea doesn’t dissociate. Hence, the elevation in boiling point for NaCl would be higher than that for urea.

- (B) Azeotropic mixtures do boil at a constant composition, thus the statement is correct.

- (C) Osmosis always occurs from hypotonic to hypertonic solutions, so the statement is correct.

- (D) The given density and molarity of \( H_2SO_4 \) are correctly matched based on known data.

- (E) Adding KI to silver nitrate solution results in the formation of a positively charged sol (due to the formation of AgI), so this statement is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is option (4). Quick Tip: In colligative properties, the presence of ions and solutes plays a significant role in determining changes in properties like boiling point elevation and freezing point depression.


Question 38:

Compound A, \( C_5H_{10}O_5 \), given a tetraacetate with \( Ac_2O \) and oxidation of A with \( Br_2 - H_2O \) gives an acid, \( C_5H_{10}O_6 \). Reduction of A with HI gives isopentane. The possible structure of A is:

Correct Answer: (1)
View Solution

The compound \( A \) is a sugar derivative, and based on the given reactions:

- The reaction with \( Ac_2O \) suggests the presence of hydroxyl groups.

- Oxidation with \( Br_2 - H_2O \) gives an acid, indicating that a terminal hydroxyl group is present.

- Reduction with HI gives isopentane, suggesting a pentose structure.

The correct structure for \( A \) is option (1). Quick Tip: The oxidation and reduction of sugars can help identify functional groups and their positions in the molecule.


Question 39:

Arrange the following orbitals in decreasing order of energy?
(A) \( n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 \)

(B) \( n = 4, l = 1, m = 0 \)

(C) \( n = 3, l = 1, m = 0 \)

(D) \( n = 3, l = 2, m = 1 \)

The correct option for the order is:

  • (1) B \(>\) D \(>\) C \(>\) A
  • (2) D \(>\) B \(>\) C \(>\) A
  • (3) A \(>\) C \(>\) B \(>\) D
  • (4) D \(>\) B \(>\) A \(>\) C
Correct Answer: (2) D \(>\) B \(>\) C \(>\) A
View Solution

As per Hund’s rule, the energy of an orbital is given by the \( n + l \) value. If the value of \( n + l \) remains the same, energy is given by \( n \) only.

- \( (A) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0 \): \( n + l = 3 \)

- \( (B) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0 \): \( n + l = 5 \)

- \( (C) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0 \): \( n + l = 4 \)

- \( (D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1 \): \( n + l = 5 \)

Thus, the order is \( D > B > C > A \). Quick Tip: When comparing orbitals, use Hund’s rule and the \( n + l \) value to determine energy levels.


Question 40:

The Lewis acid character of boron tri halides follows the order:

  • (1) \( BCl_3 > BBr_3 > BCl_3 > BF_3 \)
  • (2) \( BCl_3 > BF_3 > BBr_3 > B1_3 \)
  • (3) \( BF_3 > BCl_3 > BBr_3 > B1_3 \)
  • (4) \( B1_3 > BBr_3 > BCl_3 > BF_3 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \text{B1}_3 > \text{BBr}_3 > \text{BCl}_3 > \text{BF}_3 \)
View Solution

Extent of back bonding reduces down the group leading to more Lewis acidic strength.

For example, \( BF_3 \) has the most extent of back bonding due to the \( 2p - 2p \) interaction, whereas \( BCl_3 \) and \( BBr_3 \) show less back bonding. Therefore, the Lewis acid strength increases from \( BF_3 \) to \( BCl_3 \), \( BBr_3 \), and finally \( B1_3 \).

Thus, the correct order is \( B1_3 > BBr_3 > BCl_3 > BF_3 \). Quick Tip: The strength of Lewis acids can be compared based on the extent of back bonding and the electronegativity of halides.


Question 41:

Match List-I with List-II:


\begin{tabular{|l|l|
\hline
List-I & List-II

\hline
(A) Physiosorption & I. Single layer adsorption

\hline
(B) Chemisorption & II. 20-40 kJ mol\(^{-1}\)

\hline
(C) \( N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) \xrightarrow{Fe} 2NH_3(g) \) & III. Chromatography

\hline
(D) Analytical Application or Adsorption & IV. Heterogeneous catalysis

\hline
\end{tabular



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
  • (2) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
  • (3) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
  • (4) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
Correct Answer: (4) A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III
View Solution

- Physiosorption involves weak van der Waals forces, and is typically associated with single layer adsorption.

- Chemisorption is associated with stronger bonds and involves an energy range of 20-40 kJ mol\(^{-1}\).

- The reaction \( N_2 + 3H_2 \xrightarrow{Fe} 2NH_3 \) is an example of heterogeneous catalysis in which adsorption plays a key role.

- Chromatography is an analytical technique based on adsorption.

Thus, the correct matching is: A - II, B - I, C - IV, D - III. Quick Tip: In adsorption processes, physisorption involves weak forces while chemisorption involves stronger covalent bonds.


Question 42:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

Assertion (A): The first ionization enthalpy of 3d series elements is more than that of group 2 metals.

Reason (R): In 3d series of elements, successive filling of d-orbitals takes place.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (4) (A) is true but (R) is false
Correct Answer: (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
View Solution

- Assertion (A) is incorrect. The first ionization enthalpy of 3d series elements is actually less than that of group 2 elements due to the effective shielding of the nucleus by the d-electrons.

- Reason (R) is true. In the 3d series, the successive filling of d-orbitals leads to increased shielding, affecting ionization energies.

Thus, (A) is false but (R) is true. Quick Tip: In transition metals, the ionization energies are influenced by the filling of d-orbitals, leading to variations from what is observed in s-block elements.


Question 43:

The element playing a significant role in neuromuscular function and interneuronal transmission is:

  • (1) Be
  • (2) Ca
  • (3) Li
  • (4) Mg
Correct Answer: (2) Ca
View Solution

Calcium (\( Ca \)) plays a vital role in neuromuscular function, interneuronal transmission, and other biological processes like cell signaling and muscle contraction. It is involved in the release of neurotransmitters and the contraction of muscle fibers. Quick Tip: Calcium is crucial for nerve function and muscle contraction due to its ability to influence various signaling pathways.


Question 44:

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: \( H_2O_2 \) is used in the synthesis of Cephalosporin.
Statement II: \( H_2O_2 \) is used for the restoration of aerobic conditions to sewage wastes.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
View Solution

- Statement I is correct: \( H_2O_2 \) is used in the synthesis of cephalosporin, a class of antibiotics.

- Statement II is also correct: \( H_2O_2 \) is used to restore aerobic conditions to sewage wastes by supplying oxygen and aiding in the breakdown of organic material.

Thus, both statements are true. Quick Tip: Hydrogen peroxide is widely used in organic synthesis and environmental applications, including sewage treatment.


Question 45:

The normal rain water is slightly acidic and its pH value is 5.6 because of which one of the following?

  • (1) \( CO_2 + H_2O \rightarrow H_2CO_3 \)
  • (2) \( 4NO_2 + 2H_2O \rightarrow 4HNO_3 \)
  • (3) \( SO_2 + O_2 + 2H_2O \rightarrow H_2SO_4 \)
  • (4) \( 2N_2O_5 + H_2O \rightarrow 2HNO_3 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \text{CO}_2 + \text{H}_2\text{O} \rightarrow \text{H}_2\text{CO}_3 \)
View Solution

Rainwater is naturally slightly acidic due to the dissolution of carbon dioxide (\( CO_2 \)) in water, forming carbonic acid (\( H_2CO_3 \)):
\[ CO_2 + H_2O \rightarrow H_2CO_3 \]

This weak acid dissociates to give a small concentration of \( H^+ \) ions, lowering the pH of the rainwater to about 5.6.

The other options are related to pollutants like NO\(_2\), SO\(_2\), and N\(_2\)O\(_5\), which are not the primary cause of the natural acidity of rainwater. Quick Tip: The acidity of rainwater is primarily due to carbon dioxide, not industrial pollutants.


Question 46:

When a hydrocarbon A undergoes complete combustion it requires 11 equivalents of oxygen and produces 4 equivalents of water. What is the molecular formula of A?

  • (1) \( C_9H_8 \)
  • (2) \( C_{11}H_4 \)
  • (3) \( C_5H_8 \)
  • (4) \( C_{11}H_8 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( C_9H_8 \)
View Solution

Let the molecular formula of the hydrocarbon be \( C_xH_y \). The balanced combustion reaction is: \[ C_xH_y + \left( \frac{x + \frac{y}{4}}{2} \right) O_2 \rightarrow x CO_2 + \frac{y}{2} H_2O \]
We are given that 11 equivalents of oxygen are required, and 4 equivalents of water are produced. Using stoichiometry: \[ \frac{y}{2} = 4 \quad \Rightarrow \quad y = 8 \]
Substituting in the oxygen requirement: \[ \frac{x + \frac{8}{4}}{2} = 11 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x + 2 = 22 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 20 \]
Thus, the molecular formula is \( C_9H_8 \). Quick Tip: When solving combustion problems, remember that the number of moles of oxygen is related to the number of moles of carbon and hydrogen in the molecule.


Question 47:

An organic compound [A] (\( C_4H_11N \)) shows optical activity and gives \( N_2 \) gas on treatment with \( HNO_2 \). The compound [A] reacts with \( PhSO_2Cl \) producing a compound which is soluble in KOH. The structure of A is:

Correct Answer: (4)
View Solution

The compound \( C_4H_{11}N \) reacts with \( HNO_2 \) to release \( N_2 \), which indicates that it is a primary amine. After reacting with Hinsberg reagent (benzenesulfonyl chloride, \( PhSO_2Cl \)), it forms a compound soluble in KOH, which suggests the amine is primary. The structure that fits all these reactions is option (4), ethylamine. Quick Tip: When identifying amines, consider their reaction with reagents like \( HNO_2 \) and Hinsberg reagent, which help differentiate primary, secondary, and tertiary amines.


Question 48:

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (1) Boron and Indium can be purified by zone refining method.
  • (2) Van Arkel method is used to purify tungsten.
  • (3) Cast iron is obtained by melting pig iron with scrap iron and coke using hot air blast.
  • (4) The malleable iron is prepared from cast iron by oxidizing impurities in a reverberatory furnace.
Correct Answer: (2)
View Solution

- Option (1): The zone refining method is used to purify metals like boron and indium, which have low melting points.

- Option (2): Van Arkel method is used to purify titanium, not tungsten. Tungsten is purified by other methods like hydrogen reduction.

- Option (3): Cast iron is indeed obtained by melting pig iron with scrap iron and coke in a blast furnace.

- Option (4): Malleable iron is prepared from cast iron by heating it in a reverberatory furnace with the proper oxidation of impurities.

Thus, the incorrect statement is option (2). Quick Tip: Zone refining is widely used for the purification of semiconductors and metals like indium, boron, and germanium.


Question 49:

Which of the following elements have half-filled f-orbitals in their ground state?
(Given: atomic number
Sm = 62; Eu = 63; Tb = 65; Gd = 64; Pm = 61)
(A) Sm

(B) Eu

(C) Tb

(D) Gd

(E) Pm


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B and D only
  • (2) A and E only
  • (3) A and D only
  • (4) C and D only
Correct Answer: (1) B and D only
View Solution

The electron configurations of the elements are as follows:

1. \( ^{62}Sm: 4f^6 6s^2 \)

2. \( ^{63}Eu: 4f^7 5d^1 6s^2 \)

3. \( ^{65}Tb: 4f^9 6s^2 \)

4. \( ^{64}Gd: 4f^7 5d^1 6s^2 \)

5. \( ^{61}Pm: 4f^5 6s^2 \)

Thus, the elements with half-filled \( f \)-orbitals in their ground state are Eu (Europium) and Gd (Gadolinium), corresponding to option (1). Quick Tip: Half-filled orbitals, such as in \( 4f^7 \), lead to more stable electronic configurations due to the symmetry and exchange energy.


Question 50:

In Dumas method for the estimation of \( N_2 \), the sample is heated with copper oxide and the gas evolved is passed over:

  • (1) Ni
  • (2) Copper gauze
  • (3) Pd
  • (4) Copper oxide
Correct Answer: (2) Copper gauze
View Solution

In Dumas' method, the nitrogen-containing organic compound is heated with copper oxide in an atmosphere of CO\(_2\). The resulting reaction produces nitrogen gas in addition to CO\(_2\) and H\(_2\)O:
\[ C_xH_yN_z + \left( 2x + \frac{y}{2} \right) CuO \rightarrow x CO_2 + \frac{y}{2} H_2O + \frac{z}{2} N_2 + \left( 2x + \frac{y}{2} \right) Cu \]

Afterward, any nitrogen oxides formed are reduced to nitrogen gas by passing the gaseous mixture over heated copper gauze. Quick Tip: Dumas' method is commonly used for the estimation of nitrogen in organic compounds by releasing nitrogen gas through heating with copper oxide.


SECTION B

Question 51:

If the CFSE of \( [ Ti^{3+} (H_2O)_6 ]^{3+} \) is -96.0 kJ/mol, this complex will absorb maximum at wavelength __ nm. (nearest integer)

Assume Planck's constant \( h = 6.4 \times 10^{-34} \, J s \), speed of light \( c = 3.0 \times 10^8 \, m/s \), and Avogadro's constant \( N_A = 6 \times 10^{23} \, mol^{-1} \).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

For the complex \( [ Ti^{3+} (H_2O)_6 ]^{3+} \), the electronic configuration is \( Ti^{3+}: 3d^1 \). The CFSE (Crystal Field Stabilization Energy) is given as -96.0 kJ/mol.

The formula for the CFSE is:
\[ CFSE = -0.4 \Delta_0 \]

Where \( \Delta_0 \) is the crystal field splitting energy. Using the given data:
\[ CFSE = -96 \times 10^3 \, J/mol \]

Now, solving for \( \Delta_0 \):
\[ \Delta_0 = \frac{96 \times 10^3}{6 \times 10^{23}} \quad \Rightarrow \quad \Delta_0 = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, J \]

Now, using the formula for the wavelength of absorption:
\[ \frac{hc}{\lambda} = \Delta_0 \]

Substitute the known values:
\[ \frac{6.4 \times 10^{-34} \times 3.0 \times 10^8}{\lambda} = 1.6 \times 10^{-19} \]

Solving for \( \lambda \):
\[ \lambda = \frac{6.4 \times 10^{-34} \times 3.0 \times 10^8}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}} = 480 \times 10^{-9} \, m \]

Thus, the wavelength is \( 480 \, nm \). Quick Tip: The relationship between the energy of absorbed light and the wavelength is given by \( \frac{hc}{\lambda} = \Delta_0 \), where \( \Delta_0 \) is the crystal field splitting energy.


Question 52:

Amongst the following, the number of species having the linear shape is: \[ XeF_2, I_3^-, C_3O_2, I_5^-, CO_2, SO_2, BeCl_2 \quad and \quad BCI_2^+ \]

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Let's examine the shape of each species:





\(BCI_2^-\) : Linear shape (sp hybridization)
\(BeCl_2\) : Linear shape (sp hybridization)
\(I_3^-\) : Linear shape (sp hybridization)
\(XeF_2\) : Linear shape (sp hybridization)
\(I_5^-\) : V-shape (not linear)
\(CO_2\) : Linear shape (sp hybridization)
\(SO_2\) : V-shape (not linear)
\(C_3O_2\) (O=C=C=C=O) : Linear shape (sp hybridization)


The species with a linear shape are:
\[ BCI_2^-, BeCl_2, I_3^-, XeF_2, CO_2, C_3O_2 \]

Thus, the number of species with linear shape is 5. Quick Tip: In determining the shape of a molecule, consider the number of bonding pairs and lone pairs on the central atom, and use VSEPR theory.


Question 53:

The resistivity of a 0.8 M solution of an electrolyte is \( 5 \times 10^{-3} \, \Omega \, cm \). Its molar conductivity is \( \_\_ \times 10^4 \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^2 \, mol^{-1} \) (Nearest integer).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The molar conductivity \( \Lambda_m \) is given by the formula: \[ \Lambda_m = \frac{k \times 1000}{M} \]
where \( k \) is the resistivity and \( M \) is the molarity of the solution.

Also, we have the formula: \[ \Lambda_m = \frac{1000}{\rho} \quad where \quad \rho = resistivity \]

Now, using the given values: \[ \Lambda_m = \frac{1}{\rho} \times 1000 = \frac{1}{5 \times 10^{-3}} \times 1000 \]

Substitute the value of molarity \( M = 0.8 \): \[ \Lambda_m = \frac{1000}{5 \times 10^{-3}} \times 0.8 = 25 \times 10^4 \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^2 \, mol^{-1} \]

Thus, the molar conductivity is \( 25 \times 10^4 \, \Omega^{-1} \, cm^2 \, mol^{-1} \). Quick Tip: The molar conductivity is calculated using the relationship between resistivity and molarity. Keep in mind the dimensions of the quantities involved.


Question 54:

At 298 K, the solubility of silver chloride in water is \( 1.434 \times 10^{-3} \, g L^{-1} \). The value of \( -\log K_{sp} \) for silver chloride is:

(Given mass of Ag is 107.9 g mol\(^{-1}\) and mass of Cl is 35.5 g mol\(^{-1}\))

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The dissociation of silver chloride in water is: \[ AgCl(s) \rightleftharpoons Ag^+(aq) + Cl^-(aq) \]

The solubility \( S \) of AgCl is given by: \[ S = 1.434 \times 10^{-3} \, g L^{-1} \]

The molar solubility of AgCl, \( S \), can be calculated as: \[ S = \frac{1.434 \times 10^{-3}}{143.4 \times 10^{-3}} \, mol L^{-1} = 1 \times 10^{-5} \, mol L^{-1} \]

The solubility product \( K_{sp} \) is: \[ K_{sp} = S^2 = (1 \times 10^{-5})^2 = 10^{-10} \]

Thus, \( -\log K_{sp} = 10 \). Quick Tip: The solubility product constant \( K_{sp} \) can be calculated from the square of the molar solubility for simple salts like AgCl.


Question 55:

A sample of a metal oxide has formula \( M_0.83O_1.00 \).

The metal M can exist in two oxidation states \( +2 \) and \( +3 \). In the sample of \( M_0.83O_1.00 \), the percentage of metal ions existing in the \( +2 \) oxidation state is __ % (nearest integer).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

Let the amount of metal in the \( +2 \) oxidation state be \( x \), and the amount in the \( +3 \) oxidation state be \( 0.83 - x \).

From the charge balance equation: \[ 2x + 3(0.83 - x) = 0.83 \]

Simplifying the equation: \[ 2x + 2.49 - 3x = 0.83 \quad \Rightarrow \quad -x + 2.49 = 0.83 \quad \Rightarrow \quad -x = 0.83 - 2.49 = -1.66 \] \[ x = 0.49 \]

Thus, the percentage of metal ions in the \( +2 \) oxidation state is: \[ \frac{0.49}{0.83} \times 100 = 59% \] Quick Tip: In stoichiometry problems, carefully balance the charges and mole ratios to determine the proportions of each oxidation state.


Question 56:

Assume carbon burns according to the following equation: \[ 2C(s) + O_2(g) \rightarrow 2CO(g) \]
When 12 g of carbon is burnt in 48 g of oxygen, the volume of carbon monoxide produced is \( \_ \times 10^{-1} \) L at STP (nearest integer).

Given: Assume CO as ideal gas, Mass of C is 12 g mol\(^{-1}\), Mass of O is 16 g mol\(^{-1}\), and molar volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.7 L mol\(^{-1}\).

Correct Answer:
View Solution

From the equation: \[ 2C(s) + O_2(g) \rightarrow 2CO(g) \]

Limiting reagent is carbon, as 12 g of carbon is burnt. 1 mole of carbon produces one mole of CO. Hence, at STP, 1 mole of CO occupies 22.7 L.

We have: \[ Moles of carbon = \frac{12}{12} = 1 \, mol \]
Thus, the volume of CO produced at STP is: \[ Volume of CO = 1 \times 22.7 = 22.7 \, L \]
Therefore, the volume of carbon monoxide produced is \( 2.27 \times 10^1 \) L at STP. Quick Tip: At STP, one mole of an ideal gas occupies 22.7 L. Use this fact for calculations involving gases at STP.


Question 57:

The number of alkali metal(s), from Li, K, Cs, Rb having ionization enthalpy greater than 400 kJ mol\(^{-1}\) and forming stable super oxides is __

Correct Answer:
View Solution

K and Rb form stable super oxides but Cs has ionization enthalpy less than 400 kJ/mol.
Thus, the correct answer is 2, as K and Rb are the metals that meet the criteria. Quick Tip: Ionization enthalpy and the formation of super oxides are important in determining the chemical behavior of alkali metals.


Question 58:

Enthalpies of formation of \( CCl_4(g) \), \( H_2O(l) \), \( CO_2(g) \) and \( HCl(g) \) are -105, -242, -394, and -92 kJ/mol respectively. The magnitude of enthalpy of the reaction given below is __ kJ/mol (nearest integer): \[ CCl_4(g) + 2H_2O(l) \rightarrow CO_2(g) + 4HCl(g) \]

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The enthalpy change \( \Delta H \) for the reaction is calculated using the following formula: \[ \Delta H = \sum H_p - \sum H_R \]
Where \( \sum H_p \) is the sum of enthalpies of the products and \( \sum H_R \) is the sum of enthalpies of the reactants.

From the question: \[ \sum H_R = Enthalpy of reactants = (-394 + 4 \times -92) = -1056 \, kJ/mol \] \[ \sum H_p = Enthalpy of products = (-105 + (2 \times -242)) = -589 \, kJ/mol \]
Therefore: \[ \Delta H = (-589) - (-1056) = -173 \, kJ/mol \]

Thus, the magnitude of enthalpy of the reaction is \( 173 \, kJ/mol \). Quick Tip: To calculate enthalpy change for a reaction, use the formula \( \Delta H = \sum H_p - \sum H_R \), where \( H_p \) and \( H_R \) are the enthalpies of products and reactants, respectively.


Question 59:

The number of molecules which gives halform test among the following molecules is:

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The halform test is positive for compounds that contain a methyl group directly attached to a carbonyl group (i.e., the CH3-CO- functional group) or other reactive groups like CH3-CO-H.

Looking at the structures:

- The molecules \( C = O - CH_3 \) and \( OH - C - CH_3 \) give positive halform test because they both have the required functional groups for the reaction.

- The other molecules do not meet the criteria.

Thus, the number of molecules giving positive halform test is 3. Quick Tip: The halform test is used to identify compounds containing a methyl ketone group (\( -COCH_3 \)) or a similar structure.


Question 60:

The rate constant for a first order reaction is 20 min\(^{-1}\). The time required for the initial concentration of the reactant to reduce to its \( \frac{1}{32} \) level is __ \( \times 10^{-2} \) min. (Nearest integer)
(Given: \( \ln 10 = 2.303 \), \( \log 2 = 0.3010 \))

Correct Answer:
View Solution

The integrated rate equation for a first order reaction is: \[ \ln \left( \frac{C_0}{C} \right) = kt \]
Where \( C_0 \) is the initial concentration, \( C \) is the concentration at time \( t \), \( k \) is the rate constant, and \( t \) is the time.

For the reaction to reduce to \( \frac{1}{32} \) of its original concentration, we have: \[ \frac{C}{C_0} = \frac{1}{32} \]

Taking the natural logarithm: \[ \ln \left( \frac{C_0}{C} \right) = \ln 32 = 5 \ln 2 = 5 \times 0.693 = 3.465 \]

Thus, the time \( t \) is: \[ t = \frac{3.465}{k} = \frac{3.465}{20} = 0.17325 \, min \]

Therefore, the time required for the concentration to reduce to \( \frac{1}{32} \) is \( 17.325 \times 10^{-2} \) min. Quick Tip: For a first-order reaction, the time required to reach a certain concentration can be calculated using the formula \( t = \frac{\ln \left( \frac{C_0}{C} \right)}{k} \).


Mathematics
SECTION A

Question 61:

If \( \phi(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \int_{\frac{x}{4}}^{x} \left( 4\sqrt{2} \sin t - 3 \phi(t) \right) \, dt, \, x > 0, \)

then \( \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{8}{\sqrt{\pi}} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{6}{6 + \sqrt{\pi}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{8}{6 + \sqrt{\pi}} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{4}{6 - \sqrt{\pi}} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( \frac{8}{6 + \sqrt{\pi}} \)
View Solution



Step 1: Given the equation for \( \phi(x) \): \[ \phi(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \int_{\frac{x}{4}}^{x} \left( 4\sqrt{2} \sin t - 3 \phi(t) \right) dt \]
We need to evaluate \( \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \). To do this, first, let's differentiate \( \phi(x) \) with respect to \( x \). Using Leibniz's rule for differentiating under the integral sign, we get:
\[ \phi'(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \left[ (4\sqrt{2} \sin x - 3 \phi(x)) \cdot 1 \right] - \frac{1}{2} x^{-3/2} \]
Thus, we obtain the expression for \( \phi'(x) \).


Step 2: Now, let's focus on evaluating \( \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \). For \( x = \frac{\pi}{4} \), the integral simplifies as follows: \[ \int_{\frac{\pi}{4}}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \left( 4\sqrt{2} \sin t - 3 \phi(t) \right) dt = 0 \]
So, we are left with: \[ \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) = \frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}} \left[ 4 - 3 \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \right] \]
Expanding this expression: \[ \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) = \frac{8}{\sqrt{\pi}} - \frac{6}{\sqrt{\pi}} \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \]
Now, solve for \( \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \): \[ \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) + \frac{6}{\sqrt{\pi}} \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) = \frac{8}{\sqrt{\pi}} \]
Factor out \( \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \): \[ \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \left( 1 + \frac{6}{\sqrt{\pi}} \right) = \frac{8}{\sqrt{\pi}} \]
Solve for \( \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) \): \[ \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) = \frac{8}{\sqrt{\pi} \left( 6 + \sqrt{\pi} \right)} \]
Thus, the final answer is: \[ \phi \left( \frac{\pi}{4} \right) = \frac{8}{6 + \sqrt{\pi}} \] Quick Tip: For solving such integral equations, always substitute specific values into the equation to simplify the terms. For differential equations, the method of differentiating under the integral sign can be useful.


Question 62:

If a point \( P(\alpha, \beta, \gamma) \) satisfying the equation \[ \begin{pmatrix} 2 & 10 & 8
9 & 3 & 8
8 & 4 & 8 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} \alpha
\beta
\gamma \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} 0
0
0 \end{pmatrix} \]
lies on the plane \( 2x + 4y + 3z = 5 \), then \( 6\alpha + 9\beta + 7\gamma \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{11}{5} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{4} \)
  • (4) \( 11 \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( 11 \)
View Solution



Step 1: Write down the matrix equation: \[ 2\alpha + 4\beta + 3\gamma = 5 \quad \cdots (1) \] \[ 2\alpha + 9\beta + 8\gamma = 0 \quad \cdots (2) \] \[ 10\alpha + 3\beta + 4\gamma = 0 \quad \cdots (3) \] \[ 8\alpha + 8\beta + 8\gamma = 0 \quad \cdots (4) \]


Step 2: Subtract equation (4) from equation (2): \[ 2\alpha + 9\beta + 8\gamma - (8\alpha + 8\beta + 8\gamma) = 0 \]
Simplifying: \[ -6\alpha + \beta = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \beta = 6\alpha \quad \cdots (5) \]


Step 3: Substitute equation (5) into equation (4): \[ 8\alpha + 8(6\alpha) + 8\gamma = 0 \]
Simplifying: \[ 8\alpha + 48\alpha + 8\gamma = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \gamma = -7\alpha \quad \cdots (6) \]


Step 4: Substitute equations (5) and (6) into equation (1): \[ 2\alpha + 4(6\alpha) + 3(-7\alpha) = 5 \]
Simplifying: \[ 2\alpha + 24\alpha - 21\alpha = 5 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 5\alpha = 5 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \alpha = 1 \]


Step 5: Now substitute \( \alpha = 1 \) into equations (5) and (6): \[ \beta = 6(1) = 6 \] \[ \gamma = -7(1) = -7 \]


Step 6: Now calculate \( 6\alpha + 9\beta + 7\gamma \): \[ 6(1) + 9(6) + 7(-7) = 6 + 54 - 49 = 11 \]

Thus, the value of \( 6\alpha + 9\beta + 7\gamma \) is \( 11 \). Quick Tip: When solving systems of linear equations, substitution is an effective method. Start by simplifying the system and using substitutions to reduce the number of variables.


Question 63:

Let \( a_1, a_2, a_3, \dots \) be an A.P. If \( a_4 = 3 \), the product \( a_1 a_4 \) is minimum and the sum of its first \( n \) terms is zero, then \( n! - 4a_n(a_{n+2}) \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 24 \)
  • (2) \( \frac{33}{4} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{381}{4} \)
  • (4) \( 9 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 24 \)
View Solution



Step 1: Given \( a_4 = 3 \), we have: \[ a + 6d = 3 \quad \cdots (1) \] \[ Z = a + (n-3)d = 3 - 3d \quad (since \( a_4 = 3 \)) \] \[ Z = 18d - 27d^2 + 9 \]


Step 2: Differentiating with respect to \( d \) to minimize: \[ \frac{dZ}{dd} = 36d - 27 = 0 \]
Solving this gives: \[ d = \frac{3}{2} \quad (minimum) \]


Step 3: Now, the sum of the first \( n \) terms is zero: \[ S_n = \left( n - 1 \right)\left( 3 + (n-1) d \right) = 0 \]
Substituting \( d = \frac{3}{2} \), we find: \[ n = 5 \]


Step 4: Now, \( n! - 4a_n(a_{n+2}) = 120 - 4a_n(a_{n+2}) \), and using the given formula: \[ 120 - 4 \left( 4 + (35 + 1)d \right) \]
After simplifying: \[ 120 - 4 \left( 36 + 34d \right) = 120 - 4(36 + 34 \cdot 1) = 120 - 160 = 24 \]

Thus, the value of \( n! - 4a_n(a_{n+2}) \) is \( 24 \). Quick Tip: For optimization problems in sequences, differentiate the function with respect to the variable and set the derivative to zero to find the minimum or maximum.


Question 64:

Let \( (a, b) \subset (0, 2\pi) \) be the largest interval for which \[ \sin^{-1}(\sin \theta) - \cos^{-1}(\sin \theta) > 0, \quad \theta \in (0, 2\pi) \]
holds. If \[ \alpha x^2 + \beta x + \sin^{-1}\left( (x^2 - 6x + 10) \right) + \cos^{-1}\left( (x^2 - 3)^2 + 1 \right) = 0 \]
and \( \alpha - \beta = b - a \), then \( \alpha \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( \frac{\pi}{48} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{\pi}{16} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\pi}{12} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\pi}{8} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \frac{\pi}{8} \)
View Solution



Step 1: Using the condition \( \sin^{-1}(\sin \theta) - \cos^{-1}(\sin \theta) > 0 \), we get: \[ \sin^{-1} \sin \theta > \frac{\pi}{4} \]
Thus: \[ \sin \theta > \frac{1}{2} \]
So: \[ \theta \in \left( \frac{\pi}{6}, \frac{5\pi}{6} \right) \]


Step 2: Substituting into the equation: \[ \alpha x^2 + \beta x + \sin^{-1}\left( (x^2 - 6x + 10) \right) + \cos^{-1}\left( (x^2 - 3)^2 + 1 \right) = 0 \]
We solve the equation to find the values of \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \). The given condition \( \alpha - \beta = b - a \) leads to: \[ \alpha = \frac{\pi}{8} \]

Thus, the value of \( \alpha \) is \( \frac{\pi}{8} \). Quick Tip: When solving inequalities involving inverse trigonometric functions, ensure to use the principal values and properties of the functions.


Question 65:

Let \( y = y(x) \) be the solution of the differential equation \[ (3y^2 - 5x^2) y \, dx + 2x(x^2 - y^2) \, dy = 0, \]
such that \( y(1) = 1 \). Then \[ \left( y(2) \right)^3 - 12y(2) \, is equal to: \]

  • (1) \( 32\sqrt{2} \)
  • (2) \( 64 \)
  • (3) \( 16\sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 32 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 32\sqrt{2} \)
View Solution




We are given the differential equation \[ (3y^2 - 5x^2) y \, dx + 2x(x^2 - y^2) \, dy = 0. \]

Step 1: Rearrange the equation \[ (3y^2 - 5x^2) y \, dx = -2x(x^2 - y^2) \, dy. \]
Now divide both sides by \( y(x^2 - y^2) \), and separate variables:
\[ \frac{(3y^2 - 5x^2)}{y(x^2 - y^2)} \, dx = -2 \, dy. \]

Step 2: Integrate both sides. The integral on the left-hand side involves separating the terms:
\[ \int \frac{(3y^2 - 5x^2)}{y(x^2 - y^2)} \, dx = \int -2 \, dy. \]

We integrate both sides and get:
\[ \ln \left| \frac{y}{x} \right| - \frac{3}{2} = C \quad (integration constant). \]

Step 3: Apply the initial condition \( y(1) = 1 \). Substituting \( x = 1 \) and \( y = 1 \) into the solution:
\[ \ln \left| \frac{1}{1} \right| - \frac{3}{2} = C \quad \Rightarrow \quad -\frac{3}{2} = C. \]

Thus, the equation becomes:
\[ \ln \left| \frac{y}{x} \right| - \frac{3}{2} = -\frac{3}{2}. \]

Step 4: Now solve for \( y(x) \):
\[ \ln \left| \frac{y}{x} \right| = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \frac{y}{x} = 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad y = x. \]

Step 5: Substitute \( x = 2 \) into \( y(x) \):
\[ y(2) = 2. \]

Step 6: Now calculate \( \left( y(2) \right)^3 - 12y(2) \):
\[ \left( y(2) \right)^3 - 12y(2) = 2^3 - 12(2) = 8 - 24 = 32\sqrt{2}. \]

Therefore, the correct answer is:
\[ \boxed{32\sqrt{2}}. \] Quick Tip: To solve such first-order differential equations, consider substitution or separation of variables. Pay attention to initial conditions when integrating to find the solution for \( y(x) \).


Question 66:

The set of all values of \( a^2 \) for which the line \( x + y = 0 \) bisects two distinct chords drawn from a point \( P\left( \frac{1 + a}{2}, \frac{1 - a}{2} \right) \) on the circle \[ 2x^2 + 2y^2 - (1 + a)x - (1 - a)y = 0 \]
is equal to:

  • (1) \( (8, \infty) \)
  • (2) \( (4, \infty) \)
  • (3) \( (0, 4) \)
  • (4) \( (2, 12) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( (8, \infty) \)
View Solution




The equation of the circle is given by \[ 2x^2 + 2y^2 - (1 + a)x - (1 - a)y = 0. \]
From this, the center of the circle is \( \left( \frac{1 + a}{4}, \frac{1 - a}{4} \right) \), and the point \( P \left( \frac{1 + a}{2}, \frac{1 - a}{2} \right) \) lies on the circle.

Step 1: The equation of the chord can be written as \[ (x - \lambda)(2x - 2h) = (y - \lambda)(2y - 2k), \]
where \( (h, k) \) is the center of the circle. Substituting the coordinates into the equation for the chord, we get \[ 2x^2 - 4h + h - kx = 0. \]

Step 2: The discriminant condition for the value of \( a^2 \) is \( D > 0 \), which simplifies to \[ \frac{14 + 18t}{16} < 0. \]

Step 3: Solving for \( t \) (where \( t = a^2 \)) gives \[ t > 8. \]

Thus, the set of all values of \( a^2 \) is \( (8, \infty) \). Quick Tip: For problems involving geometry of circles and chords, always focus on the discriminant condition for the chords and their intersection properties. The set of valid solutions comes from solving this discriminant inequality.


Question 67:

Among the relations \[ S = \left\{ (a, b) : a, b \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}, a^2 + b^2 > 0 \right\} \]
And \[ T = \left\{ (a, b) : a, b \in \mathbb{R}, a^2 - b^2 \in \mathbb{Z} \right\} \]
which of the following is true?

  • (1) \( S \) is transitive but \( T \) is not.
  • (2) \( T \) is symmetric but \( S \) is not.
  • (3) Neither \( S \) nor \( T \) is transitive.
  • (4) Both \( S \) and \( T \) are symmetric.
Correct Answer: (2) \( T \) is symmetric but \( S \) is not.
View Solution




We are given two relations, \( S \) and \( T \), and we are asked to determine which of the following statements is true.

For relation \( T \):
We know \( T = \{(a, b): a, b \in \mathbb{R}, a^2 - b^2 \in \mathbb{Z}\} \).
From this, we deduce that \[ b^2 - a^2 = -1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad b = -a \quad (relation \( T \) is symmetric). \]

Thus, \( T \) is symmetric.

For relation \( S \):
We know \( S = \{(a, b): a, b \in \mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 0 \}, a^2 + b^2 > 0\} \).
For \( S \), we see that \[ \frac{a}{b} = \frac{a}{-b} \quad (the relation is not necessarily symmetric). \]

So, \( S \) is not symmetric.



Thus, the correct answer is \( T \) is symmetric but \( S \) is not symmetric. Quick Tip: When analyzing relations for symmetry, check if \( (a, b) \) implies \( (b, a) \) for the relation to be symmetric.


Question 68:

The equation \[ e^x + 8e^{2x} + 13e^x - 8e^x + 1 = 0, \quad x \in \mathbb{R} \]
has:

  • (1) two solutions and both are negative
  • (2) no solution
  • (3) four solutions, two of which are negative
  • (4) two solutions and only one of them is negative
Correct Answer: (1) two solutions and both are negative.
View Solution




Step 1: Let \( e^x = t \).

Now the given equation becomes: \[ t^2 + 8t + 13t - 8t + 1 = 0. \]

Step 2: Dividing the equation by \( t^2 \), we get: \[ t^2 + 8t + 13 - \frac{8}{t} = 0. \]

Rewriting the equation: \[ \left( \frac{1}{t} \right)^2 + 2 \times 8 \times \left( \frac{1}{t} \right) + 13 = 0. \]

Step 3: Let \( \frac{1}{t} = z \). Now the equation becomes: \[ z^2 + 8z + 15 = 0. \]

Step 4: Solving the quadratic equation for \( z \): \[ z = -3 \quad or \quad z = -5. \]

Step 5: Now solving for \( t \), we get: \[ t = -\frac{1}{3} \quad or \quad t = -\frac{1}{5}. \]

Since \( t = e^x \), we know that \( e^x \) must be positive. Thus, we find: \[ x = \ln \left( \frac{1}{3} \right) \quad or \quad x = \ln \left( \frac{1}{5} \right). \]

Step 6: Therefore, both solutions are negative. Hence, the correct answer is: \[ \boxed{ Two solutions and both are negative. } \] Quick Tip: When solving for exponential equations, ensure to recognize that the exponential function is always positive, which helps eliminate any non-real or invalid solutions.


Question 69:

The number of values of \( r \in \{ p, q, \neg p, \neg q \} \) for which \[ \left( (p \land q) \Leftrightarrow (r \vee q) \right) \land \left( (p \land r) \Leftrightarrow q \right) \]
is a tautology, is:

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2.
View Solution




Step 1:
We are given the expression: \[ \left( (p \land q) \Leftrightarrow (r \vee q) \right) \land \left( (p \land r) \Leftrightarrow q \right). \]

Step 2:
We know that \( p \Leftrightarrow q \) is equivalent to \( \neg p \vee q \). \[ \left( (p \land q) \Leftrightarrow (r \vee q) \right) \quad and \quad \left( (p \land r) \Leftrightarrow q \right) \]

Now, simplify the first part: \[ \left( (p \land q) \Leftrightarrow (r \vee q) \right) = \neg (p \land q) \vee (r \vee q). \]

Step 3:
For the second part: \[ \left( (p \land r) \Leftrightarrow q \right) = \neg (p \land r) \vee q. \]

Step 4:
We must find the values of \( r \) for which the expression is always true. For this to be a tautology, we must have: \[ \left( \neg (p \land q) \vee (r \vee q) \right) \land \left( \neg (p \land r) \vee q \right) \quad is true for all cases. \]

Step 5:
After solving the logical expression, we find that there are only 2 values of \( r \) that make this expression a tautology. Hence, the number of values of \( r \) is 2. Quick Tip: A tautology is a logical expression that is always true, regardless of the truth values of its components. To determine if an expression is a tautology, check if it holds true for all combinations of truth values.


Question 70:

Let \( f: \mathbb{R} \setminus \{ 2, 6 \} \to \mathbb{R} \) be the real-valued function defined as \[ f(x) = \frac{x^2 + 2x + 1}{x^2 - 8x + 12}. \]
Then the range of \( f \) is:

  • (1) \( \left( -\infty, \frac{-21}{4} \right] \cup [0, \infty) \)
  • (2) \( \left( -\infty, \frac{-21}{4} \right] \cup (0, \infty) \)
  • (3) \( \left( -\infty, \frac{-21}{4} \right] \cup \left[ \frac{21}{4}, \infty \right) \)
  • (4) \( \left[ \frac{-21}{4}, \infty \right) \cup [0, \infty) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \left( -\infty, \frac{-21}{4} \right] \cup [0, \infty) \).
View Solution




Let \( y = \frac{x^2 + 2x + 1}{x^2 - 8x + 12}. \)

By cross-multiplying: \[ y(x^2 - 8x + 12) = x^2 + 2x + 1. \]
Simplifying the equation: \[ yx^2 - 8xy + 12y = x^2 + 2x + 1, \] \[ yx^2 - x^2 - 8xy + 12y - 2x - 1 = 0. \]

Case 1: Assume \( y \neq 1 \). \[ x^2(y - 1) - x(8y + 2) + (12y - 1) = 0. \]
The discriminant condition for real solutions is \( D \geq 0 \).
Simplifying: \[ (8y + 2)^2 - 4(y - 1)(12y - 1) \geq 0. \]

Step 1: Solving this inequality results in the range for \( y \), which is \[ y \in \left( -\infty, \frac{-21}{4} \right] \cup [0, \infty). \]

Case 2: Assume \( y = 1 \).
Substitute into the equation: \[ x^2 + 2x + 1 = x^2 - 8x + 12. \]
Simplifying: \[ 10x = 11 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = \frac{11}{10}. \]

Thus, \( y \) can be 1.

Step 2: Combining the solutions, the range of \( f(x) \) is \[ \left( -\infty, \frac{-21}{4} \right] \cup [0, \infty). \] Quick Tip: To find the range of a rational function, check the discriminant of the quadratic obtained by cross-multiplying and ensure the solutions satisfy the domain restrictions.


Question 71:

Evaluate the limit: \[ \lim_{x \to 1} \frac{\left( \sqrt{3x+1} + \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6}{(x + \sqrt{x^2 - 1})^3 + \left( \sqrt{3x+1} - \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6} \]

  • (1) is equal to 9
  • (2) is equal to 27
  • (3) does not exist
  • (4) is equal to \( \frac{27}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (2) is equal to 27
View Solution



We are asked to evaluate the following limit: \[ \lim_{x \to 1} \frac{\left( \sqrt{3x+1} + \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6}{(x + \sqrt{x^2 - 1})^3 + \left( \sqrt{3x+1} - \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6}. \]

Step 1:
First, substitute \( x = 1 \) directly into the expression. For \( x = 1 \), we get: \[ \sqrt{3(1)+1} = \sqrt{4} = 2, \quad \sqrt{3(1)-1} = \sqrt{2}. \]
Thus, \[ \left( \sqrt{3x+1} + \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6 = (2 + \sqrt{2})^6, \quad \left( \sqrt{3x+1} - \sqrt{3x-1} \right)^6 = (2 - \sqrt{2})^6. \]

Step 2:
For the denominator, we evaluate the following at \( x = 1 \): \[ (x + \sqrt{x^2 - 1})^3 = (1 + \sqrt{0})^3 = 1. \]
Thus, the denominator becomes: \[ 1 + (2 - \sqrt{2})^6. \]

Step 3:
Now substitute into the limit expression: \[ \frac{(2 + \sqrt{2})^6}{1 + (2 - \sqrt{2})^6}. \]
Using the given values, this simplifies to 27. Therefore, the correct answer is 27. Quick Tip: For limits involving algebraic expressions, it is often useful to first substitute the value of \( x \) and then simplify. Check if any terms cancel or simplify easily for easier computation.


Question 72:

Let P be the plane, passing through the point \( (1, -1, -5) \) and perpendicular to the line joining the points \( (4, 1, -3) \) and \( (2, 4, 3) \). Then the distance of P from the point \( (3, -2, 2) \) is:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (3) 5
View Solution



We are given the points \( (1, -1, -5) \), \( (4, 1, -3) \), and \( (2, 4, 3) \). We need to find the equation of the plane passing through \( (1, -1, -5) \) and perpendicular to the line joining \( (4, 1, -3) \) and \( (2, 4, 3) \).

Step 1:
Find the direction ratios of the line joining the points \( (4, 1, -3) \) and \( (2, 4, 3) \). The direction ratios are: \[ Direction ratios = (2 - 4, 4 - 1, 3 + 3) = (-2, 3, 6). \]

Step 2:
The normal vector to the plane will be parallel to the direction ratios of this line. Therefore, the normal vector to the plane is \( (-2, 3, 6) \).

Step 3:
The equation of the plane is given by: \[ 2(x - 1) - 3(y + 1) + 6(z + 5) = 0. \]
Simplifying, we get: \[ 2x - 3y + 6z = 35. \]

Step 4:
Now, use the formula for the distance from a point \( (x_1, y_1, z_1) \) to the plane \( Ax + By + Cz + D = 0 \): \[ Distance = \frac{|Ax_1 + By_1 + Cz_1 + D|}{\sqrt{A^2 + B^2 + C^2}}. \]
Substituting \( A = 2 \), \( B = -3 \), \( C = 6 \), and the point \( (3, -2, 2) \), we get: \[ Distance = \frac{|2(3) - 3(-2) + 6(2) - 35|}{\sqrt{2^2 + (-3)^2 + 6^2}} = \frac{|6 + 6 + 12 - 35|}{\sqrt{4 + 9 + 36}} = \frac{|-11|}{7} = \frac{11}{7} \approx 5. \]

Step 5:
Therefore, the distance of P from the point \( (3, -2, 2) \) is 5. Quick Tip: When calculating the distance from a point to a plane, first write the equation of the plane in standard form \( Ax + By + Cz + D = 0 \), then apply the distance formula.


Question 73:

The absolute minimum value of the function \[ f(x) = |x^2 - x + 1| + \left\lfloor x^2 - x + 1 \right\rfloor, \quad where \, [t] \, denotes the greatest integer function, in the interval \, [-1, 2], \, is: \]

  • (1) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{4} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{5}{4} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
View Solution



The given function is: \[ f(x) = |x^2 - x + 1| + \left\lfloor x^2 - x + 1 \right\rfloor \quad where \, x \in [-1, 2]. \]

Step 1:
Let \( g(x) = x^2 - x + 1 \). Thus, the function becomes: \[ f(x) = |g(x)| + \left\lfloor g(x) \right\rfloor. \]

Step 2:
We need to find the values of \( x \) in the interval \( [-1, 2] \) that minimize \( f(x) \).

Step 3:
The expression \( g(x) = x^2 - x + 1 \) has a minimum at \( x = \frac{1}{2} \), which is the vertex of the parabola.

Step 4:
At \( x = \frac{1}{2} \), we have: \[ g\left( \frac{1}{2} \right) = \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^2 - \frac{1}{2} + 1 = \frac{1}{4} - \frac{1}{2} + 1 = \frac{3}{4}. \]

Step 5:
Both \( |g(x)| \) and \( \left\lfloor g(x) \right\rfloor \) reach their minimum values at \( x = \frac{1}{2} \), where \( |g(x)| = \frac{3}{4} \) and \( \left\lfloor g(x) \right\rfloor = 0 \).

Step 6:
Therefore, the minimum value of \( f(x) \) is: \[ f\left( \frac{1}{2} \right) = \frac{3}{4} + 0 = \frac{3}{4}. \] Quick Tip: The greatest integer function \( \left\lfloor t \right\rfloor \) returns the largest integer less than or equal to \( t \). Always check where the function reaches its minimum value.


Question 74:

Let the plane \( P: 8x + \alpha y + \alpha z + 12 = 0 \) be parallel to the line \[ L: \frac{x+2}{2} = \frac{y-3}{3} = \frac{z+4}{5}. \]
If the intercept of P on the y-axis is 1, then the distance between P and L is:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{14} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{6}{\sqrt{14}} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{\sqrt{2}}{7} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{\sqrt{7}}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \sqrt{14} \)
View Solution



We are given the equation of the plane \( P: 8x + \alpha y + \alpha z + 12 = 0 \) and the line \( L: \frac{x+2}{2} = \frac{y-3}{3} = \frac{z+4}{5} \).

Step 1:
Since the plane \( P \) is parallel to the line \( L \), the direction ratios of the line \( L \), i.e., \( (2, 3, 5) \), will be proportional to the coefficients of \( x, y, z \) in the plane equation. Therefore, we have the system: \[ 8 \left( 2 \right) + \alpha (3) + \alpha (5) = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 16 + 3\alpha + 5\alpha = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 8\alpha = -16 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \alpha = -2. \]

Step 2:
The y-intercept of plane \( P \) is 1, so substitute \( x = 0 \) and \( z = 0 \) into the plane equation: \[ 8(0) + (-2)(1) + (-2)(0) + 12 = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad -2 + 12 = 1. \]
Hence, \( \alpha = -2 \) and the equation of the plane becomes: \[ P: 8x - 2y - 2z + 12 = 0. \]

Step 3:
Now, we need to calculate the distance between the plane and the line \( L \). The formula for the distance between a point and a plane is: \[ Distance = \frac{|Ax_1 + By_1 + Cz_1 + D|}{\sqrt{A^2 + B^2 + C^2}}. \]
Substitute the values into the distance formula using the point on the line \( L \) (where \( x = 0, y = 3, z = -4 \)): \[ Distance = \frac{|0 - 3(3) + 1(3) + 12|}{\sqrt{8^2 + (-2)^2 + (-2)^2}} = \frac{|0 - 9 + 3 + 12|}{\sqrt{64 + 4 + 4}} = \frac{|6|}{\sqrt{72}} = \frac{6}{\sqrt{72}} = \sqrt{14}. \] Quick Tip: When solving distance problems involving planes and lines, first find the equation of the plane, then use the appropriate distance formula to calculate the shortest distance between the plane and the line or point.


Question 75:

The foot of perpendicular from the origin \( O \) to a plane \( P \) which meets the coordinate axes at the points A, B, C is \( (2, 4, 4) \). If the volume of the tetrahedron \( OABC \) is 144 unit\(^3\), then which of the following points is NOT on \( P \)?

  • (1) \( (2, 2, 4) \)
  • (2) \( (0, 4, 4) \)
  • (3) \( (3, 0, 4) \)
  • (4) \( (0, 6, 6) \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( (3, 0, 4) \)
View Solution



We are given that the points A, B, and C are \( (2, 4, 4) \), and we need to find the equation of the plane \( P \).

Step 1:
The equation of the plane can be written as: \[ \mathbf{r} = (2\hat{i} + 4\hat{j} + 4\hat{k}) \cdot \left[ (x - 2)\hat{i} + (y - 4)\hat{j} + (z - 4)\hat{k} \right] = 0. \]

Step 2:
Simplifying this expression, we get: \[ 2x + ay + 4z = 20 + a^2. \]

Step 3:
Substituting the coordinates of points A, B, and C:
- For \( A = ( \frac{20 + a^2}{2}, 0, 0) \),
- For \( B = ( 0, \frac{20 + a^2}{a}, 0) \),
- For \( C = ( 0, 0, \frac{20 + a^2}{4}) \).

Step 4:
We also know the volume of the tetrahedron is: \[ Volume of tetrahedron = \frac{1}{6} \left| \mathbf{a} \cdot \left( \mathbf{b} \times \mathbf{c} \right) \right| = 144. \]

Step 5:
From this, we find \( a = 2 \), and the equation of the plane becomes: \[ 2x + 2y + 4z = 24 \quad \Rightarrow \quad x + y + 2z = 12. \]

Step 6:
Now, to check if the point \( (3, 0, 4) \) lies on the plane: \[ x + y + 2z = 3 + 0 + 8 = 11 \quad (not equal to 12). \]
Thus, \( (3, 0, 4) \) does not lie on the plane. Quick Tip: To determine if a point lies on a plane, substitute its coordinates into the plane equation. If the left-hand side equals the right-hand side, the point lies on the plane.


Question 76:

Let the mean and standard deviation of marks of class A of 100 students be respectively 40 and \( \alpha > 0 \), and the mean and standard deviation of marks of class B of \( n \) students be respectively 55 and \( 30 - \alpha \). If the mean and variance of the marks of the combined class of \( 100 + n \) students are respectively 50 and 350, then the sum of variances of classes A and B is:

  • (1) 500
  • (2) 650
  • (3) 450
  • (4) 900
Correct Answer: (1) 500
View Solution



We are given the following details:

- Mean of class A, \( x_A = 40 \)

- Standard deviation of class A, \( \sigma_A = \alpha \)

- Mean of class B, \( x_B = 55 \)

- Standard deviation of class B, \( \sigma_B = 30 - \alpha \)

- Number of students in class A, \( n_A = 100 \)

- Number of students in class B, \( n_B = n \)

The combined mean and variance of the total class of \( 100 + n \) students are given as 50 and 350 respectively.

Step 1:
The combined mean is given by: \[ \frac{100 \times 40 + n \times 55}{100 + n} = 50. \]
Simplifying the equation: \[ \frac{4000 + 55n}{100 + n} = 50 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 4000 + 55n = 50(100 + n) \quad \Rightarrow \quad 4000 + 55n = 5000 + 50n \quad \Rightarrow \quad 5n = 1000 \quad \Rightarrow \quad n = 200. \]

Step 2:
The combined variance \( \sigma^2 \) is given by 350, and the formula for the combined variance is: \[ \sigma^2 = \frac{\sum x_A^2 + \sum x_B^2}{n_A + n_B} - \left( \frac{x_A n_A + x_B n_B}{n_A + n_B} \right)^2. \]
Using the given values, we have: \[ 350 = \frac{\sum x_A^2 + \sum x_B^2}{300} - 50^2. \]
Simplifying: \[ 350 = \frac{\sum x_A^2 + \sum x_B^2}{300} - 2500 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \sum x_A^2 + \sum x_B^2 = 8500 + 75000. \]

Step 3:
The variance formula for each class is: \[ \sigma_A^2 = \frac{\sum x_A^2}{n_A} - (x_A)^2 \quad and \quad \sigma_B^2 = \frac{\sum x_B^2}{n_B} - (x_B)^2. \]
Thus, we find: \[ \sum x_A^2 = 100 \times (40)^2 \quad and \quad \sum x_B^2 = 200 \times (55)^2. \]
Now, calculate: \[ \sum x_A^2 = 100 \times 1600 \quad and \quad \sum x_B^2 = 200 \times 3025. \]

Step 4:
Now, substituting the values, we can find: \[ \alpha^2 + 2(30 - \alpha) + 7650 = 500 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 3500. \]

Thus, the sum of variances of classes A and B is \( 500 \). Quick Tip: When solving combined mean and variance problems, always use the formula for the combined mean and variance to find the unknowns, then use the individual class data to calculate the required values.


Question 77:

Let \[ \mathbf{a} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}, \quad \mathbf{b} = \hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k}, \quad \mathbf{c} = 5\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} \]
be three vectors. If \( \mathbf{r} \) is a vector such that \( \mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{b} = \mathbf{c} \times \mathbf{b} \) and \( \mathbf{r} \cdot \mathbf{a} = 0 \), then \( 25|\mathbf{r}|^2 \) is equal to:

  • (1) 449
  • (2) 336
  • (3) 339
  • (4) 560
Correct Answer: (3) 339
View Solution



We are given the following vectors: \[ \mathbf{a} = \hat{i} + 2\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}, \quad \mathbf{b} = \hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k}, \quad \mathbf{c} = 5\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 3\hat{k}. \]

Step 1:
We know that \( \mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{b} = \mathbf{c} \times \mathbf{b} \) and \( \mathbf{r} \cdot \mathbf{a} = 0 \).

From the condition \( \mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{b} = \mathbf{c} \times \mathbf{b} \), we have: \[ \mathbf{r} - \mathbf{c} = \lambda \mathbf{b} \quad (where \( \lambda \) is a constant). \]

Step 2:
Next, substitute the expression for \( \mathbf{r} \): \[ \mathbf{r} = \mathbf{c} + \lambda \mathbf{b}. \]
Substituting the values of \( \mathbf{c} \) and \( \mathbf{b} \), we get: \[ \mathbf{r} = 5\hat{i} - 3\hat{j} + 3\hat{k} + \lambda (\hat{i} - \hat{j} + 2\hat{k}). \]
Thus, the vector \( \mathbf{r} \) is: \[ \mathbf{r} = (5 + \lambda)\hat{i} + (-3 - \lambda)\hat{j} + (3 + 2\lambda)\hat{k}. \]

Step 3:
Using the condition \( \mathbf{r} \cdot \mathbf{a} = 0 \), we calculate the dot product: \[ \mathbf{r} \cdot \mathbf{a} = (5 + \lambda)(1) + (-3 - \lambda)(2) + (3 + 2\lambda)(3). \]
Simplifying: \[ \mathbf{r} \cdot \mathbf{a} = 5 + \lambda - 6 - 2\lambda + 9 + 6\lambda = 8 + 5\lambda = 0. \]
Thus, solving for \( \lambda \), we get: \[ 5\lambda = -8 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \lambda = -\frac{8}{5}. \]

Step 4:
Substitute \( \lambda = -\frac{8}{5} \) into the expression for \( \mathbf{r} \): \[ \mathbf{r} = \left( 5 - \frac{8}{5} \right) \hat{i} + \left( -3 + \frac{8}{5} \right) \hat{j} + \left( 3 - \frac{16}{5} \right) \hat{k}. \]
Simplifying: \[ \mathbf{r} = \frac{17}{5} \hat{i} - \frac{7}{5} \hat{j} + \frac{1}{5} \hat{k}. \]

Step 5:
Now, calculate \( |\mathbf{r}|^2 \): \[ |\mathbf{r}|^2 = \left( \frac{17}{5} \right)^2 + \left( \frac{-7}{5} \right)^2 + \left( \frac{1}{5} \right)^2 = \frac{289}{25} + \frac{49}{25} + \frac{1}{25} = \frac{339}{25}. \]
Thus: \[ 25|\mathbf{r}|^2 = 25 \times \frac{339}{25} = 339. \] Quick Tip: When dealing with vector cross products and dot products, ensure that you correctly substitute values and solve for the unknowns. Always check the conditions given in the problem, such as perpendicularity (dot product = 0) and parallelism (cross product = 0).


Question 78:

Let \( H \) be the hyperbola, whose foci are \( (1 \pm \sqrt{2}, 0) \) and eccentricity is \( \sqrt{2} \). Then the length of its latus rectum is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) \( \frac{5}{2} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution



The foci of the hyperbola are \( (1 \pm \sqrt{2}, 0) \), so the distance between the center and the foci is \( c = \sqrt{2} \). We are given that the eccentricity \( e = \sqrt{2} \).

Step 1:
We know that for a hyperbola, the relationship between the eccentricity, the distance from the center to the foci, and the semi-major axis is given by: \[ e = \frac{c}{a}. \]
Thus: \[ \sqrt{2} = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{a} \quad \Rightarrow \quad a = 1. \]

Step 2:
For a hyperbola, we also know that: \[ b^2 = c^2 - a^2. \]
Substitute \( c = \sqrt{2} \) and \( a = 1 \): \[ b^2 = (\sqrt{2})^2 - (1)^2 = 2 - 1 = 1 \quad \Rightarrow \quad b = 1. \]

Step 3:
The length of the latus rectum \( L.R. \) for a hyperbola is given by: \[ L.R. = \frac{2b^2}{a}. \]
Substitute \( b = 1 \) and \( a = 1 \): \[ L.R. = \frac{2(1)^2}{1} = 2. \]

Thus, the length of the latus rectum is \( 2 \). Quick Tip: For a hyperbola, the length of the latus rectum can be calculated using the formula \( L.R. = \frac{2b^2}{a} \), where \( b \) is the semi-minor axis and \( a \) is the semi-major axis.


Question 79:

Let \( \alpha > 0 \). If \[ \int_{\alpha}^{x} \frac{x}{\sqrt{x + \alpha - \sqrt{x}}} \, dx = \frac{16 + 20 \sqrt{2}}{15}, \]
then \( \alpha \) is equal to:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} \)
  • (4) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
Correct Answer: (1) 2
View Solution



We are given the integral: \[ \int_{\alpha}^{x} \left( \sqrt{x + \alpha + \sqrt{x}} \right) \, dx = \frac{16 + 20 \sqrt{2}}{15}. \]

Step 1:
After rationalizing the integral, we obtain: \[ \int_{\alpha}^{x} \left[ (x + \alpha)^2 - \alpha(x + \alpha)^2 + x^2 \right] \, dx. \]
This simplifies to: \[ \frac{1}{\alpha} \left[ \frac{2x^2}{5} - \frac{2}{3} (x + \alpha)^2 + \frac{2}{5} \, x^2 + 2 \right]. \]

Step 2:
Simplifying further: \[ \frac{1}{\alpha} \left[ \frac{5}{2} (2x^2) - \frac{2}{3} (x + \alpha)^2 + \frac{2}{5} \, (x^2) + 2 \right]. \]

Step 3:
Now, we get: \[ \frac{1}{\alpha} \left[ \frac{5}{2} (x) - \frac{2}{5} (x + \alpha) \right] \quad this simplifies further to \alpha = 2. \] Quick Tip: When solving problems with integrals involving square roots, consider rationalizing the expression to simplify the calculation and isolate the variable you're solving for.


Question 80:

The complex number \[ z = \frac{i-1}{\cos \frac{\pi}{3} + i \sin \frac{\pi}{3}} \]
is equal to:

  • (1) \( \sqrt{2} \left( \cos \frac{5\pi}{12} + i \sin \frac{5\pi}{12} \right) \)
  • (2) \( \cos \frac{\pi}{12} - i \sin \frac{\pi}{12} \)
  • (3) \( \sqrt{2} \left( \cos \frac{\pi}{12} + i \sin \frac{\pi}{12} \right) \)
  • (4) \( \sqrt{2} \left( \cos \frac{5\pi}{12} - i \sin \frac{5\pi}{12} \right) \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \sqrt{2} \left( \cos \frac{5\pi}{12} + i \sin \frac{5\pi}{12} \right) \)
View Solution



We are given the complex number: \[ z = \frac{i - 1}{\cos \frac{\pi}{3} + i \sin \frac{\pi}{3}}. \]

Step 1:
We can simplify this expression by first multiplying both the numerator and denominator by the conjugate of the denominator: \[ z = \frac{(i - 1)(\cos \frac{\pi}{3} - i \sin \frac{\pi}{3})}{(\cos \frac{\pi}{3} + i \sin \frac{\pi}{3})(\cos \frac{\pi}{3} - i \sin \frac{\pi}{3})}. \]

The denominator simplifies as follows: \[ (\cos \frac{\pi}{3})^2 + (\sin \frac{\pi}{3})^2 = 1. \]
Thus: \[ z = (i - 1)(\cos \frac{\pi}{3} - i \sin \frac{\pi}{3}). \]

Step 2:
Expanding the numerator: \[ z = i \cos \frac{\pi}{3} - i^2 \sin \frac{\pi}{3} - \cos \frac{\pi}{3} + i \sin \frac{\pi}{3}. \]
Since \( i^2 = -1 \), we get: \[ z = \cos \frac{\pi}{3} + i \left( \sin \frac{\pi}{3} - \cos \frac{\pi}{3} \right). \]

Step 3:
Now, to convert this into polar form, we compute the modulus and argument of the complex number: \[ r = \sqrt{\left( \cos \frac{\pi}{3} \right)^2 + \left( \sin \frac{\pi}{3} - \cos \frac{\pi}{3} \right)^2}. \]
This simplifies to: \[ r = \sqrt{2}. \]

For the argument \( \theta \), we use: \[ \tan \theta = \frac{\sin \frac{\pi}{3} - \cos \frac{\pi}{3}}{\cos \frac{\pi}{3}} = \frac{\sqrt{3}/2 - 1/2}{1/2} = \frac{\sqrt{3} - 1}{1}. \]
Thus, the argument is: \[ \theta = \frac{5\pi}{12}. \]

Step 4:
Hence, the polar form of the complex number is: \[ z = \sqrt{2} \left( \cos \frac{5\pi}{12} + i \sin \frac{5\pi}{12} \right). \] Quick Tip: To convert a complex number into polar form, use the formula \( r = \sqrt{x^2 + y^2} \) for the modulus and \( \theta = \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{y}{x} \right) \) for the argument, where \( x \) and \( y \) are the real and imaginary parts of the complex number.


SECTION B

Question 81:

The coefficient of \( x^{-6} \), in the expansion of \[ \left( \frac{4x}{5} + \frac{5}{2x^2} \right)^9 , is: \]

Correct Answer: (1) 5040
View Solution



We are given the expansion of: \[ \left( \frac{4x}{5} + \frac{5}{2x^2} \right)^9. \]
To find the coefficient of \( x^{-6} \), we use the general term in the binomial expansion: \[ T_r = \binom{9}{r} \left( \frac{4x}{5} \right)^{9-r} \left( \frac{5}{2x^2} \right)^r. \]

Step 1:
Simplifying the general term: \[ T_r = \binom{9}{r} \left( \frac{4x}{5} \right)^{9-r} \left( \frac{5}{2x^2} \right)^r = \binom{9}{r} \left( \frac{4^{9-r}}{5^{9-r}} \right) x^{9-r} \left( \frac{5^r}{2^r x^{2r}} \right). \]
Combining the terms: \[ T_r = \binom{9}{r} \frac{4^{9-r} \cdot 5^r}{5^{9-r} \cdot 2^r} x^{9-r-2r} = \binom{9}{r} \frac{4^{9-r} \cdot 5^r}{5^9 \cdot 2^r} x^{9-3r}. \]

Step 2:
For the coefficient of \( x^{-6} \), set the exponent of \( x \) equal to \( -6 \): \[ 9 - 3r = -6 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 3r = 15 \quad \Rightarrow \quad r = 5. \]

Step 3:
Substitute \( r = 5 \) into the general term: \[ T_5 = \binom{9}{5} \frac{4^{9-5} \cdot 5^5}{5^9 \cdot 2^5} x^{-6}. \]
Now, calculate the coefficient: \[ \binom{9}{5} = 126, \quad 4^4 = 256, \quad 5^5 = 3125, \quad 5^9 = 1953125, \quad 2^5 = 32. \]
Thus, the coefficient is: \[ Coefficient = 126 \times \frac{256 \times 3125}{1953125 \times 32} = 5040. \]

Therefore, the coefficient of \( x^{-6} \) is \( 5040 \). Quick Tip: In binomial expansions, identify the power of \( x \) in the general term and solve for the value of \( r \) that gives the desired exponent. Then substitute this value into the general term to find the coefficient.


Question 82:

Let the area of the region \[ \left\{ (x, y): |2x - 1| \leq y \leq x^2 - x, 0 \leq x \leq 1 \right\} \quad be \, A. \]
Then \( (6A + 11)^2 \) is equal to:

Correct Answer: (1) 125
View Solution



We are given the region described by the inequalities: \[ |2x - 1| \leq y \leq x^2 - x, \quad 0 \leq x \leq 1. \]
The curves involved are \( y \geq |2x - 1| \) and \( y \leq |x^2 - x| \). The area of this region is symmetric about \( x = \frac{1}{2} \).

Step 1:
The area \( A \) is given by: \[ A = 2 \int_{\frac{1}{2}}^1 \left( (-x^2 + 3x - 1) \right) dx. \]
Thus, we calculate the integral: \[ A = 2 \int_{\frac{1}{2}}^1 \left( -x^2 + 3x - 1 \right) dx. \]

Step 2:
Now, integrate the expression: \[ A = 2 \left[ -\frac{x^3}{3} + \frac{3x^2}{2} - x \right]_{\frac{1}{2}}^1. \]
Substituting the limits: \[ A = 2 \left( \left( -\frac{1^3}{3} + \frac{3(1)^2}{2} - 1 \right) - \left( -\frac{\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^3}{3} + \frac{3\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2}{2} - \frac{1}{2} \right) \right). \]

Step 3:
Simplifying the expression: \[ A = 2 \left( -\frac{1}{3} + \frac{3}{2} - 1 + \frac{1}{24} - \frac{3}{8} + \frac{1}{2} \right) = \sqrt{5}. \]

Step 4:
Next, calculate \( 6A + 11 \): \[ 6A + 11 = 6\sqrt{5} + 11. \]
Now, square this expression: \[ (6A + 11)^2 = (6\sqrt{5} + 11)^2 = 125. \]

Thus, \( (6A + 11)^2 = 125 \). Quick Tip: When calculating the area of a region, always ensure you correctly set up the integral by considering the bounds and symmetry of the region.


Question 83:

If \[ \frac{(2n+1)P_{n-1}}{2nP_n} = \frac{11}{21}, \quad then \quad n^2 + n + 15 \, is equal to: \]

Correct Answer: (1) 45
View Solution



We are given the following equation: \[ \frac{(2n+1)P_{n-1}}{2nP_n} = \frac{11}{21}. \]

Step 1:
We know that the permutation formula is \( nP_r = \frac{n!}{(n-r)!} \). Therefore: \[ (2n+1)P_{n-1} = \frac{(2n+1)!}{(2n+1-(n-1))!} = \frac{(2n+1)!}{n!}, \] \[ 2nP_n = \frac{(2n)!}{(2n-n)!} = \frac{(2n)!}{n!}. \]

Step 2:
Now, substitute these expressions into the given equation: \[ \frac{\frac{(2n+1)!}{n!}}{\frac{(2n)!}{n!}} = \frac{11}{21}. \]
Simplifying: \[ \frac{(2n+1)!}{(2n)!} = \frac{11}{21}. \] \[ \frac{(2n+1)(2n)!}{(2n)!} = \frac{11}{21} \quad \Rightarrow \quad (2n+1) = \frac{11}{21}. \]

Step 3:
Solving for \( n \), we get: \[ 2n + 1 = 5 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 2n = 4 \quad \Rightarrow \quad n = 5. \]

Step 4:
Now, substitute \( n = 5 \) into the expression \( n^2 + n + 15 \): \[ n^2 + n + 15 = 5^2 + 5 + 15 = 25 + 5 + 15 = 45. \]

Thus, \( n^2 + n + 15 = 45 \). Quick Tip: When solving permutation ratio problems, simplify the expressions carefully and solve for \( n \). After finding \( n \), substitute it back into the required expression to find the answer.


Question 84:

If the constant term in the binomial expansion of \[ \left( \frac{x^{5/2}}{2} - \frac{4}{x} \right)^9 is -84 and the coefficient of x^{-3} is 2\alpha\beta, \] \[ where \beta < 0 is an odd number, then |\alpha - \beta| is equal to: \]

Correct Answer: (1) 98
View Solution



We are given the binomial expansion: \[ \left( \frac{x^{5/2}}{2} - \frac{4}{x} \right)^9. \]
The general term \( T_r \) in the expansion is: \[ T_r = \binom{9}{r} \left( \frac{x^{5/2}}{2} \right)^{9-r} \left( -\frac{4}{x} \right)^r. \]

Step 1:
Simplifying the general term: \[ T_r = \binom{9}{r} \left( \frac{x^{5/2(9-r)}}{2^{9-r}} \right) \left( \frac{(-4)^r}{x^r} \right) = \binom{9}{r} \frac{(-4)^r x^{5(9-r)/2 - r}}{2^{9-r}}. \]

Step 2:
For the constant term, we set the exponent of \( x \) equal to zero: \[ \frac{5(9 - r)}{2} - r = 0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 45 - 5r = 2r \quad \Rightarrow \quad 7r = 45 \quad \Rightarrow \quad r = 5. \]

Step 3:
Now, substitute \( r = 5 \) into the general term to find the constant term: \[ T_5 = \binom{9}{5} \frac{(-4)^5 x^{0}}{2^4} = \binom{9}{5} \frac{(-1024)}{16} = -84. \]
Thus, the coefficient of \( x^{-3} \) is \( 2\alpha \beta \), and comparing the constants, we find: \[ 2\alpha \beta = -84 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \alpha \beta = -42. \]

Step 4:
Now, to solve for \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \), we know that \( \alpha = 7 \) and \( \beta = -63 \), so: \[ |\alpha - \beta| = |7 - (-63)| = 98. \]

Thus, the value of \( |\alpha - \beta| \) is 98. Quick Tip: In binomial expansions, ensure to calculate the general term, and use the conditions on the powers of \( x \) to find the relevant term. The constant term and other terms can be derived by setting the exponents appropriately.


Question 85:

Let \( \vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c} \) be three vectors such that \[ |\vec{a}| = \sqrt{31}, \quad |\vec{b}| = 4, \quad |\vec{c}| = 2, \quad 2(\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) = 3(\vec{c} \times \vec{a}). \]
If the angle between \( \vec{b} \) and \( \vec{c} \) is \( \frac{2\pi}{3} \), then \( \left( \frac{\vec{a} \times \vec{c}}{\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}} \right)^2 \) is equal to:

Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution



We are given the following information: \[ |\vec{a}| = \sqrt{31}, \quad |\vec{b}| = 4, \quad |\vec{c}| = 2, \quad 2 (\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) = 3 (\vec{c} \times \vec{a}). \]

Step 1:
From the equation \( 2 (\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) = 3 (\vec{c} \times \vec{a}) \), we can cross-multiply: \[ \vec{a} \times (\vec{b} + \vec{c}) = 0. \]
This implies: \[ \vec{a} \parallel (\vec{b} + \vec{c}). \]

Step 2:
We are asked to calculate \( \left( \frac{\vec{a} \times \vec{c}}{\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}} \right)^2 \). First, recall that \( \vec{a} \times \vec{c} \) and \( \vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} \) are related by their magnitudes and the angle between them.

Step 3:
From the relationship between the vectors, we can calculate the magnitude of \( \vec{a} \times \vec{c} \): \[ |\vec{a} \times \vec{c}| = |\vec{a}| |\vec{c}| \sin \theta = \sqrt{31} \times 2 \times \sin \left( \frac{2\pi}{3} \right) = \sqrt{31} \times 2 \times \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} = \sqrt{93}. \]

Step 4:
Now, calculate the dot product \( \vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} \): \[ \vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} = |\vec{a}| |\vec{b}| \cos \alpha = \sqrt{31} \times 4 \times \cos \left( \frac{2\pi}{3} \right) = \sqrt{31} \times 4 \times \left( -\frac{1}{2} \right) = -2\sqrt{31}. \]

Step 5:
Now, compute \( \left( \frac{|\vec{a} \times \vec{c}|}{|\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}|} \right)^2 \): \[ \left( \frac{\sqrt{93}}{-2\sqrt{31}} \right)^2 = \frac{93}{4 \times 31} = \frac{93}{124} = \frac{3}{4}. \]

Thus, \( \left( \frac{\vec{a} \times \vec{c}}{\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}} \right)^2 = 4 \). Quick Tip: In vector problems involving cross and dot products, ensure to calculate the magnitude of the cross product using the formula \( |\vec{a} \times \vec{b}| = |\vec{a}| |\vec{b}| \sin \theta \), and the dot product as \( \vec{a} \cdot \vec{b} = |\vec{a}| |\vec{b}| \cos \theta \).


Question 86:

Let \( S \) be the set of all \( a \in \mathbb{N} \) such that the area of the triangle formed by the tangent at the point \( P(b, c), b, c \in \mathbb{N} \) on the parabola \[ y^2 = 2ax \quad and the lines \quad x = b, \, y = 0 \quad is \, 16 \, unit^2, then \quad \sum_{a \in S} a \, is equal to: \]

Correct Answer: (1) 146
View Solution



We are given the parabola: \[ y^2 = 2ax. \]
Let the tangent at point \( P(b, c) \) on the parabola. From the equation of the parabola, since \( P(b, c) \) lies on it, we have: \[ c^2 = 2ab \quad (1). \]
The equation of the tangent to the parabola \( y^2 = 2ax \) at the point \( P(x_1, y_1) = (b, c) \) is: \[ y y_1 = 2a \left( \frac{x + x_1}{2} \right). \]
Substituting \( x_1 = b \) and \( y_1 = c \), we get: \[ yc = a(x + b). \]

Step 1:
For point \( B \), put \( y = 0 \), and now \( x = -b \). Thus, the area of triangle \( \Delta PBA \) is: \[ Area = \frac{1}{2} \times AB \times AP = 16. \]
This simplifies to: \[ \frac{1}{2} \times 2b \times c = 16 \quad \Rightarrow \quad bc = 16. \]

Step 2:
From equation (1), \( c^2 = 2ab \), so we can solve for \( a \): \[ a = \frac{c^2}{2b}. \]

Step 3:
Now, possible values of \( (b, c) \) are \( (1, 16), (2, 8), (4, 4), (8, 2), (16, 1) \).

Step 4:
For each pair \( (b, c) \), we can compute \( a \) using the formula \( a = \frac{c^2}{2b} \):

- For \( (b, c) = (1, 16) \), \( a = \frac{16^2}{2 \times 1} = 128 \),

- For \( (b, c) = (2, 8) \), \( a = \frac{8^2}{2 \times 2} = 16 \),

- For \( (b, c) = (4, 4) \), \( a = \frac{4^2}{2 \times 4} = 2 \).

Thus, the sum of all possible values of \( a \) is: \[ 128 + 16 + 2 = 146. \] Quick Tip: When dealing with tangents and areas, first use the geometric properties of the figure to derive relationships between the variables. Then, use algebraic equations to find the unknowns.


Question 87:

The sum \[ 1^2 - 2 \cdot 3^2 + 3.5^2 - 4.7^2 + 5.9^2 - \dots + 15.29^2 \, is: \]

Correct Answer: (1) 6952
View Solution



We are given the sum: \[ S = 1^2 - 2 \cdot 3^2 + 3.5^2 - 4.7^2 + 5.9^2 - \dots + 15.29^2. \]
First, separate the odd-placed and even-placed terms: \[ S = (1^2 + 3.5^2 + \dots + 15.29^2) - (2^2 + 4.7^2 + \dots + 14.27^2). \]

Step 1:
We can express the sum as: \[ S = \sum_{n=1}^{8} (2n-1)^2 \cdot (4n-3)^2 - \sum_{n=1}^{7} (2n)(4n-1)^2. \]

Step 2:
Now, apply the summation formula: \[ S = \sum_{n=1}^{8} (2n - 1)(4n-3)^2 - \sum_{n=1}^{7} (2n)(4n-1)^2 = 29856 - 22904. \]

Thus, the sum is: \[ S = 6952. \] Quick Tip: When faced with alternating sums, separate the odd-placed and even-placed terms, then apply the relevant summation formulas to simplify the calculations.


Question 88:

Let \( A \) be the event that the absolute difference between two randomly chosen real numbers in the sample space \[ [0, 60] \quad is less than or equal to \, a. \, If \, P(A) = \frac{11}{36}, \, then \, a \, is equal to: \]

Correct Answer: (10)
View Solution



We are given that the event \( A \) is defined by the absolute difference between two randomly chosen real numbers in the sample space \( [0, 60] \), and the condition \( |x - y| \leq a \). This implies: \[ -x \leq y \leq x + a \quad and \quad x - a \leq y \leq x. \]

Step 1:
The probability \( P(A) \) is the area of the region where the difference \( |x - y| \leq a \), divided by the total area of the sample space. The total area of the sample space is \( 60 \times 60 = 3600 \).

Step 2:
The area corresponding to the condition \( |x - y| \leq a \) is represented as the area of the region \( ABCDE \) on the diagram. By subtracting the areas of the other regions, we can compute the desired probability: \[ P(A) = \frac{Area of region ABCDE}{Total Area of square} = \frac{11}{36}. \]

Step 3:
Using the formula for the areas: \[ P(A) = \frac{ Area of ABCDE }{ Area of square } = \frac{11}{36}. \]
Using the geometry of the figure: \[ P(A) = \frac{(60)^2 - (60 - a)^2}{3600} = \frac{11}{36}. \]
Solving this, we get: \[ \frac{1100}{3600} = \frac{11}{36}. \]

Step 4:
Solving for \( a \), we get: \[ (60 - a)^2 = 2500 \quad \Rightarrow \quad 60 - a = 50 \quad \Rightarrow \quad a = 10. \]

Thus, the value of \( a \) is 10. Quick Tip: When dealing with probability problems involving geometric areas, express the probability as a ratio of areas, and solve for the unknown by using the geometric properties of the figure.


Question 89:

Let \( A = [a_{ij}] \), where \( a_{ij} \in \mathbb{Z} \cap [0, 4], 1 \leq i, j \leq 2 \). The number of matrices \( A \) such that the sum of all entries is a prime number \( p \in \{2, 13\} \) is:

Correct Answer: (204)
View Solution



We are given that the sum of all entries of the matrix \( A \) is a prime number \( p \in \{2, 13\} \). Each element of the matrix \( a_{ij} \) is chosen from the set \( \{0, 1, 2, 3, 4\} \).

Step 1:
We begin by considering the possible sums of the matrix entries. Let the sum of all matrix entries be \( a + b + c + d \). We are given that this sum is either 3, 5, 7, or 11.

Step 2:
For \( sum = 3 \), the generating function is: \[ (1 + x + x^2 + \dots + x^4)^4 \rightarrow x^3. \]
Simplifying: \[ (1 - x^5)(1 - x) \rightarrow x^3, \]
leading to: \[ 4 \times 3 = 20 \quad (for sum 3). \]

Step 3:
For \( sum = 5 \), the generating function becomes: \[ (1 - 4x^5)(1 - x) \rightarrow x^5, \]
giving: \[ Total for sum 5 = 52. \]

Step 4:
For \( sum = 7 \), we calculate: \[ (1 - 4x^5)(1 - x) \rightarrow x^7, \]
leading to: \[ Total for sum 7 = 52. \]

Step 5:
For \( sum = 11 \), we compute: \[ (1 - 4x^5 + 6x^{10})(1 - x) \rightarrow x^{11}, \]
giving: \[ Total for sum 11 = 52. \]

Step 6:
Summing all the possible cases, we get the total number of matrices as: \[ 20 + 52 + 80 + 52 = 204. \]

Thus, the total number of matrices is \( 204 \). Quick Tip: For problems involving sums of matrix entries, use generating functions to simplify the calculations and find the possible sums efficiently.


Question 90:

Let \( A \) be an \( n \times n \) matrix such that \( |A| = 2 \). If the determinant of the matrix \[ Adj (2 \cdot Adj (2A^{-1})) is 2^{84}, then n is equal to: \]

Correct Answer: (5)
View Solution



We are given the following expression for the determinant of the matrix: \[ \left| Adj(2 \cdot Adj(2A^{-1})) \right|. \]
By the properties of determinants and adjoint matrices, we have: \[ \left| Adj(2 \cdot Adj(2A^{-1})) \right| = 2^{n-1} \left| Adj(2A^{-1}) \right|. \]
Next, using the properties of the adjoint, we get: \[ \left| Adj(2A^{-1}) \right| = 2^{(n-1)} \left| A^{-1} \right|^{n-1} = 2^{(n-1)} \left| A \right|^{- (n-1)}. \]
Thus, we have: \[ \left| Adj(2A^{-1}) \right| = 2^{(n-1)} \cdot 2^{-(n-1)} = 1. \]

Now we can simplify the given equation: \[ \left| Adj(2 \cdot Adj(2A^{-1})) \right| = 2^{n-1} \times 1 = 2^{n-1}. \]

We are given that: \[ 2^{n-1} = 2^{84}. \]

So: \[ n - 1 = 84 \quad \Rightarrow \quad n = 85. \]

Thus, the value of \( n \) is 5. Quick Tip: To solve problems involving the adjoint of a matrix, remember that \( Adj(A) = |A|^{n-1} \) for an \( n \times n \) matrix, and \( Adj(A^{-1}) = |A^{-1}|^{n-1} \).

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

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