Zollege is here for to help you!!
Need Counselling
Simran Zutshi's profile photo

Simran Zutshi

Content Strategist|Tech-innovator|National Hackathon Winner | Updated On - Jan 13, 2026

JEE Main 2024 Apr 6 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution pdf is available for download here. Students found Physics easy and Mathematics hard. Physics carried the highest weightage and overall difficulty level was moderate.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper 6 Apr Shift 2 with Solution PDF

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper with Solution Pdf April 6 Shift 2 download icon Download Check Solution
JEE Main 2024 Apr 6 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution Pdf

Question 1:

Let ABC be an equilateral triangle. A new triangle is formed by joining the midpoints of all sides of the triangle ABC, and the same process is repeated infinitely many times. If P is the sum of the perimeters and Q is the sum of areas of all the triangles formed in this process, then:

  1. P² = 36√3Q
  2. P² = 6√3Q
  3. P = 36√3Q²
  4. P² = 72√3Q
Correct Answer: (1) P² = 36√3Q
View Solution

The areas and perimeters form infinite geometric series. The sum of perimeters (P) and areas (Q) is derived using the series sum formula. Calculations yield P² = 36√3Q.


Question 2:

Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}. Let R be a relation on A defined by xRy if and only if 4x ≤ 5y. Let n be the number of elements in R and m be the minimum number of elements from A × A that are required to be added to R to make it a symmetric relation. Then m + n is equal to:

  1. 24
  2. 23
  3. 25
  4. 26
Correct Answer: (3) 25
View Solution

To make the relation symmetric, ensure if (x, y) ∈ R, then (y, x) ∈ R. Adding elements to R results in m + n = 25.


Question 3:

If three letters can be posted to any one of the 5 different addresses, then the probability that the three letters are posted to exactly two addresses is:

  1. 12/25
  2. 18/25
  3. 4/25
  4. 6/25
Correct Answer: (1) 12/25
View Solution

Using combinatorics, select 2 addresses and distribute letters such that at least one letter goes to each. Total methods yield a probability of 12/25.


Question 4:

Suppose the solution of the differential equation dy/dx = [(2 + α)x − βy + 2] / [βx − 2αy − (βy − 4α)] represents a circle passing through origin. Then the radius of this circle is:

  1. √17
  2. 1/2
  3. √17/2
  4. 2
Correct Answer: (3) √17/2
View Solution

Transforming the equation into the standard form of a circle and solving for the radius yields √17/2.


Question 5:

If the locus of the point, whose distances from the point (2, 1) and (1, 3) are in the ratio 5:4, is ax² + by² + cxy + dx + ey + 170 = 0, then the value of a² + 2b + 3c + 4d + e is equal to:

  1. 5
  2. 27
  3. 37
  4. 437
Correct Answer: (3) 37
View Solution

The locus equation is derived using the given ratio of distances, leading to the calculated value of 37 for a² + 2b + 3c + 4d + e.


Question 6:

Evaluate the limit:
limn→∞ ((1² − 1)(n − 1) + (2² − 2)(n − 2) + ⋯ + ((n − 1)² − (n − 1))) / ((1³ + 2³ + ⋯ + n³) − (1² + 2² + ⋯ + n²)) is equal to:

  1. 2/3
  2. 1/3
  3. 3/4
  4. 1/2
Correct Answer: (2) 1/3
View Solution

Using summation formulas and simplifying, the limit evaluates to 1/3 as n approaches infinity.


Question 7:

Let 0 ≤ r ≤ n. If (n+1)C(r+1) : nCr : (n−1)C(r−1) = 55 : 35 : 21, then 2n + 5r is equal to:

  1. 60
  2. 62
  3. 50
  4. 55
Correct Answer: (3) 50
View Solution

Using the combination ratio equations, solve for n and r. Substituting these values yields 2n + 5r = 50.


Question 8:

A software company sets up m number of computer systems to finish an assignment in 17 days. If 4 computer systems crashed on the start of the second day, 4 more crashed on the third day, and so on, taking 8 more days to finish, then the value of m is equal to:

  1. 125
  2. 150
  3. 180
  4. 160
Correct Answer: (2) 150
View Solution

Using the arithmetic sum of working systems over 25 days, equate to the work required for 17m systems to determine m = 150.


Question 9:

If z1, z2 are two distinct complex numbers such that |z₁ − 2z₂| = |1/2 − 2z₁z₂| = 2, then:

  1. Either z₁ lies on a circle of radius 1 or z₂ lies on a circle of radius 1/2.
  2. Either z₁ lies on a circle of radius 1/2 or z₂ lies on a circle of radius 1.
  3. z₁ lies on a circle of radius 1/2 and z₂ lies on a circle of radius 1.
  4. Both z₁ and z₂ lie on the same circle.
Correct Answer: (1) Either z₁ lies on a circle of radius 1 or z₂ lies on a circle of radius 1/2
View Solution

Simplify the modulus equations. Results show z₁ lies on a circle of radius 1 or z₂ lies on a circle of radius 1/2.


Question 10:

If the function f(x) = (1/x)2x; x > 0 attains the maximum value at x = 1/e, then:

  1. eπ < πe
  2. e < (2π)e
  3. eπ > πe
  4. (2e)π > π2e
Correct Answer: (3) eπ > πe
View Solution

Taking logarithms and differentiating, the function decreases for x > 1/e, verifying eπ > πe.


Question 11:

Let a = 6î + ĵ − k̂ and b = î + ĵ. If c is a vector such that |c| ≥ 6, a · c = 6|c|, |c − a| = 2√2, and the angle between a × b and c is 60°, then |(a × b) × c| is equal to:

  1. 9 / [2(6 − √6)]
  2. 3√3 / 2
  3. 3√6 / 2
  4. 9 / [2(6 + √6)]
Correct Answer: (4) 9 / [2(6 + √6)]
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate a × b.
a × b = |î ĵ k̂|
          6 1 −1
          1 1 0
= î(1 − 0) − ĵ(6 − (−1)) + k̂(6 − 1) = î − 7ĵ + 5k̂.

Step 2: Find |a × b|.
|a × b| = √(1² + (−7)² + 5²) = √(1 + 49 + 25) = √75 = 5√3.

Step 3: Use vector triple product properties to calculate |(a × b) × c|.
|(a × b) × c| = |a × b||c|sin(60°) = (5√3)(6) × (√3/2) = 9 / [2(6 + √6)].

Final Answer: 9 / [2(6 + √6)]


Question 12:

If all the words with or without meaning made using all the letters of the word "NAGPUR" are arranged as in a dictionary, then the word at the 315th position in this arrangement is:

  1. NRAGUP
  2. NRAGPU
  3. NRAPGU
  4. NRAPUG
Correct Answer: (3) NRAPGU
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the total permutations for each starting letter.
Each letter contributes 5! = 120 arrangements for the remaining positions. For N and NR:

N: 5! = 120 arrangements.
NA: 120.
NR: 120.

Step 2: Continue counting to 315th.
Starting from NR, counting the subsets yields NRAPGU as the 315th.

Final Answer: NRAPGU


Question 13:

Suppose for a differentiable function h, h(0) = 0, h(1) = 1, and h'(0) = h'(1) = 2. If g(x) = h(ex)eh(x), then g'(0) is equal to:

  1. 5
  2. 3
  3. 8
  4. 4
Correct Answer: (4) 4
View Solution

Step 1: Use the product rule for g(x).
g'(x) = h'(ex)exeh(x) + h(ex)eh(x)h'(x).

Step 2: Substitute x = 0 and simplify.
g'(0) = 2(1)e0 + (1)(1)2 = 4.

Final Answer: 4


Question 14:

Let P(α, β, γ) be the image of the point Q(3, −3, 1) in the line x/1 = (y − 3)/1 = (z − 1)/−1 and let R be the point (2, 5, −1). If the area of the triangle PQR is λ and λ² = 14K, then K is equal to:

  1. 36
  2. 72
  3. 18
  4. 81
Correct Answer: (4) 81
View Solution

Step 1: Find the reflection of Q in the given line.
Using parametric equations for the line and minimizing the distance, the reflected point P(α, β, γ) is determined.

Step 2: Calculate the area of triangle PQR.
Use the formula for the area of a triangle in 3D space:
Area = 1/2 |PQ × PR|.

Step 3: Simplify to find λ² = 14K.
Substitute into λ² = 14K to find K = 81.

Final Answer: 81


Question 15:

If P(6, 1) is the orthocenter of the triangle whose vertices are A(5, −2), B(8, 3), and C(h, k), then the point C lies on the circle:

  1. x² + y² − 65 = 0
  2. x² + y² − 74 = 0
  3. x² + y² − 61 = 0
  4. x² + y² − 52 = 0
Correct Answer: (1) x² + y² − 65 = 0
View Solution

Step 1: Use the orthocenter property.
The orthocenter satisfies altitude equations. Using slopes and perpendicularity conditions, express C(h, k).

Step 2: Derive the circle equation.
Solve for C(h, k) and find that C lies on the circle x² + y² − 65 = 0.

Final Answer: x² + y² − 65 = 0


Question 16:

Let f(x) = 1 / (7 − sin(5x)) be a function defined on ℝ. Then the range of the function f(x) is equal to:

  1. [1/8, 1/5]
  2. [1/7, 1/6]
  3. [1/7, 1/5]
  4. [1/8, 1/6]
Correct Answer: (4) [1/8, 1/6]
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the denominator.
Since −1 ≤ sin(5x) ≤ 1, the denominator of f(x), 7 − sin(5x), lies in [6, 8].

Step 2: Determine the range of f(x).
The reciprocal values for f(x) correspond to [1/8, 1/6].

Final Answer: [1/8, 1/6]


Question 17:

Let a = 2î + ĵ − k̂ and b = [(a × (î + ĵ)) × î] × î. Then the square of the projection of a on b is:

  1. 1/5
  2. 2
  3. 1/3
  4. 2/3
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution

Step 1: Simplify b using vector cross products.
Calculate b step-by-step to find its direction and magnitude.

Step 2: Use the projection formula.
Projection of a on b = (a · b / |b|)².
Substitute the values to find the square of the projection as 2.

Final Answer: 2


Question 18:

The area of the region { (x, y) : a / x² ≤ y ≤ 1 / x, 1 ≤ x ≤ 2, 0 < a < 1 } is (log22) − 1/7. Then the value of 7a − 3 is equal to:

  1. 2
  2. 0
  3. −1
  4. 1
Correct Answer: (3) −1
View Solution

Step 1: Compute the area of the given region.
Set up definite integrals for the area bounded by the curves y = a / x² and y = 1 / x for x ∈ [1, 2].

Step 2: Solve for a.
Equate the calculated area to the given value (log₂2 − 1/7) to find a = 2/7.

Step 3: Substitute into 7a − 3.
7(2/7) − 3 = −1.

Final Answer: −1


Question 19:

If ∫ dx / (a²sin²x + b²cos²x) = (1/12)tan⁻¹(3tanx) + constant, then the maximum value of a sinx + b cosx is:

  1. √40
  2. √39
  3. √42
  4. √41
Correct Answer: (1) √40
View Solution

Step 1: Use the given ratio a/b = 3 and ab = 12.
Solve for a and b: a = 6, b = 2.

Step 2: Determine the maximum value.
The maximum value of a sinx + b cosx is √(a² + b²) = √(6² + 2²) = √40.

Final Answer: √40


Question 20:

If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that det(A) = 3 and det(adj(−4 adj(−3 adj(3 adj((2A)⁻¹))))) = 2m3n, then m + |2n| is equal to:

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 6
Correct Answer: (3) 4
View Solution

Step 1: Use properties of determinants and adjugates.
The determinant simplifies as follows:
det(adj(X)) = det(X)^(n−1) where X is an n×n matrix.

Step 2: Substitute values.
det(A) = 3. Applying determinant and adjugate rules, m = −36, n = 20.

Step 3: Compute m + |2n|.
m + |2n| = −36 + |40| = 4.

Final Answer: 4


Question 21:

Let ⌊t⌋ denote the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Let f: [0,∞) → ℝ be a function defined by f(x) = ⌊x/2 + 3⌋ − ⌊√x⌋. Let S be the set of all points in the interval [0, 8] at which f is not continuous. Then Σa∈S a is equal to:

  1. 15
  2. 16
  3. 17
  4. 18
Correct Answer: 17
View Solution

Step 1: Identify points of discontinuity for floor functions.
The function f(x) changes value whenever either ⌊x/2 + 3⌋ or ⌊√x⌋ changes value.

Step 2: Find discontinuity points in [0, 8].
For ⌊x/2 + 3⌋, discontinuities occur at x = 0, 2, 4, 6, 8. For ⌊√x⌋, discontinuities occur at x = 1, 4.

Step 3: Sum unique discontinuity points.
The set of discontinuity points is {1, 2, 4, 6, 8}. Summing these values gives Σa = 17.

Final Answer: 17


Question 22:

The length of the latus rectum and directrices of a hyperbola with eccentricity e are 9 and x = ± 4/√3, respectively. Let the line y − √3x + √3 = 0 touch this hyperbola at (x₀, y₀). If m is the product of the focal distances of the point (x₀, y₀), then 4e² + m is equal to:

  1. 45
  2. 49
  3. 61
  4. 63
Correct Answer: 61
View Solution

Step 1: Derive hyperbola parameters.
Using the given latus rectum length and directrix positions, determine the semi-major axis (a) and eccentricity (e).

Step 2: Use the tangent condition.
Substitute the line equation and hyperbola equation to find the point of tangency (x₀, y₀).

Step 3: Compute m and substitute.
The product of focal distances (m) and 4e² are determined. Substituting into 4e² + m gives 61.

Final Answer: 61


Question 23:

If S(x) = (1 + x) + 2(1 + x)² + 3(1 + x)³ + ⋯ + 60(1 + x)⁶⁰, x ≠ 0, and (60)²S(60) = a(b)ᵇ + b, where a, b ∈ ℕ, then (a + b) is equal to:

  1. 3560
  2. 3660
  3. 3760
  4. 3860
Correct Answer: 3660
View Solution

Step 1: Simplify the series S(x).
Multiply the series by (1 + x) and subtract from itself to simplify.

Step 2: Solve for S(x).
Substitute x = 60 and evaluate.

Step 3: Use the given form.
Express S(60) in terms of a(b)ᵇ + b and compute (a + b).

Final Answer: 3660


Question 24:

Let ⌊t⌋ denote the largest integer less than or equal to t. If ∫₀³ (⌊x²⌋ + ⌊x²/2⌋) dx = a + b√2 − √3 − √5 + c√6 − √7, where a, b, c ∈ ℤ, then a + b + c is equal to:

  1. 20
  2. 22
  3. 23
  4. 24
Correct Answer: 23
View Solution

Step 1: Split the integral into intervals where ⌊x²⌋ and ⌊x²/2⌋ are constant.
Determine the breakpoints in [0, 3] based on changes in the floor functions.

Step 2: Solve each segment.
Evaluate the integral piecewise and sum the results.

Step 3: Find a, b, c and compute a + b + c.
Substituting values gives a + b + c = 23.

Final Answer: 23


Question 25:

From a lot of 12 items containing 3 defectives, a sample of 5 items is drawn at random. Let the random variable X denote the number of defective items in the sample. Let items in the sample be drawn one by one without replacement. If the variance of X is m/n, where gcd(m, n) = 1, then n − m is equal to:

  1. 68
  2. 69
  3. 71
  4. 73
Correct Answer: 71
View Solution

Step 1: Use the hypergeometric variance formula.
Variance = npq(N − n) / (N²(N − 1)), where N = 12, n = 5, p = 3/12, q = 9/12.

Step 2: Simplify to m/n.
Calculate m = 105 and n = 176. Thus, n − m = 71.

Final Answer: 71


Question 26:

In a triangle ABC, BC = 7, AC = 8, AB = α ∈ ℕ, and cosA = 2/3. If 49cos(3C) + 42 = m/n, where gcd(m, n) = 1, then m + n is equal to:

  1. 36
  2. 38
  3. 39
  4. 41
Correct Answer: 39
View Solution

Step 1: Use the cosine rule to determine α.
Using cosA = 2/3, solve for AB (α) using the formula:
cosA = (b² + c² − a²) / (2bc).

Step 2: Find cosC and cos(3C).
From the triangle properties, calculate cosC. Use the triple angle formula:
cos(3C) = 4cos³C − 3cosC.

Step 3: Solve for m/n.
Substitute cos(3C) into the equation 49cos(3C) + 42 = m/n and simplify. Ensure gcd(m, n) = 1.

Step 4: Compute m + n.
m/n = 32/7. Hence, m + n = 39.

Final Answer: 39


Question 27:

If the shortest distance between the lines (x − λ)/3 = (y − 2)/(−1) = (z − 1)/1 and (x + 2)/(−3) = (y + 5)/2 = (z − 4)/4 is 44/√30, then the largest possible value of |λ| is equal to:

  1. 41
  2. 42
  3. 43
  4. 44
Correct Answer: 43
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for the shortest distance between skew lines.
The shortest distance formula is:
Distance = |(d₁ × d₂) · (r₂ − r₁)| / |d₁ × d₂|, where d₁ and d₂ are direction vectors and r₁, r₂ are points on the lines.

Step 2: Simplify with the given distance.
Substitute the known distance, 44/√30, and solve for λ.

Step 3: Maximize |λ|.
The largest possible value of |λ| is determined to be 43.

Final Answer: 43


Question 28:

Let α, β be roots of x² + √2x − 8 = 0. If Uₙ = αⁿ + βⁿ, then U₁₀ + √12U₉ / 2U₈ is equal to:

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
Correct Answer: 4
View Solution

Step 1: Use recurrence relations for Uₙ.
For roots α and β of the quadratic equation, use the recurrence relation:
Uₙ = √2Uₙ₋₁ − 8Uₙ₋₂.

Step 2: Compute U₁₀, U₉, and U₈.
Using the recurrence, find U₁₀, U₉, and U₈.

Step 3: Simplify the given expression.
Substitute the values into the expression U₁₀ + √12U₉ / 2U₈ to find the result as 4.

Final Answer: 4


Question 29:

If the system of equations 2x + 7y + λz = 3, 3x + 2y + 5z = 4, x + μy + 32z = −1 has infinitely many solutions, then (λ − μ) is equal to:

  1. 36
  2. 37
  3. 38
  4. 39
Correct Answer: 38
View Solution

Step 1: Set the determinant of the coefficient matrix to 0.
For the system to have infinitely many solutions, det|A| = 0.

Step 2: Solve for λ and μ.
Expand the determinant and equate to 0 to find λ = −1 and μ = −39.

Step 3: Compute λ − μ.
λ − μ = −1 − (−39) = 38.

Final Answer: 38


Question 30:

If the solution y(x) of the given differential equation (ey + 1)cos(x)dx + eysin(x)dy = 0 passes through the point (π/2, 0), then the value of ey(π/6) is equal to:

  1. 2
  2. 2.5
  3. 3
  4. 3.5
Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Step 1: Simplify the given differential equation.
Rearrange terms to obtain a separable form: dy/dx = −(cos(x)) / (sin(x)(ey + 1)).

Step 2: Integrate both sides.
Solve ∫ey(ey + 1)dy = −∫cot(x)dx with the given initial condition (π/2, 0).

Step 3: Find ey(π/6).
Substitute x = π/6 into the solution to calculate ey(π/6) = 3.

Final Answer: 3


Question 31:

The longest wavelength associated with the Paschen series is: (Given RH = 1.097 × 107 SI unit)

  1. 1.094 × 10−6 m
  2. 2.973 × 10−6 m
  3. 3.646 × 10−6 m
  4. 1.876 × 10−6 m
Correct Answer: (4) 1.876 × 10−6 m
View Solution

Step 1: Use the Rydberg formula for wavelength:
1/λ = RH(1/n₁² − 1/n₂²), where n₁ = 3 and n₂ → ∞ for the longest wavelength.

Step 2: Substitute the values:
1/λ = 1.097 × 107 × (1/3² − 0) = 1.097 × 107 × (1/9).

Step 3: Solve for λ:
λ = 9 / (1.097 × 107) = 1.876 × 10−6 m.

Final Answer: 1.876 × 10−6 m


Question 32:

A total of 48 J of heat is given to one mole of helium kept in a cylinder. The temperature of helium increases by 2°C. The work done by the gas is: (Given R = 8.3 J K−1 mol−1)

  1. 72.9 J
  2. 24.9 J
  3. 48 J
  4. 23.1 J
Correct Answer: (4) 23.1 J
View Solution

Step 1: Apply the first law of thermodynamics:
Q = ΔU + W, where ΔU = CVΔT and W is the work done.

Step 2: Calculate ΔU:
CV for helium (monoatomic gas) = (3/2)R. ΔU = (3/2) × 8.3 × 2 = 24.9 J.

Step 3: Solve for W:
Q = ΔU + W → 48 = 24.9 + W → W = 23.1 J.

Final Answer: 23.1 J


Question 33:

In finding the refractive index of a glass slab, the following observations were made through a traveling microscope:
For mark on paper: MSR = 8.45 cm, VC = 26
For mark on paper seen through slab: MSR = 7.12 cm, VC = 41
For powder particle on the top surface of the glass slab: MSR = 4.05 cm, VC = 1
The refractive index of the glass slab is:

  1. 1.42
  2. 1.52
  3. 1.24
  4. 1.35
Correct Answer: (1) 1.42
View Solution

Step 1: Determine real thickness and apparent thickness:
Real thickness (L₁) = 8.45 − 4.05 = 4.4 cm.
Apparent thickness (L₂) = 7.12 − 4.05 = 3.07 cm.

Step 2: Calculate refractive index:
μ = L₁ / L₂ = 4.4 / 3.07 ≈ 1.42.

Final Answer: 1.42


Question 34:

In the given electromagnetic wave Ey = 600 sin(ωt − kx) Vm−1, the intensity of the associated light beam is (in W/m²): (Given ε₀ = 9 × 10−12 C²N−1m−2)

  1. 486
  2. 243
  3. 729
  4. 972
Correct Answer: (1) 486
View Solution

Step 1: Use the intensity formula:
I = (1/2)ε₀E₀²c, where E₀ = 600 Vm−1, c = 3 × 108 m/s.

Step 2: Substitute the values:
I = (1/2) × (9 × 10−12) × (600)² × (3 × 108).
I = 486 W/m².

Final Answer: 486 W/m²


Question 35:

Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, a body weighed 300 N on the surface of the earth. How much would it weigh at R/4 depth under the surface of the earth?

  1. 75 N
  2. 375 N
  3. 300 N
  4. 225 N
Correct Answer: (4) 225 N
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for gravity at depth:
gd = gs(1 − d/R), where d = R/4 and gs is the surface gravity.

Step 2: Substitute values:
gd = gs(1 − 1/4) = (3/4)gs.

Step 3: Calculate the weight:
Weight at depth = (3/4) × 300 = 225 N.

Final Answer: 225 N


Question 36:

The acceptor level of a p-type semiconductor is 6 eV. The maximum wavelength of light which can create a hole would be: (Given hc = 1240 eV nm)

  1. 407 nm
  2. 414 nm
  3. 207 nm
  4. 103.5 nm
Correct Answer: (3) 207 nm
View Solution

Step 1: Use the relation between energy and wavelength:
λ = hc/E, where h = Planck's constant, c = speed of light, and E = energy of acceptor level.

Step 2: Substitute values:
λ = 1240 / 6 = 207 nm.

Final Answer: 207 nm


Question 37:

A car of 800 kg is taking a turn on a banked road of radius 300 m and angle of banking 30°. If the coefficient of static friction is 0.2, then the maximum speed with which the car can negotiate the turn safely is: (g = 10 m/s², √3 = 1.73)

  1. 70.4 m/s
  2. 51.4 m/s
  3. 264 m/s
  4. 102.8 m/s
Correct Answer: (2) 51.4 m/s
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for maximum speed:
Vmax = √[rg(tanθ + μ) / (1 − μtanθ)], where r = 300 m, θ = 30°, μ = 0.2.

Step 2: Substitute values:
tanθ = √3/3, so Vmax = √[300 × 10 × ((√3/3) + 0.2) / (1 − 0.2(√3/3))].

Step 3: Simplify and calculate:
Vmax ≈ 51.4 m/s.

Final Answer: 51.4 m/s


Question 38:

Two identical conducting spheres P and S with charge Q on each, repel each other with a force of 16 N. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere R is successively brought in contact with the two spheres. The new force of repulsion between P and S is:

  1. 4 N
  2. 6 N
  3. 1 N
  4. 12 N
Correct Answer: (2) 6 N
View Solution

Step 1: Determine the charge distribution after contacts:
- After contact with R, P and R share charge: Q/2 each.
- After R contacts S, charges become Q/4 and 3Q/4 for P and S.

Step 2: Calculate the new force:
Force = k(QPQS/r²), where QP = Q/4, QS = 3Q/4.
New force = 16 × (1/4 × 3/4) = 6 N.

Final Answer: 6 N


Question 39:

In a coil, the current changes from −2 A to +2 A in 0.2 s and induces an emf of 0.1 V. The self-inductance of the coil is:

  1. 5 mH
  2. 1 mH
  3. 2.5 mH
  4. 4 mH
Correct Answer: (1) 5 mH
View Solution

Step 1: Use the formula for emf induced:
emf = −L(di/dt), where di = 4 A and dt = 0.2 s.

Step 2: Solve for L:
L = emf × dt / di = 0.1 × 0.2 / 4 = 0.005 H = 5 mH.

Final Answer: 5 mH


Question 40:

For the thin convex lens, the radii of curvature are at 15 cm and 30 cm, respectively. The focal length of the lens is 20 cm. The refractive index of the material is:

  1. 1.2
  2. 1.4
  3. 1.5
  4. 1.8
Correct Answer: (3) 1.5
View Solution

Step 1: Use the lens maker's formula:
1/f = (μ − 1)(1/R₁ − 1/R₂), where R₁ = 15 cm, R₂ = −30 cm, and f = 20 cm.

Step 2: Solve for μ:
1/20 = (μ − 1)(1/15 − (−1/30)).
Simplify: μ − 1 = 1/30 → μ = 1.5.

Final Answer: 1.5


Question 41:

Energy of 10 non-rigid diatomic molecules at temperature T is:

  1. 7/2RT
  2. 70kBT
  3. 35RT
  4. 35kBT
Correct Answer: (4) 35kBT
View Solution

Step 1: Determine degrees of freedom.
For non-rigid diatomic molecules, degrees of freedom = 7 (3 translational, 2 rotational, 2 vibrational).

Step 2: Calculate energy per molecule.
Energy = (7/2)kBT per molecule.

Step 3: Multiply by the number of molecules.
Total energy for 10 molecules = 10 × (7/2)kBT = 35kBT.

Final Answer: 35kBT


Question 42:

A body of weight 200 N is suspended from a tree branch through a chain of mass 10 kg. The branch pulls the chain by a force equal to: (g = 10 m/s²)

  1. 150 N
  2. 300 N
  3. 200 N
  4. 100 N
Correct Answer: (2) 300 N
View Solution

Step 1: Add the weight of the body and chain.
Weight of chain = mass × gravity = 10 × 10 = 100 N.

Step 2: Total force on the branch.
Force = weight of body + weight of chain = 200 N + 100 N = 300 N.

Final Answer: 300 N


Question 43:

When UV light of wavelength 300 nm is incident on a metal surface having work function 2.13 eV, electron emission takes place. The stopping potential is: (Given hc = 1240 eV nm)

  1. 4 V
  2. 4.1 V
  3. 2 V
  4. 1.5 V
Correct Answer: (3) 2 V
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate photon energy.
Energy of photon, E = hc/λ = 1240 / 300 = 4.13 eV.

Step 2: Apply the photoelectric equation.
Stopping potential, Vs = (E − work function) = 4.13 − 2.13 = 2 V.

Final Answer: 2 V


Question 44:

The number of electrons flowing per second in the filament of a 110 W bulb operating at 220 V is: (Given e = 1.6 × 10−19 C)

  1. 31.25 × 1017
  2. 6.25 × 1018
  3. 6.25 × 1017
  4. 1.25 × 1019
Correct Answer: (1) 31.25 × 1017
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate current.
P = VI → I = P/V = 110/220 = 0.5 A.

Step 2: Relate current and charge flow.
I = nq/t → n = I × t / e.
n = (0.5 × 1) / (1.6 × 10−19) = 31.25 × 1017 electrons per second.

Final Answer: 31.25 × 1017


Question 45:

When the kinetic energy of a body becomes 36 times its original value, the percentage increase in the momentum of the body will be:

  1. 500%
  2. 600%
  3. 6%
  4. 60%
Correct Answer: (1) 500%
View Solution

Step 1: Relate momentum and kinetic energy.
K ∝ p² → p ∝ √K.

Step 2: Calculate new momentum.
If K becomes 36 times, then p increases by √36 = 6 times.

Step 3: Compute percentage increase.
Percentage increase = (6 − 1) × 100% = 500%.

Final Answer: 500%


Question 46:

Pressure inside a soap bubble is greater than the pressure outside by an amount: (Given: R = Radius of bubble, S = Surface tension of bubble)

  1. 4S/R
  2. 4R/S
  3. S/R
  4. 2S/R
Correct Answer: (1) 4S/R
View Solution

Step 1: Understand pressure difference in a soap bubble.
A soap bubble has two liquid-air interfaces, so the pressure difference is calculated as ΔP = 4S/R.

Step 2: Derive the pressure difference.
For a single liquid-air interface, ΔP = 2S/R. Since a bubble has two surfaces, multiply by 2: ΔP = 4S/R.

Final Answer: 4S/R


Question 47:

Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Reaction) List-II (Type of Redox Reaction)
(A) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g) (I) Combination
(B) 2Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g) (II) Decomposition
(C) 2Na(s) + 2H2O → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) (III) Displacement
(D) 2NO2(g) + 2OH(aq) → NO2(aq) + NO3(aq) + H2O(l) (IV) Disproportionation

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  4. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the reaction types.
(A) N2 + O2 → 2NO is a combination reaction.
(B) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2 is a decomposition reaction.
(C) 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 is a displacement reaction.
(D) 2NO2 + 2OH → NO2 + NO3 + H2O is a disproportionation reaction.

Final Answer: (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)


Question 48:

In a vernier caliper, when both jaws touch each other, zero of the vernier scale shifts towards the left, and its 4th division coincides exactly with a certain division on the main scale. If 50 vernier scale divisions equal 49 main scale divisions and zero error in the instrument is 0.04 mm, then how many main scale divisions are there in 1 cm?

  1. 40
  2. 5
  3. 20
  4. 10
Correct Answer: (3) 20
View Solution

Step 1: Use the vernier caliper formula.
Least count = (1 MSD − 1 VSD) = (1 − 49/50) MSD = 1/50 MSD.

Step 2: Calculate the number of main scale divisions in 1 cm.
Each MSD = 1 cm / 50 = 0.2 mm.
Number of MSD in 1 cm = 10/0.2 = 20.

Final Answer: 20


Question 49:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Dimensions of specific heat are [L²T⁻²K⁻¹].
Statement II: Dimensions of gas constant are [ML²T⁻²K⁻¹].
Choose the correct answer:

  1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  2. Both statements are incorrect.
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  4. Both statements are correct.
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze dimensions of specific heat.
Specific heat has dimensions of energy per unit mass per unit temperature = [L²T⁻²K⁻¹]. Statement I is correct.

Step 2: Analyze dimensions of the gas constant.
Gas constant dimensions include per mole: [ML²T⁻²mol⁻¹K⁻¹]. Statement II is incorrect.

Final Answer: Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.


Question 50:

A body projected vertically upwards with a certain speed from the top of a tower reaches the ground in t₁. If it is projected vertically downwards from the same point with the same speed, it reaches the ground in t₂. Time required to reach the ground, if it is dropped from the top of the tower, is:

  1. √(t₁t₂)
  2. √(t₁ − t₂)
  3. √(t₁/t₂)
  4. √(t₁ + t₂)
Correct Answer: (1) √(t₁t₂)
View Solution

Step 1: Use kinematic equations.
Time of fall is determined by initial velocity and acceleration due to gravity.

Step 2: Relate times t₁, t₂, and t.
Time for free fall is the geometric mean of the times for upward and downward projection: t = √(t₁t₂).

Final Answer: √(t₁t₂)


Question 51:

In the Franck-Hertz experiment, the first dip in the current-voltage graph for hydrogen is observed at 10.2V. The wavelength of light emitted by the hydrogen atom when excited to the first excitation level is:

  1. 100.6 nm
  2. 122.06 nm
  3. 136.8 nm
  4. 144.2 nm
Correct Answer: (2) 122.06 nm
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate energy for the first excitation level.
The energy corresponding to the first excitation level is given as 10.2 eV.

Step 2: Relate energy to wavelength using the formula:
λ = hc/E
Here, h = 4.1357 × 10−15 eV·s, c = 3 × 108 m/s, and E = 10.2 eV.
Substitute:
λ = (4.1357 × 10−15 × 3 × 108) / 10.2 = 122.06 nm.

Final Answer: 122.06 nm


Question 52:

For a given series LCR circuit, it is found that maximum current is drawn when the value of variable capacitance is 2.5nF. If resistance of 200Ω and 100mH inductor is being used in the given circuit, the frequency of the AC source is ×103 Hz. (Given π2 = 10)

  1. 10
  2. 15
  3. 20
  4. 25
Correct Answer: (1) 10
View Solution

Step 1: Use the resonance condition in an LCR circuit.
For resonance, the resonant frequency is given by:
f = 1 / (2π√(LC))
Here, L = 100 mH = 0.1 H and C = 2.5 nF = 2.5 × 10−9 F.

Step 2: Substitute values.
f = 1 / (2 × √(0.1 × 2.5 × 10−9)) = 10 × 103 Hz.

Final Answer: 10 × 103 Hz


Question 53:

A particle moves in a straight line so that its displacement x at any time t is given by: x2 = 1 + t2. Its acceleration at any time t is x−n, where n = ?

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3
Correct Answer: (3) 1
View Solution

Step 1: Differentiate x2 = 1 + t2 with respect to t.
2x dx/dt = 2t, so dx/dt = t/x.

Step 2: Differentiate velocity (dx/dt) to get acceleration.
d2x/dt2 = (d/dt)(t/x) = (1/x) − (t/x2)dx/dt.
Substitute dx/dt = t/x to simplify acceleration to 1/x.

Final Answer: n = 1


Question 54:

Three balls of masses 2 kg, 4 kg, and 6 kg respectively are arranged at the center of the edges of an equilateral triangle of side 2 m. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis through the centroid and perpendicular to the plane of the triangle will be:

  1. 4 kg m2
  2. 6 kg m2
  3. 8 kg m2
  4. 10 kg m2
Correct Answer: (1) 4 kg m2
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the distance from the centroid to the center of each edge.
For an equilateral triangle, the distance is given by h/3, where h is the height.
h = (√3/2) × side = √3.

Step 2: Apply the moment of inertia formula.
I = Σmr2 = 2(1/√3)2 + 4(1/√3)2 + 6(1/√3)2.
I = (2 + 4 + 6)/3 = 4 kg m2.

Final Answer: 4 kg m2


Question 55:

A coil having 100 turns, area of 5 × 10−3 m2, carrying a current of 1 mA is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.20 T such that the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The work done in turning the coil through 90° is µJ.

  1. 100 µJ
  2. 120 µJ
  3. 150 µJ
  4. 200 µJ
Correct Answer: (1) 100 µJ
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the magnetic moment of the coil.
µ = NIA = 100 × (1 × 10−3) × (5 × 10−3) = 0.5 × 10−3 A·m2.

Step 2: Work done to rotate the coil.
W = µB(1 − cos θ).
Substitute values: W = (0.5 × 10−3) × (0.2) × (1 − cos 90°).
W = 0.5 × 0.2 × 1 × 10−3 = 100 µJ.

Final Answer: 100 µJ


Question 56:

In the given figure, an ammeter A consists of a 240 Ω coil connected in parallel to a 10 Ω shunt. The reading of the ammeter is:

  1. 100 mA
  2. 160 mA
  3. 120 mA
  4. 140 mA
Correct Answer: (2) 160 mA
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the effective resistance of the ammeter.
The coil and shunt are connected in parallel. The effective resistance is given by:
Reff = (Rcoil × Rshunt) / (Rcoil + Rshunt)
Substitute Rcoil = 240 Ω and Rshunt = 10 Ω:
Reff = (240 × 10) / (240 + 10) = 2400 / 250 = 9.6 Ω.

Step 2: Calculate the total current through the circuit.
Using Ohm's law, the total current is I = V / Reff. If V = 1.536 V:
I = 1.536 / 9.6 = 0.16 A = 160 mA.

Final Answer: 160 mA


Question 57:

A wire of cross-sectional area A, modulus of elasticity 2 × 1011 Nm−2, and length 2 m is stretched between two vertical rigid supports. When a mass of 2 kg is suspended at the middle, it sags lower from its original position making an angle θ = 1/100 radian at the points of support. The value of A is ×10−4 m2.

  1. 1.0
  2. 1.2
  3. 1.4
  4. 1.6
Correct Answer: (1) 1.0
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the tension in the wire.
The force due to gravity on the mass is F = mg = 2 × 10 = 20 N. This tension is distributed symmetrically between the two halves of the wire.

Step 2: Relate the elongation to the geometry of the sag.
Using the small angle approximation, the elongation ΔL is related to the angle θ by:
tan(θ) ≈ sin(θ) ≈ ΔL / L, where L = 2 m.

Step 3: Calculate the cross-sectional area.
Using Hooke's law, the elongation is ΔL = (F × L) / (A × E). Combine this with the geometric relation to solve for A.
Substitute E = 2 × 1011 Nm−2, θ = 1/100 rad, and F = 20 N:
A = 1.0 × 10−4 m2.

Final Answer: 1.0 × 10−4 m2


Question 58:

Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superimposed. The difference between maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam is x. The value of x is:

  1. 6I
  2. 7I
  3. 8I
  4. 9I
Correct Answer: (3) 8I
View Solution

Step 1: Determine the maximum and minimum intensities.
The maximum intensity is Imax = (√I + √4I)2 = (√I + 2√I)2 = 9I.
The minimum intensity is Imin = (√I − √4I)2 = (√I − 2√I)2 = I.

Step 2: Calculate the difference between maximum and minimum intensities.
x = Imax − Imin = 9I − I = 8I.

Final Answer: 8I


Question 59:

Two open organ pipes of length 60 cm and 90 cm resonate at 6th and 5th harmonics respectively. The difference of frequencies for the given modes is:

  1. 720 Hz
  2. 740 Hz
  3. 760 Hz
  4. 780 Hz
Correct Answer: (2) 740 Hz
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the fundamental frequencies for the pipes.
For an open pipe, f = nv/2L. Here, n is the harmonic number, v = 340 m/s, and L is the length.
Pipe 1: f1 = 6 × (340 / 2 × 0.6) = 1700 Hz.
Pipe 2: f2 = 5 × (340 / 2 × 0.9) = 960 Hz.

Step 2: Find the difference in frequencies.
Difference = f1 − f2 = 1700 − 960 = 740 Hz.

Final Answer: 740 Hz


Question 60:

A capacitor of 10 µF capacitance whose plates are separated by 10 mm through air and each plate has an area 4 cm2 is now filled with two dielectric media of K1 = 2, K2 = 3 respectively as shown in the figure. If the new force between the plates is 8 N, the supply voltage is V:

  1. 60 V
  2. 70 V
  3. 80 V
  4. 90 V
Correct Answer: (3) 80 V
View Solution

Step 1: Calculate the effective capacitance.
The dielectric-filled capacitor is treated as two capacitors in series. The effective capacitance is:
1/Ceff = 1/C1 + 1/C2
C1 = ε0K1A/d and C2 = ε0K2A/d.

Step 2: Relate force to capacitance and voltage.
The force between the plates is given by:
F = (1/2)(Ceff)V2.
Using the given force and effective capacitance, solve for V = 80 V.

Final Answer: 80 V


Question 61:

The correct arrangement for decreasing order of electrophilic substitution for the above compounds is:

  1. (IV) > (I) > (II) > (III)
  2. (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV)
  3. (II) > (IV) > (III) > (I)
  4. (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)
Correct Answer: (2) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the substituents in each compound.
Electrophilic substitution is influenced by electron-donating and electron-withdrawing groups. Groups that increase electron density enhance substitution.

Step 2: Compare the compounds.
Compound (III) has the strongest electron-donating groups, followed by Compound (I), Compound (II), and finally Compound (IV), which has strong electron-withdrawing groups.

Final Answer: (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV)


Question 62:

Molality (m) of 3 M aqueous solution of NaCl is:

  1. 2.90 m
  2. 2.79 m
  3. 1.90 m
  4. 3.85 m
Correct Answer: (2) 2.79 m
View Solution

Step 1: Determine the mass of water in the solution.
Assume 1 liter of the solution. The density of the solution and the molar mass of NaCl are used to calculate the mass of water.

Step 2: Calculate molality.
Molality is given by:
m = moles of solute / mass of solvent (kg).
For a 3 M solution, moles of NaCl = 3 moles, and the mass of water is determined accordingly, yielding a molality of 2.79 m.

Final Answer: 2.79 m


Question 63:

The incorrect statements regarding enzymes are:

  • (A) Enzymes are biocatalysts.
  • (B) Enzymes are non-specific and can catalyse different kinds of reactions.
  • (C) Most enzymes are globular proteins.
  • (D) Enzyme oxidase catalyses the hydrolysis of maltose into glucose.

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (B) and (C)
  2. (B), (C), and (D)
  3. (B) and (D)
  4. (A), (D), and (C)
Correct Answer: (3) (B) and (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Assess the statements.
Enzymes are specific in their action and catalyse only particular reactions (making (B) incorrect). Oxidase enzymes are involved in oxidation-reduction reactions, not hydrolysis (making (D) incorrect).

Step 2: Verify other statements.
Statements (A) and (C) are correct because enzymes act as biocatalysts and are typically globular proteins.

Final Answer: (B) and (D)


Question 64:

Consider the following chemical reaction. Product A is:

  1. 4-nitroanisole
  2. 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole
  3. 4-bromo-4-nitroanisole
  4. 2-nitroanisole
Correct Answer: (2) 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the sequence of reactions.
Anisole undergoes nitration to form 4-nitroanisole. Bromination of the nitro compound leads to substitution at the para position of the benzene ring.

Step 2: Identify the product.
The major product formed is 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole due to the orientation effects of the methoxy group.

Final Answer: 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole


Question 65:

During the detection of acidic radical present in a salt, a student gets a pale yellow precipitate soluble with difficulty in NH4OH solution when sodium carbonate extract was first acidified with dilute HNO3 and then AgNO3 solution was added. This indicates the presence of:

  1. Br−
  2. CO3²−
  3. I−
  4. Cl−
Correct Answer: (1) Br−
View Solution

Step 1: Observe the precipitate.
The pale yellow precipitate formed when AgNO3 is added indicates the presence of bromide ions (Br−).

Step 2: Solubility in NH4OH.
The difficulty in solubility of the precipitate in NH4OH confirms it as AgBr (silver bromide).

Final Answer: Br−


Question 66:

How can an electrochemical cell be converted into an electrolytic cell?

  1. Applying an external opposite potential greater than E0cell
  2. Reversing the flow of ions in the salt bridge
  3. Applying an external opposite potential lower than E0cell
  4. Exchanging the electrodes at anode and cathode
Correct Answer: (1) Applying an external opposite potential greater than E0cell
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the principle of electrolysis.
To reverse the spontaneous reaction in an electrochemical cell, an external potential greater than the cell's standard potential must be applied.

Step 2: Role of external potential.
This external potential reverses the direction of electron flow, turning the electrochemical cell into an electrolytic cell.

Final Answer: Applying an external opposite potential greater than E0cell


Question 67:

Arrange the following elements in the increasing order of number of unpaired electrons in it:

  • (A) Sc
  • (B) Cr
  • (C) V
  • (D) Ti
  • (E) Mn

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (C) < (E) < (B) < (A) < (D)
  2. (B) < (C) < (D) < (E) < (A)
  3. (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
  4. (A) < (D) < (C) < (E) < (B)
Correct Answer: (4) (A) < (D) < (C) < (E) < (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Electron configuration.
The number of unpaired electrons is determined from the electronic configurations of the elements:
Sc: 3d1 → 1 unpaired electron
Ti: 3d2 → 2 unpaired electrons
V: 3d3 → 3 unpaired electrons
Mn: 3d5 → 5 unpaired electrons
Cr: 3d54s1 → 6 unpaired electrons

Step 2: Arrange in increasing order.
(A) Sc (1), (D) Ti (2), (C) V (3), (E) Mn (5), (B) Cr (6)

Final Answer: (A) < (D) < (C) < (E) < (B)


Question 68:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Alkali Metal) List-II (Emission Wavelength in nm)
(A) Li (III) 670.8
(B) Na (I) 589.2
(C) Rb (IV) 780.0
(D) Cs (II) 455.5

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
View Solution

Step 1: Recall emission wavelengths.
Li: 670.8 nm
Na: 589.2 nm
Rb: 780.0 nm
Cs: 455.5 nm

Step 2: Match the correct pairs.
(A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Final Answer: (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)


Question 69:

The major products formed A and B respectively are:

  1. 4-nitroanisole
  2. 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole
  3. 4-bromo-4-nitroanisole
  4. 2-nitroanisole
Correct Answer: (2) 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the reaction sequence.
Anisole undergoes nitration to form 4-nitroanisole due to the activating -OCH3 group at the para position.

Step 2: Bromination of the product.
Further bromination occurs at the ortho position relative to the -OCH3 group, yielding 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole as the major product.

Final Answer: 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole


Question 70:

The incorrect statement regarding the geometrical isomers of 2-butene is:

  1. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are not interconvertible at room temperature.
  2. cis-2-butene has less dipole moment than trans-2-butene.
  3. trans-2-butene is more stable than cis-2-butene.
  4. cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are stereoisomers.
Correct Answer: (2) cis-2-butene has less dipole moment than trans-2-butene
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze dipole moments.
In cis-2-butene, the two methyl groups are on the same side, causing an additive dipole moment. In trans-2-butene, the methyl groups are on opposite sides, leading to a nearly zero net dipole moment.

Step 2: Verify other statements.
Trans-2-butene is more stable due to lower steric hindrance.
Cis and trans-2-butene are indeed stereoisomers.

Final Answer: cis-2-butene has less dipole moment than trans-2-butene


Question 71:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: PF5 and BrF5 both exhibit sp3d hybridisation.
Statement II: Both SF6 and [Co(NH3)6]3+ exhibit sp3d2 hybridisation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Correct Answer: (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze hybridisation of PF5 and BrF5.
PF5 exhibits sp3d hybridisation, but BrF5 exhibits sp3d2.

Step 2: Analyze hybridisation of SF6 and [Co(NH3)6]3+.
Both SF6 and [Co(NH3)6]3+ exhibit sp3d2 hybridisation. However, Statement I is incorrect for BrF5, making both statements false.

Final Answer: Both Statement I and Statement II are false


Question 72:

The number of ions from the following that are expected to behave as oxidising agents is:

Sn4+, Sn2+, Pb2+, Tl3+, Pb4+, Tl+
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 1
  4. 2
Correct Answer: (4) 2
View Solution

Step 1: Identify ions that act as oxidising agents.
Tl3+ and Pb4+ can act as oxidising agents due to the inert pair effect and their higher oxidation states.

Final Answer: 2


Question 73:

Identify the product A in the following reaction:

  1. 4-nitroanisole
  2. 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole
  3. 4-bromo-4-nitroanisole
  4. 2-nitroanisole
Correct Answer: (2) 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole
View Solution

Step 1: Reaction analysis.
Anisole undergoes nitration to form 4-nitroanisole, which is then brominated to form 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole as the major product.

Final Answer: 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole


Question 74:

The correct statements among the following for a chromatography purification method are:

  1. Organic compounds run faster than solvent on a thin-layer chromatographic plate.
  2. Non-polar compounds are retained at the top and polar compounds move down in column chromatography.
  3. Rf of a polar compound is smaller than that of a non-polar compound.
  4. Rf is an integral value.
Correct Answer: (3) Rf of a polar compound is smaller than that of a non-polar compound
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the behaviour of compounds.
Non-polar compounds travel faster, resulting in a higher Rf value compared to polar compounds.

Step 2: Eliminate incorrect statements.
- Rf is not an integral value.
- Polar compounds interact strongly with the stationary phase, reducing their Rf.

Final Answer: Rf of a polar compound is smaller than that of a non-polar compound


Question 75:

Evaluate the following statements related to group 14 elements for their correctness:

  1. (A) Covalent radius decreases down the group from C to Pb in a regular manner.
  2. (B) Electronegativity decreases from C to Pb down the group gradually.
  3. (C) Maximum covalence of C is 4 whereas other elements can expand their covalence due to the presence of d orbitals.
  4. (D) Heavier elements do not form π-π bonds.
  5. (E) Carbon can exhibit negative oxidation states.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (C), (D) and (E) Only
  2. (A) and (B) Only
  3. (A), (B) and (C) Only
  4. (C) and (D) Only
Correct Answer: (1) (C), (D) and (E) Only
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze covalent radius and electronegativity.
The covalent radius does not decrease regularly, and electronegativity decreases from C to Pb gradually.

Step 2: Verify valence and bonding.
Carbon's maximum covalence is 4. Heavier elements do not form π-π bonds, and carbon can exhibit negative oxidation states.

Final Answer: (C), (D) and (E) Only


Question 76:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Reaction) List-II (Type of Reaction)
(A) N₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2NO(g) (I) Combination
(B) 2Pb(NO₃)₂(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO₂(g) + O₂(g) (II) Decomposition
(C) 2Na(s) + 2H₂O → 2NaOH(aq) + H₂(g) (III) Displacement
(D) 2NO₂(g) + 2OH⁻(aq) → NO₂⁻(aq) + NO₃⁻(aq) + H₂O(l) (IV) Disproportionation

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the reactions:
(A) Combination as two gases combine to form a product.
(B) Decomposition as one compound breaks into multiple products.
(C) Displacement since Na displaces H₂ from H₂O.
(D) Disproportionation as NO₂ is both oxidized and reduced.

Final Answer: (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)


Question 77:

Consider the given reaction. Identify the major product P:

  1. 4-nitroanisole
  2. 4-bromo-2-nitroanisole
  3. 4-bromo-4-nitroanisole
  4. 2-nitroanisole
Correct Answer: (4) 2-nitroanisole
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the reaction mechanism.
Nitration of anisole predominantly forms ortho and para products, with the para product being favored. Based on the reaction conditions, the major product is 2-nitroanisole.

Final Answer: 2-nitroanisole


Question 78:

The correct IUPAC name of [PtBr₂(PMe₃)₂] is:

  1. bis(trimethylphosphine)dibromoplatinum(II)
  2. bis[bromo(trimethylphosphine)]platinum(II)
  3. dibromobis(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)
  4. dibromodi(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)
Correct Answer: (3) dibromobis(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)
View Solution

Step 1: Follow IUPAC naming rules.
The ligands are named alphabetically, and "bis" is used for multiple identical ligands. The oxidation state of platinum is indicated as (II).

Final Answer: dibromobis(trimethylphosphine)platinum(II)


Question 79:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Complex) List-II (Electronic Configuration)
(A) TiCl₄ (I) t²g⁰, eg⁰
(B) [FeO₄]²⁻ (II) t²g³, eg²
(C) [FeCl₄]⁻ (III) t²g⁴, eg⁰
(D) [CoCl₄]²⁻ (IV) t²g⁶, eg⁰

Choose the correct answer:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
Correct Answer: (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
View Solution

Step 1: Determine electronic configurations.
Using crystal field theory, match the configurations of the complexes with their respective ligands and oxidation states.

Final Answer: (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)


Question 80:

The ratio Kp/Kc for the reaction:

CO(g) + 1/2 O₂(g) → CO₂(g)

  1. (RT)⁰
  2. RT
  3. (RT)⁻½
  4. 1
Correct Answer: (3) (RT)⁻½
View Solution

Step 1: Use the relation Kp = Kc(RT)^∆n.
Here, ∆n = moles of products - moles of reactants = 1 - (1 + 1/2) = -1/2.

Final Answer: Kp/Kc = (RT)⁻½.


Question 81:

An amine (X) is prepared by ammonolysis of benzyl chloride. On adding p-toluenesulphonyl chloride to it, the solution remains clear. Molar mass of the amine (X) formed is:

Correct Answer: 287
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the reaction.
Ammonolysis of benzyl chloride produces a tertiary amine.

Step 2: Determine molar mass.
The molar mass of the tertiary amine is calculated as 287 g/mol after reaction with p-toluenesulphonyl chloride.

Final Answer: 287 g/mol


Question 82:

Consider the following reactions. The number of protons that do not involve in hydrogen bonding in the product B is:

Correct Answer: 12
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze product B.
In the product, certain protons are involved in hydrogen bonding, while others are not.

Step 2: Count non-hydrogen-bonding protons.
The structure of product B shows 12 protons that do not participate in hydrogen bonding.

Final Answer: 12


Question 83:

When x × 10⁻² mL methanol (molar mass = 32 g; density = 0.792 g/cm³) is added to 100 mL water (density = 1 g/cm³), the following diagram is obtained. x = (nearest integer).
[Given: Molal freezing point depression constant of water at 273.15 K is 1.86 K kg mol⁻¹.]

Correct Answer: 543
View Solution

Step 1: Use the freezing point depression formula.
∆T = Kf × m, where m is the molality of the solution.

Step 2: Calculate volume of methanol.
Using the molar mass and density of methanol, the volume added is calculated to be 543 (nearest integer).

Final Answer: 543


Question 84:

The compound with OC₂H₅ group undergoes the following reaction sequence: The ratio of the number of oxygen atoms to bromine atoms in the product Q is:

Correct Answer: 15
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the reaction steps.
The reaction involves nitration and bromination of the OC₂H₅ compound.

Step 2: Determine oxygen-to-bromine ratio.
The ratio of oxygen to bromine atoms in the product is 15.

Final Answer: 15


Question 85:

Number of carbocations from the following that are not stabilized by hyperconjugation is:

Correct Answer: 5
View Solution

Step 1: Identify carbocations.
Hyperconjugation stabilizes only certain types of carbocations.

Step 2: Count unstable carbocations.
The number of carbocations not stabilized by hyperconjugation is 5.

Final Answer: 5


Question 86:

For the reaction at 298 K, 2A + B → C. ∆H = 400 kJ mol⁻¹ and ∆S = 0.2 kJ mol⁻¹ K⁻¹. The reaction will become spontaneous above temperature (K):

Correct Answer: 2000
View Solution

Step 1: Use Gibbs free energy equation.
∆G = ∆H − T∆S

Step 2: Calculate temperature for spontaneity.
For ∆G = 0, T = ∆H/∆S = 400/0.2 = 2000 K.

Final Answer: 2000 K


Question 87:

Total number of species from the following with central atom utilizing sp² hybrid orbitals for bonding is:
NH₃, SO₂, SiO₂, BeCl₂, C₂H₂, C₂H₄, BCl₃, HCHO, C₆H₆, BF₃, C₂H₄Cl₂

Correct Answer: 6
View Solution

Step 1: Identify sp² hybridized species.
Species using sp² hybrid orbitals include SO₂, C₂H₄, BCl₃, HCHO, C₆H₆, BF₃.

Final Answer: 6


Question 88:

Consider the two different first order reactions given below:
Reaction 1: A + B → C
Reaction 2: P → Q
The ratio of the half-life of Reaction 1 : Reaction 2 is 5 : 2. If t₁ and t₂ represent the time taken to complete 2/3 and 4/5 of Reaction 1 and Reaction 2, respectively, then the value of the ratio t₁ : t₂ is ×10⁻¹ (nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 17
View Solution

Step 1: Use first-order reaction kinetics.
t = (ln(1/(1 − x))) / k.

Step 2: Calculate t₁ : t₂ ratio.
Using given half-life ratios and logarithmic calculations, t₁ : t₂ = 17 × 10⁻¹.

Final Answer: 17 × 10⁻¹


Question 89:

For hydrogen atom, energy of an electron in first excited state is -3.4 eV, K.E. of the same electron of hydrogen atom is x eV. Value of x is ×10⁻¹ eV. (Nearest integer)

Correct Answer: 34
View Solution

Step 1: Use total energy formula.
E = -13.6 eV/n². For n=2, E = -3.4 eV.

Step 2: Calculate K.E.
K.E. = -E = 3.4 eV = 34 × 10⁻¹ eV.

Final Answer: 34 × 10⁻¹ eV


Question 90:

Among VO₂⁺, MnO₄⁻, and Cr₂O₇²⁻, the spin-only magnetic moment value of the species with least oxidizing ability is (Nearest integer):
[Given atomic number V = 23, Mn = 25, Cr = 24]

Correct Answer: 0
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze oxidizing ability.
VO₂⁺ has the least oxidizing ability among the given species.

Step 2: Determine spin-only magnetic moment.
VO₂⁺ has no unpaired electrons, resulting in a magnetic moment of 0 BM.

Final Answer: 0


Previous Year JEE Main Question Papers

*The article might have information for the previous academic years, please refer the official website of the exam.

Ask your question

Subscribe To Our News Letter

Get Latest Notification Of Colleges, Exams and News

© 2026 Patronum Web Private Limited