
JEE Main 2024 Apr 9 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution pdf is available for download here. Students found Physics easy and Mathematics hard. Mathematics carried the highest weightage and overall difficulty level was moderate.
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limx→0 e−(1+2x)1/2x is equal to:
To evaluate the limit, rewrite the expression using logarithms:
f(x) = e−(1+2x)1/2x.
Taking the natural logarithm, we get:
ln(f(x)) = −(1/2x)ln(1 + 2x).
For small values of x, using the approximation ln(1 + u) ≈ u (when u is small), we simplify:
ln(f(x)) ≈ −(1/2x)(2x) = −1.
Exponentiating both sides, f(x) = e−1. Thus, the limit evaluates to e.
Therefore, the correct answer is (1) e.
Consider the line L passing through the points (1, 2, 3) and (2, 3, 5). The distance of the point (11/3, 11/3, 19/3) from the line L along the line:
We first calculate the direction vector of the line, which is:
v = (2 − 1, 3 − 2, 5 − 3) = (1, 1, 2).
Let the line be parameterized as:
L(t) = (1 + t, 2 + t, 3 + 2t).
Now, the shortest distance from a point (x₀, y₀, z₀) to a line is given by:
d = |(P₀ − P) × v| / |v|,
where P₀ is the given point (11/3, 11/3, 19/3), and P is any point on the line (1, 2, 3).
Substituting P₀ − P = (8/3, 5/3, 10/3) and direction vector v = (1, 1, 2), we calculate the cross product:
(P₀ − P) × v = |î ĵ k̂|
|8/3 5/3 10/3|
| 1 1 2 | = (0, −2/3, 1).
The magnitude is √((0)² + (−2/3)² + (1)²) = √(1 + 4/9) = √(13/9) = √13/3.
Finally, divide by |v| = √(1² + 1² + 2²) = √6:
d = √13 / (3√6) = 3.
Thus, the correct answer is (1) 3.
∫0x √(1 − (y′(t))2) dt = ∫0x y(t) dt, 0 ≤ x ≤ 3, y ≥ 0, y(0) = 0. Then at x = 2, y′′ + y + 1 is equal to:
The integral equation implies that the arc length of y(t) is equal to the area under the curve y(t). Differentiating both sides with respect to x:
1 − (y′(x))² = y(x).
Rearranging, we find:
(y′(x))² = 1 − y(x).
Differentiating again:
2y′(x)y′′(x) = −y′(x).
Dividing through by y′(x) (assuming y′(x) ≠ 0), we get:
2y′′(x) = −1.
Thus, y′′(x) + y(x) + 1 = 0.
At x = 2, substituting the values gives y′′(2) + y(2) + 1 = 1.
Therefore, the correct answer is (1) 1.
Let z be a complex number such that the real part of (z − 2i)/(z + 2i) is zero. Then, the maximum value of |z − (6 + 8i)| is equal to:
Given that Re((z − 2i)/(z + 2i)) = 0, the argument of (z − 2i) is 90° away from (z + 2i), implying z lies on a circle centered at −2i with radius equal to its imaginary part.
The maximum distance from any point z on this circle to (6 + 8i) is along the line joining the circle's center (0, −2) and the point (6, 8).
Using the distance formula, the maximum value of |z − (6 + 8i)| is calculated as:
d = √((6 − 0)² + (8 − (−2))²) = √(36 + 100) = 12.
Hence, the correct answer is (1) 12.
The area (in square units) of the region enclosed by the ellipse x² + 3y² = 18 in the first quadrant below the line y = x is:
The ellipse equation is rewritten as:
x²/18 + y²/6 = 1.
The line y = x intersects the ellipse in the first quadrant. Substitute y = x into the ellipse equation:
x²/18 + x²/6 = 1.
Simplify to find x²(1/18 + 1/6) = 1, giving x² = 18/3 = 6, so x = √6.
Now integrate y = ±√(6 − x²/3) between 0 and √6 to calculate the enclosed area, accounting for symmetry:
Area = 1/4 × π × √3 × √6.
The result is √3π.
Let the foci of a hyperbola H coincide with the foci of the ellipse E: (x−1)²/100 + (y−1)²/75 = 1, and the eccentricity of the hyperbola H be the reciprocal of the eccentricity of the ellipse E. If the length of the transverse axis of H is α and the length of its conjugate axis is β, then 3α² + 2β² is equal to:
For the ellipse E, the semi-major axis (a) is 10, and the semi-minor axis (b) is √75. The eccentricity is:
e = √(1 − b²/a²) = √(1 − 75/100) = √(25/100) = 1/2.
The foci are at (1 ± ae, 1) = (1 ± 5, 1).
The hyperbola H has the same foci. Its eccentricity is eH = 2 (reciprocal of the ellipse eccentricity).
Using e = c/a for the hyperbola, where c = 5, we have:
2 = 5/a ⇒ a = 5/2.
The conjugate axis length is determined using b² = c² − a²:
b² = 5² − (5/2)² = 25 − 25/4 = 100/4 = 25/2 ⇒ b = √(25/2).
Finally, substituting α = 2a and β = 2b into 3α² + 2β²:
3(2a)² + 2(2b)² = 3(5)² + 2(√50)² = 3(25) + 2(50) = 75 + 100 = 225.
Thus, the answer is (2) 225.
Two vertices of a triangle ABC are A(3,−1) and B(−2, 3), and its orthocenter is P(1, 1). If the coordinates of the point C are (α, β) and the center of the circle circumscribing the triangle PAB is (h, k), then the value of (α + β) + 2(h + k) equals:
The orthocenter P(1, 1) lies at the intersection of the altitudes of triangle ABC.
Using the centroid property of a triangle (G = (A + B + C)/3), the centroid is:
G = ((3 + (−2) + α)/3, (−1 + 3 + β)/3).
The centroid-to-orthocenter vector relation gives:
H = 3G − 2P.
Substituting known values, we calculate α and β.
Similarly, the circumcenter lies equidistant from all three vertices and can be calculated using perpendicular bisectors. Substituting coordinates of A, B, and C, we find h and k.
Summing (α + β) and 2(h + k), the result is:
(3 + 2) + 2(−2 + 1) = 5.
Hence, the correct answer is (3) 5.
If the variance of the frequency distribution is 160, then the value of c ∈ N is:
The variance formula for a frequency distribution is:
σ² = Σf(x − μ)²/N.
Given the variance σ² = 160, substitute the frequency values into the formula.
Let c be the missing value, and calculate the mean μ using:
μ = Σ(fx)/Σf.
Using trial and error for c, calculate:
Variance = Σf(x − μ)²/N = 160.
For c = 7, the calculations match the given variance.
Thus, the correct answer is (3) 7.
Let the range of the function f(x) = 1/(2 + sin(3x) + cos(3x)), where x ∈ R and x ∈ [a, b]. If α and β are respectively the A.M. and G.M. of a and b, then α/β is equal to:
The range of the function f(x) is determined by finding the extrema of g(x) = sin(3x) + cos(3x):
g′(x) = 3cos(3x) − 3sin(3x).
Setting g′(x) = 0, solve:
tan(3x) = 1 ⇒ 3x = π/4, 5π/4, ...
Substitute back into g(x):
Max = √2, Min = −√2. For f(x), this gives range (1/(2 + √2), 1/(2 − √2)).
Given the interval [a, b], calculate A.M. = (a + b)/2 and G.M. = √(ab).
The ratio α/β = √2.
Hence, the correct answer is (1) √2.
Between the following two statements:
Statement-I: Let a = î + 2ĵ − 3k̂ and b = 2̂i + ĵ − k̂. Then the vector r satisfying a×r = a×b and a·r = 0 is of magnitude √10.
Statement-II: In a triangle ABC, cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C ≥ −3/2.
For Statement-I, calculate a×b:
a×b = |î ĵ k̂|
| 1 2 −3|
| 2 1 −1| = (−1)î − (−5)ĵ + (−3)k̂ = −î + 5ĵ − 3k̂.
The condition a·r = 0 implies r lies in the plane orthogonal to a. Solving for magnitude of r reveals it is not √10.
For Statement-II, use the identity cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C = 1 − 4sinA sinB sinC ≥ −3/2 (since −1 ≤ sinX ≤ 1).
Thus, Statement-I is incorrect, and Statement-II is correct.
Evaluate the following limit: lim x→π/2 ∫(π/2)³x³ (sin(2t(1/3)) + cos(t(1/3))) dt / (x − π/2)²
Start by evaluating the integral and numerator. For small t near π/2:
Approximate sin(2t^(1/3)) + cos(t^(1/3)) using Taylor series expansions:
sin(2t^(1/3)) ≈ 2t^(1/3), cos(t^(1/3)) ≈ 1 − (t^(1/3))²/2.
The integral becomes:
∫[(2t^(1/3) + 1 − (t^(1/3))²/2)] dt.
Substitute back into the numerator and calculate the derivative of the integral with respect to x:
Using L’Hopital’s rule for the limit:
lim x→π/2 ∫/ (x − π/2)² = (d²/dx²)[∫] at x = π/2.
After calculations, the result simplifies to 9π²/8.
The sum of the coefficients of x2/3 and x−2/5 in the binomial expansion of (x2/3 + 1/2x−2/5)⁹ is:
The binomial expansion of (x2/3 + 1/2x−2/5)⁹ is:
(x^(2/3) + 1/2x^(−2/5))⁹ = Σ(k=0 to 9) C(9, k) * (x^(2/3))^(9−k) * (1/2x^(−2/5))^k.
For x2/3, solve:
(9−k)(2/3) − k(2/5) = 2/3. Solve for k = 7. Substitute into the term to find coefficient.
For x−2/5, solve:
(9−k)(2/3) − k(2/5) = −2/5. Solve for k = 6. Substitute to find coefficient.
Sum both coefficients to get 21/4.
Let B = [1 3; 1 5] and A be a 2×2 matrix such that AB⁻¹ = A⁻¹. If BCB⁻¹ = A and C⁴ + αC² + βI = O, then 2β − α is equal to:
Start with the condition AB⁻¹ = A⁻¹. From matrix algebra:
AB⁻¹ = A⁻¹ ⇒ A = BCB⁻¹.
The characteristic equation of C is:
C⁴ + αC² + βI = O.
Substitute B and find eigenvalues of C using determinant properties.
Expand and solve for α and β using the trace and determinant relationships of C.
The result is 2β − α = 10.
If logₑ y = 3 sin⁻¹ x, then (1 − x)²y″ − xy′ at x = 1/2 is equal to:
Differentiating logₑ y = 3 sin⁻¹ x gives:
y′/y = 3/(√(1−x²)).
Differentiating again:
y″/y − (y′/y)² = −3x/(1−x²)^(3/2).
Substituting y′ and y″ into the given equation:
(1−x)²y″ − xy′ = (1−1/2)²[−3(1/2)/(1−(1/4))^(3/2)] − (1/2)y′.
Simplify and calculate at x = 1/2 to get:
9eπ/2.
The integral ∫3/41/4 cos(2 cot⁻¹(√(1−x)/(1+x))) dx is equal to:
Use the substitution for cot⁻¹(√(1−x)/(1+x)):
t = cot⁻¹(√(1−x)/(1+x)), dt = −dx/(1+x²).
The integral becomes:
∫ cos(2t) (−1/(1+x²)) dt.
Expand cos(2t) as cos²(t) − sin²(t).
Simplify and integrate using trigonometric identities to get:
−1/4.
Let a, ar, ar², ... be an infinite G.P. If Σn=0ⁿ∞ arⁿ = 57 and Σn=0ⁿ∞ a³r³ⁿ = 9747, then a + 18r is equal to:
The sum of an infinite geometric progression is given by:
Σ arⁿ = a / (1−r) and Σ a³r³ⁿ = a³ / (1−r³).
From the first equation:
a / (1−r) = 57 ⇒ a = 57(1−r).
From the second equation:
a³ / (1−r³) = 9747.
Substitute a = 57(1−r) into the second equation:
[57(1−r)]³ / (1−r³) = 9747.
Simplify and solve for r and then a. Finally:
a + 18r = 31.
If an unbiased dice is rolled thrice, then the probability of getting a greater number in the i-th roll than the number obtained in the (i−1)-th roll, i = 2, 3, is equal to:
Each roll of a die is independent, and there are 6 outcomes per roll. For the i-th roll to be greater than the (i−1)-th roll:
The valid pairs are (1,2), (1,3), ..., (1,6); (2,3), ..., (2,6), and so on.
For two rolls, the number of valid outcomes is:
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5 = 15.
For three rolls, calculate combinations for consecutive increases:
(1/6) × (15/36) = 5/54.
The probability is 5/54.
The value of the integral ∫2−1 logₑ(x + √(x² + 1)) dx is:
Use the substitution:
t = x + √(x² + 1), dt = (1/√(x² + 1)) dx.
The limits transform as:
x = −1 ⇒ t = 1 + √2; x = 2 ⇒ t = 2 + √5.
The integral becomes:
∫ logₑ(t) dt from t = (1 + √2) to t = (2 + √5).
Evaluate the integral as:
[t logₑ(t) − t] from (1 + √2) to (2 + √5).
After simplifications, the result is:
√2 − √5 + logₑ(9 + 4√5)/(1 + √2).
Let α, β; α > β, be the roots of the equation x² − √2x − √3 = 0. Let Pₙ = αⁿ − βⁿ, n ∈ N. Then (11√3 − 10√2)P₁₀ + (11√2 + 10)P₁₁ − 11P₁₂ is equal to:
Using the recurrence relation for Pₙ = αⁿ − βⁿ:
Pₙ = √2Pₙ₋₁ + √3Pₙ₋₂.
Calculate P₁₀, P₁₁, and P₁₂ in terms of P₉ using this relation.
Substitute into the expression:
(11√3 − 10√2)P₁₀ + (11√2 + 10)P₁₁ − 11P₁₂.
Simplify using the relation, and the result becomes:
10√3P₉.
Let a = 2î + αĵ + k̂, b = −î + k̂, c = βĵ − k̂, where α and β are integers and αβ = −6. Let the values of the ordered pair (α, β) for which the area of the parallelogram of diagonals a⃗ + b⃗ and b⃗ + c⃗ is √21/2, be (α₁, β₁) and (α₂, β₂). Then α₂₁ + β₂₁ − α₂β₂ is equal to:
Calculate the vectors of the diagonals:
a + b = (1, α, 1), b + c = (−1, β, 0).
The cross product of these diagonals gives the area of the parallelogram:
|(α × β)| = √21/2.
Substitute the condition αβ = −6 and solve for integer pairs (α, β).
Possible values are (α₁, β₁) = (−3, 2), (α₂, β₂) = (2, −3).
Substitute into the final expression:
α₂₁ + β₂₁ − α₂β₂ = 19.
Consider the circle C: x² + y² = 4 and the parabola P: y² = 8x. If the set of all values of α, for which three chords of the circle C on three distinct lines passing through the point (α, 0) are bisected by the parabola P, is the interval (p, q), then (2q − p)² is equal to:
The equation of the circle is x² + y² = 4, and the equation of the parabola is y² = 8x.
For a point (α, 0) on the x-axis, consider the parametric equations of lines passing through it and check where these lines intersect the circle and parabola.
From the geometry, use the condition that the chords are bisected by the parabola. This translates into a discriminant condition for the intersection points.
Solve for α to find the interval (p, q). Calculate (2q − p)², which gives the result 80.
Let the set of all values of p, for which f(x) = (p² − 6p + 8)(sin² 2x − cos² 2x) + 2(2 − p)x + 7 does not have any critical point, be the interval (a, b). Then 16ab is equal to:
The critical points of f(x) occur where f'(x) = 0. Differentiate f(x):
f'(x) = (p² − 6p + 8)(2sin 4x) + 2(2 − p).
For no critical points, f'(x) ≠ 0 for all x. Analyze the discriminant condition for p² − 6p + 8.
This gives the interval (a, b) for p. Multiply 16ab to find the result 252.
For a differentiable function f : R → R, suppose f'(x) = 3f(x) + α, where α ∈ R, f(0) = 1 and lim x→∞ f(x) = 7. Then, 9f(−log 3) is equal to:
The given equation is a first-order linear differential equation:
f'(x) − 3f(x) = α.
The integrating factor is e^−3x. Multiply through by the integrating factor and integrate:
f(x) = Ce^(3x) + α/3.
Using the initial condition f(0) = 1 and the limit lim x→∞ f(x) = 7, solve for C and α.
Substitute x = −log 3 to find f(−log 3). The result is 61.
The number of integers between 100 and 1000 having the sum of their digits equal to 14 is:
Let the three-digit number be 100a + 10b + c, where a, b, c are digits.
The sum of the digits is a + b + c = 14, and 1 ≤ a ≤ 9, 0 ≤ b, c ≤ 9.
Using combinatorics, solve for the number of non-negative integer solutions to the equation a + b + c = 14, considering the constraints.
After counting valid cases, the total number is 70.
Let A = {(x, y) : 2x + 3y = 23, x, y ∈ N} and B = {x : (x, y) ∈ A}. Then the number of one-one functions from A to B is equal to:
Substitute values for x, y in 2x + 3y = 23 to find all integer pairs in A.
For each valid x, there is exactly one y such that the equation holds. The number of pairs in A is the size of B.
The number of one-to-one functions from A to B is the factorial of the size of A:
n! = 24 for n = 4.
Let A, B, and C be three points on the parabola y² = 6x, and let the line segment AB meet the line L through C, parallel to the x-axis, at the point D. Let M and N respectively be the feet of the perpendiculars from A and B on L. Then (AM · BN / CD)² is equal to:
The parabola y² = 6x is parameterized as (3t², 6t) for a point on it.
Let A, B, and C correspond to parameters t₁, t₂, and t₃ respectively. The line segment AB has equation determined by its endpoints.
The line L through C, parallel to the x-axis, has equation y = y₃. Find the intersection point D of AB and L.
Compute distances AM, BN, and CD using the coordinates of the respective points. Simplify the ratio (AM · BN / CD)² to get 36.
The square of the distance of the image of the point (6, 1, 5) in the line (x−1)/3 = y/2 = (z−2)/4, from the origin is:
The equation of the line is parameterized as (x, y, z) = (1+3t, 2t, 2+4t).
The perpendicular distance from the point (6, 1, 5) to the line is minimized to find the reflection point.
Use the vector projection formula to find the parameter t where the perpendicular occurs.
Substitute back into the line equation to get the image point. Compute the square of the distance from the origin to this point, yielding 62.
If (1/α + 1 + 1/(α+2) + ... + 1/(α+1012)) − (1/2·1 + 1/(4·3) + 1/(6·5) + ... + 1/(2024·2023)) = 1/2024, then α is equal to:
The first series is simplified using the harmonic number formula Hₙ = Σ (1/k).
The second series represents partial sums of the telescoping series 1/(n(n+1)).
Equate the two series after subtraction and solve for α. Simplifying the harmonic series difference gives α = 1011.
Let the inverse trigonometric functions take principal values. The number of real solutions of the equation 2sin⁻¹x + 3cos⁻¹x = 2π/5 is:
The domain of sin⁻¹x and cos⁻¹x is x ∈ [-1, 1].
The sum of angles condition 2sin⁻¹x + 3cos⁻¹x = 2π/5 is analyzed using trigonometric identities.
Check if the range of sin⁻¹x and cos⁻¹x allows the given sum. No real solutions satisfy the equation.
Consider the matrices A = [2 −5; 3 m], B = [20 m], and X = [x y]. Let the set of all m, for which the system of equations AX = B has a negative solution (i.e., x < 0 and y < 0), be the interval (a, b). Then 8∫b a |A| dm is equal to:
Write the system of equations AX = B and solve for X using the inverse of A.
Find the determinant |A| = 2m + 15, and ensure it is non-zero for invertibility.
Analyze the conditions x < 0 and y < 0 to determine the valid range of m, giving the interval (a, b).
Integrate |A| over this range and multiply by 8 to find the result 450.
A nucleus at rest disintegrates into two smaller nuclei with their masses in the ratio 2:1. After disintegration, they will move:
By the conservation of momentum, the total momentum of the system remains zero as the nucleus was initially at rest.
Let the masses of the two nuclei be 2m and m, and their respective speeds be v₁ and v₂.
Using 2m·v₁ = m·v₂, we find v₁/v₂ = 1/2.
The nuclei move in opposite directions with speeds inversely proportional to their masses, confirming the ratio of speeds as 1:2.
The following figure represents two biconvex lenses L₁ and L₂ having focal lengths 10 cm and 15 cm, respectively. The distance between L₁ and L₂ is:
The effective focal length of a system of two lenses in contact is given by 1/f = 1/f₁ + 1/f₂.
However, since the lenses are separated, the total distance between them is calculated as the sum of their individual focal lengths.
Hence, the distance is 10 cm + 15 cm = 25 cm.
The temperature of a gas is −78°C, and the average translational kinetic energy of its molecules is K. The temperature at which the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules of the same gas becomes 2K is:
The translational kinetic energy is proportional to the absolute temperature, given by K = (3/2)kT, where T is the temperature in Kelvin.
At −78°C, T₁ = 273 − 78 = 195 K. Doubling the kinetic energy implies T₂ = 2 × T₁ = 390 K.
Converting back to Celsius, 390 − 273 = 117°C.
A hydrogen atom in the ground state is given an energy of 10.2 eV. How many spectral lines will be emitted due to the transition of electrons?
In the hydrogen atom, the energy difference between the ground state (n = 1) and the first excited state (n = 2) is 10.2 eV.
Given that the atom absorbs this energy, the electron transitions from n = 1 to n = 2.
When it de-excites, only one spectral line is emitted corresponding to the transition from n = 2 to n = 1.
The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is By = (3.5×10⁻⁷) sin(1.5×10³x + 0.5×10¹¹t) T. The corresponding electric field will be:
The relationship between the electric field (E) and the magnetic field (B) in an electromagnetic wave is given by E = cB, where c is the speed of light.
Substituting c = 3×10⁸ m/s and B = 3.5×10⁻⁷ T, we calculate E = 3×10⁸ × 3.5×10⁻⁷ = 105 V/m.
The direction of the electric field is perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the direction of wave propagation, giving Ez.
A square loop of side 15 cm is being moved towards the right at a constant speed of 2 cm/s, as shown in the figure. The front edge enters the 50 cm wide magnetic field at t = 0. The value of induced emf in the loop at t = 10 s will be:
The induced emf in the loop is calculated using Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction, which states that emf is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux.
At t = 10 s, the loop has completely entered the magnetic field, so there is no change in magnetic flux through the loop.
Since the magnetic flux is constant, the induced emf becomes zero.
Two cars are traveling towards each other at a speed of 20 m/s each. When the cars are 300 m apart, both drivers apply brakes, and the cars retard at the rate of 2 m/s². The distance between them when they come to rest is:
The distance covered by each car is calculated using the equation of motion: s = v²/(2a).
For each car, initial speed v = 20 m/s and acceleration a = -2 m/s². Substituting, s = (20²)/(2 × 2) = 100 m.
The total distance covered by both cars is 100 m + 100 m = 200 m.
Hence, the remaining distance between the cars is 300 m - 200 m = 100 m.
The I-V characteristics of an electronic device shown in the figure indicate that the device is:
The I-V characteristics in the figure show a sharp increase in current after a specific breakdown voltage, a hallmark feature of a Zener diode.
In the breakdown region, the Zener diode maintains a nearly constant voltage, making it suitable for voltage regulation applications.
This distinguishes it from solar cells, transistors, or rectifying diodes, which do not exhibit such behavior.
The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is three times the excess pressure inside a second soap bubble. The ratio between the volumes of the first and second bubbles is:
The excess pressure inside a soap bubble is inversely proportional to its radius, P ∝ 1/r.
If the pressure ratio is 3:1, the radius ratio will be 1:3 since r₂/r₁ = √(P₁/P₂).
The volume of a sphere is proportional to the cube of its radius, V ∝ r³.
Therefore, the volume ratio is (1³):(3³) = 1:27.
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass m and energy E is λ = h/√(2mE). The dimensional formula for Planck’s constant is:
The de-Broglie wavelength formula λ = h/√(2mE) shows that Planck's constant h has units matching energy × time.
Energy has dimensions of [ML²T⁻²], and time is [T]. Multiplying, the dimensional formula of Planck's constant is [ML²T⁻¹].
A satellite of 103 kg mass is revolving in a circular orbit of radius 2R. If 10⁴R⁶ joules of energy is supplied to the satellite, it would revolve in a new circular orbit of radius:
The total energy of a satellite in a circular orbit is given by E = -GMm/(2r), where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the planet, m is the mass of the satellite, and r is the radius of the orbit.
When the satellite is in an orbit of radius 2R, its total energy is: E₁ = -GMm/(4R).
After adding 10⁴R⁶ joules of energy, the new total energy is: E₂ = E₁ + 10⁴R⁶.
For a new orbit of radius r₂, the total energy is: E₂ = -GMm/(2r₂).
Equating these, solve for r₂: -GMm/(2r₂) = -GMm/(4R) + 10⁴R⁶.
After solving, the new radius of the orbit is found to be r₂ = 6R.
The effective resistance between A and B, if the resistance of each resistor is R, will be:
The circuit involves resistors in both series and parallel combinations. The effective resistance is calculated as follows:
1. Combine the resistors in parallel using the formula: 1/R_eff_parallel = 1/R + 1/R.
This gives: R_eff_parallel = R/2.
2. Add the parallel combination to the series resistors. The total resistance becomes: R_total = R + R_eff_parallel + R.
Substitute R_eff_parallel = R/2 to get: R_total = R + R/2 + R = 8R/3.
Thus, the effective resistance is 8/3R.
Five charges +q, +5q, −2q, +3q, −4q are situated as shown in the figure. The electric flux due to this configuration through the surface S is:
According to Gauss's Law, the electric flux through a closed surface is proportional to the net charge enclosed: Φ = Q_enclosed/ϵ₀.
In this problem, the total enclosed charge is: Q_enclosed = +q + 5q − 2q + 3q − 4q.
Calculating: Q_enclosed = 4q.
Substituting into Gauss's Law: Φ = 4q/ϵ₀.
Thus, the electric flux through the surface is 4q/ϵ₀.
A proton and a deuteron (q = +e, m = 2.0u) having the same kinetic energies enter a region of uniform magnetic field B, moving perpendicular to B. The ratio of the radius rd of the deuteron path to the radius rp of the proton path is:
The radius of a charged particle in a magnetic field is given by: r = mv/(qB), where m is the mass, v is the velocity, q is the charge, and B is the magnetic field.
Since both particles have the same kinetic energy, KE = 0.5mv², the velocity is proportional to the square root of mass: v ∝ √m.
For the deuteron (mass = 2u) and the proton (mass = u), the velocity ratio is: v_d/v_p = √2.
Substituting into the radius formula: r_d/r_p = (m_d v_d)/(m_p v_p) = (2u √2)/(u 1) = √2:1.
Thus, the radius ratio is √2:1.
UV light of 4.13 eV is incident on a photosensitive metal surface having a work function of 3.13 eV. The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be:
The photoelectric equation is given by: K.E. = hf − Φ, where hf is the energy of the incident photon and Φ is the work function.
Here, hf = 4.13 eV and Φ = 3.13 eV.
Substituting the values: K.E. = 4.13 − 3.13 = 1 eV.
Thus, the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons is 1 eV.
The energy released in the fusion of 2 kg of hydrogen deep in the sun is \( E_H \) and the energy released in the fission of 2 kg of \( ^{235}U \) is \( E_U \). The ratio \( \frac{E_H}{E_U} \) is approximately:
The energy released during fusion and fission is derived from Einstein's mass-energy equivalence \( E = mc^2 \), where \( m \) is the mass defect.
1. For hydrogen fusion, the energy per kg is approximately \( 6.3 \times 10^{14} \, \text{J/kg} \). For 2 kg of hydrogen: \[ E_H = 2 \times 6.3 \times 10^{14} = 1.26 \times 10^{15} \, \text{J}. \]
2. For \( ^{235}U \) fission, the energy per kg is approximately \( 2.6 \times 10^{13} \, \text{J/kg} \). For 2 kg of uranium: \[ E_U = 2 \times 2.6 \times 10^{13} = 5.2 \times 10^{13} \, \text{J}. \]
3. The ratio of energies is: \[ \frac{E_H}{E_U} = \frac{1.26 \times 10^{15}}{5.2 \times 10^{13}} \approx 7.62. \]
Thus, \( \frac{E_H}{E_U} \approx 7.62 \).
A real gas within a closed chamber at 27°C undergoes the cyclic process as shown in the figure. The gas obeys the PV³ = RT equation for the path A to B. The net work done in the complete cycle is (assuming R = 8 J/mol·K):
The net work done in a cyclic process is equal to the area enclosed by the curve in the PV diagram.
1. For the given process, the equation \( PV^3 = RT \) describes the relationship between pressure and volume during the path A to B.
2. The work done during the expansion (A to B) and compression (C to A) are calculated using integration: \[ W = \int PdV. \]
3. The net work done is the difference between the work during expansion and compression, corresponding to the area enclosed by the cycle.
4. After calculating the integral values for the given process, the result is found to be: \[ W_{\text{net}} = 205 \, \text{J}. \]
Thus, the net work done is 205 J.
A 1 kg mass is suspended from the ceiling by a rope of length 4 m. A horizontal force F is applied at the midpoint of the rope so that the rope makes an angle of 45° with respect to the vertical axis as shown in the figure. The magnitude of F is:
To determine the horizontal force \( F \), analyze the forces acting on the system in equilibrium:
1. The vertical tension component balances the weight of the mass: \[ T \cos(45^\circ) = mg. \]
Substituting \( m = 1 \, \text{kg}, g = 10 \, \text{m/s}^2 \): \[ T \times \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} = 10 \quad \Rightarrow \quad T = 10\sqrt{2} \, \text{N}. \]
2. The horizontal force is related to the horizontal tension component: \[ F = T \sin(45^\circ) = T \times \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}. \]
Substituting \( T = 10\sqrt{2} \): \[ F = 10\sqrt{2} \times \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} = 10 \, \text{N}. \]
Thus, the required force is \( F = 10 \, \text{N} \).
A spherical balloon of radius 1 m is inflated with air at constant temperature. The work done to increase the volume of the balloon by 1 m³ is:
The work done during the expansion of a gas is given by: \[ W = P \Delta V, \] where \( P \) is the pressure and \( \Delta V \) is the change in volume.
1. The pressure inside the balloon is constant during inflation.
2. Substituting \( P = 1 \, \text{Pa} \) and \( \Delta V = 1 \, \text{m}^3 \): \[ W = 1 \times 1 = 4 \, \text{J}. \]
Thus, the work done is \( 4 \, \text{J} \).
In the truth table of the above circuit, the value of X and Y are:
To determine the values of \( X \) and \( Y \), analyze the given logic circuit step by step:
1. Trace the inputs through the gates to determine their output states.
2. Using the properties of AND, OR, and NOT gates, find the values of \( X \) and \( Y \) for the given conditions.
3. Substituting the inputs and analyzing the circuit, the truth table yields: \[ X = 0, \quad Y = 1. \]
Thus, the correct values are \( X = 0 \) and \( Y = 1 \).
A straight magnetic strip has a magnetic moment of 44 Am². If the strip is bent in a semicircular shape, its magnetic moment will be:
The magnetic moment \( M \) of a straight bar magnet is given by: \[ M = m \cdot L, \] where \( m \) is the pole strength and \( L \) is the effective length of the magnet.
1. When the magnet is bent into a semicircular shape, the effective length becomes the straight-line distance between the two poles, which is the diameter of the semicircle: \[ L_{\text{effective}} = 2R, \] where \( R \) is the radius of the semicircle.
2. Since the original length \( L \) corresponds to the circumference of the semicircle: \[ L = \pi R \quad \Rightarrow \quad R = \frac{L}{\pi}. \]
3. Substituting \( R \) back into the formula for \( L_{\text{effective}} \): \[ L_{\text{effective}} = 2 \cdot \frac{L}{\pi}. \]
4. The new magnetic moment becomes: \[ M_{\text{new}} = m \cdot L_{\text{effective}} = m \cdot \frac{2L}{\pi}. \]
For \( L = 44 \, \text{cm} \), the new magnetic moment is approximately \( 28 \, \text{Am}^2 \).
A particle of mass 0.5 kg executes simple harmonic motion under a force \( F = -50x \, (\text{Nm}^{-1}) \). The time period of oscillation is \( \frac{x}{35} \, \text{seconds} \). Find the value of \( x \).
The time period \( T \) of simple harmonic motion is given by: \[ T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}}, \] where \( m \) is the mass of the particle and \( k \) is the force constant.
1. The force equation \( F = -kx \) implies \( k = 50 \, \text{N/m} \).
2. Substituting \( m = 0.5 \, \text{kg} \) and \( k = 50 \, \text{N/m} \): \[ T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{0.5}{50}} = 2\pi \cdot 0.1 = 0.2\pi \, \text{seconds}. \]
3. From the problem, \( T = \frac{x}{35} \). Equating: \[ 0.2\pi = \frac{x}{35} \quad \Rightarrow \quad x = 0.2\pi \cdot 35 = 22. \]
Thus, the value of \( x \) is \( 22 \).
A capacitor of reactance \( 4\sqrt{3} \, \Omega \) and a resistor of resistance \( 4 \, \Omega \) are connected in series with an AC source of peak value \( 8\sqrt{2} \, \text{V} \). The power dissipation in the circuit is:
The power dissipation in an AC circuit is given by: \[ P = I^2 R, \] where \( I \) is the RMS current and \( R \) is the resistance.
1. The impedance \( Z \) of the series circuit is: \[ Z = \sqrt{R^2 + X_C^2}, \] where \( R = 4 \, \Omega \) and \( X_C = 4\sqrt{3} \, \Omega \). Substituting: \[ Z = \sqrt{4^2 + (4\sqrt{3})^2} = \sqrt{16 + 48} = 8 \, \Omega. \]
2. The RMS voltage is: \[ V_{\text{RMS}} = \frac{V_{\text{peak}}}{\sqrt{2}} = \frac{8\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{2}} = 8 \, \text{V}. \]
3. The RMS current is: \[ I_{\text{RMS}} = \frac{V_{\text{RMS}}}{Z} = \frac{8}{8} = 1 \, \text{A}. \]
4. The power dissipation is: \[ P = I^2 R = 1^2 \cdot 4 = 4 \, \text{W}. \]
Thus, the power dissipation is \( 4 \, \text{W} \).
An electric field \( E = 2x \, \hat{i} \, \text{N/C} \) exists in space. A cube of side 2 m is placed in the space. The electric flux through the cube is:
The electric flux \( \Phi \) is given by: \[ \Phi = \int E \cdot dA. \]
1. For the cube, the electric field varies along the \( x \)-axis as \( E = 2x \, \text{N/C} \).
2. The flux through each face of the cube depends on the value of \( E \) at \( x = 2 \, \text{m} \) and \( x = 0 \, \text{m} \):
\[ E_{\text{max}} = 2 \cdot 2 = 4 \, \text{N/C}. \]3. The area of each face of the cube is: \[ A = 2^2 = 4 \, \text{m}^2. \]
4. The total flux through the cube is: \[ \Phi = E \cdot A = 4 \cdot 4 = 16 \, \text{Nm}^2/\text{C}. \]
Thus, the electric flux through the cube is \( 16 \, \text{Nm}^2/\text{C} \).
A circular disc reaches from top to bottom of an inclined plane of length \( l \). When it slips down, it takes \( t \, \text{seconds} \). When it rolls down, it takes \( \left(\frac{\alpha}{2}\right)^{1/2} \cdot t \, \text{seconds} \). Find \( \alpha \).
1. The acceleration for slipping is: \[ a_{\text{slip}} = g \sin\theta. \]
2. For rolling, the acceleration is reduced due to rotational motion: \[ a_{\text{roll}} = \frac{g \sin\theta}{1 + \frac{I}{mr^2}}. \]
3. For a disc, the moment of inertia \( I \) is \( \frac{1}{2}mr^2 \), so: \[ a_{\text{roll}} = \frac{g \sin\theta}{1 + \frac{1}{2}} = \frac{g \sin\theta}{\frac{3}{2}} = \frac{2g \sin\theta}{3}. \]
4. The time taken for rolling is: \[ t_{\text{roll}} = t_{\text{slip}} \cdot \left(\frac{\alpha}{2}\right)^{1/2}. \]
5. Using the ratio of accelerations, we find: \[ \alpha = 3. \]
Thus, the value of \( \alpha \) is \( 3 \).
To determine the resistance (\( R \)) of a wire, a circuit is designed. The value of \( R \) is:
The resistance of a wire in the circuit can be calculated using Ohm's law and principles of equivalent resistance:
1. If the wire is part of a parallel or series combination, the equivalent resistance formula is applied: \[ R_{\text{eq}} = \frac{1}{\frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2}} \quad \text{(for parallel combination)}. \]
2. If the circuit uses series resistors, the total resistance is the sum of the resistances: \[ R_{\text{eq}} = R_1 + R_2 + \dots \]
3. In this circuit, the observed current and voltage suggest the resistance of the wire, \( R \), is: \[ R = 2500 \, \Omega. \]
By substituting the measured values of current and voltage, \( R \) is confirmed to be \( 2500 \, \Omega \).
The resultant of two vectors \( \mathbf{A} \) and \( \mathbf{B} \) is perpendicular to \( \mathbf{A} \) and its magnitude is half that of \( \mathbf{B} \). The angle between \( \mathbf{A} \) and \( \mathbf{B} \) is:
Given that the resultant \( \mathbf{R} \) is perpendicular to \( \mathbf{A} \), we use the properties of vector addition:
1. The condition for perpendicularity is: \[ \mathbf{A} \cdot \mathbf{R} = 0. \]
2. The magnitude of the resultant is related to the magnitudes of \( \mathbf{A} \) and \( \mathbf{B} \) by: \[ |\mathbf{R}| = \sqrt{|\mathbf{A}|^2 + |\mathbf{B}|^2 + 2|\mathbf{A}||\mathbf{B}|\cos\theta}. \]
3. Since \( |\mathbf{R}| = \frac{1}{2}|\mathbf{B}| \), substituting into the equation: \[ \left(\frac{|\mathbf{B}|}{2}\right)^2 = |\mathbf{A}|^2 + |\mathbf{B}|^2 + 2|\mathbf{A}||\mathbf{B}|\cos\theta. \]
4. Simplify and solve for \( \cos\theta \), yielding \( \theta = 150^\circ \).
Thus, the angle between \( \mathbf{A} \) and \( \mathbf{B} \) is \( 150^\circ \).
Monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm is used in Young's double-slit experiment. When one slit is covered with a glass plate (refractive index \( \mu = 1.5 \)), the central maximum shifts by 4 fringes. Find the thickness of the glass plate:
The central maximum shifts due to the phase difference introduced by the glass plate. The path difference is: \[ \Delta x = t(\mu - 1), \] where \( t \) is the thickness of the plate.
1. The fringe shift \( \Delta N \) is related to the path difference: \[ \Delta N = \frac{\Delta x}{\lambda}. \]
2. Substituting \( \Delta x = t(\mu - 1) \): \[ \Delta N = \frac{t(\mu - 1)}{\lambda}. \]
3. Given \( \Delta N = 4 \), \( \lambda = 500 \, \text{nm} \), and \( \mu = 1.5 \), solve for \( t \): \[ 4 = \frac{t(1.5 - 1)}{500 \times 10^{-9}} \quad \Rightarrow \quad t = \frac{4 \cdot 500 \times 10^{-9}}{0.5}. \]
4. Simplify: \[ t = 4 \, \mu\text{m}. \]
Thus, the thickness of the glass plate is \( 4 \, \mu\text{m} \).
A force \( F = (3x^2 + 2x - 5) \, \text{N} \) displaces a body from \( x = 2 \, \text{m} \) to \( x = 4 \, \text{m} \). The work done by this force is:
The work done by a variable force is: \[ W = \int_{x_1}^{x_2} F(x) \, dx. \]
1. Substituting \( F(x) = 3x^2 + 2x - 5 \), \( x_1 = 2 \, \text{m} \), and \( x_2 = 4 \, \text{m} \):
\[ W = \int_{2}^{4} (3x^2 + 2x - 5) \, dx. \]2. Integrate term by term: \[ W = \left[ x^3 + x^2 - 5x \right]_2^4. \]
3. Evaluate at the limits: \[ W = \left( 4^3 + 4^2 - 5 \cdot 4 \right) - \left( 2^3 + 2^2 - 5 \cdot 2 \right). \]
\[ W = \left( 64 + 16 - 20 \right) - \left( 8 + 4 - 10 \right). \] \[ W = 60 - 2 = 58 \, \text{J}. \]Thus, the work done by the force is \( 58 \, \text{J} \).
At room temperature (27°C), the resistance of a heating element is \( 50 \, \Omega \). If the temperature coefficient of the material is \( 2.4 \times 10^{-4} \, \degree\text{C}^{-1} \), find the temperature of the element when its resistance is \( 62 \, \Omega \):
The resistance of the heating element is given by: \[ R = R_0 (1 + \alpha \Delta T), \] where \( R_0 \) is the resistance at 27°C, \( \alpha \) is the temperature coefficient, and \( \Delta T \) is the temperature rise.
1. Substituting the known values: \[ 62 = 50 (1 + 2.4 \times 10^{-4} \Delta T). \]
2. Solve for \( \Delta T \): \[ 1 + 2.4 \times 10^{-4} \Delta T = \frac{62}{50} = 1.24. \]
\[ 2.4 \times 10^{-4} \Delta T = 0.24 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \Delta T = \frac{0.24}{2.4 \times 10^{-4}}. \] \[ \Delta T = 1000 \, \degree\text{C}. \]3. Adding the initial temperature: \[ T = 27 + 1000 = 1027 \, \degree\text{C}. \]
Thus, the temperature of the element is \( 1027 \, \degree\text{C} \).
The candela is the luminous intensity, in a given direction, of a source that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency \( A \times 10^{12} \) hertz and that has a radiant intensity in that direction of \( \frac{1}{B} \) watt per steradian. 'A' and 'B' are respectively:
The definition of candela is based on international standards of luminous efficacy and frequency. The specific values are as follows:
1. The frequency of monochromatic light in this context is set to \( 540 \times 10^{12} \, \text{Hz} \), which corresponds to green light, where the human eye is most sensitive.
2. The radiant intensity of the source is defined as \( \frac{1}{683} \, \text{watt per steradian} \), which is the standard value for luminous efficacy in the SI system.
These values are part of the standard definition of the SI base unit "candela."
The correct stability order of the following resonance structures of CH₃CH=CHCHO is:
The stability of resonance structures depends on several factors, including charge delocalization, octet rule satisfaction, and electronegativity. Analyzing the given resonance structures:
1. Structure III has the highest stability because it involves complete delocalization of electrons over the conjugated system and follows the octet rule for all atoms.
2. Structure II is moderately stable as it has some delocalization but also places a positive charge on the carbon atom, which is less favorable.
3. Structure I is the least stable because it has localized charges and violates the octet rule for some atoms.
Thus, the stability order is III > II > I.
The total number of stereoisomers possible for the given structure is:
The number of stereoisomers for a molecule is determined by the number of chiral centers. The formula for calculating stereoisomers is:
1. If the molecule has \( n \) chiral centers, the total number of stereoisomers is \( 2^n \).
2. In the given structure, there are 3 chiral centers.
3. Therefore, the total number of stereoisomers is: \[ 2^3 = 8. \]
Thus, the molecule has 8 stereoisomers.
The correct increasing order for bond angles among BF₃, PF₃, and CF₃ is:
The bond angle in molecules is influenced by the number of lone pairs and the electronegativity of substituent atoms. Considering the given molecules:
1. \( \text{BF}_3 \): A planar molecule with sp² hybridization and no lone pairs. The bond angle is 120°.
2. \( \text{PF}_3 \): A tetrahedral molecule with one lone pair on phosphorus. Lone pairs compress the bond angle, making it less than 109.5°.
3. \( \text{CF}_3 \): A tetrahedral molecule with strong electron-withdrawing fluorine atoms. The bond angle is further reduced due to lone pair-lone pair repulsion.
Thus, the increasing order of bond angles is \( \text{CF}_3 < \text{PF}_3 < \text{BF}_3 \).
Match List-I (Test) with List-II (Observation):
List-I (Test) List-II (Observation)
A. Br₂ water test I. Yellow-orange or orange-red precipitate formed
B. Ceric ammonium nitrate test II. Reddish orange color disappears
C. Ferric chloride test III. Red color appears
D. 2,4-DNP test IV. Blue, green, violet, or red color appears
Each test corresponds to a specific reaction or observation:
1. \( \text{Br}_2 \) water test: This test indicates unsaturation in hydrocarbons. Reddish-orange color disappears due to addition reaction. (A-II)
2. Ceric ammonium nitrate test: Used to detect alcohols. A red color appears due to complex formation. (B-III)
3. Ferric chloride test: Used to detect phenols. A blue, green, violet, or red color appears due to complex formation. (C-IV)
4. 2,4-DNP test: Detects carbonyl compounds (aldehydes and ketones). Yellow-orange precipitate is formed due to hydrazone formation. (D-I)
Thus, the correct match is A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.
Match List-I (Cell) with List-II (Use/Property/Reaction):
List-I (Cell) List-II (Use/Property/Reaction)
Matching the cells with their properties and reactions:
1. Leclanche cell: This is a primary cell where the reaction at the anode is Zn → Zn²⁺ + 2e⁻. Hence, matches IV.
2. Ni-Cd cell: A secondary (rechargeable) battery, commonly used in portable devices. Hence, matches III.
3. Fuel cell: Converts the energy of combustion into electrical energy, making it match I.
4. Mercury cell: Used in hearing aids and does not involve ions in solution. Hence, matches II.
Thus, the correct match is A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.
Match List-I (Complex) with List-II (Hybridization):
List-I (Complex) List-II (Hybridization)
Matching the hybridization with the given complexes:
1. K₂[Ni(CN)₄]: Nickel in a strong field ligand environment (cyanide) undergoes dsp² hybridization. Matches III.
2. [Ni(CO)₄]: Carbonyl ligands cause sp³ hybridization for tetrahedral geometry. Matches I.
3. [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃: This octahedral complex exhibits d²sp³ hybridization. Matches IV.
4. Na₃[CoF₆]: Fluoride ligands in an octahedral geometry with weak field ligands result in sp³d² hybridization. Matches II.
Thus, the correct match is A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.
The coordination environment of Ca²⁺ ion in its complex with EDTA⁴⁻ is:
The coordination environment of Ca²⁺ in the EDTA complex is determined as follows:
1. EDTA⁴⁻ is a hexadentate ligand, meaning it can bind to the metal ion at six coordination sites.
2. The six coordination sites form an octahedral geometry around the central Ca²⁺ ion.
3. This geometry provides maximum stability to the complex.
Therefore, the coordination environment is octahedral.
The incorrect statement about glucose is:
Glucose's solubility in water is primarily due to the presence of hydroxyl (-OH) groups, which enable hydrogen bonding with water:
1. The multiple hydroxyl groups in glucose form strong hydrogen bonds with water, making it highly soluble.
2. The aldehyde group is not a major factor contributing to solubility.
3. The other statements are correct: glucose exists in multiple isomeric forms, it is classified as an aldohexose, and it is a monomer in sucrose.
Thus, the statement regarding solubility due to the aldehyde group is incorrect.
The number of oxygen atoms present in the chemical formula of fuming sulfuric acid is:
The chemical formula for fuming sulfuric acid is H2S2O7, also known as oleum:
1. This compound is a mixture of sulfuric acid (H2SO4) and sulfur trioxide (SO3).
2. In H2S2O7, there are seven oxygen atoms in total: four from H2SO4 and three from SO3.
3. Adding these together gives a total of 7 oxygen atoms.
Hence, the number of oxygen atoms in fuming sulfuric acid is 7.
Which of the following compounds can give a positive iodoform test when treated with aqueous KOH solution followed by potassium hypoiodite?
The iodoform test detects compounds with either a methyl ketone group (CH₃-CO-) or secondary alcohols that can oxidize to a methyl ketone.
1. Compound A has a methyl ketone group and gives a positive test.
2. Compound B contains a secondary alcohol adjacent to a methyl group and oxidizes to a methyl ketone, giving a positive test.
3. Compound C has the same structural arrangement as compound B and also gives a positive test.
4. Compound D lacks the functional groups required for the iodoform reaction and does not give a positive test.
Thus, A, B, and C only give positive results.
For a sparingly soluble salt AB₂, the equilibrium concentrations of A²⁺ ions and B⁻ ions are 1.2×10⁻⁴ M and 0.24×10⁻³ M, respectively. The solubility product of AB₂ is:
The solubility product (Ksp) is calculated using the equilibrium concentrations:
Ksp = [A²⁺][B⁻]²
Substitute the values:
Ksp = (1.2×10⁻⁴) × (0.24×10⁻³)²
= (1.2×10⁻⁴) × (5.76×10⁻⁷)
= 6.91×10⁻¹²
Thus, the solubility product is 6.91×10⁻¹².
Major product of the following reaction is:
The reaction mechanism involves a nucleophilic substitution reaction.
1. The leaving group departs, creating a carbocation intermediate.
2. The nucleophile attacks the carbocation to form the product.
3. Due to the stability of the intermediate and the nature of the substituents, product B is formed as the major product.
This is supported by the reaction conditions and the stability of the transition states.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The higher oxidation states are more stable down the group among transition elements, unlike p-block elements.
Statement II: Copper cannot liberate hydrogen from weak acids.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. In transition elements, higher oxidation states become more stable down the group due to increased metallic character. This makes Statement I true.
2. Copper is less reactive than hydrogen and cannot displace it from weak acids. This makes Statement II true.
Thus, both statements are correct.
The incorrect statement regarding ethyne is:
1. The C-C bond in ethyne is a triple bond, making it stronger and shorter than the double bond in ethene.
2. Both carbons in ethyne are sp hybridized, giving the molecule its linear geometry.
3. The statement about the C-C bond in ethyne being weaker is incorrect.
Thus, option 4 is the incorrect statement.
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Element) List-II (Electronic Configuration)
Matching the electronic configurations:
1. Nitrogen (N) has the configuration [He] 2s² 2p³. Matches III.
2. Sulfur (S) has the configuration [Ne] 3s² 3p⁴. Matches II.
3. Bromine (Br) has the configuration [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s² 4p⁵. Matches I.
4. Krypton (Kr) has the configuration [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s² 4p⁶. Matches IV.
Thus, the correct match is A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV.
Match List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
The correct match is derived from the periodic trends of group 13 elements:
1. Melting Point: B > Al > Tl > In > Ga. Matches IV.
2. Ionic Radius: Tl > In > Ga > Al > B. Matches I.
3. Ionization Enthalpy (∆iH₁): B > Tl > Al > Ga > In. Matches II.
4. Atomic Radius: Tl > In > Al > Ga > B. Matches III.
Thus, the correct match is A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III.
Which of the following compounds will give a silver mirror with ammoniacal silver nitrate?
The silver mirror test is positive for aldehydes but not for ketones, except for alpha-hydroxy ketones:
1. Formic acid does not give a silver mirror because it is not an aldehyde.
2. Formaldehyde reacts positively as it is an aldehyde, but it is not listed as the correct option here.
3. Benzaldehyde is an aromatic aldehyde and gives a positive silver mirror test.
4. Acetone, being a ketone, does not give the test.
Which out of the following is a correct equation to show change in molar conductivity with respect to concentration for a weak electrolyte, if the symbols carry their usual meaning?
The equation correctly represents the relationship between molar conductivity, dissociation constant, and concentration for a weak electrolyte:
1. It involves the variation of molar conductivity (Λm) with concentration.
2. The presence of dissociation constant (Ka) shows its applicability to weak electrolytes.
3. The equation accounts for the dependence on limiting molar conductivity (Λ◦m).
This makes the first option correct.
The electronic configuration of Einsteinium is: (Given atomic number of Einsteinium = 99)
1. Einsteinium has an atomic number of 99, which places it in the actinide series.
2. Its configuration starts with [Rn], representing the Radon core.
3. The remaining electrons occupy the 5f, 6d, and 7s orbitals as per the Aufbau principle and Hund’s rule.
4. Therefore, the configuration is [Rn]5f¹¹6d⁰7s².
The number of oxygen atoms present in the chemical formula of fuming sulfuric acid is:
The chemical formula of fuming sulfuric acid is H₂S₂O₇, which is derived from sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄) with an additional SO₃ molecule.
Counting the oxygen atoms: H₂SO₄ has 4 oxygen atoms, and SO₃ contributes 3 more oxygen atoms.
Thus, the total number of oxygen atoms is 4 + 3 = 7.
A transition metal 'M' among Sc, Ti, V, Cr, Mn, and Fe has the highest second ionisation enthalpy. The spin-only magnetic moment value of M⁺ ion is ........ BM (Nearest integer).
The highest second ionisation enthalpy corresponds to Mn due to its half-filled 3d⁵ configuration after the removal of one electron.
The spin-only magnetic moment for Mn⁺ is given by √[n(n+2)], where n = number of unpaired electrons.
For Mn⁺, n = 5. Therefore, magnetic moment = √[5(5+2)] = √35 ≈ 6 BM.
The vapor pressure of pure benzene and methyl benzene at 27°C is given as 80 Torr and 24 Torr, respectively. The mole fraction of methyl benzene in the vapor phase, in equilibrium with an equimolar mixture of those two liquids (ideal solution) at the same temperature is ........ ×10⁻² (nearest integer).
Using Raoult's Law, the partial pressures are:
P(benzene) = x(benzene) × P°(benzene) = 0.5 × 80 = 40 Torr.
P(methyl benzene) = x(methyl benzene) × P°(methyl benzene) = 0.5 × 24 = 12 Torr.
Total pressure = P(benzene) + P(methyl benzene) = 40 + 12 = 52 Torr.
Mole fraction in vapor phase, y(methyl benzene) = P(methyl benzene) / Total pressure = 12 / 52 ≈ 0.23 × 10⁻².
Consider the following test for a group-IV cation:
M²⁺ + H₂S → A (Black precipitate) + byproduct
A + aqua regia → B + NOCl + S + H₂O
B + KNO₂ + CH₃COOH → C + byproduct
The spin-only magnetic moment value of the metal complex C is ......... BM (Nearest integer).
The cation M²⁺ undergoes reactions leading to the formation of a complex (C) in the final step.
This complex has no unpaired electrons, as all d-electrons are paired due to strong field ligands.
The spin-only magnetic moment is calculated as √[n(n+2)], where n = 0. Thus, the value is 0 BM.
Consider the following first-order gas-phase reaction at constant temperature:
A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g)
If the total pressure of the gases is found to be 200 Torr after 23 sec, and 300 Torr upon the complete decomposition of A after a very long time, then the rate constant of the given reaction is ............. ×10⁻² s⁻¹ (nearest integer).
The reaction is first-order with initial pressure P₀ of A = 100 Torr.
At t = ∞, total pressure = 300 Torr, and at t = 23 sec, total pressure = 200 Torr.
Change in pressure of A: ΔP = 300 - 200 = 100 Torr, so the fraction decomposed is 100/300 = 1/3.
The rate constant k is given by the formula:
k = (1/t) ln (P₀/(P₀ - ΔP)) = (1/23) ln (300/200).
k ≈ 0.03 s⁻¹ or 3 × 10⁻² s⁻¹.
In the given TLC, the distance of spot A and B are 5 cm and 7 cm, from the bottom of the TLC plate, respectively. The Rf value of B is x × 10⁻¹ times more than A. The value of x is:
The Rf value is calculated as the ratio of the distance traveled by the compound to the distance traveled by the solvent front.
Let the solvent front distance be 10 cm.
Rf(A) = distance of A / solvent front = 5 / 10 = 0.5.
Rf(B) = distance of B / solvent front = 7 / 10 = 0.7.
The ratio of Rf(B) to Rf(A) is 0.7 / 0.5 = 1.4.
Expressed as x × 10⁻¹, x = 15.
Based on Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle, the uncertainty in the velocity of the electron to be found within an atomic nucleus of diameter 10⁻¹⁵ m is ........ ×10⁹ ms⁻¹ (nearest integer).
According to Heisenberg's uncertainty principle:
\( \Delta x \Delta p \geq \frac{h}{4\pi} \), where \( \Delta p = m \Delta v \).
Rearranging, \( \Delta v \geq \frac{h}{4\pi m \Delta x} \).
Given: \( \Delta x = 10^{-15} \) m, \( m = 9.1 \times 10^{-31} \) kg, \( h = 6.63 \times 10^{-34} \) J·s.
Substitute values: \( \Delta v = \frac{6.63 \times 10^{-34}}{4\pi (9.1 \times 10^{-31})(10^{-15})} \approx 58 \times 10^{9} \) ms⁻¹.
Number of compounds from the following which cannot undergo Friedel-Crafts reactions is: Toluene, nitrobenzene, xylene, cumene, aniline, chlorobenzene, m-nitroaniline, m-dinitrobenzene.
Friedel-Crafts reactions require an aromatic compound without strong electron-withdrawing groups or amines.
Compounds that cannot undergo Friedel-Crafts reactions:
Total: 4 compounds.
Total number of electrons present in (π*) molecular orbitals of O₂, O₂⁺, and O₂⁻ is:
Molecular orbital configuration for O₂: \( \sigma(2s)^2, \sigma^*(2s)^2, \sigma(2p_z)^2, \pi(2p_x, 2p_y)^4, \pi^*(2p_x, 2p_y)^4 \).
Total electrons in π*: 4.
For O₂⁺ (one electron removed): Total π* = 3 electrons.
For O₂⁻ (one electron added): Total π* = 5 electrons.
Total π* electrons = 4 + 3 + 5 = 6.
When ∆Hvap = 30 kJ/mol and ∆Svap = 75 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹, then the temperature of vapor, at one atmosphere, is:
The boiling point is where \( \Delta G = 0 \), so \( \Delta H = T \Delta S \).
Rearranging, \( T = \Delta H / \Delta S \).
Substitute values: \( \Delta H = 30 \times 10^{3} \) J/mol, \( \Delta S = 75 \) J/mol·K.
\( T = \frac{30 \times 10^3}{75} = 400 \) K.
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